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Biology Fall Semester Final Exam - Practice Test
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Scientists use observations and data to form and test
A) constants.
B) hypotheses.
C) theories.
D) conclusions.
2) During an experiment, which factors are observed and measured?
A) dependent variables
B) independent variables
C) constants
D) hypotheses
3) At which stage of scientific thinking are scientists most likely to consider the data and conclusions of other scientists
to propose new experiments?
4)
5)
6)
7)
A) observing
B) testing hypotheses
C) analyzing data
D) forming hypotheses
Which phrase best describes scientific theories?
A) explain few observations
B) serve as speculations
C) are never proven
D) cannot be replaced
The various parts of Earth's biosphere are connected and
A) similar.
B) nonliving.
C) diverse.
D) aquatic.
The variety of life across the biosphere is called
A) biodiversity.
B) genomics.
C) homeostasis.
D) ecology.
Similar organisms that can reproduce by interbreeding belong to the same
A) ecosystem.
B) environment.
C) habitat.
D) species.
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8) All the chemical processes used to build up or break down materials are called an organism's
A) metabolism.
B) homeostasis.
C) adaptations.
D) stimuli.
9) What is the name given for genetic changes in living things over time?
A) adaptation
B) homeostasis
C) evolution
D) negative feedback
10) A physical environment with different species that interact with one another and with nonliving things is called a(n)
A) biosphere.
B) ecosystem.
C) habitat.
D) adaptation.
11) Organisms rely on both negative feedback processes and behavior to maintain
A) homeostasis.
B) adaptations.
C) ecosystems.
D) evolution.
12) How have computer models expanded biological research?
A) They help scientists design better experiments.
B) They simulate complex biological systems that cannot be studied directly.
C) They give scientists the ability to observe molecules directly.
D) They allow the use of human experimental subjects.
13) The study and manipulation of DNA on a molecular level is known as
A) biochemistry.
B) genomes.
C) molecular genetics.
D) evolution.
14) Both of the processes shown in Figure 1.2 use and apply biological processes. Both processes are examples of
A)
B)
C)
D)
biotechnology.
genomics.
imaging technology.
transgenic organisms.
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15) Exploring how indoor air pollutants lead to respiratory problems is an example of using biology to
A) develop biotechnology.
B) monitor global change.
C) improve human health.
D) make ethical decisions.
16) The smallest basic unit of matter is the
A) molecule.
B) atom.
C) compound.
D) cell.
17) Which of the following is formed when an atom gains or loses electrons?
A) element
B) compound
C) molecule
D) ion
18) Atoms in molecules share pairs of electrons when they make
A) covalent bonds.
B) ionic bonds.
C) hydrogen bonds.
D) polymers.
19) What gives water many properties that are important to living things?
A) temperature
B) hydrogen bonds
C) density
D) specific heat
20) Which of the following solutions has the highest H ion concentration?
A) a solution with a pH of 1
B) a solution with a pH of 4
C) a solution with a pH of 7
D) a solution with a pH of 10
21) What is unique about carbon?
A) bonding properties
B) ability to bond with oxygen
C) properties as a reactant
D) properties as an enzyme
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22) Which substance represented in Figure 2.1 (A or B) is the solvent?
23)
24)
25)
26)
A) both A and B
B) substance A
C) substance B
D) neither A nor B
The four main types of carbon-based molecules in organisms are carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids, and
A) starches.
B) fatty acids.
C) monosaccharides.
D) proteins.
Both animal fats and plant oils are made up of glycerol and
A) phospholipids.
B) fatty acids.
C) polar molecules.
D) saturated fats.
Substances are changed into different substances when bonds break and form during
A) chemical equilibrium.
B) chemical reactions.
C) ion formation.
D) hydrogen bonding.
Identify the products in this reaction: 6HO + 6CO + CHO + 6O.
A) 6H 2 O and 6CO 2
B) 6CO 2 and C 6 H 12 O 6
C) 6H 2 O, C 6 H 12 O 6 , and 6O 2
D) C 6 H 12 O 6 and 6O 2
27) Chemical reactions that absorb more energy than they release are called
A) exothermic.
B) catalyzed.
C) endothermic.
D) activated.
28) The activation energy needed for a chemical reaction is decreased by a
A) catalyst.
B) reactant.
C) product.
D) substrate.
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29) In the lock-and-key model of enzyme function shown in Figure 2.2, what is happening in step 2?
A) The catalyzed reaction is releasing a product.
B) The active sites are restructuring the enzyme.
C) The enzyme is causing new bonds to form between the substrates.
D) The substrates are beginning to bind to the enzyme.
30) Which aspect of a chemical reaction is affected by enzymes?
A) direction
B) rate
C) equilibrium
D) pH
31) Which of the following is a major principle upon which cell theory is based?
A) All cells form by free-cell formation.
B) All cells have DNA.
C) All organisms are made of cells.
D) All cells are eukaryotic.
32) Identify the type of cell shown in Figure 3.1.
A) prokaryotic
B) eukaryotic
C) bacterial
D) animal
33) Which organelle is the storehouse for most of a cell's genetic information?
A) mitochondrion
B) chloroplast
C) centriole
D) nucleus
34) Which phrase best describes rough ER?
A) studded with ribosomes
B) protected by vesicles
C) connected to the Golgi apparatus
D) stored in the central vacuole
35) Which organelles supply energy to the cell?
A) ribosomes
B) centrosomes
C) mitochondria
D) vacuoles
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36) Which organelles contain enzymes that break down old cell parts?
A) centrosomes
B) lysosomes
C) vacuoles
D) chloroplasts
37) Which organelles are unique to plant cells?
A) ribosomes
B) vacuoles
C) chloroplasts
D) centrosomes
38) Which process occurs inside the chloroplasts?
A) detoxification
B) ribosome assembly
C) photosynthesis
D) protein synthesis
39) Which type of receptor is shown in the diagram in Figure 3.2?
A) cytoplasmic
B) membrane
C) extracellular
D) intracellular
40) A protein that detects a signal molecule and performs an action in response is called a
A) receptor.
B) ligand.
C) vesicle.
D) proton.
41) A solution that is hypotonic to a cell has
A) more solutes than the cell.
B) fewer solutes than the cell.
C) the same concentration of solutes as the cell.
D) too many solutes.
42) Transport proteins play a role in both
A) passive and active transport.
B) exocytosis and endocytosis.
C) diffusion and vesicle transport.
D) phagocytosis and passive transport.
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43) Which process requires no energy from the cell?
A) exocytosis
B) endocytosis
C) active transport
D) facilitated diffusion
44) Which organelles are involved in the process called endocytosis?
A) ribosomes
B) vesicles
C) centrioles
D) chloroplasts
45) Which process is occurring when a vesicle fuses with the cell membrane and releases its contents outside the cell?
A) endocytosis
B) phagocytosis
C) exocytosis
D) osmosis
46) What molecule carries chemical energy that cells use for their functions?
A) ADP
B) ATP
C) NAD 
D) NADP 
47) Which of the following molecules found in the food we eat is most commonly broken down to make ATP?
A) carbohydrates
B) lipids
C) proteins
D) vitamins
48) Which of the following directly provides the energy needed for cell functions?
A) A phosphate group is removed from ATP.
B) ADP loses a phosphate group.
C) Electrons are passed to proteins.
D) Oxygen picks up electrons.
49) Chemosynthesis is a process through which some organisms use energy from chemicals in their environment to build
sugars in the absence of
A) ATP.
B) water.
C) glucose.
D) sunlight.
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50) The water molecules labeled A in Figure 4.1 are going to the thylakoids to take part in which process?
51)
52)
53)
54)
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A) light-dependent reactions
B) Krebs cycle
C) Calvin cycle
D) light-independent reactions
Which of the following is a reactant in photosynthesis?
A) O 2
B) C 6 H 12 O 6
C) CO 2
D) COOH
Where in plant cells are the energy-absorbing molecules for photosynthesis located?
A) stroma
B) thylakoids
C) ATP synthase
D) mitochondria
What happens to the sugars that are made during photosynthesis?
A) They move directly into an electron transport chain.
B) They go back into the Calvin cycle.
C) They can be used for cellular respiration.
D) They make ATP by bonding together.
The part of cellular respiration that needs oxygen takes place inside the
A) nucleus.
B) mitochondria.
C) thylakoid.
D) cytoplasm.
Which process is best represented by the following chemical equation?
sugars + oxygen  carbon dioxide + water
A) cellular respiration
B) photosynthesis
C) glycolysis
D) fermentation
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56) Which of the following is best shown by Figure 4.2 below?
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58)
59)
60)
61)
62)
63)
A) glycolysis
B) diffusion
C) the Krebs cycle
D) electron transport chain
An electron transport chain that produces ATP is part of both the cellular respiration process and
A) glycolysis.
B) fermentation.
C) photosynthesis.
D) the Krebs cycle.
In which process is lactic acid formed when there is not enough oxygen present for cellular respiration to take place?
A) ATP synthase
B) photosystem I
C) glycolysis
D) fermentation
Before cellular respiration, glucose must be broken down by the process of
A) photosynthesis.
B) glycolysis.
C) electron transport.
D) fermentation.
Which of the following is a product of the Krebs cycle?
A) carbon dioxide
B) oxygen
C) lactic acid
D) glucose
If a cell cannot move enough material through its membrane to survive, then the ratio of its surface area to volume is
A) too large.
B) just the right size.
C) too small.
D) growing too quickly.
Before a cell can proceed to mitosis from the gap 2 stage of the cell cycle, it must
A) double in size.
B) complete a full cell cycle.
C) undergo cytokinesis.
D) pass a critical checkpoint.
During interphase a cell grows, duplicates organelles, and
A) copies DNA.
B) divides the nucleus.
C) divides the cytoplasm.
D) produces a new cell.
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64) Why do the cells lining the stomach divide more quickly than those in the liver?
A) They are much smaller cells.
B) They have fewer chromosomes.
C) They need much more surface area.
D) They undergo more wear and tear.
65) During which of the following stages shown in Figure 5.1 does the cytoplasm of a cell divide?
A) gap 1
B) synthesis
C) gap 2
D) mitosis
66) Kinases and cyclins are internal factors that
A) cause apoptosis.
B) control the cell cycle.
C) cause cancer cells to break away.
D) prevent mitosis.
67) Proteins from outside a cell that stimulate it to divide are called
A) oncogenes.
B) stem cells.
C) cyclins.
D) growth factors.
68) Which statement describes the chromosome shown in Figure 5.2?
A)
B)
C)
D)
It is made up of two histones.
It is made up of two chromatids.
It is made up of two centromeres.
It is made up of two telomeres.
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69) In a single-celled organism, mitosis is used for
A) development.
B) reproduction.
C) growth.
D) epair.
70) Which of the following is true of malignant tumors?
A) They do not require treatment.
B) They are easily removed through surgery.
C) They can cause tumors in other parts of the body.
D) They contain cells that stay clustered together.
71) One difference between a cancer cell and a normal cell is that
A) cancer cells divide uncontrollably.
B) normal cells divide uncontrollably.
C) cancer cells cannot make copies of DNA.
D) normal cells cannot make copies of DNA.
72) Which statement about the process of binary fission is true?
A) It does not involve the division of cytoplasm.
B) It does not require any duplication of DNA.
C) It does not take place in multicellular organisms.
D) It does not produce genetically identical offspring.
73) A plant's leaf consists of
A) a group of organs.
B) various types of tissue.
C) organs that form a system.
D) many identical cells.
74) Cells in a developing embryo differentiate based on
A) their location in the embryo.
B) symmetry in the first division.
C) their particular DNA.
D) secretions from the embryo.
75) Which organism is capable of reproduction through asexual mitosis?
A) horse
B) oak tree
C) bacterium
D) starfish
76) Two similar chromosomes that you inherit from your parents (one from your mother, one from your father) are
called
A) homologous chromosomes.
B) sister chromatids.
C) sex chromosomes.
D) homozygous alleles.
77) Meiosis produces cells with how many chromosomes?
A) 44
B) 22
C) 46
D) 23
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78) Which of the following cell types is diploid?
A) ovum
B) sex cell
C) somatic cell
D) gamete
79) A distinguishing characteristic that can be inherited is a(n)
A) cross.
B) allele.
C) gene.
D) trait.
80) Which of the following phrases describes the Punnett square in Figure 6.1?
81)
82)
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84)
A) 1/4 probability of heterozygous offspring
B) monohybrid heterozygous-heterozygous cross
C) 3/4 probability of homozygous offspring
D) dihybrid heterozygous-heterozygous cross
Which of the following statements is true of homozygous alleles?
A) They are always inherited together.
B) They are different forms of the same trait.
C) They are identical forms of the same gene.
D) They are identical forms of two different genes.
Which law states that organisms inherit two copies of each gene and donate one copy to each of their offspring?
A) law of genetic linkage
B) law of segregation
C) law of independent assortment
D) law of inheritance
Mendel knew that the variations in the offspring generations resulted from his experiments because he
A) allowed plants to cross-pollinate.
B) ensured that plants self-pollinated.
C) controlled the fertilization process.
D) changed the growing conditions.
Which pair of genes in Figure 6.2 would be most likely to be inherited together?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A and B
A and C
A and D
A and E
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85) Which event takes place during anaphase II of meiosis II?
A) Nuclear membrane breaks down.
B) Spindle fibers disassemble.
C) Sister chromatids separate.
D) Cytoplasm divides.
86) Recessive alleles may not be expressed because they are
A) masked by a dominant allele.
B) the least common allele in a population.
C) the most common allele in a population.
D) less likely to have crossing over.
87) Mendel's second law of genetics, the law of independent assortment, is one explanation of the
A) random fertilization of gametes.
B) genetic variation within species.
C) greater strength of dominant alleles.
D) final stages of gametogenesis.
88) Which of the following events is an important factor in increasing variety among sexually reproducing organisms?
A) testcross
B) gene linkage
C) crossing over
D) mitosis
89) Mendel's observation that traits are inherited separately was based on which set of experiments?
A) monohybrid crosses
B) purebred crosses
C) testcrosses
D) dihybrid crosses
90) Imagine two heterozygous parents. Each has a dominant allele X for brown eyes and a recessive allele x for blue
eyes. The phenotypic ratio for brown:blue eyes in their children is
A) 1:2:1.
B) 3:1.
C) 9:3:3:1.
D) 1:3:1.
91) A person who has a disorder caused by a recessive allele is
A) considered a carrier of the disorder.
B) homozygous for the recessive allele.
C) unable to pass the allele to offspring.
D) certain to have offspring with the disorder.
92) Gene expression is influenced by many factors. Which of the following is a factor in gene expression?
A) karyotype
B) pedigree
C) environment
D) phenotype
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93) The Punnett square in Figure 7.1 shows a cross between two parents who have the genotype Ss for a genetic
disorder caused by a recessive allele. Which of the following will have the genetic disorder?
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95)
96)
97)
98)
A) Ss parent
B) Ss offspring
C) SS offspring
D) ss offspring
Two parents have the genotype Gg for a genetic disorder caused by a dominant allele. What is the chance that any of
their children will inherit the disorder?
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%
For an XX female to express a recessive sex-linked trait, she must have
A) a Y chromosome.
B) an inactivated allele.
C) two recessive alleles.
D) two dominant alleles.
Human height occurs in a continuous range because it is affected by the interaction of several genes, making it a
A) autosomal trait.
B) sex-linked trait.
C) polygenic trait.
D) codominant trait.
Suppose a mouse is homozygous for alleles that produce black fur and homozygous for alleles of an epistatic gene
that prevents fur coloration. What color fur will the mouse have?
A) all white
B) mostly black
C) entirely gray
D) black and white
The gene linkage map shown in Figure 7.2 shows the order of genes A, B, and C. Which of the following statements
about the genes is true?
A)
B)
C)
D)
The distance between A and B is 14.5 map units.
A and B cross over 2.5% of the time.
A and C are linked 8.5% of the time.
B and C are most likely to be inherited together.
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99) Thomas Morgan's research with fruit flies determined that
A) alleles always assort independently.
B) chromosomes are inherited as a group.
C) genes never assort independently.
D) traits sometimes are inherited as a group.
100) Two genes cross over 6% of the time. This percentage means that the genes are
A) inactivated in 6 out of 100 offspring.
B) incompletely dominant in 6 out of 100 offspring.
C) not inherited together in 6 out of 100 offspring.
D) on sex chromosomes in 6 out of 100 offspring.
101) A female is born with attached earlobes, which is a recessive phenotype. Which of the following genotypes could her
parents have?
A) RR and RR
B) Rr and RR
C) Rr and rr
D) RR and rr
102) Suppose a person is a carrier for a genetic disorder. Which of the following phrases about this person is true?
A) does not have the disorder but can pass it on
B) will develop the disorder only late in life
C) cannot pass the disorder to sons, just daughters
D) the allele is not passed on due to Y chromosome inactivation
103) Some members of a family have a recessive sex-linked disorder. Which of the following statements about the family
would be true?
A) All males would have the disorder.
B) All females would be carriers.
C) Only males would have the disorder.
D) Only females would be carriers.
104) What is the main reason that sex-linked disorders are most often observed in males?
A) The X chromosome only has genes for genetic disorders.
B) The Y chromosome cannot have genes that cause genetic disorders.
C) The Y chromosome cannot mask alleles on the X chromosome.
D) The X chromosome has genes only for sex determination.
105) Which of the following tools is used to match up chromosome pairs using chemical stains?
A) pedigree chart
B) karyotype
C) meiosis map
D) linkage map
106) What did Hershey and Chase know about bacteriophages that led them to use these viruses in their DNA
experiments?
A) Bacteriophages are made up of a protein coat surrounding DNA.
B) Sulfur in all bacteriophages is radioactive.
C) Protein from bacteriophages enters bacteria.
D) Bacteriophages have no DNA of their own.
107) Which scientist conducted tests on extracts made of bacteria to show that the genetic material in bacteria is DNA?
A) Martha Chase
B) Oswald Avery
C) Frederick Griffith
D) Alfred Hershey
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108) Figure 8.1 shows a single strand of DNA. Choose the first three nucleotides of the other DNA strand.
109)
110)
111)
112)
113)
A) GGT
B) CCT
C) GGC
D) TTA
The main difference between the four nucleotides that make up DNA is that they have different
A) sugars.
B) uracil.
C) bonds.
D) bases.
Which scientists figured out the three-dimensional structure of DNA by using a model of metal and wood?
A) Hershey and Chase
B) Watson and Crick
C) Pauling and Franklin
D) Chargaff and Griffith
In humans, where does DNA replication take place?
A) cytoplasm
B) ribosome
C) nucleus
D) vacuole
During replication, the function of the enzyme DNA polymerase is to
A) bind nucleotides together.
B) send messages.
C) receive messages.
D) locate replication sites.
Figure 8.2 shows a single strand of DNA. Choose the first three nucleotides of the complementary RNA strand.
A) AUT
B) CTA
C) AUC
D) ACG
114) During transcription, what does messenger RNA do?
A) It delivers DNA's instructions for making proteins.
B) It constructs proteins out of random amino acids.
C) It strings together two complementary DNA strands.
D) It strings together two complementary RNA strands.
115) In order to produce all the protein that a cell needs, transcription takes place
A) on a gene segment over and over again.
B) on a gene segment only once.
C) using double-stranded RNA.
D) using single-stranded RNA.
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116) The central dogma states that information flows from
A) RNA to DNA to polysaccharides.
B) DNA to RNA to proteins.
C) RNA to DNA to proteins.
D) DNA to polysaccharides to RNA.
117) How many amino acids are coded for by the strand of mRNA shown below? Assume the reading frame begins with
the first nucleotide.
CGAUAC
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 6
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ID: A
Biology Fall Semester Final Exam - Practice Test
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
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Ch 1 Test - A
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Ch 3 Test - A
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Ch 6 Test - A
Ch 6 Test - A
Ch 6 Test - A
Ch 6 Test - A
Ch 6 Test - A
Ch 6 Test - A
Ch 6 Test - A
Ch 6 Test - A
2
ID: A
87)
88)
89)
90)
91)
92)
93)
94)
95)
96)
97)
98)
99)
100)
101)
102)
103)
104)
105)
106)
107)
108)
109)
110)
111)
112)
113)
114)
115)
116)
117)
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
B
C
D
B
B
C
D
C
C
C
A
A
D
C
C
A
D
C
B
A
B
C
D
B
C
A
C
A
A
B
B
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
TOP:
Ch 6 Test - A
Ch 6 Test - A
Ch 6 Test - A
Ch 6 Test - A
Ch 7 Test - A
Ch 7 Test - A
Ch 7 Test - A
Ch 7 Test - A
Ch 7 Test - A
Ch 7 Test - A
Ch 7 Test - A
Ch 7 Test - A
Ch 7 Test - A
Ch 7 Test - A
Ch 7 Test - A
Ch 7 Test - A
Ch 7 Test - A
Ch 7 Test - A
Ch 7 Test - A
Ch 8 Test - A
Ch 8 Test - A
Ch 8 Test - A
Ch 8 Test - A
Ch 8 Test - A
Ch 8 Test - A
Ch 8 Test - A
Ch 8 Test - A
Ch 8 Test - A
Ch 8 Test - A
Ch 8 Test - A
Ch 8 Test - A
3