Download 九十九學年度 生技 /生醫系免疫學期中考(II) 姓名： 學號： 周開平副教授

九十九學年度 生技/生醫
生技 生醫系免疫學期中考
生醫系免疫學期中考(II)
系免疫學期中考
姓名：
姓名：
學號：
學號：
周開平副教授：40%
I.
Terminology: (10%)
1. Notch 1
2. AIRE
3. Cognate antigen
4. L-selectin
5. Anergy
II. True and false: (10%)
1. T cell progenitors are generated and developed into T cells in thymus.
2. TCR α chain gene is located within TCR δ chain gene locus.
3. Thymic dendritic cells and macrophages are the most important cells presenting self MHC for positive selection.
4. Single positive cells that have strong binding to the cortical epithelial cells live.
5. Negative selection is for self tolerance.
6. Germinal center cells bear CD3 on their surface.
7. IL12 is produced by activated Th1 cells.
8. The homing of effector T cells to inflammatory sites is dependent upon the antigen presented by the
endothelial cells in the inflammatory tissue.
9. CD40L and IFNγ of activated Th1 can activate macrophages for the elimination of intracellular infection.
10. CD40L of activated Th2 stimulates B cell differentiation to plasma cells.
III. Single choice (5%)
1. Cells with surface pre-Tα:
(A) Are cells with productive rearranged TCR δ chain.
(B) Are at double positive stage.
(C) Become Notch 1-negative.
(D) Are ready for positive selection.
2. The site that release single positive T cells into circulation is:
(A) HEV.
(B) Thymic cortex.
(C) Thymic medulla.
(D) T-cell area.
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3. IL12 induces:
(A) Th1.
(B) Th2.
(C) IgA response.
(D) Treg.
4. Which of the following can be a cell surface marker for effector T cells?
(A) B7.
(B) CD4.
(C) FoxP3.
(D) CD45RO.
5. Cytotoxic granules contain:
(A) Perforin.
(B) TNFα.
(C) FasL.
(D) IFNγ.
IV. Assays (20%)
1. Please describe the migration pattern of DC, naïve and effector T cells in an antigen-specific response. (6%)
2. What are professional APCs? Please describe their function during T cell activation. (6%)
3. Describe the structure of IL2R and its role in T cell response. (4%)
4. How do CD4 T cells help CD8 T cell activation? (4%)
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郭敏玲副教授：60%
I. True ()/False (X) (12%, Extra 0.5 points will be awarded if you have the correct answer for the FALSE statement)
___1.
The effect anti-IL-7 antibody is expected mainly on the development of pre-B cells.
___2.
FcεRI has very high affinity to IgE.
___3.
The receptor FcRn transports IgM from the bloodstream into the extracellular spaces.
___4.
Vaccine against Haemophilus influenzae type b is a conjugate of bacterial polysaccharide and the
tetanus toxoid protein.
___5.
B-cell tumors originate during different development stages of B cells. If transformation occurs at
the immature B cell stage, the immunoglobulin on the cell surface will be composed of µ:VpreB
λ5.
___6.
An immunodeficiency called hyper IgM syndrome is characterized by the lack of CD40
expression on B cells.
___7.
An immunodeficiency called X-linked agammaglobulinemia (X-LA) is characterized by the lack
of Btk gene in B cells.
___8.
Among IgG subclasses, IgG4 has the best capacity to activate and fix complement.
___9.
The staple form of IgM can efficiently activate complement.
___10.
Mismatched blood transfusion will cause type III hypersensitivity.
___11.
IFN-γ is an important mediator for type IV hypersensitivity.
___12.
Th1 cells release cytokines that result in an increased production of eosinophils and mast cells in
the bone marrow.
II. Single Choice (20%)
1. Which cells are rapidly dividing B cells located in the dark zone of germinal centers?
(A) centroblasts
(B) centrocytes
(C) plasmablasts
(D) plasma cells
2. Which of the following mechanism is the major cause of Ab affinity maturation?
(A) Antigenic competition
(B) DNA recombination
(C) Large amount Ag administration
(D) Somatic hypermutation
3. Which of the following cytokine is the MOST effective mediator to stimulate the class-switch from IgM
to IgE?
(A) IL-4
(B) IL-5
(C) IL-6
(D) IL-7
4. Which of the following is NOT T-independent antigen?
(A) dextran
(B) LPS
(C) poly-D amino acids
(D) ovalbumin
5. The mechanism that makes immunoglobulins to be synthesized to recognize only one antigen is
(A) allelic exclusion
(B) class switching
(C) differential RNA processing
(D) post-translational modification
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6. How long does it take to develop type IV granulomatous hypersensitivity?
(A) 30 minutes
(B) 6-12 hours
(C) 48-72 hours
(D) 21-28 days
7.
Which of the following is NOT the risk factor for asthma?
(A) have a SNP (single nucleotide polymorphism) linked to IRF (interferon regulatory factor) gene
(B) be the first child in a family
(C) be infected with intracellular bacteria
(D) lives in a germ-free environment
8.
Which molecule is NOT part of B-cell co-receptor?
(A) CD19
(B) CD21
(C) CD56
(D) CD81
9.
Which of the following description is NOT correct for type II hypersensitivity?
(A) Ab-Ag immune complex initiates the reaction.
(B) ADCC is the major reaction for tissue destruction.
(C) Binding of Ab to penicillin-modified red cells may initiate the reaction.
(D) The activation of complement is involved in the reaction.
10. Which of the following approach can NOT be considered as the potential treatment for asthma?
(A) blockade of IgE receptor (B) corticosteroids (C) inhibit IL-12
(D) lipoxygenase inhibitors
III. Please give 2 different points related to the following pairs: (8%)
1.Primary vs. secondary Ab responses
2.Surrogate vs. λ light chains
3.B1 vs. B2 B cells
4.Atopic vs. contact dermatitis
IV. Short assays: (21%)
1. Place the following phases of a B cells’ life history in the correct chronological order. (6%)
a. Attacking infection
b. Finding infection
c. Negative selection
d. Positive selection
e. Repertoire assembly
f. Searching for infection
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2. Explain how the poly-Ig receptor transports dimeric IgA antibodies across cellular barriers. What are
the final locations of the transported material? (5%)
3. Describe three ways in which a type III hypersensitivity reaction differs from a type I reaction. (6%)
4. Describe the molecular basis of immune recognition of gluten in celiac disease. (4%)
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