Download ExamView - Fall Midterm Practice Test

Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________
2014 Fall Midterm Practice Test
Matching
Match each item with the correct statement below.
a. mixture
d. reactant
b. product
e. heterogeneous mixture
c. phase
f. vapor
____
____
____
____
____
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
gaseous state of substance that is a liquid or solid at room temperature
a physical blend of two or more components
not uniform in composition
a substance formed in a chemical reaction
starting substance in a chemical reaction
Match each item with the correct statement below.
a. distillation
d. compound
b. mass
e. element
c. chemical reaction
f. homogeneous
____ 6.
____ 7.
____ 8.
____ 9.
____ 10.
amount of matter an object contains
describes mixture with a uniform composition
substance that cannot be changed into simpler substances by chemical means
composed of two or more substances chemically combined in a fixed proportion
process in which substances are changed into different substances
Match each item with the correct statement below.
a. absolute zero
e.
b. Kelvin temperature scale
f.
c. Celsius temperature scale
g.
d. weight
h.
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
mass
significant figure
precision
accuracy
closeness to true value
narrowness of range of measurements
known or estimated in a measurement
the quantity of matter an object contains
the lowest point on the Kelvin scale
the SI scale for temperature
the force of gravity on an object
the non-SI scale for temperature
Match each item with the correct statement below.
a. proton
d. electron
b. nucleus
e. neutron
c. atom
____ 19. the smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that element
____ 20. a positively charged subatomic particle
____ 21. a negatively charged subatomic particle
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ID: A
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 22. a subatomic particle with no charge
____ 23. the central part of an atom, containing protons and neutrons
Match each item with the correct statement below.
a. mass number
d. atomic mass
b. atomic mass unit
e. isotope
c. atomic number
____
____
____
____
____
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
atoms with the same number of protons, but different numbers of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom
the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom
the number of protons in the nucleus of an element
the weighted average of the masses of the isotopes of an element
one-twelfth the mass of a carbon atom having six protons and six neutrons
Match each item with the correct statement below.
a. positron
d. transuranium element
b. alpha particle
e. gamma radiation
c. beta particle
f. transmutation
____ 29. emitted helium nucleus
____ 30. high-energy photons emitted by a radioisotope
____ 31. particle of charge +1 and mass equal to that of an electron
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 32. A theory is a ____.
a. proposed explanation for an observation
b. well-tested explanation for a broad set of observations
c. summary of the results of many observations
d. procedure used to test a proposed explanation
____ 33. The variable that is observed during an experiment is called what type of variable?
a. independent
c. controlling
b. manipulated
d. responding
____ 34. Which of the following is NOT an example of matter?
a. air
c. smoke
b. heat
d. water vapor
____ 35. An example of an extensive property of matter is ____.
a. temperature
c. mass
b. pressure
d. hardness
____ 36. All of the following are physical properties of matter EXCEPT ____.
a. mass
c. melting point
b. color
d. ability to rust
____ 37. A vapor is which state of matter?
a. solid
c. gas
b. liquid
d. all of the above
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 38. Which of the following is a physical change?
a. corrosion
c. evaporation
b. explosion
d. rotting of food
____ 39. Which of the following CANNOT be classified as a substance?
a. table salt
c. nitrogen
b. air
d. gold
____ 40. Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture?
a. salt water
c. sand and water
b. beef stew
d. soil
____ 41. Separating a solid from a liquid by evaporating the liquid is called ____.
a. filtration
c. solution
b. condensation
d. distillation
____ 42. What distinguishes a substance from a mixture?
a. Substances are compounds, and mixtures are not.
b. Mixtures are groupings of elements, and compounds are not.
c. Samples of the same substance can have different intensive properties.
d. Mixtures can be separated physically, while compounds cannot.
____ 43. The first figure in a properly written chemical symbol always is ____.
a. boldfaced
c. italicized
b. capitalized
d. underlined
____ 44. The chemical symbol for iron is ____.
a. fe
c. Fe
b. FE
d. Ir
____ 45. Which of the following represents a compound?
a. H
c. H2O
b. H-3
d. O-16
____ 46. What must occur for a change to be a chemical reaction?
a. There must be a change in chemical properties.
b. There must be a change in physical properties.
c. The change must involve a change in mass.
d. The change must involve a change in volume.
____ 47. Which of the following is NOT a physical change?
a. grating cheese
c. fermenting of cheese
b. melting cheese
d. mixing two cheeses in a bowl
____ 48. All of the following changes to a metal are physical changes EXCEPT ____.
a. bending
c. rusting
b. melting
d. polishing
____ 49. Which of the following does NOT involve a physical change?
a. mixing
c. grinding
b. melting
d. decomposing
____ 50. Which of the following processes does NOT involve a change in chemical properties?
a. rusting
c. boiling
b. fermenting
d. burning
____ 51. A chemical change occurs when a piece of wood ____.
a. is split
c. decays
b. is painted
d. is cut
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 52. Which of the following is a chemical property of water at 4 C?
a. its color
b. its state
c. its temperature
d. its ability to decompose into hydrogen and oxygen
____ 53. What must be done to be certain that a chemical change has taken place?
a. Check for the production of bubbles before and after the change.
b. Demonstrate that a release of energy occurred after the change.
c. Check the composition of the sample before and after the change.
d. Demonstrate that energy was absorbed by the reactants after the change.
____ 54. Which of the following indicates that a chemical change has happened during cooking?
a. The food darkens.
b. Bubbles form in boiling water.
c. Butter melts.
d. Energy is transferred from the stove to a pan.
____ 55. Which of the following does NOT indicate that a chemical change may have taken place?
a. fracture formation
c. precipitate formation
b. gas production
d. energy transfer
____ 56. The diameter of a carbon atom is 0.000 000 000 154 m. What is this number expressed in scientific notation?
a.
1.54  10 12 m
c.
1.54  10 10 m
d. 1.54  10 10 m
b. 1.54  10 12 m
____ 57. The expression of 5008 km in scientific notation is ____.
a.
5.008  10 3 km
c.
5.008  10 3 km
b.
50.08 10 4 km
d.
5.008  10 4 km
____ 58. What is the result of multiplying 2.5  10 10 by 3.5  10 7 ?
a.
8.75  10 3
c.
8.75  10 3
b.
8.75  10 17
d.
8.75  10 17
____ 59. What is the result of adding 2.5  10 3 and 3.5  10 2 ?
a.
____ 60.
____ 61.
____ 62.
____ 63.
2.9  10 3
c.
2.9  10 2
b. 6.0  10 3
d. 6.0  10 5
The closeness of a measurement to its true value is a measure of its ____.
a. precision
c. reproducibility
b. accuracy
d. usefulness
Which of the following measurements contains two significant figures?
a. 0.004 00 L
c. 0.000 44 L
b. 0.004 04 L
d. 0.004 40 L
When a test instrument is calibrated, does its accuracy, precision, or reliability improve?
a. precision
c. reliability
b. accuracy
d. all of the above
Which of the following measurements (of different masses) is the most accurate?
a. 3.1000 g
c. 3.122 22 g
b. 3.100 00 g
d. 3.000 000 g
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 64. Which group of measurements is the most precise? (Each group of measurements is for a different object.)
a. 2 g, 3 g, 4 g
c. 2 g, 2.5 g, 3 g
b. 2.0 g, 3.0 g, 4.0 g
d. 1 g, 3 g, 5 g
____ 65. Three different people weigh a standard mass of 2.00 g on the same balance. Each person obtains a reading of
7.32 g for the mass of the standard. These results imply that the balance that was used is ____.
a. accurate
c. accurate and precise
b. precise
d. neither accurate nor precise
____ 66. Which of the following measurements is expressed to three significant figures?
____ 67.
____ 68.
____ 69.
____ 70.
____ 71.
____ 72.
____ 73.
a. 0.007 m
c. 7.30  10 7 km
b. 7077 mg
d. 0.070 mm
In the measurement 0.503 L, which digit is the estimated digit?
a. 5
b. the 0 immediately to the left of the 3
c. 3
d. the 0 to the left of the decimal point
How many significant figures are in the measurement 0.003 4 kg?
a. two
c. five
b. four
d. This cannot be determined.
How many significant figures are in the measurement 40,500 mg?
a. two
c. four
b. three
d. five
How many significant figures are in the measurement 811.40 grams?
a. two
c. four
b. three
d. five
Express the sum of 1111 km and 222 km using the correct number of significant digits.
a. 1300 km
c. 1333 km
b. 1330 km
d. 1333.0 km
Express the sum of 7.68 m and 5.0 m using the correct number of significant digits.
a. 12.68 m
c. 13 m
b. 12.7 m
d. 10 m
Express the product of 2.2 mm and 5.00 mm using the correct number of significant digits.
a.
10 mm 2
c.
11.0 mm 2
b. 11 mm 2
d. 11.00 mm 2
____ 74. What is the measurement 111.009 mm rounded off to four significant digits?
a. 111 mm
c. 111.01 mm
b. 111.0 mm
d. 110 mm
____ 75. What is the measurement 1042 L rounded off to two significant digits?
a.
1.0  10 3 L
c.
1050 L
b.
1040 L
d.
1.1  10 3 L
____ 76. Express the product of 4.0  10 2 m and 8.1  10 2 m using the correct number of significant digits.
a.
3  10 1
c.
3.2  10 1
b.
3.0  10 1
d.
3.24  10 1
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 77. When multiplying and dividing measured quantities, the number of significant figures in the result should be
equal to the number of significant figures in ____.
a. all of the measurements
b. the least and most precise measurements
c. the most precise measurement
d. the least precise measurement
____ 78. What is the volume of a salt crystal measuring 2.44  10 2 m by 1.4  10 3 m by 8.4  10 3 m?
a.
____ 79.
____ 80.
____ 81.
____ 82.
____ 83.
____ 84.
____ 85.
____ 86.
____ 87.
____ 88.
____ 89.
____ 90.
2.9  10 7 m 3
c.
2.9  10 5 m 3
b. 2.9  10 6 m 3
d. 2.9  10 4 m 3
What quantity is represented by the metric system prefix deci-?
a. 1000
c. 0.1
b. 100
d. 0.01
What is the metric system prefix for the quantity 0.000 001?
a. centic. kilob. decid. microThe chief advantage of the metric system over other systems of measurement is that it ____.
a. has more units
c. is in French
b. is in multiples of 10
d. is derived from nature itself
Which of the following units is NOT an official SI unit?
a. kilogram
c. mole
b. ampere
d. liter
Which of the following volumes is the smallest?
a. one microliter
c. one milliliter
b. one liter
d. one deciliter
What is the SI unit of mass?
a. liter
c. candela
b. joule
d. kilogram
What is the temperature of absolute zero measured in C?
a. –373C
c. –173C
d. –73C
b. –273C
Which temperature scale has no negative temperatures?
a. Celsius
c. Joule
b. Fahrenheit
d. Kelvin
What is the boiling point of water in kelvins?
a. 0 K
c. 273 K
b. 100 K
d. 373 K
Which of the following mass units is the largest?
a. 1 cg
c. 1 mg
b. 1 dg
d. 1 ng
The weight of an object ____.
a. is the same as its mass
c. is not affected by gravity
b. depends on its location
d. is always the same
What is the temperature –34C expressed in kelvins?
a. 139 K
c. 239 K
b. 207 K
d. 339 K
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 91. If the temperature changes by 100 K, by how much does it change in C?
c. 100C
a. 0C
d. 273C
b. 37C
____ 92. Chlorine boils at 239 K. What is the boiling point of chlorine expressed in degrees Celsius?
a. 93C
c. –61C
d. –34C
b. 34C
Prefix
mega (M)
kilo (k)
deci (d)
centi (c)
milli (m)
micro ()
nano (n)
pico (p)
Commonly Used Metric Prefixes
Meaning
1 million times larger than the unit it precedes
1000 times larger than the unit it precedes
10 times smaller than the unit it precedes
100 times smaller than the unit it precedes
1000 times smaller than the unit it precedes
1 million times smaller than the unit it precedes
1000 million times smaller than the unit it precedes
1 trillion times smaller than the unit it precedes
Factor
10 6
10 3
10 1
10 2
10 3
10 6
10 9
10 12
____ 93. The density of mercury is 5,427 kg/(m 3). If the density of water is 1.0 g/mL, will mercury float or sink in
water?
a. Mercury will float because the density of mercury is 0.005427 g/mL, which is less than
the 1.0 g/mL density of water.
b. Mercury will float because the density of mercury is 0.05427 g/mL, which is less than the
1.0 g/mL density of water.
c. Mercury will sink because the density of mercury is 5.427 g/mL, which is greater than
the 1.0 g/mL density of water.
d. Mercury will sink because the density of mercury is 5,427 g/mL, which is greater than
the 1.0 g/mL density of water.
____ 94. A cubic meter is about the same as the volume occupied by a ____.
a. kilogram of water
c. washing machine
b. cup of milk
d. basketball arena
____ 95. The quantity 44 liters expressed in cubic meters is ____.
0.000 044 m 3
c.
0.44 m 3
b. 440 000 m 3
____ 96. Density is found by dividing ____.
a. mass by volume
b. volume by mass
d.
0.044 m 3
c.
d.
mass by area
area by mass
a.
____ 97. What is the density of an object having a mass of 8.0 g and a volume of 25 cm 3 ?
a.
0.32 g/cm 3
c.
3.1 g/cm 3
b. 2.0 g/cm 3
d. 200 g/cm 3
____ 98. What is the volume of 80.0 g of ether if the density of ether is 0.70 g/mL?
a.
5.6  10 1
c.
8.8  10 3
b.
1.1  10 2
d.
8.0  10 1
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 99. What is the volume of 45.6 g of silver if the density of silver is 10.5 g/mL?
a. 0.23 mL
c. 479 mL
b. 4.34 mL
d. none of the above
____ 100. If a liter of water is heated from 20C to 50C, what happens to its volume?
a. The volume decreases.
b. The volume increases.
c. The volume first increases, then decreases.
d. The volume first decreases, then increases.
____ 101. If the temperature of a piece of steel decreases, what happens to its density?
a. The density decreases.
b. The density increases.
c. The density does not change.
d. The density first increases, then decreases.
____ 102. As the density of a substance increases, the volume of a given mass of that substance ____.
a. increases
c. decreases
b. is not affected
d. fluctuates
____ 103. Who was the man who lived from 460B.C.–370B.C. and was among the first to suggest the idea of atoms?
a. Atomos
c. Democritus
b. Dalton
d. Thomson
____ 104. The smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that element is a(n) ____.
a. atom
c. proton
b. electron
d. neutron
____ 105. Dalton's atomic theory included which idea?
a. All atoms of all elements are the same size.
b. Atoms of different elements always combine in one-to-one ratios.
c. Atoms of the same element are always identical.
d. Individual atoms can be seen with a microscope.
____ 106. Which of the following is NOT a part of Dalton's atomic theory?
a. All elements are composed of atoms.
b. Atoms are always in motion.
c. Atoms of the same element are identical.
d. Atoms that combine do so in simple whole-number ratios.
____ 107. Why did J. J. Thomson reason that electrons must be a part of the atoms of all elements?
a. Cathode rays are negatively-charged particles.
b. Cathode rays can be deflected by magnets.
c. An electron is 2000 times lighter than a hydrogen atom.
d. Charge-to-mass ratio of electrons was the same, regardless of the gas used.
____ 108. Which of the following is true about subatomic particles?
a. Electrons are negatively charged and are the heaviest subatomic particle.
b. Protons are positively charged and the lightest subatomic particle.
c. Neutrons have no charge and are the lightest subatomic particle.
d. The mass of a neutron nearly equals the mass of a proton.
____ 109. All atoms are ____.
a. positively charged, with the number of protons exceeding the number of electrons
b. negatively charged, with the number of electrons exceeding the number of protons
c. neutral, with the number of protons equaling the number of electrons
d. neutral, with the number of protons equaling the number of electrons, which is equal to
the number of neutrons
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 110. The particles that are found in the nucleus of an atom are ____.
a. neutrons and electrons
c. protons and neutrons
b. electrons only
d. protons and electrons
____ 111. As a consequence of the discovery of the nucleus by Rutherford, which model of the atom is thought to be
true?
a. Protons, electrons, and neutrons are evenly distributed throughout the volume of the
atom.
b. The nucleus is made of protons, electrons, and neutrons.
c. Electrons are distributed around the nucleus and occupy almost all the volume of the
atom.
d. The nucleus is made of electrons and protons.
____ 112. The nucleus of an atom is ____.
a. the central core and is composed of protons and neutrons
b. positively charged and has more protons than neutrons
c. negatively charged and has a high density
d. negatively charged and has a low density
____ 113. An element has an atomic number of 76. The number of protons and electrons in a neutral atom of the
element are ____.
a. 152 protons and 76 electrons
c. 38 protons and 38 electrons
b. 76 protons and 0 electrons
d. 76 protons and 76 electrons
____ 114. The sum of the protons and neutrons in an atom equals the ____.
a. atomic number
c. atomic mass
b. nucleus number
d. mass number
____ 115. What does the number 84 in the name krypton-84 represent?
a. the atomic number
c. the sum of the protons and electrons
b. the mass number
d. twice the number of protons
____ 116. All atoms of the same element have the same ____.
a. number of neutrons
c. mass numbers
b. number of protons
d. mass
____ 117. Isotopes of the same element have different ____.
a. numbers of neutrons
c. numbers of electrons
b. numbers of protons
d. atomic numbers
____ 118. Isotopes of the same element have different ____.
a. positions on the periodic table
c. atomic numbers
b. chemical behavior
d. mass numbers
____ 119. In which of the following sets is the symbol of the element, the number of protons, and the number of
electrons given correctly?
a. In, 49 protons, 49 electrons
c. Cs, 55 protons, 132.9 electrons
b. Zn, 30 protons, 60 electrons
d. F, 19 protons, 19 electrons
____ 120. Using the periodic table, determine the number of neutrons in 16 O.
a. 4
c. 16
b. 8
d. 24
____ 121. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. Atoms of the same element can have different masses.
b. Atoms of isotopes of an element have different numbers of protons.
c. The nucleus of an atom has a positive charge.
d. Atoms are mostly empty space.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 122. Which of the following equals one atomic mass unit?
a. the mass of one electron
b. the mass of one helium-4 atom
c. the mass of one carbon-12 atom
d. one-twelfth the mass of one carbon-12 atom
____ 123. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. Protons have a positive charge.
b. Electrons are negatively charged and have a mass of 1 amu.
c. The nucleus of an atom is positively charged.
d. Neutrons are located in the nucleus of an atom.
____ 124. The atomic mass of an element depends upon the ____.
a. mass of each electron in that element
b. mass of each isotope of that element
c. relative abundance of protons in that element
d. mass and relative abundance of each isotope of that element
____ 125. When Group 2A elements form ions, they ____.
a. lose two protons
c. lose two electrons
b. gain two protons
d. gain two electrons
____ 126. What is the correct name for the N 3  ion?
a. nitrate ion
c. nitride ion
b. nitrogen ion
d. nitrite ion
____ 127. What determines that an element is a metal?
a. the magnitude of its charge
c. when it is a Group A element
b. the molecules that it forms
d. its position in the periodic table
____ 128. Which of the following correctly provides the names and formulas of polyatomic ions?
a. carbonate: HCO 3  ; bicarbonate: CO 3 2 
b.
nitrite: NO  ; nitrate: NO 2 
c.
sulfite: S 2  ; sulfate: SO 3 
d.
chromate: CrO 4 2  ; dichromate: Cr 2 O 7 2 
____ 129. Which of the following compounds contains the Mn 3  ion?
a. MnS
c. Mn 2 O 3
b.
MnBr 2
d.
MnO
____ 130. Which of the following formulas represents an ionic compound?
a. CS 2
c. N 2 O 4
b.
BaI 2
d.
PCl 3
____ 131. Which of the following correctly represents an ion pair and the ionic compound the ions form?
a.
Ca 2  , F  ; CaF 2
c.
Ba 2  , O 2  ; Ba 2 O 2
b.
Na  , Cl  ; NaCl 2
d.
Pb 4  , O 2  ; Pb 2 O 4
____ 132. Which of the following compounds contains the lead(II) ion?
a. PbO
c. Pb2O
d. Pb2S
b. PbCl4
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 133. Which set of chemical name and chemical formula for the same compound is correct?
a. iron(II) oxide, Fe 2 O 3
c. tin(IV) bromide, SnBr 4
b.
aluminum fluorate, AlF 3
d.
____ 134. What is the correct formula for potassium sulfite?
a. KHSO 3
c.
b.
KHSO 4
d.
potassium chloride, K 2 Cl 2
K 2 SO 3
K 2 SO 4
____ 135. Which set of chemical name and chemical formula for the same compound is correct?
c. lithium carbonate, LiCO 3
a. ammonium sulfite, (NH 4 ) 2 S
b.
iron(III) phosphate, FePO 4
d.
magnesium dichromate, MgCrO 4
____ 136. What type of compound is CuSO 4 ?
____ 137.
____ 138.
____ 139.
____ 140.
____ 141.
a. monotomic ionic
c. polyatomic ionic
b. polyatomic covalent
d. binary molecular
Molecular compounds are usually ____.
a. composed of two or more transition elements
b. composed of positive and negative ions
c. composed of two or more nonmetallic elements
d. exceptions to the law of definite proportions
Binary molecular compounds are made of two ____.
a. metallic elements
c. polyatomic ions
b. nonmetallic elements
d. cations
In naming a binary molecular compound, the number of atoms of each element present in the molecule is
indicated by ____.
a. Roman numerals
c. prefixes
b. superscripts
d. suffixes
Which of the following correctly shows a prefix used in naming binary molecular compounds with its
corresponding number?
a. deca-, 7
c. hexa-, 8
b. nona-, 9
d. octa-, 4
Consider a mystery compound having the formula M x T y . If the compound is not an acid, if it contains only
two elements, and if M is not a metal, which of the following is true about the compound?
a. It contains a polyatomic ion.
c. Its name ends in -ic.
b. Its name ends in -ite or -ate.
d. It is a binary molecular compound.
____ 142. Which of the following shows both the correct formula and correct name of an acid?
a. HClO 2 , chloric acid
c. H 3 PO 4 , phosphoric acid
b.
HNO 2 , hydronitrous acid
d.
HI, iodic acid
c.
d.
sulfuric acid
sulfurous acid
c.
HPO 2
d.
HPO 4
____ 143. What is the name of H 2 SO 3 ?
a. hyposulfuric acid
b. hydrosulfuric acid
____ 144. What is the formula for phosphoric acid?
a. H 2 PO 3
b.
H 3 PO 4
11
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 145. What is the correct name for the compound CoCl 2 ?
a. cobalt(I) chlorate
c. cobalt(II) chlorate
b. cobalt(I) chloride
d. cobalt(II) chloride
____ 146. What is the correct formula for calcium dihydrogen phosphate?
a. CaH 2 PO 4
c. Ca(H 2 PO 4 ) 2
b.
Ca 2 H 2 PO 4
d.
Ca(H 2 HPO 4 ) 2
____ 147. Which of the following is the correct name for N 2 O 5 ?
____ 148.
____ 149.
____ 150.
____ 151.
a. nitrous oxide
b. dinitrogen pentoxide
What particle is emitted in alpha radiation?
a. electron
b. photon
A beta particle is a(n) ____.
a. photon
b. electron
The least penetrating form of radiation is ____.
a. beta radiation
b. gamma radiation
Which symbol is used for an alpha particle?
a. 21 He
b.
2
2
He
c.
d.
nitrogen dioxide
nitrate oxide
c.
d.
helium nucleus
hydrogen nucleus
c.
d.
helium nucleus
hydrogen nucleus
c.
d.
alpha radiation
X rays
c.
4
1
4
2
d.
He
He
____ 152. Which of the following materials is necessary to stop an alpha particle?
a. three feet of concrete
c. single sheet of aluminum foil
b. three inches of lead
d. single sheet of paper
____ 153. What particle decomposes to produce the electron of beta radiation?
a. proton
c. electron
b. neutron
d. positron
____ 154. What symbol is used for beta radiation?
a. 00 e
c. 10 e
b.
0
1
e
d.
1
1
e
____ 155. Which of the following materials is necessary to stop a beta particle?
a. three feet of concrete
c. thin pieces of wood
b. three inches of lead
d. single sheet of paper
____ 156. When radium-226 (atomic number 88) decays by emitting an alpha particle, it becomes ____.
a. polonium-222
c. radium-222
b. polonium-224
d. radon-222
____ 157. What particle is needed to complete the following nuclear equation?
56
Mn  ____ + 10 e
25
a.
b.
56
27
27
25
Co
c.
Mn
d.
56
26
58
24
Fe
Cr
____ 158. A reaction in which small nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus is called ____.
a. fission
c. background radiation
b. a chemical reaction
d. fusion
12
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 159. Nuclear fusion ____.
a. takes place in the sun
c. can be controlled in the laboratory
b. occurs at low temperatures
d. is used in medicine
____ 160. A reaction that results in the combining of smaller atomic nuclei is ____.
a. chemical
c. fusion
b. fission
d. ionization
13
ID: A
2014 Fall Midterm Practice Test
Answer Section
MATCHING
1. ANS:
OBJ:
2. ANS:
OBJ:
3. ANS:
OBJ:
4. ANS:
OBJ:
5. ANS:
OBJ:
F
2.1.3
A
2.2.1
E
2.2.2
B
2.4.1
D
2.4.1
6. ANS:
OBJ:
7. ANS:
OBJ:
8. ANS:
OBJ:
9. ANS:
OBJ:
10. ANS:
OBJ:
B
2.1.1
F
2.2.2
E
2.3.1
D
2.3.1
C
2.4.1
11. ANS:
OBJ:
12. ANS:
OBJ:
13. ANS:
OBJ:
14. ANS:
OBJ:
15. ANS:
OBJ:
16. ANS:
OBJ:
17. ANS:
OBJ:
18. ANS:
OBJ:
H
3.1.2
G
3.1.2
F
3.1.3
E
3.2.1
A
3.2.1
B
3.2.1
D
3.2.2
C
3.2.2
19. ANS:
OBJ:
20. ANS:
OBJ:
C
4.1.1 | 4.1.2
A
4.2.1
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 42
PTS: 1
STA: Ch.6
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 44
DIF: L1
REF: p. 45
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
DIF: L1
REF: p. 53
DIF: L1
REF: p. 53
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 39
PTS: 1
STA: Ch.6
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 45
DIF: L1
REF: p. 48
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 48
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 53
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 64
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 64
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 66
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 76
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
1
Ch.4.f
1
Ch.4.d
1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 77
DIF: L1
REF: p. 77
DIF: L1
REF: p. 76
PTS: 1
STA: Ch.4.d
DIF: L1
REF: p. 76
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
1
Ch.8
1
Ch.8
1
DIF: L1
Ch.1
1
DIF: L1
Ch.1 | Ch.11
1
REF: p. 101 | p. 102
REF: p. 106
ID: A
21. ANS:
OBJ:
22. ANS:
OBJ:
23. ANS:
OBJ:
D
4.2.1
E
4.2.1
B
4.2.1 | 4.2.2
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
1
DIF: L1
Ch.1 | Ch.11
1
DIF: L1
Ch.1 | Ch.11
1
DIF: L1
Ch.1 | Ch.11
24. ANS:
OBJ:
25. ANS:
OBJ:
26. ANS:
OBJ:
27. ANS:
OBJ:
28. ANS:
OBJ:
E
4.3.1
A
4.3.1
C
4.3.1
D
4.3.3
B
4.3.3
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
1
Ch.11.c
1
Ch.1.e
1
Ch.1.a
1
Ch.1.a
1
29. ANS:
OBJ:
30. ANS:
OBJ:
31. ANS:
OBJ:
B
25.1.2
E
25.1.2
A
25.1.2
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
1
Ch.11.d
1
Ch.11.d
1
Ch.11.d
REF: p. 104
REF: p. 106
REF: p. 106 | p. 107
DIF: L1
REF: p. 112
DIF: L1
REF: p. 111
DIF: L1
REF: p. 110
DIF: L1
REF: p. 114
DIF: L1
REF: p. 114
DIF: L1
REF: p. 800
DIF: L1
REF: p. 802
DIF: L1
REF: p. 804
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 23
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 22
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 39
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 39
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 40
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 42
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 42
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
DIF: L2
REF: p. 40
DIF: L2
REF: p. 45
DIF: L2
REF: p. 46
MULTIPLE CHOICE
32. ANS:
OBJ:
33. ANS:
OBJ:
34. ANS:
OBJ:
35. ANS:
OBJ:
36. ANS:
OBJ:
37. ANS:
OBJ:
38. ANS:
OBJ:
39. ANS:
OBJ:
40. ANS:
OBJ:
41. ANS:
OBJ:
B
1.3.2
D
1.3.2
B
2.1.1
C
2.1.1
D
2.1.2
C
2.1.3
C
2.1.4
B
2.2.1
A
2.2.2
D
2.2.3
1
Ch.6
1
Ch.6
1
2
ID: A
42. ANS:
OBJ:
43. ANS:
OBJ:
44. ANS:
OBJ:
45. ANS:
OBJ:
46. ANS:
OBJ:
47. ANS:
OBJ:
48. ANS:
OBJ:
49. ANS:
OBJ:
50. ANS:
OBJ:
51. ANS:
OBJ:
52. ANS:
OBJ:
53. ANS:
OBJ:
54. ANS:
OBJ:
55. ANS:
OBJ:
56. ANS:
OBJ:
57. ANS:
OBJ:
58. ANS:
OBJ:
59. ANS:
OBJ:
60. ANS:
OBJ:
61. ANS:
OBJ:
62. ANS:
OBJ:
63. ANS:
OBJ:
64. ANS:
OBJ:
65. ANS:
OBJ:
D
PTS:
2.3.2
B
PTS:
2.3.3
C
PTS:
2.3.3
C
PTS:
2.3.3
A
PTS:
2.4.1
C
PTS:
2.4.1
C
PTS:
2.4.1
D
PTS:
2.4.1
C
PTS:
2.4.1
C
PTS:
2.4.1
D
PTS:
2.4.1
C
PTS:
2.4.1
A
PTS:
2.1.4 | 2.4.1 | 2.4.2
A
PTS:
2.1.4 | 2.4.2
D
PTS:
3.1.1
A
PTS:
3.1.1
C
PTS:
3.1.1
A
PTS:
3.1.1
B
PTS:
3.1.2
C
PTS:
3.1.2
B
PTS:
3.1.2
D
PTS:
3.1.2
C
PTS:
3.1.2
B
PTS:
3.1.2
1
DIF: L3
REF: p. 50 | p. 51
1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 51
1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 51
1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 51
1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 53
1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 53
1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 53
1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 53
1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 53
1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 53
1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 53
1
DIF: L3
REF: p. 54
1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 54
1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 54
1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 63
1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 63
1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 63 | p. 71
1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 63 | p. 71
1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 64
1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 66
1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 64
1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 64
1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 64
1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 64
3
ID: A
66. ANS:
OBJ:
67. ANS:
OBJ:
68. ANS:
OBJ:
69. ANS:
OBJ:
70. ANS:
OBJ:
71. ANS:
OBJ:
72. ANS:
OBJ:
73. ANS:
OBJ:
74. ANS:
OBJ:
75. ANS:
OBJ:
76. ANS:
OBJ:
77. ANS:
OBJ:
78. ANS:
OBJ:
79. ANS:
OBJ:
80. ANS:
OBJ:
81. ANS:
OBJ:
82. ANS:
OBJ:
83. ANS:
OBJ:
84. ANS:
OBJ:
85. ANS:
OBJ:
86. ANS:
OBJ:
87. ANS:
OBJ:
88. ANS:
OBJ:
89. ANS:
OBJ:
C
3.1.2
C
3.1.3
A
3.1.3
B
3.1.3
D
3.1.3
C
3.1.3
B
3.1.3
B
3.1.3
B
3.1.3
A
3.1.3
C
3.1.3
D
3.1.3
A
3.1.3
C
3.2.1
D
3.2.1
B
3.2.1
D
3.2.1
A
3.2.1
D
3.2.1
B
3.2.1
D
3.2.1
D
3.2.1
B
3.2.1
B
3.2.2
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 66
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 66
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 66
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 66
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 66
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 68
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 68 | p. 70
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 68 | p. 71
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 66 | p. 68
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 66 | p. 68
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 68 | p. 71
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 68 | p. 71
PTS: 1
DIF: L3
REF: p. 68
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 74
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 74
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 73
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 73
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 74 | p. 75
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 76
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
DIF: L1
REF: p. 77
DIF: L1
REF: p. 77
DIF: L1
REF: p. 77
DIF: L2
REF: p. 74 | p. 76
DIF: L2
REF: p. 76
1
Ch.4.e
1
Ch.4.f
1
Ch.4.e
1
PTS: 1
4
ID: A
90. ANS:
OBJ:
91. ANS:
OBJ:
92. ANS:
OBJ:
93. ANS:
OBJ:
94. ANS:
OBJ:
95. ANS:
OBJ:
96. ANS:
OBJ:
97. ANS:
OBJ:
98. ANS:
OBJ:
99. ANS:
OBJ:
100. ANS:
OBJ:
101. ANS:
OBJ:
102. ANS:
OBJ:
103. ANS:
OBJ:
104. ANS:
OBJ:
105. ANS:
OBJ:
106. ANS:
OBJ:
107. ANS:
OBJ:
108. ANS:
OBJ:
109. ANS:
OBJ:
110. ANS:
OBJ:
111. ANS:
OBJ:
112. ANS:
OBJ:
113. ANS:
OBJ:
C
3.2.3
C
3.2.3
D
3.2.3
C
3.3.2 | 3.3.4
C
3.3.3
D
3.3.3
A
3.4.1
A
3.4.1
B
3.4.1
B
3.4.1
B
3.4.2
B
3.4.2
C
3.4.2
C
4.1.1
A
4.1.1 | 4.1.2
C
4.1.2
B
4.1.2
D
4.2.1
D
4.2.1
C
4.2.1
C
4.2.1 | 4.2.2
C
4.2.2
A
4.2.2
D
4.3.1
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
1
Ch.4.e
1
Ch.4.e
1
Ch.4.e
1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 77 | p. 78
DIF: L1
REF: p. 77 | p. 78
DIF: L2
REF: p. 77 | p. 78
DIF: L3
REF: p. 86
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 84
PTS: 1
DIF: L3
REF: p. 84
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 90 | p. 91
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 90 | p. 91
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 91
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 91
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 91
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 91
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 91
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 101
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 101 | p. 102
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 102
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 102
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
DIF: L2
REF: p. 105
DIF: L2
REF: p. 104 | p. 105 | p. 106
DIF: L3
REF: p. 106
DIF: L2
REF: p. 106 | p. 107
DIF: L2
REF: p. 108
DIF: L2
REF: p. 107 | p. 108
DIF: L1
REF: p. 110
1
Ch.1.h
1
Ch.1.a
1
Ch.1
1
Ch.11.a
1
Ch.1.h
1
Ch.1.e
1
Ch.1.a
5
ID: A
114. ANS:
OBJ:
115. ANS:
OBJ:
116. ANS:
OBJ:
117. ANS:
OBJ:
118. ANS:
OBJ:
119. ANS:
OBJ:
120. ANS:
OBJ:
121. ANS:
OBJ:
122. ANS:
OBJ:
123. ANS:
OBJ:
124. ANS:
OBJ:
125. ANS:
OBJ:
126. ANS:
OBJ:
127. ANS:
OBJ:
128. ANS:
OBJ:
129. ANS:
OBJ:
130. ANS:
OBJ:
131. ANS:
OBJ:
132. ANS:
OBJ:
133. ANS:
OBJ:
134. ANS:
OBJ:
135. ANS:
OBJ:
136. ANS:
OBJ:
137. ANS:
OBJ:
D
4.3.1
B
4.3.1
B
4.3.1
A
4.3.1
D
4.3.1
A
4.2.1 | 4.3.1
B
4.3.1 | 4.3.4
B
4.3.1
D
4.3.3
B
4.3.3
D
4.3.3
C
9.1.1
C
9.1.1
D
9.1.1
D
9.1.2
C
9.2.1
B
9.2.1
A
9.2.1
A
9.2.1
C
9.2.1
C
9.2.2
B
9.1.3 | 9.2.2
C
9.2.2
C
9.3.1 | 9.3.2
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
1
DIF:
Ch.1.a
1
DIF:
Ch.1.a | Ch.11.c
1
DIF:
Ch.1.a
1
DIF:
Ch.11.c
1
DIF:
Ch.11.c
1
DIF:
Ch.1.a
1
DIF:
Ch.1.a
1
DIF:
Ch.11.c
1
DIF:
PTS: 1
STA: Ch.1.a
PTS: 1
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
L1
REF: p. 111
L1
REF: p. 111
L1
REF: p. 110
L1
REF: p. 112 | p. 113
L1
REF: p. 112 | p. 113
L2
REF: p. 110
L2
REF: p. 111
L2
REF: p. 110 | p. 112 | p. 113
L1
REF: p. 114
DIF: L2
REF: p. 114
DIF: L2
REF: p. 115
1
DIF:
Ch.1.c | Ch.1.d
1
DIF:
Ch.3
1
DIF:
Ch.1.c
1
DIF:
Ch.2
1
DIF:
Ch.2
1
DIF:
Ch.2
1
DIF:
Ch.2
1
DIF:
Ch.2
1
DIF:
Ch.2
1
DIF:
Ch.2
1
DIF:
Ch.2
1
DIF:
Ch.2.a
1
DIF:
Ch.2.a
6
L1
REF: p. 254
L1
REF: p. 254
L2
REF: p. 253 | p. 254
L2
REF: p. 257
L1
REF: p. 262 | p. 263
L2
REF: p. 262
L2
REF: p. 262
L2
REF: p. 262 | p. 263
L2
REF: p. 261 | p. 262
L2
REF: p. 257 | p. 261 | p. 262
L2
REF: p. 264 | p. 265 | p. 266
L2
REF: p. 264 | p. 277
L1
REF: p. 268
ID: A
138. ANS:
OBJ:
139. ANS:
OBJ:
140. ANS:
OBJ:
141. ANS:
OBJ:
142. ANS:
OBJ:
143. ANS:
OBJ:
144. ANS:
OBJ:
145. ANS:
OBJ:
146. ANS:
OBJ:
147. ANS:
OBJ:
148. ANS:
OBJ:
149. ANS:
OBJ:
150. ANS:
OBJ:
151. ANS:
OBJ:
152. ANS:
OBJ:
153. ANS:
OBJ:
154. ANS:
OBJ:
155. ANS:
OBJ:
156. ANS:
OBJ:
157. ANS:
OBJ:
158. ANS:
OBJ:
159. ANS:
OBJ:
160. ANS:
OBJ:
B
9.3.2
C
9.3.2
B
9.3.2
D
9.3.2
C
9.4.1
D
9.4.1
B
9.4.2
D
9.2.1 | 9.5.2
C
9.2.2 | 9.5.2
B
9.3.2 | 9.5.3
C
25.1.2
B
25.1.2
C
25.1.2
D
25.1.2
D
25.1.2
B
25.1.2
B
25.1.2
C
25.1.2
D
25.1.2 | 25.2.1
C
25.2.1
D
25.3.3
A
25.3.3
C
25.3.3
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
1
Ch.2.a
1
Ch.2
1
Ch.2
1
Ch.2
1
Ch.5
1
Ch.5
1
Ch.5
1
Ch.5
1
Ch.5
1
Ch.2.b | Ch.5
1
Ch.11.d
1
Ch.11.d
1
Ch.11.e
1
Ch.11.d
1
Ch.11.e
1
Ch.11.d
1
Ch.11.d
1
Ch.11.e
1
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
1
Ch.11.d
1
Ch.11.b
1
PTS: 1
STA: Ch.11.b
DIF: L1
REF: p. 268
DIF: L1
REF: p. 269
DIF: L2
REF: p. 269
DIF: L3
REF: p. 268 | p. 269
DIF: L2
REF: p. 272
DIF: L2
REF: p. 272
DIF: L2
REF: p. 272
DIF: L2
REF: p. 261 | p. 262 | p. 277
DIF: L3
REF: p. 257 | p. 264
DIF: L2
REF: p. 269 | p. 277
DIF: L1
REF: p. 800
DIF: L1
REF: p. 801
DIF: L1
REF: p. 802
DIF: L2
REF: p. 800
DIF: L2
REF: p. 800
DIF: L2
REF: p. 801
DIF: L2
REF: p. 801
DIF: L2
REF: p. 802
DIF: L2
STA: Ch.11.d
DIF: L3
REF: p. 800 | p. 804
DIF: L1
REF: p. 813
DIF: L1
REF: p. 813
DIF: L1
REF: p. 810
7
REF: p. 803 | p. 804