Download REVIEW QUESTIONS 1. When assigning a scientific name to an

REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. When assigning a scientific name to an organism: A) the species name is capitalized
B) the species name is placed first C) the species name can be abbreviated D) both
genus and species names are capitalized E) both genus and species names are
italicized or underlined
2. Which of the following is not considered a microorganism?
B) protozoa C) bacteria D) viruses E) fungi
A) mosquito
3. Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium, Bacillus anthracis?
A) Joseph Lister B) Ignaz Semmelweis C) Robert Koch D) Louis Pasteur
E) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
4. Which of the following is a scientific name?
D) Bacillus subtilis E) bacilli
A) bacteria
B) Protista
C) species
5. All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that: A) cause human disease
B) lack a cell nucleus C) are infectious particles D) are too small to be seen with
the unaided eye E) can only be found growing in laboratories
6. Which structure protects bacteria from being phagocytized? A) cell wall
B) fimbriae C) cell membrane D) capsule E) all of the choices are correct
7. The bacterial chromosome: A) is located in the cell membrane B) contains all the
cell's plasmids C) is part of the nucleoid D) forms a single linear strand of DNA
E) all of the choices are correct
8. The function of bacterial endospores is: A) convert gaseous nitrogen to a usable form
for plants B) reproduction and growth C) protection of genetic material during
harsh conditions D) storage of excess cell materials E) sites for photosynthesis
9. Endospores are: A) metabolically inactive B) resistant to heat and chemical
destruction C) resistant to destruction by radiation D) living structures E) all of
the choices are correct
10. Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial: A) cell walls
membranes C) capsules D) slime layers E) inclusions
11. The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as:
nodes B) thymus C) spleen D) GALT E) tonsils
B) cell
A) lymph
12. Nonspecific chemical defenses include: A) lysozyme B) lactic acid and electrolytes
of sweat C) skin's acidic pH and fatty acids D) stomach hydrochloric acid E) all
of the choices are correct
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13. The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain
bacterial cell walls is: A) lactic acid B) hydrochloric acid C) lysozyme
D) histamine E) bile
14. The reticuloendothelial system: A) is a support network of connective tissue fibers
B) originates in the cellular endothelia (basal lamina) C) provides a passageway
within and between tissues and organs D) is heavily populated with macrophages
E) all of the choices are correct
15. Comprise 3–7% of circulating WBC's, are phagocytic, and can migrate out into body
tissues to differentiate into macrophages: A) basophils B) eosinophils
C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes
16. The most numerous WBC's, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are:
A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes
17. All of the following pertain to interferon except: A) protein B) produced by certain
white blood cells and tissue cells C) includes alpha, beta, and gamma types
D) inhibit viruses, tumors, and cancer gene expression E) increase capillary
permeability and vasodilation
18. Diapedesis is the: A) loss of blood due to hemorrhaging B) production of only red
blood cells C) production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets
D) plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding E) migration of white blood cells
from the blood out to the tissues
19. Components of the first line of defense include all the following except: A) the tough
cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin B) nasal hairs C) flushing action of
tears and blinking D) flushing action of urine E) phagocytic white blood cells
20. The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called: A) antibodies
C) activated macrophages D) plasma cells E) Bursa cells
B) sensitized T cells
21. Class II MHC genes code for: A) certain secreted complement components B) self
receptors recognized by T lymphocytes C) all HLA antigens D) receptors located
primarily on macrophages and B cells E) all of the choices are correct
22. Superantigens are: A) body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign
B) cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members
C) bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens
D) those that evoke allergic reactions E) none of the choices are correct
23. Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate
phagocytosis? A) neutralization B) opsonization C) complement fixation
D) agglutination E) anamnestic response
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24. Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement?
C) IgD only D) IgM and IgG E) IgE and IgA
A) IgM only
B) IgG only
25. An example of artificial passive immunity would be: A) chickenpox infection is
followed by lifelong immunity B) chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to
chickenpox C) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after
exposure to the disease D) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus
across the placenta E) none of the choices are correct
26. The embryonic yolk sac, the liver, and the bone marrow are sites where: A) immune
responses to antigen occur B) stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes
C) antigen is filtered from the blood D) antigen is filtered from tissue fluid E) T
lymphocytes complete maturation
27. Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions: A) are the result of genetic
expression B) function in recognition of self molecules C) receive and transmit
chemical messages among other cells of the system D) aid in cellular development
E) all of the choices are correct
28. Properties of effective antigens include all the following except: A) foreign to the
immune system B) molecular complexity C) large molecules with a minimum
molecular weight of 1,000 D) large polymers made up of repeating subunits
E) cells or large, complex molecules
29. Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin
molecule thereby disrupting their activity? A) neutralization B) opsonization
C) complement fixation D) agglutination E) anamnestic response
30. The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and
mast cells is: A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM
31. The major categories of hypersensitivities that typically involve a B-cell
immunoglobulin response is/are: A) Type 1 only B) Type 1 and Type 4 C) Type
4 only D) Type 1, Type 2, Type 3 E) Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4
32. All of the following are involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity except:
C) IgE D) complement E) foreign cells
A) IgM
B) IgG
33. Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause: A) recipient antibody activating the
complement cascade to attack the RBCs B) fever and anemia C) systemic shock
and kidney failure D) massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs E) all of the choices
are correct
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34. What will be the immediate action of allergen when it enters that body for a second
time? A) degranulation B) bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on
mast cells and basophils C) binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and
basophils D) histamine acts on smooth muscle E) prostaglandins cause vasodilation
and increased vascular permeability
35. Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators? A) degranulation
B) bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
C) binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D) histamine acts on
smooth muscle E) prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular
permeability
36. Autoimmunity is typically due to: A) transfusion reaction B) IgE and mast cells
C) IgG and IgM D) graft rejection E) a deficiency in T-cell development
37. Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to
formation of antigen-antibody complexes that deposit in basement membranes occur in:
A) serum sickness B) delayed hypersensitivity C) anaphylaxis D) hemolytic
disease of the newborn E) all of the choices are correct
38. Contact dermatitis involves: A) a sensitizing and provocative dose B) allergen
entering the skin C) T lymphocytes secrete inflammatory cytokines D) itchy
papules and blisters E) all of the choices are correct
39. Protists include: A) yeasts and molds B) algae and protozoa C) helminths
D) all of the choices are correct E) none of the choices are correct
40. Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of: A) protozoa
C) fungi D) bacteria E) all of the choices are correct
41. The site for ribosomal RNA synthesis is the: A) ribosome
C) nucleus D) golgi apparatus E) lysosome
B) algae
B) nucleolus
42. Host cells of viruses include: A) human and other animals B) plants and fungi
C) bacteria D) protozoa and algae E) all of the choices are correct
43. Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following
characteristics except: A) type of nucleic acid B) type of capsid C) presence of
an envelope D) biochemical reactions E) number of strands in the nucleic acid
44. Viruses have all the following except: A) definite shape
D) ability to infect host cells E) ultramicroscopic size
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B) metabolism C) genes
45. Host range is limited by: A) type of nucleic acid in the virus B) age of the host cell
C) type of host cell receptors on cell membrane D) size of the host cell E) all of
the choices are correct
46. In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____, while most RNA viruses
multiply in the host cell's _____. A) nucleus, cytoplasm B) cytoplasm, cell
membrane C) cell membrane, cytoplasm D) cytoplasm, nucleus E) nucleus,
endoplasmic reticulum
47. Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms
and inactivity without symptoms are called: A) latent B) oncogenic C) prions
D) viroids E) delta agents
48. The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to
their new environment, metabolizing but not growing is the: A) lag phase B) log
phase C) stationary phase D) death phase E) all of the choices are correct
49. The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of multiplication equals the
rate of cell death is the: A) lag phase B) log phase C) stationary phase
D) death phase E) all of the choices are correct
50. Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called: A) saprobes
B) parasites C) autotrophs D) lithoautotrophs E) phototrophs
51. In the viable plate count method, a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across
an agar surface and incubated. Each _____ represents one _____ from the sample.
A) cell, cell B) cell, colony C) colony, cell D) species, colony E) generation,
cell
52. The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a
temperate phage can occur in: A) bacterial conjugation B) transformation
C) generalized transduction D) specialized transduction E) all of the choices are
correct
53. The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized
is called the: A) primer B) Okazaki fragment C) template D) rolling circle
E) replication fork
54. The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including
bacterial endospores is: A) disinfection B) sterilization C) antisepsis
D) sanitization E) degermation
55. The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens is:
A) disinfection B) sterilization C) antisepsis D) sanitization E) degermation
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56. Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death? A) cells die at increasingly
greater rates B) only older cells die in a culture C) cells in a culture die at a
constant rate D) upon contact with the control agent, all cells die at one time
E) cells become metabolically inactive but are never killed
57. Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or
destroy other microorganisms are called: A) antibiotics B) narrow-spectrum drugs
C) semisynthetic drugs D) synthetic drugs E) broad-spectrum drugs
58. Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include: A) low toxicity for human
tissues B) high toxicity against microbial cells C) do not cause serious side effects
in humans D) stable and soluble in body tissues and fluids E) all of the choices are
correct
59. There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminth drugs compared to
antibacterial drugs because fungi, protozoa, and helminths: A) do not cause many
human infections B) are not affected by antimicrobics C) are so similar to human
cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult D) are parasites found inside human cells
E) because their cells have fewer target sites compared to bacteria
60. All infectious diseases: A) are contagious B) only occur in humans C) are caused
by microorganisms or their products D) are caused by vectors E) involve viruses as
the pathogen
61. Infection occurs when: A) contaminants are present on the skin B) a person
swallows microbes in/on food C) a person inhales microbes in the air D) pathogens
enter and multiply in body tissues E) all of the choices are correct
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