Download Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 2

Answers
Physics Model
Question Paper 01:
(For Class 11 and 12
and PreMedical/Engineering
Entrance)
1.
2.
3.
4.
A ball rests upon a flat piece of paper on a table top. The
paper is pulled horizontally but quickly towards right as shown.
Relative to its initial position with respect to the table, the ball
_____.
Answer:
(
C
)
(a) remains stationary if there is no friction between the paper
and the ball.
(b) moves to the left and starts rolling backwards, i.e. to the
left if there is a friction between the paper and the ball.
(c) moves forward, i.e. in the direction in which the paper is
pulled.
Here, the correct statement/s is/are _____ .
(A) only (a)
(B) only (b)
(C) both (a) and (b) physics questions
(D) only (c)
A boy throws a cricket ball from the boundary to the wicketkeeper. If the frictional force due to air cannot be ignored, the
forces acting on the bal at a position X are represented by
_____.
Answer:
(
A
)
A convex lens is made of 3 layers of glass of 3 different
materials as in the figure. A point object is placed on its axis.
The number of images of the object are
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
A current I is flowing through the loop. The direction of the
current and the shape of the loop are as shown in the figure.
Answer:
(
A
)
Answer:
(
The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is
times______. (MA=R, MB=2R, DMA:90°)
(A)
5.
6.
B
)
, but out of the plane of the paper.
(B)
, but into the plane of the paper.
(C)
, but out of the plane of the paper.
(D)
, but 1nto the plane of the paper.
A point object O is kept at a distance of OP = u. The radius of
curvature of the spherical surface APB is CP = R. The
refractive indexes of the media are n1 and n2 which are as
shown in the diagram. Then,
a) if n1 > n2, image is virtual for all values of 'u'.
b) if n2 = 2n1, image is virtual when R > u.
c) the image is real for all values of u, n1 and n2.
Here, the correct statement/s is/are ______.
(A) only a)
(B) a), b) and c)
(C) only b)
(D) both a) and b)
A, B and C are the parallel sided transparent media of
refractive index n1, n2 and n3 respectively. They are arranged
as shown in the figure. A ray is incident at an angle  on the
surface of separation of A and B which is as shown in the
figure. After the refraction into the medium B, the ray grazes
the surface of separation of the media B and C. Then, Sin  =
______.
Answer:
(
D
)
Answer:
(
C
)
(A)
(B)
(C)
7.
8.
(D)
All capacitors used in the diagram are identical and each is of
capacitance C. Then the effective capacitance between the
points A and B is ______.
(A) C
(B) 3 C
(C) 1.5C
(D) 6 C
An electron enters the space between the plates of a charged
capacitor as shown. The charge density on the plate is .
Electric intensity in the space between the plates is E. A
uniform magnetic field B also exists in that space
perpendicular to the direction of E.
The electron moves perpendicular to both
any change in direction.
and
without
The time taken by the electron to travel a distance l in that
space is ______.
(A)
(B)
Answer:
(
C
)
Answer:
(
A
)
(C)
9.
10.
(D)
An ideal gas is taken via path ABCA as shown in figure. The
network done in the whole cycle is
Answer:
(
B
)
(A) 3P1 V1
(B) 3 P1 V1
(C) 6 P1 V1
(D) zero
Assume the graph of specific binding energy versus mass
number is as shown in the figure. Using this graph, select the
correct choice from the following :
Answer:
(
D
)
(A) Fusion of two nuclei of mass number lying in the range of
1 <A < 50 will release energy.
(B) Fission of the nucleus of mass number lying in the range
of 100 < A < 200 will release energy when broken into two
fragments.
(C) Fusion of two nuclei of mass number lying in the range of
100 < A < 200 will release energy.
(D) Fusion of two nuclei of mass number lying in the range of
51 < A < 100 will release energy.
Physics Model Question
Paper 2: (For Class 11
and 12 and PreMedical/Engineering
Entrance)
Answers
1.
B1, B2 and B3 are the three identical bulbs connected
to a battery of steady e.m.f. with key K closed.
What happens to the brightness of the bulbs B 1 and
Answer:
(
A
B2 when the key is opened?
)
(A) Brightness of the bulb, B1 decreases and that of
B2increases.
(B) Brightness of the bulbs B1 and B2 decreases.
(C) Brightness of the bulbs B1 increases and that of
B2decreases.
(D) Brightness of the bulbs B1 and B2 increases.
2.
Current 'I' is flowing in a conductor shaped as
shown in the figure. The radius of the curved part is
r and the length of straight portion is very large.
The value of the magnetic field at the centre O will
be
Answer:
(
A
)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3.
Figure shows a mixture of blue, green and red
colored rays incident normally on a right angled
prism. The critical angles of the material of the
prism for red, green and blue are 46, 44and
43 respectively. The arrangement will separate
(A) red colour from blue and green
Answer:
(
A
)
(B) blue colour from red and green
(C) green colour from red and blue
(D) all the three colours.
4.
Identify the logic operation performed by the circuit
given here.
Answer:
(
C
)
(A) NOT
(B) NAND
(C) OR
(D) NOR
5.
In the circuit given here, the points A, B and C are
70 V, zero, 10 V respectively. Then
G
(A) currents in the paths AD, DB and DC are in the
ratio of 1 : 2 : 3.
(B) currents in the paths AB, DB and DC are in the
ratio of 3 : 2: 1.
(C) the point D will be at a potential of 60 V.
(D) the point D will be at a potential of 20 V.
6.
PQ and RS are long parallel conductors separated by
certain distance. M is the midpoint between
them (see the figure).The net magnetic field at M
is B. Now, the current 2A is switched off. The field
at M now becomes ______.
Answer:
(
D
)
(A)
(B) 3B
(C) 2B
(D) 3
7.
The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper is 9
times that of steel. In the composite cylindrical bar
shown in the figure, what will be the temperature at
the junction of copper and steel?
Answer:
(
A
)
(A) 75°C
(B) 67°C
(C) 25°C
(D) 33°C
8.
The equivalent resistance between the points A and
B will be (each resistance is 15 )
Answer:
(
B
)
(A) 30 
(B) 8 
(C) 10 
(D) 40 
9.
The moment of inertia of a circular disc of radius 2
m and mass 1 kg about an axis passing through the
centre of mass but perpendicular to the plane of the
disc is 2 kgm2. Its moment of inertia about an axis
parallel to this axis but passing through the edge of
the disc is ______ (See the given figure).
Answer:
(
B
)
(A) 10 kgm2
(B) 6 kgm2
(C) 8 kgm2
(D) 4 kg m2
10.
The resultant force on the current loop PQRS due to
a long current carrying conductor will be
Answer:
(
D
)
(A) 104 N
(B) 3.6  104 N
(C) 1.8  104 N
(D) 5  104 N
Physics Model Question Paper 3: (For Class 11 and 12 and
Pre-Medical/Engineering Entrance)
Answers
Q. 1.
The total energy stored in the condenser system shown in the figure will be
Answer: (C)
(A) 2 J
(B) 4 J
(C) 8 J
(D) 16 J
Q. 2.
Force F on a particle moving in a straight line varies with distance d as shown
in the figure. The work done on the particle during its displacement of 12 m is
Answer: (A)
(A) 13 J
(B) 18 J
(C) 21 J
(D) 26 J
Q. 3.
The value of alternating emf E in the given circuit will be
Answer: (C)
(A) 220 V
(B) 140 V
(C) 100 V
(D) 20 V
Q. 4.
There is a uniform electric field of intensity E which is as shown. How many
labeled points have the same electric potential as the fully shaded point?
Answer: (D)
(A) 8
(B) 11
(C) 2
(D) 3
Q. 5.
Three voltmeters A, B and C having resistances R, 1.5 R and 3R respectively
are used in a circuit as shown. When a P.D. is applied between X and Y, the
reading of the voltmeters are V1, V2 and V3 respectively. Then ______.
Answer: (C)
(A) V1 > V2 > V3
(B) V1 > V2 = V3
(C) V1 = V2 = V3
(D) V1 < V2 = V3
Q. 6.
Four electric charges +q, +q, –q and –q are placed at the corners of a square
of side 2L (see figure). The electric potential at point A, midway between the
two charges +q and +q, is
(A) Zero
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: (D)
Q. 7.
To get an output y = 1 from the circuit shown, the inputs A, B and C must be
respectively
Answer: (C)
(A) 0, 1, 0
(B) 1, 0, 0
(C) 1, 0, 1
(D) 1, 1, O
Q. 8.
Two small spheres of masses M1, and M2 are suspended by weightless
insulating threads of lengths L1, and L2. The spheres carry charges of Q 1, and
Q2 respectively. The spheres are suspended such that they are in level with
one another and the threads are inclined to the vertical at angles of 8, and 0,
as shown. Which one of the following conditions is essential, if , = 2?
Answer: (D)
(A) Q1 = Q2
(B) L1 = L2
(C) M1 ≠ M2, but Q1 = Q2
(D) M1 = M2
Q. 9.
Two thick wires and two thin wires, all of same material and same length, form
a square in three different ways P, Q and R as shown in the figure. With
correct connections shown, the magnetic field due to the current flow, at the
centre of the loop will be zero in case of ______.
Answer: (B)
(A) P and Q only
(B) P and R only
(C) Q and R only
(D) P only
Q. 10.
A current carrying closed loop in the form of a right angle isosceles triangle
ABC is placed in a uniform magnetic field acting along AB. If the magnetic
force on the arm BC is
, the force on the arm AC is
Answer: (C)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Physics Model Question Paper 4: (For Class 11 and 12 and Pre- Answers
Medical/Engineering Entrance)
Q 1.
A and B are two infinitely long straight parallel conductors. C is another straight
conductor of length 1 m kept parallel to A and B as shown in the figure. Then the
force experienced by C is
(A) towards B equal to 0.6 
(B) towards A equal to 5.4 
(C) towards B equal to 5.4 
(D) towards A equal to 0.6 
105 N
105 N
105 N
105 N
Q 2.
A parallel plate capacitor with air as the dielectric has capacitance C. A slab of
dielectric constant K and having the same thickness as the separation between the
plates is introduced so as to fill one-fourth of the capacitor as shown in the figure.
The new capacitance will be
(A)
(B)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (D)
(C)
(D)
Q 3.
If power dissipated in the 9  resistor in the circuit shown is 36 Watt, the
potential difference across the 2 resistor is
Answer: (D)
(A) 2 Volt
(B) 4 Volt
(C) 8 Volt
(D) 10 Volt
Q 4.
In the Wheatstone's network given below, P = 10 , Q = 20, R = 15 , S =
30The current passing through the battery (of negligible internal resistance) is
Answer: (D)
(A) 0.72 A
(B) 0.18 A
(C) 0 A
(D) 0.36 A
Q 5.
Symbolic representation of four logic gates are shown as
Answer: (A)
Pick out which ones are for AND, NAND and NOT gates, respectively:
(A) (ii), (iv) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii), (ii) and (i)
(D) (iii), (ii) and (iv)
Q 6.
The current passing through the ideal ammeter in the circuit given below is
Answer: (C)
(A) 0.5 A
(B) 0.75 A
(C) 1 A
(D) 1.25 A
Q 7.
Three long straight wires A, B and C are carrying currents as shown in figure.
Then the resultant force on B is directed _______.
Answer: (B)
(A) towards A.
(B) towards C.
(C) perpendicular to the plane of paper and outward.
(D) perpendicular to the plane of paper and inward.
Q 8.
Two identical rods AC and CB made of two different metals having thermal
conductivities in the ratio 2 : 3 are kept in contact with each other at the end C as
shown in the figure. A is at 100°C and B is at 25°C. Then the junction C is at
Answer: (D)
(A) 50°C
(B) 75°C
(C) 60°C
(D) 5s°C
Q 9.
Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of maximum kinetic
energy (EK) of the emitted electrons with frequency  in photoelectric effect
correctly?
Answer: (D)
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Q 10.
Effective capacitance between A and B in the figure shown is (all capacitances are
in µ F)
Answer: (D)
(A) 21 µ F
(B) 23 µ F
(C)
µF
(D)
µF
Physics Model Question Paper 5: (For Class 11 and 12 and Answers
Pre-Medical/Engineering Entrance)
(1)
A body of mass M starts sliding down on the inclined plane where the
critical angle is ACB = 30° as shown in figure. The coefficient of kinetic
friction will be
Answer:
(C)
(A) Mg/
(B)
Mg
(C)
(D) None of these
(2)
A neutron, a proton, an electron and an  - particle enter a region of
uniform magnetic field with the same velocities. The magnetic field is
perpendicular and directed into the plane of the paper. The tracks of the
particles are labelled in the figure. The electron follows the track
Answer:
(A)
(A) D
(B) C
(C) B
(D) A
(3)
An n-p-n transistor can be considered to be equivalent to two diodes,
connected. Which of the following figures is the CORRECT ONE?
Answer:
(C)
(4)
Block A of mass 2 kg is placed over block B of mass 8 kg. The combination
is placed over a rough horizontal surface. Coefficient of friction between B
and the floor is 0.5. Coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.4. A
horizontal force of 10 N is applied on block B. The force of friction between
A and B is ______.
(A) zero
(B) 50 N
(C) 40 N
(D) 100 N
(5)
Consider the following statements regarding the network shown in the
figure.
a) The equivalent resistance of the network between points A and B is
independent of value of G.
b) The equivalent resistance of the network between points A and B is
c) The current through G is zero.
Which of the above statements is/are TRUE?
Answer:
(A)
Answer:
(A)
R.
(A) (a), (b) and ( c)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (b) alone
(D) (a) alone
(6)
Consider two insulated chambers (A, B) of same volume connected by a
closed knob, S. 1 mole of perfect gas is confined in chamber A. What is the
change in entropy of gas when knob S is opened?
R = 8.31 J mol–1K–1.
(A) 1.46 J/K
(B) 3.46 J/K
(C) 5.46 J/K
(D) 7.46 J/K
(7)
Current through ABC and A'B'C' is I. What is the magnetic field at
P? BP = PB' = r (Here C'B' PBC are collinear)
(A) B =
(B) B =
Answer:
(C)
Answer:
(B)
(C) B =
(D) Zero
(8)
Five equal resistance, each of resistance R, are connected as shown in
figure below. A battery of V volt is connected between A and B. The current
flowing in FC will be
Answer:
(C)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(9)
In the case of forward biasing of a p-n junction diode, which one of the
following figures correctly depicts the direction of conventional current
(indicated by an arrow mark)?
(10)
In the circuit shown, the currents i1 and i2 are ______.
Answer:
(A)
Answer:
(C)
(A) i1 = 3 A, i2 = 1 A
(B) i1 = 1 A, i2 = 3 A
(C) i1 = 0.5 A, i2 = 1.5 A
(D) i1 = 1.5 A, i2 = 0.5 A
Circular motion’s questions:
No.
Question
Answers(Click here to see answers)
1
A body is allowed to slide on a frictional less track from rest under-gravity. The track ends in a circular
loop of diameter D. What should be the minimum height of the body in terms of D, so that it may
successfully complete the loop?
(a)
D
(b)
D
(c) D
(d) 2D
2
A body is moving along a circular path with variable speed. It has
(a) a radial acceleration
(b) a tangential acceleration
(c) zero acceleration
(d) both tangential and radial accelerations
3
A body is traveling in a circle at constant speed. It
(a) has constant velocity.
(b) has no acceleration
(c) has an inward acceleration
(d) has an outward radial acceleration
4
A body of mass 100 gram, tied at the end of a string of length 3 m rotates in a vertical circle and is just
able to complete the circle. If the tension in the string at its lowest point is 3.7 N, then its angular
velocity will be ______ (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 4 rad/s
(b) 3 rad/s
(c) 2 rad/s
(d) 1 rad/s
5
A body of mass 500 gram is rotating in a vertical circle of radius 1 m. What is the difference in its kinetic
energies at the top and the bottom of the circle?
(a) 4.9 J
(b) 19.8 J
(c) 2.8 J
(d) 9.8 J
6
A body of mass m is suspended from a string of length l. What is the minimum horizontal velocity that
should be given to the body in its lowest position so that it may complete full revolution in the vertical
plane with the point of suspension at the center of circle?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
7
A body of mass m performing UCM with frequency n along the circumference of circle having radius r,
force is given by
(a) 4nm2
(b) 42n2m
(c) 2n2mr
(d)
nm2
8
A bucket containing water is tied to one end of a rope of length 2.5 m and rotated about the other end in
a vertical circle. What should be the minimum velocity of the bucket at the highest point, so that the
water in the bucket will not spill? (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 2.5 m/s
(b) 4 m/s
(c) 5 m/s
(d) 7 m/s
9
A bucket tied at the end of a 1.6 m long string is whirled in a vertical circle with a constant speed. What
should be the minimum speed so that the water from the bucket does not spill when the bucket is at the
highest position?
(a) 4 m/sec.
(b) 6.25 m/sec.
(c) 16 m/sec.
(d) None of these
10
A can filled with water is revolved in a vertical circle of radius 4 metre and the water does not fall down.
The time period of revolution will be
(a) 1 sec
(b) 10 sec
(c) 8 sec
(d) 4 sec
11
A car has a linear velocity v on a circular track of radius r. If its speed is increasing at a rate of a m/s 2,
then its resultant acceleration will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
12.
A car is moving in a circular track of radius 10 metre with a constant speed of 10 m/sec. A plumb bob is
suspended from the roof of the car by a light rigid rod of 1 metre long. The angle made by the rod with
the track is
(a) zero
(b) 30
(c) 45
(d) 60
13
A car is moving in horizontal circular track of radius 10 m, with a constant speed of 36 km/hour. A simple
pendulum is suspended from the roof of the car. If the length of the simple pendulum is 1 m, what is the
angle made by the string with the track?
(a) 30
(b) 45
(c) 60
(d) 90
14
A car is moving on a circular path and takes a turn. If R1 and R2 are the reactions on the inner and outer
wheels respectively, then
(a) R1 = R2
(b) R1 < R2
(c) R1 > R2
(d) R1  R2
15
A car is moving with a speed of 30 m/s on a circular path of radius 500 m. Its speed is increasing at the
rate of 2 m/s2. The acceleration of the car is
(a) 9.8 m/s2
(b) 1.8 m/2
(c) 2 m/s2
(d) 2.7 m/s2
15
A car moving on a horizontal road may be thrown out of the road is taking a turn
(a) by the gravitational force
(b) due to the lack of proper centripetal force
(c) due to the lack of frictional force between the tire and the road
(d) due to the reaction of the ground
17
A car of mass 1000 kg moves on a circular road with a speed of 20 m/s. Its direction changes by
90 after traveling 628 m on the road. The centripetal force acting on the car is
(a) 500 N
(b) 1000 N
(c) 1500 N
(d) 2000 N
18
A car of mass 800 kg moves on a circular track of radius 40 m. If the coefficient of friction is 0.5, then
maximum velocity with which the car can move is
(a) 7 m/s
(b) 14 m/s
(c) 8 m/s
(d) 12 m/s
19
A car sometimes overturns while taking a turn. When it overturns, it is
(a) the inner wheel which leaves the ground first
(b) the outer wheel which leaves the ground first
(c) both the wheel leave the ground simultaneously
(d) either inner wheel or the outer wheel leaves the ground
20
A coin kept on a rotating gramophone disc just begins to slip if its centre is at a distance of 8 cm from
the centre of the disc. The angular velocity of the gramophone disc is then doubled. Through what
distance, the coin should be shifted towards the centre, so that the coin will just slip?
(a) 2 cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 6 cm
(d) 16 cm
21
A cyclist goes round a circular path of circumference 343 m in
s. The angle made by him, with the
vertical is
(a) 42
(b) 43
(c) 44
(d) 45
22
A cyclist is moving in a circular track of radius 80 m, with a velocity of 36 km/hour. In order to keep his
balance, he has to lean inwards from the vertical through an angle . If g = 10 m/s2, then  is given by
(a) tan1 (2)
(b) tan1 (4)
(c) tan1
(d) tan1
23
A cyclist turns around a curve at 15 miles per hour. If he turns at double the speed, the tendency of
overturn is
(a) doubled
(b) quadrupled
(c) halved
(d) unchanged
24
A fighter aeroplane flying in the sky dives with a speed of 360 km/hr in a vertical circle of radius 200 m.
Weight of the pilot sitting in it is 75 kg. What will be the value of force with which the pilot presses his
seat when the aeroplane is at highest position (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 3000 N
(b) 1500 N
(c) (75  g)N
(d) 300 N
25
A frictional track ABCDE ends in a circular loop of radius R, body slides down the track from point A which
is at a height h of 5 cm. Maximum value of R for the body to successfully complete the loop is:
(a) 5 cm
(b)
cm
(c)
cm
(d) 2 cm
Answers to Circular Motion, Paper 1 (Top)
1. Answer: B
2. Answer: D
Answers to Circular Motion, Paper 1 (Top)
1. Answer: B
2. Answer: D
3. Answer: C
4. Answer: B
5. Answer: D
6. Answer: D
7. Answer: B
8. Answer: C
9. Answer: A
10. Answer: D
11. Answer: A
12. Answer: C
13. Answer: B
14. Answer: B
15. Answer: D
16. Answer: C
17. Answer: B
18. Answer: B
19. Answer: A
20. Answer: A
21. Answer: D
22. Answer: D
23. Answer: B
24. Answer: B
25. Answer: D
3. Answer: C
4. Answer: B
5. Answer: D
6. Answer:
No.
Question
1
A man whirls a stone of mass 250 gram, tied at the end of a string of length 2 m in a horizontal
circle and at a height of 5 m from the ground. The string breaks and the stone flies off tangenitially
and strikes the ground at a horizontal distance of 10 m from the man. What was the magnitude of
the centripetal acceleration of the stone, when it was moving in the circle? (g = 10 m/s 2)
(a)
50 m/s2
(b)
40 m/s2
(c)
30 m/s2
(d)
25 m/s2
A mass of 5 kg is tied to a string of length 1.0 m and is rotated in vertical circle with a uniform
speed of 4 m/s. The tension in the string will be 130 N when the mass is at (g = 10 m/s 2)
(a)
highest point
(b)
mid way
(c)
bottom
(d)
cannot be justified
A mass suspended on a frictional less horizontal surface. It is attached to a string and rotates
about a fixed centre at an angular velocity 0. If length of the string and angular velocity are
doubled the tension in the string which was initially T 0 is now
(a)
T0
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
Answers(Click
here to see
answers)
(b)
(c)
4 T0
(d)
8 T0
A metal sphere of mass 0.1 kg is attached to an inextensible string of length 130 cm whose upper
end is fixed to the rigid support. If the sphere is made to describe a horizontal circle of radius 50
cm, the time for its one revolution is near about
(a)
1.2 sec
(b)
2.2 sec
(c)
1.5 sec
(d)
3 sec
A motor cyclist loops a vertical circular loop of diameter 18 m, without dropping down, even at the
highest point of the loop. What should be his minimum speed at the lowest point of the loop?
(a)
10 m/s
(b)
16 m/s
(c)
21 m/s
(d)
30 m/s
A motor cyclist moving with a velocity of 75 km/hr on a flat road takes a turn on the road at a
point where the radius of curvature of the road is 20 m. If the g is 10 m/s2 the maximum angle of
banking with vertical for no skidding is
(a)
tan1 (6)
(b)
tan1 (2)
(c)
tan1 (12)
(d)
tan1 (4)
A particle is acted upon by a force of constant magnitude which is always perpendicular to the
velocity of the particle. The motion takes place in a plane. It follows that
(a)
its velocity is constant
(b)
its acceleration is constant
(c)
its motion is linear
(d)
its motion is circular
A particle is moving along a circular path. Let v, ,  and ac be its linear velocity, angular velocity,
angular acceleration and centripetal acceleration respectively. Which is the wrong statement from
the followings?
(a)
(b)
(c)
9
10
(d)
A particle is performing a U.C.M. Which is the wrong statement regarding its motion?
(a)
The velocity vector is tangential to the circle
(b)
The acceleration vector is tangential to the circle
(c)
The acceleration vector is directed towards the centre of the circle
(d)
The velocity and acceleration vectors are perpendicular to each other
A particle is performing U.C.M. along a circular path of radius r, with a uniform speed v. Its
tangential and radial acceleration are
(a)
zero and infinite
(b)
11
12
13
and zero
(c)
zero and
(d)
r2 and infinite
A particle moves in a circular path of radius r, in half of its period. Its displacement and distance
covered are,
(a)
2r, 2r
(b)
r
, r
(c)
2r, r
(d)
r, r
A particle moving in a circle of radius 25 cm at 2 revolutions per second. The acceleration of the
particle is S.I. unit is
(a)
42
(b)
32
(c)
22
(d)
2
A particle of mass ‘m’ moves with a constant speed along a circular path of radius r under the
action of a force F. Its speed is given by
(a)
(b)
(c)
14
(d)
A particle of mass m is executing uniform circular motion on a path of radius r. If P is the
magnitude of its linear momentum, then, the radial force acting on the particle is,
(a)
pmr
(b)
(c)
15
16
17
(d)
A particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle of radius R with uniform speed v. When it
moves from one point to a diametrically opposite point its
(a)
kinetic energy changes by Mv2/4
(b)
momentum does not change
(c)
momentum changes by 2 Mv2
(d)
kinetic energy changes by Mv2
A particle P is moving in a circle of radius ‘a’ with uniform speed v. C is the centre of the circle and
AP is diameter. The angular velocity of P about A and C are in the ratio
(a)
1:1
(b)
1:2
(c)
2:1
(d)
4:1
A particle rests on the top of a hemisphere of radius R. The smallest horizontal velocity that must
be imparted to the particle if it is to leave the hemisphere without sliding down is
(a)
(b)
(c)
18
19
(d)
A particle revolves round a circular path. The acceleration of the particle is
(a)
along the circumference of the circle
(b)
along the tangent
(c)
along the radius
(d)
zero
A person with his hands in his pocket is skating on ice at the rate of 10 m/s and describes a circle
of radius 50 m. What is his inclination to the vertical? (g = 10 m/s2)
(a)
tan1
(b)
tan1
(c)
tan1
(d)
tan1
20
21
A pulley one metre in diameter rotating at 600 r.p.m. is brought to rest in 80 sec. by a constant
force of friction on its shaft. How many revolutions does it makes before coming to rest?
(a)
200
(b)
300
(c)
400
(d)
500
A satellite has mass m speed v and radius r, the force acting on it is:
(a)
zero
(b)
mrv2
(c)
22
(d)
A simple pendulum of effective length ‘l’ is kept in equilibrium in vertical position. What horizontal
velocity should be given to its bob, so that it just completes a vertical circular motion?
(a)
(b)
(c)
23
(d)
A simple pendulum of mass m and length l stands in equilibrium in vertical position. The maximum
horizontal velocity that should be given to the bob at the bottom so that it completes on revolution
is
(a)
(b)
(c)
24
25
(d)
A small body attached at the end of an inextensible string completes a vertical circle, then its
(a)
angular velocity remains constant
(b)
angular momentum remains constant
(c)
total mechanical energy remains constant
(d)
linear momentum remains constant
A small body is to be moved inside a vertical circular tube of radius l. What minimum velocity
should be imparted to it, as its lowest point so that it can just complete the vertical circle?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
D
7. Answer: B
8. Answer: C
9. Answer: A
10. Answer: D1. Ans.: a
2. Ans.: c
3. Ans.: d
4. Ans.: b
5. Ans.: c
6. Ans.: b
7. Ans.: d
8. Ans.: c
9. Ans.: b
10. Ans.: c
11. Ans.: c
12. Ans.: a
13. Ans.: a
14. Ans.: d
15. Ans.: b
16. Ans.: b
17. Ans.: a
18. Ans.: c
19. Ans.: b
20. Ans.: c
21. Ans.: d
22. Ans.: a
23. Ans.: d
24. Ans.: c
25. Ans.: d
1.
2.
3.
4.
A stone attached to a rope of length l = 80 cm is rotated with a speed of 240 r.p.m. At the moment
when the velocity is directed vertically upwards, the rope breaks. To what height does the stone
rise further?
(a)
1.2 m
(b)
41.2 m
(c)
20.6 m
(d)
24.9 m
A stone is tied to one end of a string. Holding the other end, the string is whirled in a horizontal
plane with progressively increasing speed. It breaks at some speed because
(a)
gravitational forces of the earth is greater than the tension in string.
(b)
the required centripetal force is greater than the tension sustained by the string.
(c)
the required centripetal force is less than the tension in the string.
(d)
the centripetal force is greater than the weight of the stone.
A stone of mass 250 gram, attached at the end of a string of length 1.25 m is whirled in a
horizontal circle at a speed of 5 m/s. What is the tension in the string?
(a)
2.5 N
(b)
5N
(c)
6N
(d)
8N
A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both
the ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform
angular velocity . The force exerted by the liquid at the outer end is
(a)
5.
(b)
ML2
(c)
(d)
A van is moving with speed of 108 km/hr. on level road where coefficient of friction between tires
and road 0.5. For the safe driving of van the minimum radius of curvature of the road will be (g =
10 m/s2)
(a)
80 m
(b)
40 m
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
(c)
180 m
(d)
20 m
A weightless thread can bear tension upto 3.7 kg weight. A stone of mass 500 gram is tied at its
one end and revolved in a vertical circular path of radius 4 m. If g = 10 m/s 2, then the maximum
angular velocity of the stone is (radians/sec) will be
(a)
3
(b)
4
(c)
5
(d)
6
A wheel is subjected to uniform angular acceleration about its axis. Initially its angular velocity is
zero. In the first two seconds, it rotates through 1 and in next two seconds, it rotates through 2.
What is the ratio 2 / 1?
(a)
1
(b)
2
(c)
3
(d)
4
A wheel of diameter 20 cm is rotating at 600 rpm. The linear velocity of particle at its rim is
(a)
6.28 cm/s
(b)
62.8 cm/s
(c)
0.628 cm/s
(d)
628.4 cm/s
A wheel rotates with a constant angular velocity of 600 r.p.m. What is the angle through which the
wheel rotates in one second?
(a)
5 radian
(b)
20 radian
(c)
15 radian
(d)
10 radian
An aeroplane is taking a turn in a horizontal plane
(a)
its remains horizontal
(b)
it inclines inward
(c)
it inclines outward
(d)
its wings becomes vertical
An electric fan has blades of length 30 cm as measured from the axis of rotation. If the fan is
rotating at 1200 r.p.m., then the acceleration of a point on the tip of the blade is (take 2 = 10)
(a)
1600 m/s2
(b)
3200 m/s2
2
(c)
4800 m/s
(d)
6000 m/s2
An electron revolve around the nucleolus the radius of the circular orbit is r to double the kinetic
energy of electron its orbit radius of
(a)
13.
14.
(b)

r
(c)
r
(d)

r
Angle between Centripetal acceleration and radius vector is
(a)
90
(b)
180
(c)
0
(d)
45
Angular velocity of an hour hand of a watch
(a)
rad/s
(b)
rad/s
(c)
15.
r
rad/s
(d)
rad/s
At a curved path of the road, the road bed is raised a little on the side away from the centre of the
curved path. The slope of the road bed is given by
(a)
tan  =
16.
(b)
tan  =
(c)
tan  =
(d)
tan  =
Centripetal force in vector form can be expressed as
(a)
(b)
(c)
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
(d)
For a particle performing a U.C.M. the acceleration is
(a)
constant in direction
(b)
constant in magnitude but not in direction
(c)
constant in magnitude and direction
(d)
constant in neither magnitude nor in direction
If a cycle wheel of radius 0.4 m completes one revolution in one second, then acceleration of the
cycle is
(a)
0.4  m/s2
(b)
0.8  m/s2
(c)
0.4 2 m/s2
(d)
1.6 2 m/s2
If a particle moves with uniform speed that its tangential acceleration will be
(a)
zero
(b)
constant
(c)
infinite
(d)
none of these
If a stone of mass m is rotated in a vertical circular path of radius 1 m, the critical velocity will be
(a)
6.32 m/s
(b)
3.13 m/s
(c)
9.48 m/s
(d)
12.64 m/s
If T1 and T2 are the periods of a simple pendulum and a conical pendulum respectively, of the same
length, then
(a)
T1 = T2
(b)
T1 > T2
(c)
T1 < T2
(d)
T1 =
In a tension of a string is 6.4 N. Load at the lower end of a string is 0.1 kg the length of string is 6
m then find its angular velocity? (g = 10 m/sec2)
(a)
4 rad/sec
(b)
3 rad/sec
(c)
2 rad/sec
(d)
1 rad/sec
In a vertical circle of radius r at what point in its path, a particle has a tension equal to zero?
(a)
Highest point
(b)
Lowest point
(c)
Any point
(d)
An horizontal point
In an atom two electrons move round the nucleus in circular orbits of radii R and 4R respectively,
the ratio of time taken by them to complete one revolution is
(a)
25.
(b)
(c)
In cycle
cycle is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
11. Answer: A
12.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25. Ans.: (d)
13. Answer: B
14. An
1.
2.
3.
(d)
wheel of radius 0.4 m completes one revolution in one second, then acceleration of the
0.4 m/s2
0.8 m/s2
0.4 2m/s2
1.6 2m/s2
Answer:
C1.
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
Ans.:
In order to cause something to move in a circular path, we must apply
(a)
Inertial force
(b)
Centripetal force
(c)
Centrifugal force
(d)
Gravitational force
In the case of uniform circular motion, which one of the following physical quantities does not
remain constant?
(a)
mass
(b)
speed
(c)
linear momentum
(d)
kinetic energy
Kinetic energy of a particle moving along the circle is ax2. If R is the radius of the circle. The
radial force on the particle is
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)
4.
5.
(a)
2
(b)
(c)
2ax
(d)
2
Maximum safe speed does not depend upon
(a)
radius of curvature
(b)
angle of inclination with the horizontal
(c)
mass of the vehicle
(d)
acceleration due to gravity
The angle between radius vector and centripetal acceleration is
(a)
(b)
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
rad
2 rad
(c)
rad
(d)
 rad
The angle described in 2 sec by an object rotating at a rate of 600 rpm is
(a)
20  rad
(b)
40  rad
(c)
5  rad
(d)
zero
The angular speed of a flywheel making 180 r.p.m. is
(a) 2 rad/s
(b) 4 rad/s
(c) 6 rad/s
(d) 32 rad/s
The angular velocity of a fly wheel increases from 0 to 40 rad/s, in 8 seconds. What is its total
angular displacement in this time?
(a)
80 rad
(b)
160 rad
(c)
200 rad
(d)
120 rad
The angular velocity of a wheel is 70 rad/sec. If the radius of the wheel is 0.5 m, then linear
velocity of the wheel is
(a)
10 m/s
(b)
20 m/s
(c)
35 m/s
(d)
70 m/s
The banking angle is independent of
(a)
velocity of vehicle
(b)
mass of vehicle
(c)
radius of curvature of road
(d)
height of inclination
The driver of a car traveling at velocity v suddenly sees a broad wall in front of him at a distance
a. He should
(a)
break sharply
12.
13.
(b)
turn sharply
(c)
both a and b
(d)
none of the above
The earth (mass = 6  1024 kg), revolves around the sun with an angular velocity of 2  107
rad/s, in a circular orbit of radius 1.5  108 k. The force exerted by the sun on the earth is
(a)
zero
(b)
18  1020 N
(c)
27  1030 N
(d)
3.6  1022 N
The K.E. (K) of a particle moving along a circle of radius r depends upon the distance covered
(s) as K = as2. The centripetal force acting on the particle is given by
(a)
2as
(b)
2as2
(c)
14.
15.
16.
17.
(d)
The maximum safe speed for a vehicle taking a turn on a curved banked road, does not depend
upon
(a)
acceleration due to gravity
(b)
mass of the vehicle
(c)
angle of inclination () with the horizontal
(d)
radius of curvature of the track
The maximum safe speed of a vehicle on a circular tract is 15 km/hr. When the track becomes
wet, the maximum safe speed is 10 km/hr. The ratio of coefficient of friction of the dry track to
that of Wet track is
(a)
9:4
(b)
3:2
(c)
2:3
(d)
1.5 : 1
The maximum velocity with which a driver must drive his car on a flat curved road of radius of
curvature 150 m and coefficient of friction 0.6, to avoid the skidding of his car is (take g = 10
m/s2)
(a)
60 m/s
(b)
50 m/s
(c)
40 m/s
(d)
30 m/s
The radius of a curved path on a national highway is R. The width of a road is b. The outer edge
of the road is raised by ‘h’ w.r.t. the inner edge, so that a car with a velocity V can safely pass
over it. What is the value of h?
(a)
(b)
(c)
18.
(d)
The ratio of angular speed of minute hand and hour hand of a watch is
19.
(a)
6: 1
(b)
1: 6
(c)
1 : 12
(d)
12 : 1
The rider in circus rides along a circular track in a vertical plane. The minimum velocity at the
highest point of the track will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
(d)
What is the apparent weight of a body of mass m attached at the end of a string and which is
just completing the loop in a vertical circle, at the lowest point in its path?
(a)
0
(b)
mg
(c)
3 mg
(d)
6 mg
What is the smallest radius of a curve on a horizontal road, at which a cyclist can travel if his
speed is 36 km/hour and the angle of inclination is 45? (g = 10 m/s2)
(a)
25 m
(b)
20 m
(c)
15 m
(d)
10 m
What will be the maximum speed of a car on a road turn of radius 30 m, if the coefficient of
friction between the tyres and the road is 0.4 (Take g = 9.8 m/s2
(a)
10.84 m/s
(b)
9.84 m/s
(c)
8.84 m/s
(d)
6.84 m/s
When a vehicle is moving along the horizontal curve road, centripetal force is provided by
(a)
vertical component of normal reaction
(b)
horizontal component of normal reaction
(c)
frictional force between road surface and tyres
(d)
all of these
When particle revolves with uniform speed on a circular path
(a)
no force acts on it
(b)
no acceleration acts on it
(c)
no work is done by it
(d)
its velocity is constant
When the angular velocity of a uniformly rotating body has increased thrice the resultant of
forces applied to it increases by 60 N. find the acceleration of the body in two cases if the mass
of the body is 3 kg
(a)
2.5 m s2, 7.5 m s2
(b)
7.5 m s2, 67.5 m s2
(c)
5 m s2, 45 m s2
(d)
2.5 m s2, 22.5 m s2
swer: B
15. Answer: D1. Ans.: (b)
2. Ans.: (c)
3. Ans.: (a)
4. Ans.: (c)
5. Ans.: (d)
6. Ans.: (b)
7. Ans.: (c)
8. Ans.: (b)
9. Ans.: (c)
10. Ans.: (b)
11. Ans.: (a)
12. Ans.: (d)
13. Ans.: (c)
15. Ans.: (a)
16. Ans.: (d)
17. Ans.: (d)
18. Ans.: (d)
19. Ans.: (a)
20. Ans.: (d)
21. Ans.: (d)
22. Ans.: (a)
23. Ans.: (c)
24. Ans.: (c)
25. Ans.: (b)
Answer: A
Gravitation:
21. Answer: D
22. Answer: D
23. Answer: B
1.
2.
A thief stole a box with valuable article of weight ‘W’ and jumped down a
wall of height h. Before he reach the ground he experienced a load of
(a) zero
(b) W / 2
(c) W
(d) 2 W
The acceleration due to gravity g and mean density of the earth  are
related by which of the following relation? Where g is gravitational
constant and R is radius of the earth
(a)  =
(b)  =
(c)  =
3.
4.
(d)  =
When the planet comes nearer the sun moves
(a) fast
(b) slow
(c) constant at every point
(d) none of the above
Kepler’s second law regarding constancy of arial velocity of a planet is a
consequence of the law of conservation of
5.
6.
(a) energy
(b) angular momentum
(c) linear momentum
(d) none of these
The period of geostationary artificial satellite is
(a) 24 hours
(b) 6 hours
(c) 12 hours
(d) 48 hours
A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 6R above the
surface of the earth, R being the radius of the earth. The time period of
another satellite at a height of 2.5 R from the surface of earth is
(a) 6
(b) 6 hr
7.
8.
hr
(c) 5
hr
(d) 10 hr
The distance of Neptune and Saturn from the sun are nearly 1013 m and
1012 m respectively. Assuming that they move in circular orbits, their
periodic times would be in the ratio of
(a) 10
(b) 100
(c) 10
(d) 1000
A satellite is orbiting close to the surface of the earth, then its speed is
(a)
(b) Rg
(c)
9.
(d)
If the gravitational force between two objects were proportional to 1/R
(and not as 1/R2) where R is separation between them, then a particle in
circular orbit under such a force would have its orbital speed v
proportional to
(a)
(b) R0
(c) R1
10.
(d)
Imagine a light planet revolving around a very massive star in a circular
orbit of radius R with a period of revolution T. If the gravitational force
of attraction between the planet and the star is proportional to
then
(a) T2  R2
(b) T2 
(c) T2 
11.
12.
(d) T2  R3
The period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T. The period of
another satellite in circular orbit of radius 4R is
(a) T/4
(b) 8T
(c) 2T
(d) T/8
A planet moves around the sun. At a point A, it is closest from the Sun
at a distance d1 and has a speed v1. At another point B, when it is
farthest from the sun at a distance d2, its speed will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
13.
14.
(d)
The period of geostationary artificial satellite of earth is
(a) 6 hours
(b) 12 hours
(c) 24 hours
(d) 365 days
If ‘r’ represents the radius of the orbit of a satellite of mass ‘m’ moving
round a planet of mass ‘M’, the velocity of the satellite is given by
(a) v2 =
(b) v2 =
(c) v =
15.
16.
17.
(d) v =
A missile is launched with a velocity less than the escape velocity. The
sum of its kinetic and potential energy is
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) may be positive or negative
The escape velocity of projection from the earth is approximately (R =
6400 km)
(a) 7 km/sec
(b) 112 km/sec
(c) 12.2 km/sec
(d) 1.1 km/sec
If the earth is 1/4th of its present distance from the sun, the duration of
the year would be
18.
(a) 1/4 of the present year
(b) 1/6 of the present year
(c) 1/8 of the present year
(d) 1/16 of the present year
The relation between escape velocity and orbit velocity is
(a) ve =
(b) ve =
vorb
(c) ve = 2vorb
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
(d) ve =
vorb
There is no atmosphere on the moon because
(a) it is closer ot the earth
(b) it revolves round the earth
(c) it gets light from the sun
(d) the escape velocity of gas molecules is less than their root mean
square velocity here
If the radius of the earth were to shrink by 1% its mass remaining the
same, the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface would
(a) decrease by 2%
(b) remain unchanged
(c) increase by 2%
(d) will increase by 9.8%
Fg and Fe represents gravitational and electrostatic forces respectively,
between the two electrons situated at a distance of 10 m. The
ratio Fg/Fe is of the order of
(a) 1043
(b) 1036
(c) 1043
(d) 1036
The value of ‘g’ at a particular point is 9.8 m/sec2 suppose the earth
suddenly shrink uniformly to half its present size without losing
any mass. The value of ‘g at the same point (assuming that the
distance of the point from the centre of the earth does not
shrink) will become
(a) 9.8 m/sec2
(b) 4.9 m/sec2
(c) 19.6 m/sec2
(d) 2.45 m/sec2
The planet mercury is revolving in an elliptical orbit around the sun as
shown in figure. The kinetic energy of mercury will be greater at
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
24.
(d) D
The orbit velocity of an artificial satellite in a circular orbit just above the
earth’s surface is v. For a satellite orbiting at an altitude of half of the
earth’s radius, the orbital velocity is
(a)
(b)
(c)
25.
(d)
If the change in the value of g at the height h above the surface of the
earth is the same as at a depth x below it, then (both x and h
being much smaller than the radius of the earth)
(a) x = h
(b) x = 2 h
(c) x =
(d) x = h2
1. Ans.: (a)
2. Ans.: (c)
3.Ans.: (a)
4. Ans.: (b)
5. Ans.: (a)
6. Ans.: (a)
7. Ans.: (c)
8. Ans.: (c)
9. Ans.: (b)
10. Ans.: (b)
11. Ans.: (b)
12. Ans.: (a)
13. Ans.: (c)
14. Ans.: (c)
15. Ans.: (b)
16. Ans.: (c)
17. Ans.: (c)
18. Ans.: (a)
19. Ans.: (d)
20. Ans.: (c)
21. Ans.: (c)
22. Ans.: (a)
23. Ans.: (a)
24. Ans.: (c)
25. Ans.: (b)
1.
A satellite is revolving around the sun in a circular orbit with uniform velocity v. If the
gravitational force suddenly disappears, the velocity of the satellite will be
(a) zero
(b) v
(c) 2v
(d) infinity
2.
3.
4.
Who among the following first gave the experimental velocity of G?
(a) Cavendish
(b) Copernicus
(c) Brook Taylor
(d) none of these
The mean radius of the earth is R, its angular speed on its own axis is  and the
acceleration due to gravity at earth’s surface is g. The cube of the radius of the orbit of
a geo-stationary satellite will be
(a) r2g / 
(b) R22 / g
(c) RG 2
(d) R2g / 2
The largest and the shortest distance of the earth from are r 1 and r2. It’s distance from
the sun when it is perpendicular to the major-axis of the orbit drawn from the sun.
(a)
(b)
(c)
5.
6.
(d)
Geo-stationary satellite
(a) revolves about the polar axis
(b) has a time period less than that of the earth’s satellite
(c) moves faster than a near earth satellite
(d) is stationary in the space
A spherical planet far out in space has a mass M 0 and diameter D0. A particle of mass m
falling freely near the surface of this planet will experience an acceleration due to
gravity which is equal to
(a)
(b)
(c)
7.
(d)
Two planets of radii r1 and r2 are made from the same material. The ratio of the
acceleration due to gravity g1/g2 at the surface of the two planets is
(a)
(b)
(c)
8.
(d)
If g is the acceleration due to gravity of the earth’s surface the gain in the potential
energy of an object of mass m raised from the surface of the earth to a height equal to
the radius R of the earth is
(a)
mgR
(b) 2mgR
(c) mgR
9.
(d)
mgR
An earth’s satellite of mass m revolves in a circular orbit at a height h from the surface
g is acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth. The velocity of the satellite
in the orbit is given by
(a)
(b) gR
(c)
10.
11.
12.
(d)
If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one percent, its mass remaining the same,
the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface would
(a) decrease
(b) remains unchanged
(c) increase
(d) none of these
The escape velocity from the earth’s surface is 11 km/sec. A certain planet has a radius
twice that of the earth but its mean density is the same as that of the earth. The value
of the escape velocity from this planet would be
(a) 22 km/sec
(b) 11 km/sec
(c) 5.5 km/sec
(d) 16.5 km/sec
The escape velocity from earth is 11.2 km per sec. If a body is to be projected in a
direction making an angle 45 to the vertical, then the escape velocity is
(a) 11.2  2 km/sec
(b) 11.2 km/sec
(c) 11.2 
13.
km/sec
(d) 11.2 
km/sec
What would be the duration of the year if the distance between the earth and the sun
gets doubled?
(a) 1032 days
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
(b) 129 days
(c) 365 days
(d) 730 days
If escape velocity from the earth’s surface is 11.2 km/sec. then escape velocity from a
planet of mass same as that of earth but radius one fourth as that of earth is
(a) 11.2 km/sec
(b) 22.4 km/sec
(c) 5.65 km/sec
(d) 44.8 km/sec
A thin uniform, circular ring is rolling down an inclined plane of inclination 30 without
slipping. Its linear acceleration along the inclined plane will be
(a) g/2
(b) g/3
(c) g/4
(d) 2g/3
A artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit around the earth has a total (kinetic +
potential) energy E0. Its potential energy is
(a) 2E0
(b) E0
(c) 1.5 E0
(d) E0
The distance between centre of the earth and moon is 384000 km. If the mass of the
earth is 6  1024 kg and G = 6.66  1011 Nm2/kg2. The speed of the moon is nearly
(a) 1 km/sec
(b) 4 km/sec
(c) 8 km/sec
(d) 11.2 km/sec
When body is raised to a height equal to radius of earth, the P.E. change is
(a) MgR
(b)
(c) 2 MgR
(d) none of these
A planet has twice the radius but the mean density is 1/4th as compared to earth. What
is the radio of the escape velocity from the earth to that from the planet?
(a) 3 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 2 : 1
The masses of two planets are in the ratio 1 : 2. Their radii are in the ratio 1 : 2. The
acceleration due to gravity on the planets are in the ratio.
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 3 : 5
(d) 5 : 3
If the acceleration due to gravity of a planet is half the acceleration due to gravity of
earth’s surface and radius of planet is half the radius of the earth, the mass of planet in
terms of mass of earth is
(a)
(b)
(c)
22.
23.
(d)
The radii of the earth and the moon are in the ratio 10 : 1 while acceleration due to
gravity on th eearth’s surface and moon’s surface are in the ratio 6 : 1. The ratio of
escape velocities from earth’s surface to that of moon surface is
(a) 10 : 1
(b) 6 : 1
(c) 1.66 : 1
(d) 7.74 : 1
Acceleration due to gravity g in terms of mean density of Earth d (where R is radius of
earth and G – universal gravitational constant) is
(a) g = 4R2 d G
(b) g =
(c) g =
24.
25.
(d) g =
RdG
The dimensions of universal gravitational constant are
(a) M2 L2 T2
(b) M1 L3 T2
(c) M L1 T2
(d) M L2 T2
If R is radius of the earth and g the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface,
the mean density of the earth is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
1. Ans.: (b)
2. Ans.: (a)
3. Ans.: (d)
4. Ans.: (c)
5. Ans.: (a)
6. Ans.: (c)
7. Ans.: (a)
8. Ans.: (a)
9. Ans.: (d)
10. Ans.: (c)
11. Ans.: (a)
12. Ans.: (b)
13. Ans.: (a)
14. Ans.: (b)
15. Ans.: (c)
16. Ans.: (a)
17. Ans.: (a)
18. Ans.: (b)
19. Ans.: (c)
20. Ans.: (a)
21. Ans.: (d)
22. Ans.: (d)
23. Ans.: (d)
24. Ans.: (b)
25. Ans.: (c)
25. Answer: D
Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test
1
Sr.
No.
Question
Answer
1.
+I effect is shown by
(A) N02
(B) Cl
(C) Br
(D) CH3
Answer: (D)
2.
0.023 g of sodium metal is reacted with 100 cm 3 of water.
The pH of the resulting solution is ______.
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 9
Answer: (C)
3.
0.5 mole of each of H2, SO2 and CH4 are kept in a container. A
hole was made in the container. After 3 hours, the order of
partial pressures in the container will be
(A) pH2 > pSO2 > pCH4
(B) pH2 > pCH4 > pSO2
(C) pSO2 > pH2 > pCH4
(D) pSO2 > pCH4, > pH2
Answer: (D)
4.
10 cm3 of 0.1 N monobasic acid requires 15 cm3 of sodium
hydroxide solution whose normality is
(A) 1.5 N
(B) 0.15 N
(C) 0.066 N
(D) 0.66 N
Answer: (C)
5.
106 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base
is
(A) between 6 and 7
(B) between 10 and 11
(C) between 7 and 8
Answer: (C)
(D) between 5 and 6
6.
2 gm of a radioactive sample having half life of 15 days was
synthesised on 1st Jan 2009. The amount of the sample left
behind on 1st March. 2009 (including both the days)
(A) 1 gm
(B) 0.5 gm
(C) 0 gm
(D) 0.125 gm
Answer: (D)
7.
2HI(g) Ý H2(g) + I2(g)
The equilibrium constant of the above reaction is 6.4 at 300
K. If 0.25 mole each of H2 and
I2 are added to the system, the equilibrium constant will be
(A) 3.2
(B) 1.6
(C) 6.4
(D) 0.8
Answer: (C)
8.
Answer: (B)
2SO2(g) + O2(g)
(A) irreversible reaction
(B) heterogenous catalysis
(C) homogenous catalysis
(D) neutralisation reaction
is an example for
9.
Answer: (D)
30 cc of
HCl, 20 cc of
5 HNO3 and 40 cc of
NaOH
solutions are mixed and the volume was made up to 1 dm 3.
The pH of the resulting solution is
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 8
(D) 2
10.
5 moles of SO2 and 5 moles of O2 are allowed to react. At
equilibrium, it was found that 60% of SO2 is used up. lf the
partial pressure of the equilibrium mixture is one atmosphere.
the partial pressure of O2 is
(A) 0.21 atm
(B) 0.41 atm
(C) 0.82 atm
(D) 0.52 atm
Answer: (B)
11.
Which one of these is NOT TRUE for benzene?
(A) It forms only one type of monosubstituted product
(B) There are three carbon-carbon single bonds and three
carbon-carbon double bonds
(C) Heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than the
theoretical value
(D) The bond angle between carbon-carbon bonds is 120°
Answer: (B)
12.
Which one of the following is paramagnetic?
(A) N2
(B) NO
(C) CO
Answer: (B)
(D) O3
13.
Which one of the following is a covalent crystal?
(A) Ice
(B) Rock salt
(C) Dry ice
(D) Quartz
Answer: (D)
14.
Which one of the following DOES NOT involve coagulation?
(A) Formation of delta region
(B) Clotting of blood by the use of ferric chloride
(C) Peptization
(D) Treatment of drinking water by potash alum
Answer: (C)
15.
Which one is not a constituent of nucleic acid?
(A) Uracil
(B) Guanidine
(C) Phosphoric acid
(D) Ribose sugar
Answer: (B)
Chemistry Model Question
Paper - MCQs Test 2
Sr. No.
Question
Answer
1.
50 cm3 of 0.2 N HCI is titrated against 0.1
N NaOH solution. The titration is
discontinued after adding 50 cm3 of
NaOH. The remaining titration is
completed by adding 0.5 N KOH. The
volume of KOH required for completing
the titration is ______.
(A) 10 cm3
(B) 12 cm3
(C) 10.5 cm3
(D) 25 cm3
Answer: (A)
2.
80 g of oxygen contains as many atoms
as in
(A) 80 g of hydrogen
(B) 1 g of hydrogen
(C) 10 g of hydrogen
(D) 5 g of hydrogen
Answer: (D)
3.
9.65 C of electric current is passed
through fused anhydrous magnesium
chloride. The magnesium metal thus
obtained is completely converted into a
Grignard reagent. The number of moles
of the Grignard reagent obtained is
______.
(A) 1  104
(B) 5  104
(C) 1  105
(D) 5  105
Answer: (D)
4.
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
(A) 6% solution of Glucose
(B) 25% solution of Glucose
(C) 1 M solution of Glucose
(D) 0.05 M solution of Glucose
Answer: (C)
5.
A bivalent metal has an equivalent mass
of 32. The molecular mass of the metal
nitrate is
(A) I92
(B) 188
(C) 182
(D) 168
Answer: (B)
6.
A body of mass 10 mg is moving with a
velocity of 100 ms1. The wavelength of
de-Broglie wave associated with it would
be
(Note : h = 6.63  1034Js)
(A) 6.63  1037m
(B) 6.63  1031m
(C) 6.63  1034m
(D) 6.63  1035m
Answer: (B)
7.
A body of mass x kg is moving with a
velocity of 100 ms1. Its de Broglie
wavelength is 6.62  1035m. Hence x is
(h = 6.62 1034Js)
(A) 0.15 kg
(B) 0.2 kg
(C) 0.1 kg
(D) 0.25 kg
Answer: (C)
8.
A buffer solution contains 0.1 mole of
sodium acetate dissolved in 1000 cm3 of
0.1 M acetic acid. To the above buffer
solution, 0.1 mole of sodium acetate is
further added and dissolved. The pH of
the resulting buffer is equal to ______.
(A) pKa
(B) pKa  Log2
(C) pKa + L0g2
(D) pKa + 2
Answer: (C)
9
A buffer solution is prepared in which the
concentration of NH3 is 0.30 M and the
Answer: (C)
concentration of
is 0.20 M. If the
equilibrium constant, Kb for NH3 equals
1.8 × 10–5, what is the pH of this
solution?
(A) 8.73
(B) 9.08
(C) 9.43
(D) 11.72
10.
A complex compound in which the
Answer: (C)
oxidation number of a metal is zero is
(A) K4 [Fe (CN)6]
(B) K3 [Fe (CN)6]
(C) [Ni (CO)4]
(D) [Pl (NH3 )4]Cl2
11.
Which of the following is used to prepare
Cl2 gas at room temperature from
concentrated HCI?
(A) MnO2
(B) H2S
(C) KMnO4
(D) Cr2O3
Answer: (C)
12.
Which of the following is not an ore of
magnesium?
(A) Carnallite
(B) Dolomite
(C) Calamine
(D) Sea water
Answer: (C)
13.
Which of the following has the highest
bond order?
(A) N2
(B) O2
(C) He2
(D) H2
Answer: (A)
14.
Which of the following gives an aldehyde
on dry distillation?
(A) Calcium acetate + calcium benzoate
(B) Calcium formate + calcium acetate
(C) Calcium benzoate
(D) Calcium acetate
Answer: (B)
15.
Which of the following does not give
benzoic acid on hydrolysis?
(A) phenyl cyanide
(B) benzoyl chloride
(C) benzyl chloride
(D) methyl benzoate
Answer: (C)
Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test
3
Sr.
No.
Question
Answer
1.
A compound is formed by elements A and B. This crystallises
in the cubic structure where the A atoms are at the comers of
the cube and B atoms are at the body centres. The simplest
formula of the compound is
(A) AB
(B) A6B
(C) A8B4
(D) AB6
Answer: (A)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
A compound of 'A' and 'B' crystallises in a cubic lattice in
which the 'A' atoms occupy the lattice points at the comers of
the cube. The 'B' atoms occupy the centre of each face of the
cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
(A) AB
(B) AB3
(C) AB2
(D) A3B
A covalent molecule AB3 has pyramidal structure. The number
of lone pair and bond pair electrons in the molecule are
respectively
(A) 3 and 1
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 2
(D) 0 and 4
A diabetic person carries a pocket of Glucose with him always,
because
(A) Glucose reduces the blood sugar level.
(B) Glucose increases the blood sugar level almost
instantaneously.
(C) Glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly.
(D) Glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly.
A dibromo derivative of an alkane reacts with sodium metal to
form an alicyclic hydrocarbon. The derivative is ______.
(A) 2, 2 - dibromobutane
(B) 1, 1 - dibromopropane
(C) 1, 4 - dibromobutane
(D) 1, 2 - dibromoethane
A gas deviates from ideal behaviour at a high pressure
because its molecules
(A) attract one another
(B) show the Tyndall effect
(C) have kinetic energy
(D) are bound by covalent bonds
A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal mole of CO
and N2. If the total pressure of the mixture was found 1
atmosphere, the partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2) in the
mixture is
(A) 1 atm
(B) 0.5 atm
(C) 0.8 atm
(D) 0.9 atm
A ligand can also be regarded as
(A) Lewis acid
(B) Bronsted base
(C) Lewis base
(D) Bronsted acid
A metal present in insulin is
(A) copper
(B) iron
(C) zinc
(D) aluminium
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
A mixture of CaCl2 and NaCl weighing 4.44 g is treated with
sodium carbonate solution to precipitate all the Ca +2 ions as
calcium carbonate. The calcium carbonate so obtained is
heated strongly to get 0.56 g of CaO. The percentage of NaCl
in the mixture (atomic mass of Ca = 40) is ______.
(A) 30.6
(B) 75
(C) 69.4
(D) 25
Which of the following compound would not evolve CO2 when
treated with NaHCO3 solution?
(A) salicylic acid
(B) phenol
(C) benzoic acid
(D) 4-nitro benzoic acid
Which is not the correct statement about RNA and DNA?
(A) DNA is active in virus where RNA never appears in virus
(B) DNA exists as dimer while RNA is usually single stranded
(C) DNA contains deoxyribose as its sugar and RNA contains
ribose
(D) RNA contains uracil in place of thymine (found in DNA) as
a base
Which cycloalkane has the lowest heat of combustion per CH2
group?
(A) cyclopropane
(B) cyclobutanc
(C) cyclopontane
(D) cyclohexane
When a mixture of calcium benzoate and calcium acetate is
dry distilled, the resulting compound is
(A) acetophenone
(B) benzaldehyde
(C) benzophenone
(D) acetaldehyde
What is the nature of glucose-glucose linkage in starch that
makes its so susceptible to acid hydrolysis?
(A) Starch is hemiacetal
(B) Starch is acetal
(C) Starch is polymer
(D) Starch contains only few molecules of glucose
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
Chemistry Model Question
Paper - MCQs Test 4
Sr. No.
Question
Answer
1.
A white crystalline salt A reacts with dilute
HCI to liberate a suffocating gas B and
also forms a yellow precipitate. The gas B
turns potassium dichromate acidified with
dilute H2SO4 to a green coloured solution
C. A, B and C are respectively ______.
Answer: (A)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(A) Na2S2O3, SO2, Cr2 (SO4)3
(B) Na2SO3, SO2, Cr2 (SO4)3
(C) Na2SO4, SO2, Cr2 (SO4)3
(D) Na2S, SO, Cr2 (SO4)3
According to Bayer's strain theory which is
highly stable?
(A) cyclohexane
(B) cycloheptane
(C) cyclopentane
(D) cyclobutane
Acidified K2Cr2O7 solution turns green
when Na2SO3 is added to it. This is due to
the formation of
(A) CrSO4
(B) Cr2(SO4)3
(C)
(D) Cr2(SO3)3
Acidified sodium fusion extract on addition
of ferric chloride solution gives blood red
colouration which confirms the presence of
(A) S
(B) N
(C) N and S
(D) S and Cl
Amines behave as
(A) Lewis acids
(B) Lewis base
(C) aprotic acid
(D) neutral compound
Among the following, the compound that
contains ionic, covalent and coordinate
linkage is
(A) NaCl
(B) CaO
(C) NH3
(D) NH4Cl
Among the following, which is least acidic?
(A) phenol
(B) O-cresol
(C) p-nitrophenol
(D) p-chlorophenol
An alkyl halide reacts with alcoholic
ammonia in a sealed tube, the product
formed will be
(A) a primary amine
(B) a secondary amine(C) a tertiary amine
(D) a mixture of all the three
An aqueous solution containing 6.5 gm of
NaCl of 90% purity was subjected to
electrolysis. After the complete
Answer: (C)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (A)
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
electrolysis, the solution was evaporated
to get solid NaOH. The volume of 1 M
acetic acid required to neutralise NaOH
obtained above is
(A) 100 cm3
(B) 200 cm3
(C) 1000 cm3
(D) 2000 cm3
An element with atomic number 21 is a
(A) halogen
(B) representative element
(C) transition element
(D) alkali metal
The sp3d2 hybridization of central atom of
a molecule would lead to
(A) square planar geometry
(B) Tetrahedral geometry
(C) Trigonal bipyramidal geometry
(D) Octahedral geometry
The reagent with which both acetaldehyde
and acetone react is
(A) I2/NaOH
(B) Fehling's reaction
(C) Carbonic acid
(D) Tollen's reagent
The ozone layer forms naturally by
(A) the interaction of CFC with oxygen
(B) the interaction of UV radiation with
oxygen
(C) the interaction of IR radiation with
oxygen
(D) the interaction of oxygen and water
vapour
The number of naturally occurring p-block
elements that are diamagnetic is ______.
(A) 6
(B) 18
(C) 7
(D) 5
The normality of 30 volume H2O2 is
(A) 2.678 N
(B) 5.336 N
(C) 8.034 N
(D) 6.685 N
Answer: (C)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (B)
Chemistry Model Question
Paper - MCQs Test 5
Sr. No.
Question
Answer
1.
An ionic compound is expected to have
Answer: (B)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
tetrahedral structure if
lies in the
range of
(A) 0.414 to 0.732
(B) 0.225 to 0.414
(C) 0.155 to 0.225
(D) 0.732 to 1
An octahedral complex is formed when
hybrid orbitals of the following type are
involved
(A) sp3
(B) d sp2
(C) d2sp3
(D) sp2d2
An organic compound on heating with CuO
produces CO2 but no water. The organic
compound may be
(A) Methane
(B) Ethyl iodide
(C) Carbon tetrachloride
(D) Chloroform
An organic compound X is oxidised by
using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product
obtained reacts with Phenyl hydrazine but
does not answer silver mirror test. The
possible structure of X is
(A) (CH3)2CHOH
(B) CH3CHO
(C) CH3CH2OH
(D) CH3 
 CH3
An oxygen containing organic compound
upon oxidation forms a carboxylic acid as
the only organic product with its molecular
mass higher by 14 units. The organic
compound is ______.
(A) a primary alcohol
(B) an aldehyde
(C) a ketone
(D) a secondary alcohol
Anisole can be prepared by the action of
methyl iodide on sodium phenate. The
reaction is called
(A) Wurtz's reaction
(B) Williamson's reaction
(C) Fittig's reaction
(D) Etard's reaction
Argon is used
(A) in high temperature welding
(B) in radiotherapy for treatment of cancer
(C) in filling airships
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (A)
8.
9.
(D) to obtain low temperature
Arrange the following in the increasing
order of their basic strengths :
CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)3N, NH3
(A) (CH3)3N < NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2 NH
(B) CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N < NH3
(C) NH3 < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
(D) NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
Arrange the following in the increasing
order of their bond order:
O2, O
,O
(A) O
,O2, O
(B) O2, O
(C) O
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
Answer: (D)
Answer: (C)
and O
,O
,O
,O
,O
, O2 O
(D) O
, O , O , O2
Based on the first law of thermodynamics,
which one of the following is correct?
(A) For an adiabatic process: U = w
(B) For an isochoric process: U = q
(C) For a cyclic process: q = w
(D) For an isothermal process: q = +w
The yellow precipitate formed during the
chromyl chloride test is chemically
(A) lead chromate
(B) chromic acid
(C) sodium chromate
(D) lead acetate
The typical range of molar enthalpies for
the strongest intermolecular (Hydrogen)
bonds is
(A) 200 – 300 kJ
(B) 300 – 500 kJ
(C) 4 – 25 kJ
(D) 4 – 25 J
The time required for 100% completion of
a zero order reaction is
(A) a/2k
(B) ak
(C) 2k/a
(D) a/k
The standard emf of a galvanic cell
involving 2 moles of electrons in its rodox
reaction is 0.59 V. The equilibrium
constant for the redox reaction of the cell
is
(A) 105
(B) 1020
(C) 1010
(D) 10
Answer: (C)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (B)
15.
The spin only magnetic moment of
Fe2+ ion (in BM) is approximately
(A) 7
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 5
Answer: (D)
Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test
6
Sr.
No.
Question
Answer
1.
Benzaldehyde and acetone can be best distinguished using
______.
(A) sodium hydroxide solution
(B) Fehling's solution
(C) Tollens' reagent
(D) 2, 4-DNPH
Benzene reacts with chlorine in sunlight to give a final product
(A) C6H5Cl
(B) C6Cl6
(C) C6H6Cl6
(D) CCl4
By what factors does the average velocity of a gaseous
molecule increase when the temperature (in Kelvin) is
doubled?
(A) 1.4
(B) 2.0
(C) 2.8
(D) 4.0
Carbon can reduce ferric oxide to iron at a temperature above
983 K because ______.
(A) carbon has a higher affinity towards oxidation than iron.
(B) carbon monoxide formed is thermodynamically less stable
than ferric oxide.
(C) iron has a higher affinity towards oxygen than carbon.
(D) free energy change for the formation of carbon dioxide is
less negative than that for ferric oxide.
Carbon forms two oxides which have different compositions.
The equivalent mass of which remains constant?
(A) carbon
(B) oxygen
(C) neither carbon nor oxygen
(D) both carbon and oxygen
Catalytic dehydrogenation of a primary alcohol gives a
(A) secondary alcohol
(B) aldehyde
(C) ketone
(D) ester
Answer: (C)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Answer: (C)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (D)
CH3CH2Br
A
B
C
C
D; "D" is _____.
(A) CH3CONH2
(B) CH3Br
(C) CHBr3
(D) CH3NH2
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
Answer: (D)
CH3COOH
ln the above reaction Z is
(A) Ketol
(B) Acetal
(C) Butanol
(D) Aldol
Chloroacetic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid. This can
be explained using ______.
(A)  I effect
(B)  M effect
(C) +I effect
(D) + M effect
Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the
presence of which of the following?
(A) H2 and Pt as catalyst
(B) Glycol with KOH
(C) Zn-Hg with HCl
(D) LiAlH4
0.023 g of sodium metal is reacted with 100 cm3 of water.
The pH of the resulting solution is ______.
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 9
2 gm of metal carbonate is neutralized completely by 100 ml
of 0.1 (N) HCI. The equivalent weight of metal carbonate is
(A) 50
(B) 100
(C) 150
(D) 200
25 g of each of the following gasses are taken at 27oC and
600 mm pressure. Which of these will have the least volume?
(A) HCl
(B) HBr
(C) HI
(D) HF
4 moles each of SO2 and O2 gases are allowed to react to
form SO3 in a closed vessel. At equilibrium 25% of O2 is used
up. The total number of moles of all the gases present at
equilibrium is
(A) 6.5
(B) 7.0
(C) 8.0
(D) 2.0
A distinctive and characteristic functional group of fats is
Answer: (A)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
(A) a peptide group
(B) an ester group
(C) an alcoholic group
(D) a ketonic group
Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test
7
Sr.
No.
Question
Answer
1.
Consider the following gaseous equilibria with equilibrium
constants K1 and K2 respectively.
Answer: (B)
SO2(g) +
Ý SO3(g)
2SO3(g) Ý 2SO2(g) + O2(g)
The equilibrium constants are related as ______.
(A) 2K1 =
(B)
(C)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
(D)
Considering the reaction C(S) +O2(g)CO2(g)+393.5 kJ the
signs of H , S and G
respectively are
(A) , +, 
(B) , , 
(C) , +, +
(D) +, , 
Considering the state of hybridization of carbon atoms, find
out the molecule among the following which is linear?
(A) CH3  CH2  CH2  CH3
(B) CH3  CH = CH  CH3
(C) CH3  C  C  CH3
(D) CH2 = CH  CH2  C  CH
Cooking is fast in a pressure cooker, because
(A) food is cooked at constant volume.
(B) loss of heat due to radiation is minimum.
(C) food particles are effectively smashed.
(D) water boils at higher temperature inside the pressure
cooker.
Dalda is prepared from oils by
(A) oxidation
(B) reduction
(C) hydrolysis
(D) distillation
Dalton's law of partial pressures is applicable to which one of
Answer: (A)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (A)
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
the following systems?
(A) CO + H2
(B) H2 + Cl2
(C) NO + O2
(D) NH3 + HCl
Decomposition of benzene diozonium chloride by using
Cu2Cl2/HCl to form chlorobenzene is
(A) Cannizarro's reaction
(B) Kolbe's reaction
(C) Sandmeyer's reaction
(D) Raschig's reaction
Denatured alcohol is
(A) Rectified spirit
(B) Undistilled ethanol
(C) Rectified spirit + methanol + naphtha
(D) Ethanol + methanol
During the adsorption of krypton on activated charcoal at low
temperature, ______.
(A) H < 0 and S < 0
(B) H > 0 and S < 0
(C) H < 0 and S > 0
(D) H > 0 and S > 0
During the extraction of gold the following reactions take
place
Au +CN + H2O
[X]
[X] + Zn  [Y] + Au
X and Y are respectively
(A) [Au(CN)2] and [ZN(CN)4]2
(B) [Au(CN)4]3 and [ZN(CN)4]2
(C) [Au(CN)4]2 and [ZN(CN)4]2
(D) [Au(CN)2] and [ZN(CN)6]4
A transition metal ion exists in its highest oxidation state. It is
expected to behave as
(A) a chelating agent
(B) a central metal in a coordination compound
(C) an oxidising agent
(D) a reducing agent
Acrolcin test is positive for
(A) polysaccharides
(B) proteins
(C) oils and fats
(D) reducing sugars
Among the alkali metals cesium is the most reactive because
(A) its incomplete shell is nearest to the nucleus
(B) it has a single electron in the valence shell
(C) it is the heaviest alkali metal
(D) the outermost electron is more loosely bound than the
outermost electron of the other alkali metals
An electric current is passed through an aqueous solution of a
mixture of alanine (isoelectric point 6.0) glutamic acid (3.2)
and arginine (10.7) buffered at pH 6. What is the fate of the
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (A)
15.
three acids?
(A) Glutamic acid migrates to anode at pH 6. Arginine is
present as a cation and migrates to the cathode. Alanine in a
dipolar ion remains uniformly distributed in solution.
(B) Glutamic acid migrates to cathode and others remain
uniformly distributed in solution.
(C) All three remain uniformly distributed in solution.
(D) All three move to cathode
An organic compound which produces a bluish green coloured
flame on heating in presence of copper is
(A) chlorobenzene
(B) benzaldehyde
(C) aniline
(D) benzoic acid
Answer: (A)
Chemistry Model Question
Paper - MCQs Test 8
Sr. No.
Question
Answer
1.
During the formation of a chemical bond
(A) energy decreases
(B) energy increases
(C) energy of the system does not change
(D) electron-electron repulsion becomes
more than the nucleus-electron attraction
E1, E2 and E3 are the emf values of the
three galvanic cells respectively.
Answer: (A)
2.
3.
4.
5.
a) Zn |
||
b) Zn |
||
Answer: (A)
|Cu
|Cu
c) Zn |
||
|Cu
Which one of the following is true?
(A) E3 > E2 > E1
(B) E2 > E3> E1
(C) E1 > E3> E2
(D) E1 > E2> E3
Ellingham diagram represents a graph of
(A) G Vs T
(B) G0 Vs T
(C) S Vs P
(D) G Vs P
Enthalpy change for the reaction,
4H(g)  2H2(g) is –869.6 kJ. The
dissociation energy of H – H bond is
(A) +217.4 kJ
(B) –434.8 kJ
(C) –869.6 kJ
(D) +434.8 kJ
Enthalpy of vapourization of benzene is
+35.3 kJ mol1 at its boiling point of 80°C.
Answer: (B)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (A)
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Chemistry Model Question
The entropy change in the transition of the
vapour to liquid at its boiling point
[in JK1 mol1] is ______.
(A) 100
(B) 441
(C) +100
(D) +441
Entropy of the universe is
(A) continuously increasing
(B) continuously decreasing
(C) zero
(D) constant
Excess of carbon dioxide is passed through
50 ml of 0.5 M calcium hydroxide solution.
After the completion of the reaction, the
solution was evaporated to dryness. The
solid calcium carbonate was completely
neutralised with 0.1 N Hydrochloric acid.
The volume of Hydrochloric acid required
is (At. mass of calcium = 40)
(A) 500 cm3
(B) 400 cm3
(C) 300 cm3
(D) 200 cm3
Excess of PCl5 reacts with conc.
H2SO4 giving
(A) chlorosulphonic acid
(B) thionyl chloride
(C) sulphuryl chloride
(D) sulphurous acid
For a chemical reaction A  B, the rate of
the reaction is 2 103 mol dm3 s1, when
the initial concentration is 0.05 mol dm3.
The rate of the same reaction is
1.6  102 mol dm3s1when the initial
concentration is 0.1 mol dm3. The order
of the reaction is
(A) 3
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 0
For a stable molecule the value of bond
order must be
(A) negative
(B) positive
(C) zero
(D) there is no relationship between
stability and bond order.
Answer: (A)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
Paper - MCQs Test 9
Sr. No.
Question
Answer
1.
For alkali metals, which one of the following
trends is INCORRECT?
(A) Ionization energy: Li > Na > K > Rb
(B) Hydration energy: Li > Na > K > Rb
(C) Atomic size: Li < Na < K < Rb
(D) Density: Li < Na < K < Rb
For one mole of an ideal gas, increasing the
temperature from 10°C to 20°C ______.
Answer: (D)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
(A) increases the rms velocity by
times.
(B) increases the average kinetic energy by
two times.
(C) increases both the average kinetic energy
and rms velocity, but not significantly.
(D) increases the rms velocity by two times.
For the decomposition of a compound AB at
600 K, the following data were obtained:
[AB] mol dm3
Rate of
decomposition of AB
in mol dm3 s1
0.20
2.75  108
0.40
11.0  108
0.60
24.75  108
The order for the decomposition of AB is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 1.5
(D) 0
For the four successive transition elements
(Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the stability of + 2
oxidation state will be there in which of the
following order?
(A) Cr > Mn > Co > Fe
(B) Mn > Fe > Cr > Co
(C) Fe > Mn > Co > Cr
(D) Co > Mn > Fe > Cr
(At. nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
For the reaction 2HI(g) Ý H2(g) + I2(g)  Q KJ ,
the equilibrium constant depends upon
(A) temperature
(B) pressure
(C) catalyst
(D) volume
For the reaction Fe2O3 + 3CO  2Fe +
3CO2 the volume of carbon monoxide required
to reduce one mole of ferric oxide is
(A) 22.4 dm3
(B) 44.8 dm3
(C) 67.2 dm3
(D) 11.2 dm3
Answer: (C)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (C)
For the reaction H20 (l) Ý H2O(g) at 373 K and
one atmospheric pressure
(A) H = TS
(B) H = E
(C) H = 0
(D) E = 0
For the reaction N2O(g) + 2(g) Ý 2NO(g),
the equilibrium constant is K1. The equilibrium
constant is K2 for the reaction 2NO(g) +
O2(g) Ý 2NO2(g). What is K for the reaction
7.
8.
NO2(g) Ý
Answer: (A)
Answer: (D)
N2(g) + O2(g)?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
For the reversible reaction
A(s) +B(g) Ý C(g) + D(g): G0 = 350kJ.
Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) Equilibrium constant is greater than one.
(B) The entropy change is negative.
(C) The reaction is thermodynamically not
feasible.
(D) The reaction should be instantaneous.
Formation of coloured solution is possible
when metal ion in the compound contains
(A) paired electrons
(B) unpaired electrons
(C) lone pair of electrons
(D) none of these
9.
10.
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test
10
Sr.
No.
Question
Answer
1.
Generally, the first ionization energy increases along a period.
But there are some exceptions. One which is NOT an
exception is ______.
(A) Na and Mg
(B) N and O
(C) Be and B
(D) Mg and Al
Which one of these is NOT true for benzene?
Answer: (A)
8.
Answer: (A)
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
(A) There are three carboncarbon single bonds and three
carbon-carbon double bonds.
(B) It forms only one type of monosubstituted product.
(C) The bond angle between the carbon-carbon bonds is
1200.
(D) The heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than the
theoretical value.
Gram molecular volume of oxygen at STP is
(A) 11200 cm3
(B) 22400 cm3
(C) 5600 cm3
(D) 3200 cm3
Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely difficult to melt.
The reason for this anomalous behaviour is that graphite
(A) has molecules of variable molecular masses like polymers.
(B) has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of
strongly bound carbon atoms with weak interplate bonds.
(C) is a non-crystalline substance.
(D) is an allotropic form of carbon.
Helium is used in balloons in place of hydrogen because it is
(A) incombustible
(B) lighter than hydrogen
(C) radioactive
(D) more abundant than hydrogen
Hofmann's bromamide reaction is to convert
(A) amine to amide
(B) amide to amine
(C) alcohol to acid
(D) acid to alcohol
How many chiral carbon atoms are present in 2, 3, 4 trichloropentane?
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 4
How many optically active stereomers are possible for butan2, 3-diol?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Hydrogen gas is not liberated when the following metal is
added to dil. HCl
(A) Ag
(B) Zn
(C) Mg
(D) Sn
Hydroxyl ion concentration of 1M HCl is
(A) 1  1014mol dm3
(B) 1  10-1mol dm3
(C) 1  10-13mol dm3
(D) 1  101mol dm3
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (A)
Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test
11
Sr.
No.
Question
Answer
1.
Identify the ore not containing iron
(A) chalcopyrites
(B) carnallite
(C) siderite
(D) limonite
Identify the reaction that does not take place in a blast
furnace.
(A) CaCO3  CaO + CO2
(B) CaO + Si O2  Ca Si O2  Ca Si O3
(C) 2Fe2O3 + 3C  4Fe + 3CO2
(D) CO2 + C  2CO
If n = 6, the correct sequence of filling of electrons will be
(A) ns  np(n  1)d  (n  2)f
(B) ns  n(n  2)f  (n  1)d  np
(C) ns  (n  1)d  (n  2)f  np
(D) ns  (n  2)f  np  (n  1)d
If one mole of ammonia and one mole of hydrogen chloride
are mixed in a closed container to form ammonium chloride
gas, then
(A) H > u
(B) H = u
(C) H < u
(D) there is no relationship
Answer: (B)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
If the
for a given reaction has a negative value, then
which of the following gives the correct relationships for the
values ofG° and Keq?
(A) Go > 0; Keq < 1
(B) Go > 0; Keq > 1
(C) Go < 0; Keq > 1
(D) Go < 0; Keq < 1
If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid water to
steam is 30 kJ mol–1 at 27°C, the entropy change for the
process would be
(A) 100 J mol–1 K–1
(B) 10 J mol–1 K–1
(C) 1.0 J mol–1 K–1
(D) 0.1 J mol–1 K–1
If x is amount of adsorbate and m is amount of adsorbent,
which of the following relations is not related to adsorption
process?
(A)
(B)
=PT
=f(p) at constant T
Answer: (C)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (A)
(C)
8.
9.
10.
= f(T) at constant p
(D) p = f(T) at constant
In acetylene molecule, between the carbon atoms there are
(A) three sigma bonds
(B) two sigma and one pi bonds
(C) one sigma and two pi bonds
(D) three pi bonds
In alkaline medium, alanine exists predominantly as/in
______.
(A) zwitterion
(B) anion
(C) covalent form
(D) cation
In chromite ore, the oxidation number of iron and chromium
are respectively ______.
(A) +3, +6
(B) +3, +2
(C) +2, +3
(D) +2, +6
Answer: (C)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test
12
Sr.
No.
Question
Answer
1.
In Dumas' method of estimation of nitrogen 0.35 g of an
organic compound gave 55 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K
temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage
composition of nitrogen in the compound would be
(Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm)
(A) 14.45
(B) 15.45
(C) 16.45
(D) 17.45
In Kjeldahl's method, ammonia from 5 g of food neutralizes
30 cm3 of 0.1 N acid. The percentage of nitrogen in the food
is ______.
(A) 8.4
(B) 0.84
(C) 1.68
(D) 16.8
In order to increase the volume of a gas by 10%, the
pressure of the gas should be
(A) increased by 10 %
(B) increased by 1 %
(C) decreased by 10 %
(D) decreased by 1 %
In the brown ring test, the brown colour of the ring is due to
Answer: (C)
2.
3.
4.
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (D)
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
(A) ferrous nitrate
(B) ferric nitrate
(C) a mixture of NO and NO2
(D) nitrosoferrous sulphate
In the electrolytic refining of Zinc, ______.
(A) the impure metal is at the cathode.
(B) graphite is at the anode.
(C) acidified zinc sulphate.is the electrolyte.
(D) the metal ion gets reduced at the anode.
In the ionic equation  Bi
+ 6H+ + Xe-  Bi3+ +
3H2O, the values of X is
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 6
In the periodic table metals usually used as catalysts belong
to
(A) s - block
(B) p - block
(C) d - block
(D) f - block
In which of the following process, a maximum increase in
entropy is observed?
(A) dissolution of salt in water
(B) condensation of water
(C) sublimation of naphthalene
(D) melting of ice
In which of the following, NH3 is not used?
(A) Group reagent for the analysis of IV group basic radical.
(B) Group reagent for the analysis of IIIgroup basic radical.
(C) T0llen's reagent
(D) Nessler's reagent
In which one of the following, does the given amount of
chlorine exert the least pressure in a vessel of capacity 1
dm3 at 273K?
(A) 0.071 g
(B) 0.0355 g
(C) 0.02 mole
(D) 6.023 x 1021 molecules
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (B)
Chemistry Model Question
Paper - MCQs Test 13
Sr. No.
Question
Answer
1.
Which one of the following statements is
true'?
(A) Drying of oil involves hydrolysis
(B) Saponification of oil yields a diol.
(C) Refining of oil involves hydrogenation
(D) Addition of antioxidant to oil
Answer: (D)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
minimizes rancidity
IUPAC name of (CH3)3CCl
(A) 2 chloro 2 methyl propane
(B) t-butyl chloride
(C) n-butyl chloride
(D) 3-chloro butane
Which one of the following statements is
not true regarding (+) Lactose?
(A) (+) Lactose, C12H22O11 contains 8-OH
groups
(B) On hydrolysis (+) Lactose gives equal
amount of D(+) glucose and D(+)
galactose
(C) (+) Lactose is a -glycoside formed by
the union of a molecule of D(+) glucose
and a molecule of D(+)
galactose
(D) (+) Lactose is reducing sugar and
does not exhibit mutarotation
ln electrophillic aromatic substitution
reaction, the nitro group is meta directing
because it
(A) increases electron density at meta
position
(B) increases electron density at ortho
and para positions
(C) decreases electron density at ortho
and para positions
(D) decreases electron density at meta
position
ln the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is
desired to obtain 1.12 cc of Hydrogen per
second under S.T.P. condition. The
current to be passed is
(A) 19.3 Amp
(B) 0.965 Amp
(C) 1.93 Amp
(D) 9.65 Amp
Lucas test is associated with
(A) Carboxylic acid
(B) Alcohols
(C) Aldehydes
(D) Phenols
Malleability and ductility of` metals can be
accounted due to
(A) the presence of electrostatic force
(B) the crystalline structure in metal
(C) the capacity of` layers of metal ions
to slide over the other
(D) the interaction of` electrons with
metal ions in the lattice
Mass of 0.1 mole of Methane is
Answer: (A)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
(A) 1 g
(B) 16 g
(C) 1.6 g
(D) 0.1 g
Maximum number of molecules of CH3I
that can react with a molecule of
CH3NH2 are
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 3
Mercury is a liquid metal because
(A) it has a completely filled s-orbital
(B) it has a small atomic size
(C) it has a completely filled d-orbital that
prevents d-d overlapping of orbitals
(D) it has a completely filled d-orbital that
causes d-d overlapping
9.
10.
Answer: (D)
Answer: (C)
Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test
14
Sr.
No.
Question
Answer
1.
Mesomeric effect involves delocalisation of
(A) pi electrons
(B) sigma electrons
(C) protons
(D) none of these
Methoxy methane and ethanol are
(A) Position isomers
(B) Chain isomers
(C) Functional isomers
(D) Optical isomers
Mg+2 is isoelectronic with
(A) Ca2+
(B) Na+
(C) Zn2+
(D) Cu2+
Molarity of a given orthophosphoric acid solution is 3M. It's
normality is
(A) 1 N
(B) 2 N
(C) 0.3 N
(D) 9 N
Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is
(A) 1.7700
(B) 0.1770
(C) 0.0177
(D) 0.0344
Molecules of a noble gas do not possess vibrational energy
because a noble gas ______.
Answer: (A)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Answer: (C)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (B)
7.
8.
9.
10.
(A) is chemically inert
(B) is monoatomic
(C) is diamagnetic
(D) has completely filled shells
N2 + 3H2 Ý 2NH3 + heat. What is the effect of the increase of
temperature on the equilibrium of the reaction?
(A) equilibrium is shifted to the left
(B) equilibrium is shifted to the right
(C) equilibrium is unaltered
(D) reaction rate does not change
Name the type of the structure of silicate in which one oxygen
atom of [SiO4]4– is shared?
(A) Three dimensional
(B) Linear chain silicate
(C) Sheet silicate
(D) Pyrosilicate
n-propyl bromide on treating with alcoholic KOH produces
(A) propane
(B) propene
(C) propyne
(D) propanol
Of the following complex ions, which is diamagnetic in nature?
(A) [CoF6]3–
(B) [NiCl4]2–
(C) [Ni(CN)4]2–
(D) [CuCl4]2–
Answer: (A)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
Chemistry Model Question
Paper - MCQs Test 15
Sr. No.
Question
Answer
1.
Of the following which one is classified as
polyester polymer?
(A) Nylon-66
(B) Terylene
(C) Backelite
(D) Melamine
One dm3 solution containing 105 moles
Answer: (B)
2.
3.
each of Cl ions and CrO
ions is treated
with 104 mole of silver nitrate. Which one
of the following observations is made?
[KSP Ag2 CrO4, = 4 X 1012]
[KSP AgCl = 1 x1010]
(A) Silver chromate gets precipitated first.
(B) Precipitation does not occur.
(C) Both silver chromate and silver
chloride start precipitating simultaneously.
(D) Silver chloride gets precipitated first.
One gram of silver gets distributed
between 10 cm3 of molten zinc and 100
Answer: (D)
Answer: (D)
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
cm3 of molten lead at 800°C. The
percentage of silver in the zinc layer is
approximately ______.
(A) 91
(B) 89
(C) 94
(D) 97
One mole of an organic compound 'A' with
the formula C3H8O reacts completely with
two moles of HI to form X and Y. When 'Y'
is boiled with aqueous alkali forms Z.Z
answers the iodoform test. The compound
'A' is ______.
(A) Propan 1 o1
(B) Propan 2 o1
(C) methoxyethane
(D) ethoxyethane
One mole of oxygen at 273 k and one
mole of sulphur dioxide at 546 k are taken
in two separate containers, then,
(A) kinetic energy of O2 > kinetic energy
of SO2 .
(B) kinetic energy of O2 < kinetic energy
of SO2.
(C) kinetic energy of both are equal.
(D) None of these
One mole of which of the following has the
highest entropy?
(A) liquid nitrogen
(B) hydrogen gas
(C) mercury
(D) diamond
Paracetamol is a/ an
(A) antimalarial
(B) antipyretic
(C) analgesic
(D) both 2 and 3
Peroxide ion ______.
a) is diamagnetic.
b) has five completely filled antibonding
molecular orbitals.
c) is isoelectronic with neon.
d) has bond order one.
Which one of these is correct?
(A) a), b) and d)
(B) d) and c)
(C) a) and d)
(D) a), b) and c)
pH value of which one of the following is
not equal to one?
(A) 0.05 M H2SO4
(B) 0.1 M HNO3
Answer: (C)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (D)
(C) 50cm3 of 0.4 M HCI +50 cm3 of 0.2M
NaOH
(D) 0.1 M CH3 COOH
10.
Phenol
forms a tribromo
derivative "X" is ______.
(A) bromine in water
(B) bromine in benzene
(C) bromine in carbon tetrachloride at
0°C.
(D) potassium bromide solution
Answer: (A)
Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test
16
Sr.
No.
Question
Answer
1.
Presence of halogen in organic compounds can be detected
using
(A) Beilstien's test
(B) kjeldahl test
(C) Duma's test
(D) Leibig's test
Rate of physical adsorption increases with
(A) decrease in pressure
(B) increase in temperature
(C) decrease in surface area
(D) decrease in temperature
Reaction of methyl bromide with aqueous sodium hydroxide
involves ______.
(A) SN 1 mechanism
(B) racemisation
(C) SN2 mechanism
(D) inversion of configuration
Standard electrode potential for Sn4+ / Sn2+ couple is +0.15 V
and that for the Cr3+ / Cr couple is –0.74 V. These two
couples in their standard state are connected to make a cell.
The cell potential will be
(A) +1.83 V
(B) +1.19 V
(C) +0.89 V
(D) +0.18 V
Standard electrode potential of three metals X, Y and Z are –
1.2 V, +0.5 V and –3.0 V respectively. The reducing power of
these metals will be
(A) X > Y > Z
(B) Y > Z > X
(C) Y > X > Z
(D) Z > X > Y
The activation energy for a reaction at the temperature TK
was found to be 2.303 RT J mol1. The ratio of the rate
constant to Arrhenius factor is ______.
Answer: (A)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Answer: (D)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (B)
7.
8.
9.
10.
(A) 102
(B) 101
(C) 2102
(D) 2103
The amino acid which is not optically active is
(A) glycine
(B) alanine
(C) serine
(D) lactic acid
The amount of heat evolved when 500 cm3 of 0.1 M HCI is
mixed with 200 cm3 of 0.2 M NaOH is ______.
(A) 1.292 kJ
(B) 2.292 kJ
(C) 3.392 kJ
(D) 0.292 kJ
The angle strain in cyclobutane is
(A) 2444'
(B) 2916'
(C) 1922'
(D) 944'
The basic principle of Cottnell's precipitator is
(A) Le-chatelier's principle
(B) peptisation
(C) neutralisation of charge on colloidal particles
(D) scattering of light
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (C)
Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test
17
Sr.
No.
Question
Answer
1.
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl
chloride is by treating the alcohol with
(A) SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
(B) Dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl 2
(C) PCl3
(D) PCl5
Answer: (A)
2.
3.
4.
The calculated bond order of super oxide ion (
(A) 2.5
(B) 2
(C) 1.5
(D) 1
The carbon-carbon bond length in Benzene is
(A) in between C2H6 and C2H2
(B) in between C2H4 and C2H2
(C) in between C2H6 and C2H4
(D) same as in C2H4
The characteristic not related to alkali metal is
(A) low melting point
(B) low electronegativity
(C) high ionisation energy
) is
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
(D) their ions are isoelectronic with noble gases
The chemical name of anisole is
(A) Ethanoic acid
(B) Methoxy benzene
(C) Propanone
(D) Acetone
The colour of sky is due to
(A) transmission of light
(B) wavelength of scattered light
(C) absorption of light by atmospheric gases
(D) All of these
The complex, [Pt (Py) (lNH3) Br Cl ] will have how many
geometrical isomers?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 0
The complexes [Co (NH3)6] [Cr (CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6]
[Co(CN)6] are the examples of which type of isomerism?
(A) Geometrical isomerism
(B) Linkage isomerism
(C) Ionization isomerism
(D) Coordination isomerism
The compound obtained when acetaldehyde reacts with dilute
aqueous sodium hydroxide exhibits ______.
(A) optical isomerism
(B) geometric isomerism
(C) both optical and geometric isomerism
(D) neither optical nor geometric isomerism
The compound on dehydrogenation gives a ketone. The
original compound is
(A) primary alcohol
(B) secondary alcohol
(C) tertiary alcohol
(D) carboxylic acid
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
Chemistry Model Question
Paper - MCQs Test 18
Sr. No.
Question
Answer
1.
The compound which forms acetaldehyde
when heated with dilute NaOH is
(A) 1 Chloro ethane
(B) 1, 2 Dichloro ethane
(C) 1, 1 Dichloro ethane
(D) 1, 1, 1 Trichloro ethane
Answer: (C)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
The compound which is not founded
during the dry distillation of a mixture of
calcium format and calcium acetate is
(A) Propanone
(B) Ethanal
(C) Methanal
(D) Propanal
The condensation polymer among the
following is
(A) PVC
(B) Polyethene
(C) Rubber
(D) Protein
The correct order in which the first
ionisation potential increases is
(A) Na, K, Be
(B) K, Na, Be
(C) K, Be, Na
(D) Be, Na, K
The correct order of increasing bond
length of C – H, C – O, C – C and C = C is
(A) C  H < C  O < C – C < C = C
(B) C  H < C = C < C – O < C  C
(C) C  C < C = C < C  O < C  H
(D) C  O < C  H < C  C < C = C
The correct order of ionisation energy of
C, N, O, F is
(A) C < N < O < F
(B) C < O < N < F
(C) F < O < N < C
(D) F < N < C < O
The correct sequence of reactions to
convert p-nitrophenol into quinol involves
______.
(A) hydrolysis, diazotization and reduction
(B) reduction, diazotization and hydrolysis
(C) diazotization, reduction and hydrolysis
(D) hydrolysis, reduction and diazotization
The correct sequence of steps involved in
the mechanism of Cannizzaro's reaction is
______.
(A) transfer of H, transfer of H+ and
nucleophilic attack
(B) nucleophilic attack, transfer of H and
transfer of H+
(C) electrophilic attack by OH, transfer of
H+ and transfer of H
(D) transfer of H+, nucleophilic attack and
transfer of H
The correct set of four Quantum numbers
for outermost electron of Potassium (Z =
19) is
Answer: (D)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (A)
(A) 4, 0, 0,
(B) 3, 0, 0,
(C) 4, 1, 0,
(D) 3, 1, 0,
10.
The correct statement with regard to
and
(A)
(B)
Answer: (B)
is
is more stable than
is more stable than
(C) Both
and
are equally stable
(D) Both
and
do not exist
Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test
17
Sr.
No.
Question
Answer
1.
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl
chloride is by treating the alcohol with
(A) SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
(B) Dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl 2
(C) PCl3
(D) PCl5
Answer: (A)
2.
3.
4.
5.
The calculated bond order of super oxide ion (
(A) 2.5
(B) 2
(C) 1.5
(D) 1
The carbon-carbon bond length in Benzene is
(A) in between C2H6 and C2H2
(B) in between C2H4 and C2H2
(C) in between C2H6 and C2H4
(D) same as in C2H4
The characteristic not related to alkali metal is
(A) low melting point
(B) low electronegativity
(C) high ionisation energy
(D) their ions are isoelectronic with noble gases
The chemical name of anisole is
(A) Ethanoic acid
(B) Methoxy benzene
(C) Propanone
(D) Acetone
) is
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (B)
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
The colour of sky is due to
(A) transmission of light
(B) wavelength of scattered light
(C) absorption of light by atmospheric gases
(D) All of these
The complex, [Pt (Py) (lNH3) Br Cl ] will have how many
geometrical isomers?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 0
The complexes [Co (NH3)6] [Cr (CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6]
[Co(CN)6] are the examples of which type of isomerism?
(A) Geometrical isomerism
(B) Linkage isomerism
(C) Ionization isomerism
(D) Coordination isomerism
The compound obtained when acetaldehyde reacts with dilute
aqueous sodium hydroxide exhibits ______.
(A) optical isomerism
(B) geometric isomerism
(C) both optical and geometric isomerism
(D) neither optical nor geometric isomerism
The compound on dehydrogenation gives a ketone. The
original compound is
(A) primary alcohol
(B) secondary alcohol
(C) tertiary alcohol
(D) carboxylic acid
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
Chemistry Model Question
Paper - MCQs Test 18
Sr. No.
Question
Answer
1.
The compound which forms acetaldehyde
when heated with dilute NaOH is
(A) 1 Chloro ethane
(B) 1, 2 Dichloro ethane
(C) 1, 1 Dichloro ethane
(D) 1, 1, 1 Trichloro ethane
The compound which is not founded
during the dry distillation of a mixture of
calcium format and calcium acetate is
(A) Propanone
(B) Ethanal
(C) Methanal
(D) Propanal
The condensation polymer among the
following is
(A) PVC
(B) Polyethene
Answer: (C)
2.
3.
Answer: (D)
Answer: (D)
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(C) Rubber
(D) Protein
The correct order in which the first
ionisation potential increases is
(A) Na, K, Be
(B) K, Na, Be
(C) K, Be, Na
(D) Be, Na, K
The correct order of increasing bond
length of C – H, C – O, C – C and C = C is
(A) C  H < C  O < C – C < C = C
(B) C  H < C = C < C – O < C  C
(C) C  C < C = C < C  O < C  H
(D) C  O < C  H < C  C < C = C
The correct order of ionisation energy of
C, N, O, F is
(A) C < N < O < F
(B) C < O < N < F
(C) F < O < N < C
(D) F < N < C < O
The correct sequence of reactions to
convert p-nitrophenol into quinol involves
______.
(A) hydrolysis, diazotization and reduction
(B) reduction, diazotization and hydrolysis
(C) diazotization, reduction and hydrolysis
(D) hydrolysis, reduction and diazotization
The correct sequence of steps involved in
the mechanism of Cannizzaro's reaction is
______.
(A) transfer of H, transfer of H+ and
nucleophilic attack
(B) nucleophilic attack, transfer of H and
transfer of H+
(C) electrophilic attack by OH, transfer of
H+ and transfer of H
(D) transfer of H+, nucleophilic attack and
transfer of H
The correct set of four Quantum numbers
for outermost electron of Potassium (Z =
19) is
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (A)
(A) 4, 0, 0,
(B) 3, 0, 0,
(C) 4, 1, 0,
(D) 3, 1, 0,
10.
The correct statement with regard to
Answer: (B)
and
(A)
(B)
is
is more stable than
is more stable than
(C) Both
and
are equally stable
(D) Both
and
do not exist
Chemistry Model Question
Paper - MCQs Test 19
Sr. No.
1.
2.
Question
Answer
2+,
The d-electron configurations of Cr
Mn2+,
Fe2+ and Co2+are d4, d5, d6 and
d7 respectively. Which one of the following will
exhibit minimum paramagnetic behaviour?
(A) [Cr(H2O)6]2+
(B) [Mn(H2O)6]2+
(C) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(D) [Co(H2O)6]2+
(At. nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
The electrode potentials
for
Answer: (D)
Answer: (C)
and
are + 0.15 V and + 0.50
3.
4.
V respectively. The value of
will be
(A) 0.150 V
(B) 0.500 V
(C) 0.325 V
(D) 0.650 V
The electronic configuration of Cr 3+ is
(A) [Ar]3d54s1
(B) [Ar]3d24s1
(C) [Ar]3d34s0
(D) [Ar]3d44s2
The electrophile involved in the sulphonation of
Benzene is
Answer: (C)
Answer: (B)
(A)
(B) so3
(C)
5.
(D)
The empirical formula of a nonelectrolyte is
C1H2O1. A solution containing 6 g of the
compound exerts the same osmotic pressure as
that of 0.05 M glucose solution at the same
temperature. The molecular formula of the
Answer: (C)
6.
compound is ______.
(A) C3H6O3
(B) C2H4O2
(C) C4H8O4
(D) C5H10O5
The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25
eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation
between their wavelengths i.e.
be
7.
8.
9.
10.
(A)
=
(B)
=
(C)
=2
and
Answer: (C)
will
(D)
=4
The enthalpy of formation of NH3 is 46 kJ
mo11. The enthalpy change for the reaction :
2NH3(g)  N2(g) + 3H2(g) is
(A) +92kJ
(B) +46 kJ
(C) +184 kJ
(D) +23 kJ
The following data is obtained during the first
order thermal decomposition of 2A(g)
B(g) +
C(s) , at constant volume and temperature.
Sr. No. Time
Total pressure
in Pascal
1
At the end of 10 minutes 300 300
2
After completion 200
200
The rate constant in min1 is ______.
(A) 6.93
(B) 0.0693
(C) 69.3
(D) 0.00693
The freezing point depression constant for
water is –1.86°Cm–1. If 5.00 g Na2SO4 is
dissolved in 45.0 g H2O, the freezing point is
changed by 3.82°C. Calculate the van't Hoff
factor for Na2SO4
(A) 0.381
(B) 2.05
(C) 2.63
(D) 3.11
The function of Fe(OH)3 in the contact process
is
(A) to remove moisture
(B) to remove dust particles
(C) to remove arsenic impurity
(D) to detect colloidal impurity
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test
20
Sr.
No.
Question
Answer
1.
The general formula of a cycloalkane is
(A) CnH2n + 2
(B) CnH2n  2
(C) CnH2n
(D) CnHn
The incorrect statement in respect of Chromyl chloride test is
(A) formation of Chromyl chloride
(B) liberation of Chlorine
(C) formation of red vapours
(D) formation of lead chromate
The IUPAC name for tertiary butyl iodide is
(A) 4-Iodobutane
(B) 2-Iodobutane
(C) 1-Iodo, 3-methyl propane
(D) 2-Iodo 2·methyl propane
The IUPAC name of [Co(NH3)5 ONO]2+ ion is
(A) Penta ammine nitro cobalt (III) ion
(B) Penta ammine nitro cobalt (IV) ion
(C) Penta ammine nitrito cobalt (IV) ion
(D) Penta ammine nitrito cobalt (III) ion
The IUPAC name of K2 [Ni (CN)4] is ______.
(A) Potassium tetracyanatonickelate (II)
(B) Potassium tetracyanonickelate (II)
(C) Potassium tetracyanonickel (III)
(D) Potassium tetracyanatonickel (II)
The Lassaigne's extract is boiled with conc. HNO 3 while testing
for halogens. By doing so it.
Answer: (C)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(A) Increase the concentration of
ions
(B) Decomposes Na2S and NaCN, if formed
(C) Helps in the precipitation of AgCl
(D) Increases the solubility product of AgCl
The letter 'D' in D  glucose signifies ______.
(A) dextrorotatory
(B) configuration at all chiral carbons
(C) configuration at a particular chiral carbon
(D) that it is a monosaccharide
The magnetic moment of a transition metal ion is
B.M.
Therefore the number of unpaired electrons present in it is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
The mass of a metal, with equivalent mass 31.75, which
would combine with 8 g of oxygen is
(A) 31.75
(B) 3.175
Answer: (B)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (A)
10.
(C) 8
(D) 1
The maximum number of hydrogen bonds that a molecule of
water can have is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: (D)
Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test
21
Sr.
No.
Question
Answer
1.
The monomers of Buna-S rubber are
(A) vinyl chloride and sulphur
(B) butadiene
(C) styrene and butadiene
(D) isoprene and butadiene
The noble gas mixture is cooled in a coconut bulb at 173 K.
The gases that are not adsorbed are
(A) He and Ne
(B) Ar and Kr
(C) He and Xe
(D) Ne and Xe
Which one of the following shows functional isomerism?
(A) CH2Cl2
(B) C2H5OH
(C) C3H6
(D) C2H4
The number of disulphide linkages present in insulin are
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
The number of gram molecules of chlorine in
6.02  1025hydrogen chloride molecules is
(A) 5
(B) 50
(C) 100
(D) 10
The number of nodal planes present in   s antibonding
orbitals is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 0
(D) 3
The number of unidentate ligands in the complex ion is called
(A) EAN
(B) Coordination number
(C) primary valency
(D) oxidation number
Answer: (C)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
8.
9.
10.
The one which has least Iodine value is
(A) Ghee
(B) Groundnut oil
(C) Sunflower oil
(D) Ginger oil
The order of stability of metal oxides is
(A) Fe2O3 < Cr2O3 < AIZO3 < MgO
(B) Fe2O3 < Al2O3 < Cr2O3 < MgO
(C) Al2O3 < MgO < Fe2O3< Cr2O3
(D) Cr2O3 < MgO < Al2O3 < Fe2O3
Which one of the following statement is no true?
(A) Oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon are the most
widespread air pollutant
(B) pH of drinking water should be between 5.5 – 9.5
(C) Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for the growth
of fish
(D) Clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5 ppm
Answer: (A)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (C)
Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test
22
Sr.
No.
Question
Answer
1.
Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(A) [Ni(CO)4]  neutral ligand
(B) [Cu (NH3 )4]+2  square planar
(C) [Co (en )3 ]+3  follows EAN rule
(D) [Fe (CN )6]3  sp3d2
The oxidation state of iron in K4 [Fe (CN )6] is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 1
The oxide of an element whose electronic configuration is
ls2 2s2 2p6 3s1 is
(A) Basic
(B) Acidic
(C) Neutral
(D) Amphoteric
The product formed when hydroxylamine condenses with a
carbonyl compound is called
(A) hydrazone
(B) hydrazine
(C) oxime
(D) hydrazide
The r.m.s. velocity of molecules of a gas of density 4 kg
m3 and pressure 1.2  105 Nm2 is
(A) 120 ms1
(B) 600 ms1
(C) 300 ms1
(D) 900 ms1
The rate equation for a reaction: A  B is r = K [A]°. If the
Answer: (D)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Answer: (A)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
initial concentration of the reactant is a mol dm3, the half life
period of the reaction is
(A)
(B)
(C)
7.
8.
9.
10.
(D)
The reaction involved in the oil of Winter Green test is
Salicylic acid
product. The product is treated
with N&2CO3 solution. The missing reagent in the above
reaction is
(A) Ethanol
(B) Methanol
(C) Phenol
(D) NaOH
The reagent used in Clemmenson's reduction is
(A) alc. KOH
(B) aq. K0H
(C) Zn-Hg / con. HCl
(D) Conc. H2SO4
The reagent used to convert an alkyne to alkene is
(A) Zn / HCl
(B) Sn / HCl
(C) Zn  Hg / HCl
(D) Pd / H2
The set of quantum numbers for the outermost electron for
copper in its ground state is ______.
(A) 3, 2, 2, +½
(B) 4, 1, 1, +½
(C) 4, 2, 2, +½
(D) 4, 0, 0, +½
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (D)
Chemistry Model Question
Paper - MCQs Test 23
Sr. No.
Question
Answer
1.
The spin only magnetic moment of
Mn+4 ion is nearly ______.
(A) 6 BM
(B) 3 BM
(C) 5 BM
(D) 4 BM
The standard electrode potential for the
half cell reactions are:
Answer: (D)
2.
Answer: (B)
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Zn++ + 2e  Zn E° =  0.76 V
Fe++ + 2e  Fe E° =  0.44 V
The E.M.F. of the cell reaction :
Fe++ + Zn  Zn++ +Fe is
(A) +1.20V
(B) +0.32V
(C) -0.32 V
(D) -1.20 V
The standard emf of a galvanic cell
involving 3 moles of electrons in its redox
reaction is 0.59 V. The equilibrium constant
for the reaction of the cell is ______.
(A) 1020
(B) 1025
(C) l030
(D) 1015
The temperature of the slag zone in the
metallurgy of Iron using blast furnace is
(A) 400  700 °C
(B) 800  1000 °C
(C) 1200  1500 °C
(D) 1500  1600 °C
The total number of atomic orbitals in
fourth energy level of an atom is
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 32
The value of H for the reaction
X2g + 4Y2(g) Ý 2XY4(g) is less than zero.
Formation of XY4(g) will be favoured at
(A) High pressure and low temperature
(B) High temperature and high pressure
(C) Low pressure and low temperature
(D) High temperature and low pressure
The van't Hoff factor i for a compound
which undergoes dissociation in one solvent
and association in other solvent is
respectively
(A) Greater than one and greater than one
(B) Less than one and greater than one
(C) Less than one and less than one
(D) Greater than one and less than one
The volume of 10N and 4N HCl required to
make 1 litre of 7N HCl are
(A) 0.75 litre of 10N HCl and 0.25 litre of
4N HCl
(B) 0.80 litre of 10N HCl and 0.20 litre of
4N HCl
(C) 0.60 litre of 10N HCl and 0.40 litre of
4N HCl
(D) 0.50 litre of 10N HCl and 0.50 litre of
Answer: (C)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (D)
9.
4N HCl
The wave number of the spectral line in the
emission spectrum of hydrogen will be
Answer: (B)
10.
equal to
times the Rydberg's constant if
the electron jumps from ______.
(A) n = 10 t0 n = 1
(B) n = 3 to n = 1
(C) n = 2 t0 n = 1
(D) n = 9 t0 n = 1
There are 20 naturally occurring amino
acids. The maximum number of tripeptides
that can be obtained is
(A) 7465
(B) 5360
(C) 8000
(D) 6410
Answer: (C)
Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test
24
Sr.
No.
Question
Answer
1.
Thermodynamic standard conditions of temperature and
pressure are
(A) 0C and 1 atm
(B) 273 k and 101.3 k Pa
(C) 298 k and 1 atm
(D) 0C and 101.3 k Pa
Three moles of PCl5, three moles of PCI3 and two moles of Clz
are taken in a closed vessel. If at equilibrium the vessel has
1.5 moles of PCl5, the number of moles of PCl3 present in it is
(A) 5
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) 4.5
Time required for 100 percent completion of a zero order
reaction is ______.
Answer: (C)
2.
3.
Answer: (D)
Answer: (D)
(A)
(B)
(C) a k
4.
(D)
Two gases A and B having the same volume diffuse through a
porous partition in 20 and 10 seconds respectively.
The molecular mass of A is 49 u. Molecular mass of B will be
(A) 25.00 u
(B) 50.00 u
Answer: (C)
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
(C) 12.25 u
(D) 6.50 u
Vapour pressure of pure 'A' is 70 mm of Hg at 25 °C. It forms
an ideal solution with 'B' in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. lf
the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25 °C,
the vapour pressure of pure 'B' at 25 °C is
(A) 70 mm
(B) 140 mm
(C) 28 mm
(D) 56 mm
Waxes are esters of
(A) glycerol
(B) long chain alcohols
(C) glycerol and fatty acid
(D) long chain alcohols and long chain fatty acids
When a sulphur sol is evaporated sulphur is obtained. On
mixing with water sulphur sol
is not formed. The sol is
(A) hydrophilic
(B) hydrophobic
(C) reversible
(D) lyophilic
When carbon monoxide is passed over solid caustic soda
heated to 200°C, it forms
(A) Na2CO3
(B) NaHCO3
(C) HCOONa
(D) CH3COONa
When compared to G0 for the formation of Al2O3 , the
AG0 for the formation of Cr2O3 is
(A) higher
(B) lower
(C) same
(D) unpredicted
When conc. H2SO4 is heated with P2 05 , the acid is converted
into
(A) sulphur
(B) sulphur dioxide
(C) sulphur trioxide
(D) a mixture of sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide
Answer: (B)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (C)
Chemistry Model Question
Paper - MCQs Test 25
Sr. No.
Question
Answer
1.
When KBr is dissolved in water, K+ ions
are
(A) oxidised
(B) reduced
(C) hydrolysed
(D) hydrated
Answer: (D)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
When sulphur dioxide is passed in an
acidified K2Cr2 O7 solution, the oxidation
state of sulphur is changed from
(A) + 4 to 0
(B) + 4 to + 2
(C) + 4 to + 6
(D) + 6 to + 4
When the azimuthal quantum number has
the value of 2, the number of orbitals
possible are
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) O
Which complex can not ionise in solution?
(A) [Pt(NH3)6] Cl4
(B) K2[pt(F6)]
(C) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(D) [CoCl3(NH3)3]
Which is the most easily liquifiable rare
gas?
(A) Xe
(B) Kr
(C) Ar
(D) Ne
Which metal has a greater tendency to
form metal oxide?
(A) Cr
(B) Fe
(C) Al
(D) Ca
Which of the following can be measured
by the Ostwald-Walker dynamic method
(A) Relative lowering of vapour pressure
(B) Lowering of vapour pressure
(C) Vapour pressure of the solvent
(D) all of these
Which of the following compounds has the
lowest melting point?
(A) CaF2
(B) CaCl2
(C) CaBr2
(D) CaI2
Which of the following electrolytic
solutions has the least specific
conductance `?
(A) 0.02 N
(B) 0.2 N
(C) 2 N
(D) 0.002 N
Which of the following elements is present
as the impurity to the maximum extent in
Answer: (C)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (C)
the pig iron?
(A) Phosphorus
(B) Manganese
(C) Carbon
(D) Silicon
Chemistry Model Question
Paper - MCQs Test 26
Sr. No.
Question
Answer
1.
Which of the following forms a colour less
solution in aqueous medium?
(A) Ti 3+
(B) Sc 3+
(C) V 3+
(D) Cr 3+
Which of the following has the maximum
number of unpaired 'd' electrons?
(A) Zn2+
(B) Fe2+
(C) Ni3+
(D) Cu+
Which of the following has the minimum
bond length?
(A) O2
Answer: (B)
2.
3.
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
(B)
(C)
4.
5.
6.
7.
(D)
Which of the following is an intensive
property?
(A) temperature
(B) surface tension
(C) viscosity
(D) all of these
Which of the following is correct option
for free expansion of an ideal gas under
adiabatic condition?
(A) q = 0, T < 0, w  0
(B) q = 0, T  0, w = 0
(C) q  0, T = 0, w = 0
(D) q = 0, T = 0, w = 0
Which of the following is least likely to
behave is Lewis base?
(A) OH–
(B) H2O
(C) NH3
(D) BF3
Which of the following organic
compounds answers to both iodoform test
Answer: (D)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (C)
and Fehling's test'?
(A) ethanol
(B) methanal
(C) ethanal
(D) propanone
Which of the following pairs of metals is
purified by van Arkel method?
(A) Ni and Fe
(B) Ga and In
(C) Zr and Ti
(D) Ag and Au
Which one of the following is present as
an active ingredient in bleaching powder
for bleaching action?
(A) CaCl2
(B) CaOCl2
(C) Ca(OCl)2
(D) CaO2Cl
Which of the following species does not
exert a resonance effect?
(A) C6H5NH2
(B) C6H5NH3
(C) C6H5OH
(D) C6H5Cl
8.
9.
10.
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (B)
Chemistry Model Question
Paper - MCQs Test 27
Sr. No.
Question
Answer
1.
Which of the two ions from the list given below
that have the geometry that is explained by the
same hybridization of
Answer: (B)
orbitals,
2.
3.
?
(A)
and
(B)
and
(C)
and
(D) SCN and
Which one of the following conformations of
cyclohexane is the least stable?
(A) Boat
(B) Half-chair
(C) Chair
(D) Twisted-boat
Which one of the following conversions involve
change in both hybridization and shape?
(A) NH3  NH
(B) CH4  C2H6
Answer: (B)
Answer: (D)
(C) H2O  H3O+
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
(D) BF3 BF
Which one of the following does NOT involve
coagulation?
(A) Peptization
(B) Formation of delta regions
(C) Clotting of blood by the use of ferric
chloride
(D) Treatment of drinking water by potash
alum
Which one of the following forms propanenitrile
as the major product?
(A) Propyl bromide + alcoholic KCN
(B) Ethyl bromide + alcoholic KCN
(C) Ethyl bromide + alcoholic AgCN
(D) Propyl bromide + alcoholic AgCN
Which one of the following has maximum
number of atoms of oxygen?
(A) 2 g of water
(B) 2 g of sulphur dioxide
(C) 2 g of carbon dioxide
(D) 2 g of carbon monoxide.
Which one of the following is a molecular
crystal?
(A) Quartz
(B) Rock salt
(C) Diamond
(D) Dry ice
Which one of the following is a second order
reaction?
(A) CH3COOCH3 + NaOH  CH3COONa + H2O
(B) H2 + Cl2
2HCl
(C) NH4NO3  N2 + 3H2O
(D) H2 + Br2  2HBr
Which one of the following is an example for
homogeneous catalysis?
(A) Manufacture of ammonia by Haber's
process
(B) Manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact
process
(C) Hydrogenation of oil
(D) Hydrolysis of sucrose in presence of dilute
hydrochloric acid
Which one of the following is employed as
Antithistamine?
(A) Omeprazole
(B) Chloramphenicol
(C) Diphenyl hydramine
(D) Norothindrone
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (C)
Chemistry Model Question
Paper - MCQs Test 28
Sr. No.
Question
Answer
1.
Based on the first law of thermodynamics,
which one of the following is correct?
(A) For an isochoric process, ΔU = q
(B) For an isochoric process, q = +w
(C) For a cyclic process, q = w
(D) For an adiabatic process, ΔU = w
G0 Vs T plot in the Ellingham's diagram
slopes downwards for the reaction
Answer: (C)
2.
(A) Mg +
(B) 2Ag +
(C) C +
3.
Answer: (C)
O2  MgO
O2  Ag2O
O2  CO
(D) CO +
O2  CO2
-maltose consists of
Answer: (C)
(A) two -D-glucopyranose units with 1-2
glycosidic linkage
(B) one -D-glucopyranose units and one -Dglucopyranose unit with 1-2 glycosidic linkage
(C) two -D-glucopyranose units with 1-4
glycosidic linkage
4.
5.
(D) two -D-glucopyranose units with 1-4
glycosidic linkage
0.06 mole of KNO3 solid is added to 100 cm3 of
water at 298 k. The enthalpy of
KNO3aq solution is 35.8 kJmol1. After the
solute is dissolved the temperature of the
solution will be
(A) 293 k
(B) 298 k
(C) 301 k
(D) 304 k
1 × 10–3 m solution of Pt(NH3)4Cl4 in H2O
shows depression in freezing point by
0.0054°C. The structure of the compound will
be (Given Kfp(H2O) = 1.860 km–1)
(A) [Pt(NH3)4]Cl4
(B) [Pt(NH3)3Cl]Cl3
(C) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]Cl2
Answer: (A)
Answer: (C)
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
(D) Pt(NH3)Cl3]Cl
1.2 g of organic compound on Kjeldahilization
liberates ammonia which consumes 30 cm3 of
1 N HCl. The percentage of nitrogen in the
organic compound is ______.
(A) 35
(B) 30
(C) 20.8
(D) 46.67
50 cm3 of 0.2 N HCl is titrated against 0.1 N
NaOH solution. The titration was discontinued
after adding 50 cm3 of NaOH. The remaining
titration is completed by adding 0.5 N KOH.
The volume of KOH required for completing
the titration is
(A) 12 cm3
(B) 10 cm3
(C) 21.0 cm3
(D) 16.2 cm3
9.65 coulombs of electric current is passed
through fused anhydrous MgCl2. The
magnesium metal thus obtained is completely
converted into a Grignard reagent. The
number of moles of Grignard reagent obtained
is
(A) 1  10–4
(B) 5  10–4
(C) 1  10–5
(D) 5  10–5
A buffer solution contains 0.1 mole of sodium
acetate dissolved in 1000 cm3 of 0.1 M acetic
acid. To the above buffer solution, 0.1 mole of
sodium acetate is further added and dissolved.
The pH of the resulting buffer is ______.
(A) pKa + 1
(B) pKa
(C) pKa + Log 2
(D) pKa = Log 2
A chemical reaction proceeds into the following
steps
Step I, 2A Ý X fast
Step II, X + B Ý Y slow
Step III, Y + B Ý Product fast
The rate law for the overall reaction is
(A) Rate = k[A]2
(B) Rate = k[B]2
(C) Rate = k[A][B]
(D) Rate = k[A]2[B]
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (D)
11.
A mixture of CaCl2 and NaCl weighing 4.44 g is
treated with sodium carbonate solution to
precipitate all the calcium ions as calcium
carbonate. The calcium carbonate so obtained
is heated strongly to get 0.56 g of CaO. The
percentage of NaCl in the mixture is
[Atomic mass of Ca = 40]
(A) 75
(B) 31.5
(C) 40.2
(D) 25
12.
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
A plot of In k against
(abscissa) is expected
to be a straight line with intercept on ordinate
axis equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) R  S
13.
14.
15.
A radioactive atom
emits two  particles
and one  particle successively. The number of
neutrons in the nucleus of the product will be
(A) X – 4 – Y
(B) X – Y – 5
(C) X – Y – 3
(D) X – Y – 6
A solution is 0.1 M with respect to Ag+, Ca2+,
Mg2+ and AI3+ which will precipitate at lowest
concentration of [
] when solution of
Na3PO4 is added?
(A) Ag3PO4(Ksp = 1 × 10–6)
(B) Ca3(PO4)2(Ksp = 1 × 10–33)
(C) Mg3(PO4)2(Ksp = 1 × 10–24)
(D) AIPO4(Ksp = 1 × 10–20)
A solution of two liquids boils at a temperature
more than the boiling point of either of them.
Hence, the binary solution shows
(A) positive deviation from Raoult's law
(B) negative deviation from Raoult's law
(C) positive or negative deviation from
Raoult's law depending upon the composition
(D) no deviation from Raoult's law
Answer: (B)
Answer: (D)
Answer: (B)