Download Chemistry Midterm Exam Review

Chemistry Midterm Exam Review
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. Which of the following is an extensive property of matter?
a. melting point
c. volume
b. boiling point
d. density
____
2. The two most important properties of all matter are
a. the ability to carry an electric current well and to hold electric charge.
b. taking up space and having mass.
c. being brittle and hard.
d. being malleable and ductile.
____
3. An atom is
a. the smallest unit of matter that maintains its chemical identity.
b. the smallest unit of a compound.
c. always made of carbon.
d. smaller than an electron.
____
4. A compound is
a. a pure substance that cannot be broken down into simpler, stable substances.
b. a substance, made of two or more atoms that are chemically bonded, that can be broken
down into simpler, stable substances.
c. the smallest unit of matter that maintains its chemical identity.
d. any substance, whether it is chemically bonded or not.
____
5. A measure of the quantity of matter is
a. density.
b. weight.
c. volume.
d. mass.
6. Matter includes all of the following except
a. air.
b. light.
c. smoke.
d. water vapor.
____
____
7. A true statement about mass is that
a. mass if often measured with a spring scale.
b. mass is expressed in pounds.
c. as the force of Earth's gravity on an object increases, the object's mass increases.
d. mass is determined by comparing the mass of an object with a set of standard masses that
are part of a balance.
____
8. A student recorded the following while completing an experiment.
Color of substance: yellow, shiny powder
Effect of magnet: yellow, shiny powder was attracted
The student should classify the substance as a(n)
a. element.
c. mixture.
b. compound.
d. plasma.
____
9. Which of the following is not a physical change?
a. grinding
c. boiling
b. cutting
d. burning
____ 10. Which of the following is not a chemical change?
a. rusting
c. melting
b. igniting
d. burning
____ 11. A physical change occurs when a
a. peach spoils.
b. silver bowl tarnishes.
c. bracelet turns your wrist green.
d. glue gun melts a glue stick.
____ 12. Nitrogen monoxide and oxygen, both colorless gases, form a red-brown gas when mixed. Nitrogen monoxide
and oxygen are called the
a. products.
c. synthetics.
b. equilibria.
d. reactants.
____ 13. A state of matter in which a material has no definite shape but has a definite volume is the ____ state.
a. gas
c. plasma
b. liquid
d. solid
____ 14. Under ordinary conditions of temperature and pressure, the particles in a gas are
a. closely packed.
b. very far from one another.
c. held in fixed positions.
d. unevenly distributed.
____ 15. The liquid state of matter can be described as
a. having definite shape and definite volume.
b. having neither a definite shape nor a definite volume.
c. having lost electrons owing to energy content.
d. having a definite volume but not a definite shape.
____ 16. A solid substance is
a. always frozen regardless of its container.
b. always a crystal regardless of its container.
c. always the same shape regardless of its container.
d. always losing particles regardless of its container.
____ 17. Plasma is the fourth state of matter. In the plasma state
a. atoms gain electrons.
b. atoms lose electrons.
c. atoms form molecules.
d. atomic nuclei break down.
____ 18. What happens to the energy in a substance when it changes state?
a. It is destroyed.
b. It is changed into matter.
c. It changes form, but is neither destroyed nor increased.
d. The energy remains unchanged.
____ 19. Which part of the illustration below shows the particles in a heterogeneous mixture?
a. a
b. b
c. c
d. d
____ 20. A mixture is
a. a combination of pure substances bonded chemically.
b. any substance with a uniform composition.
c. a blend of any two or more kinds of matter, as long as each maintains its own unique
properties.
d. any group of elements that are chemically bonded to one another.
____ 21. If a mixture is uniform in composition, it is said to be
a. homogeneous.
c. heterogeneous.
b. chemically bonded.
d. a compound.
____ 22. A homogeneous mixture is also called
a. chemically bonded.
b. a compound.
c. a solution.
d. a solute.
____ 23. If a mixture is not uniform throughout, it is called
a. homogeneous.
c. chemically bonded.
b. heterogeneous.
d. a solution.
____ 24. Which of the following is an example of a heterogeneous mixture?
a. a gold ring
c. granite
b. seawater
d. sucrose
____ 25. Which of the following is an example of a homogeneous mixture?
a. air
c. raw milk
b. orange juice
d. marble
____ 26. All known chemical elements are organized into groups based on similar chemical properties in the
a. chemical chart.
c. element table.
b. periodic chart.
d. None of the above
____ 27. It is easy to determine whether a substance is a metal if the substance is
a. easy to break down into its components.
b. very hard.
c. very brittle.
d. a good electrical and heat conductor.
____ 28. All of the following are steps in the scientific method except
a. observing and recording data.
b. forming a hypothesis.
c. discarding data inconsistent with the hypothesis.
d. developing a model based on experimental results.
____ 29. A statement that can be tested experimentally is a
a. variable.
c. generalization.
b. model.
d. hypothesis.
____ 30. A theory is best described as a
a. series of experimental observations.
b. generalization that explains a body of known facts or phenomena.
c. scientifically proven fact.
d. testable statement.
____ 31. A plausible explanation of a body of observed natural phenomena is a scientific
a. control.
c. law.
b. experiment.
d. theory.
____ 32. Standards of measurement are chosen because they
a. can be related to everyday objects.
b. are reproducible in another laboratory.
c. cannot be destroyed by any common physical or chemical means.
d. are easily changed.
____ 33. Which of these statements does not describe a measurement standard?
a. Measurement standards avoid ambiguity.
b. Measurement standards must be unchanging.
c. A standard can be easily changed to suit the experiment.
d. Confusion is eliminated when the correct measurement is applied.
____ 34. Which of these statements about units of measurement is not true?
a. A unit compares what is being measured with a previously defined quantity.
b. A unit is usually preceded by a number.
c. Measurements can be compared without knowing their units.
d. The choice of unit depends on the quantity being measured.
____ 35. Which of these is not an SI base unit?
a. kilogram
b. second
c. liter
d. Kelvin
____ 36. The SI base units for length and time are
a. centimeter and second.
b. meter and hour.
c. centimeter and hour.
d. meter and second.
____ 37. The metric unit for length that is closest to the diameter of a pencil is the
a. micrometer.
c. centimeter.
b. millimeter.
d. decimeter.
____ 38. The symbols for units of length in order from largest to smallest are
a. m, cm, mm, km.
c. km, mm, cm, m.
b. mm, m, cm, km.
d. km, m, cm, mm.
____ 39. Which of these metric units is used to measure mass?
a. m
c. g
b. mm
d. L
____ 40. The liter is defined as
a. 1000 m3.
b. 1000 cm3.
c. 1000 g3.
d. 1000 c3.
____ 41. The standard base unit for mass is the
a. gram.
b. cubic centimeter.
c. meter.
d. kilogram.
____ 42. Which of these symbols represents a unit of volume?
a. mL
c. mm
b. mg
d. cm
____ 43. Which of these is the abbreviation for the SI base unit of time?
a. hr
c. sec
b. h
d. s
____ 44. The most appropriate SI unit for measuring the length of an automobile is the
a. millimeter.
c. meter.
b. kilometer.
d. liter.
____ 45. All of the following are SI units for density except
a. kg/m3.
c. g/cm3.
b. kg/L.
d. g/m2.
____ 46. A change in the force of gravity on an object will affect its
a. mass.
c. weight.
b. density.
d. kinetic energy.
____ 47. Which of these is a measure of the amount of material?
a. density
c. volume
b. weight
d. mass
____ 48. Which of these statements about mass is true?
a. Mass is expressed in pounds or newtons.
b. Mass is usually measured with a spring scale.
c. The mass of an object depends on the force of gravity acting on it.
d. The mass of an object is determined by comparing it to an object of known mass.
____ 49. The relationship between the mass m of a material, its volume V, and its density D is
a. D = mV.
c. D = m/V.
b. D = V/m.
d. D = m + v.
____ 50. The density of an object is calculated by
a. multiplying its mass times its volume.
b. dividing its mass by its volume.
c. dividing its volume by its mass.
d. adding its mass to its volume.
____ 51. When density is measured,
a. a graduated cylinder is always used.
b. the units are always kg/m3.
c. the temperature should be specified.
d. the material must be a pure substance.
____ 52. Which of these statements about density is true?
a. Larger objects are more dense.
b. Density does not depend on temperature.
c. Density is a physical property.
d. The density of an object depends on the force of gravity.
____ 53. A sample of gold has a mass of 96.5 g and a volume of 5.00 cm3. The density of gold is
a. 0.0518 g/cm3.
c. 101.5 g/cm3.
3
b. 19.3 g/cm .
d. 483 g/cm3.
____ 54. The density of pure diamond is 3.5 g/cm3. What is the volume of a diamond with a mass of 0.25 g?
a. 0.071 cm3
c. 3.75 cm3
3
b. 0.875 cm
d. 14 cm3
____ 55. What is the density of 37.72 g of material whose volume is 6.80 cm3?
a. 0.180 g/cm3
c. 30.9 g/cm3
3
b. 5.55 g/cm
d. 256. g/cm3
____ 56. 100 milliliters is equivalent to
a. 1 hectoliter.
b. 1 microliter.
c. 1 centiliter.
d. 1 deciliter.
____ 57. 0.25 g is equivalent to
a. 250 kg.
b. 250 mg.
c. 0.025 mg.
d. 0.025 kg.
____ 58. 0.05 cm is the same as
a. 0.000 05 m.
b. 0.005 mm.
c. 0.05 m.
d. 0.5 mm.
____ 59. How many minutes are in 1 week?
a. 168 min
b. 1440 min
c. 10 080 min
d. 100 800 min
____ 60. If 1 inch equals 2.54 cm, how many centimeters equal 1 yard?
a. 0.0706 cm
c. 30.5 cm
b. 14.2 cm
d. 91.4 cm
____ 61. How is the measurement 0.000 065 cm written in scientific notation?
a. 65  10–6 cm
c. 6.5  10–6 cm
–5
b. 6.5  10 cm
d. 6.5  10–4 cm
____ 62. The measurement 0.020 L is the same as
a. 2.0  10–3 L.
b. 2.0  102 L.
c. 2.0  10–2 L.
d. 2.0  10–1 L.
____ 63. The speed of light is 300 000 km/s. In scientific notation, this speed is written to one significant figure as
a. 3  105 km/s.
c. 3.  106 km/s.
b. 3.0  105 km/s.
d. 3.0  106 km/s.
____ 64. The average distance between the Earth and the moon is 386 000 km. Expressed in scientific notation, this
distance is written as
a. 386  103 km.
c. 3.9  105 km.
4
b. 39  10 km.
d. 3.86  105 km.
____ 65. When 6.02  1023 is multiplied by 9.1  10–31, the product is
a. 4.3  10–8.
c. 4.3  10–7.
b. 4.3  1054.
d. 4.3  10–53.
____ 66. Two variables are directly proportional if their ____ has a constant value.
a. sum
c. quotient
b. difference
d. product
____ 67. Two variables are inversely proportional if their ____ has a constant value.
a. sum
c. product
b. difference
d. quotient
____ 68. The graphs of two variables that are inversely proportional to one another is
a. a straight line.
c. a parabola.
b. an ellipse.
d. a hyperbola.
____ 69. In the equation density = mass/volume, mass divided by volume has a constant value. This means that the
a. equation graphs as a straight line.
b. variables mass and volume are inversely proportional.
c. equation graphs as a hyperbola.
d. product of mass and volume is a constant.
____ 70. Dalton incorporated the law of conservation of mass into his atomic theory by asserting that
a. atoms are indivisible.
b. atoms of different elements have different properties.
c. matter is composed of atoms.
d. atoms can be destroyed in chemical reactions.
____ 71. If each atom of element D has 3 mass units and each atom of element E has 5 mass units, a molecule
composed of one atom each of D and E has
a. 2 mass units.
c. 15 mass units.
b. 8 mass units.
d. 35 mass units.
____ 72. If 6.0 g of element K combine with 17 g of element L, how many grams of element K combine with 85 g of
element L?
a. 17 g
c. 30. g
b. 23 g
d. 91 g
____ 73. If two or more compounds are composed of the same two elements, the ratio of the masses of one element
that combine with a fixed mass of the other element is a simple whole number. This is a statement of the law
of
a. conservation of mass.
c. multiple proportions.
b. mass action.
d. definite composition.
____ 74. If 63.5 g of copper (Cu) combine with 16 g of oxygen (O) to form the compound CuO, how many grams of
oxygen will be needed to combine with the same amount of copper to form the compound CuO2?
a. 16 g
b. 32 g
c. 64 g
d. 127 g
____ 75. According to the law of conservation of mass, when sodium, hydrogen, and oxygen react to form a
compound, the mass of the compound is ____ the sum of the masses of the individual elements.
a. equal to
c. less than
b. greater than
d. either greater than or less than
____ 76. In early experiments on electricity and matter, an electrical current was passed through a glass tube containing
a. water.
c. liquid oxygen.
b. gas under high pressure.
d. gas under low pressure.
____ 77. In a glass tube attached to a voltage source, electrical current passes from the negative electrode, called the
____, to the other electrode.
a. cathode
c. electron
b. anode
d. millikan
____ 78. When an electrical current passed through a glass tube, it caused the surface of the tube directly across from
the cathode to glow. Scientists concluded that
a. a magnetic field was produced.
b. the particles of the beam were negatively charged.
c. there was gas in the tube.
d. atoms were indivisible.
____ 79. Experiments with cathode rays led to the discovery of the
a. proton.
c. neutron.
b. nucleus.
d. electron.
____ 80. After measuring the ratio of the charge of a cathode-ray particle to its mass, Thomson concluded that the
particles
a. had no mass.
c. had a very large mass.
b. had a very small mass.
d. carried a positive charge.
____ 81. Because any element used in the cathode produced electrons, scientists concluded that
a. all atoms contained electrons.
c. atoms were indivisible.
b. only metals contained electrons.
d. atoms carried a negative charge.
____ 82. The deflection of cathode rays in Thomson's experiments was evidence of the ____ nature of electrons.
a. wave
c. particle
b. charged
d. spinning
____ 83. Whose series of experiments identified the nucleus of the atom?
a. Rutherford
c. Chadwick
b. Dalton
d. Bohr
____ 84. In Rutherford's experiments, alpha particles
a. passed through a tube containing gas.
b. were used to bombard a cathode plate.
c. collided with electrons.
d. were used to bombard thin metal foil.
____ 85. In Rutherford's experiments, most of the particles
a. bounced back.
c. were absorbed by the foil.
b. passed through the foil.
d. combined with the foil.
____ 86. Because most particles fired at metal foil passed straight through, Rutherford concluded that
a. atoms were mostly empty space.
b. atoms contained no charged particles.
c. electrons formed the nucleus.
d. atoms were indivisible.
____ 87. A positively charged particle with mass 1.673  10–24 g is a(n)
a. proton.
c. electron.
b. neutron.
d. positron.
____ 88. A nuclear particle that has about the same mass as a proton, but with no electrical charge, is called a(n)
a. nuclide.
c. electron.
b. neutron.
d. isotope.
____ 89. The nucleus of an atom has all of the following characteristics except that it
a. is positively charged.
b. is very dense.
c. contains nearly all of the atom's mass.
d. contains nearly all of the atom's volume.
____ 90. Which part of an atom has a mass approximately equal to 1/2000 of the mass of a common hydrogen atom?
a. nucleus
c. proton
b. electron
d. neutron
____ 91. Protons within a nucleus are attracted to each other by
a. the nuclear force.
c. their energy levels.
b. opposite charges.
d. electron repulsion.
____ 92. An atom is electrically neutral because
a. neutrons balance the protons and electrons.
b. nuclear forces stabilize the charges.
c. the numbers of protons and electrons are equal.
d. the numbers of protons and neutrons are equal.
____ 93. Nuclear forces exists because the particles in the nucleus are
a. oppositely charged.
c. highly energized.
b. close together.
d. moving very fast.
____ 94. Most of the volume of an atom is occupied by the
a. nucleus.
c. electrons.
b. nuclides.
d. protons.
____ 95. The smallest unit of an element that can exist either alone or in combination with other such particles of the
same or different elements is the
a. electron.
c. neutron.
b. proton.
d. atom.
____ 96. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have different
a. principal chemical properties.
c. numbers of protons.
b. masses.
d. numbers of electrons.
____ 97. The most common form of hydrogen has
a. no neutrons.
b. one neutron.
c. two neutrons.
d. three neutrons.
____ 98. The nucleus of deuterium contains one proton and
a. two neutrons.
c. no neutrons.
b. one neutron.
d. two electrons.
____ 99. The total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom is its
a. atomic number.
c. mass number.
b. Avogadro number.
d. average atomic mass.
____ 100. As the atomic number increases, the number of electrons in a neutral atom
a. decreases.
c. remains the same.
b. increases.
d. is undetermined.
____ 101. Atoms of the same element can differ in
a. chemical properties.
b. mass number.
c. atomic number.
d. number of protons and electrons.
____ 102. The relative atomic mass of an atom can be found by comparing the mass of the atom to the mass of
a. one atom of carbon-12.
c. a proton.
b. one atom of hydrogen-1.
d. uranium-235.
____ 103. The average atomic mass of an element is the average of the atomic masses of its
a. naturally occurring isotopes.
c. radioactive isotopes.
b. two most abundant isotopes.
d. artificial isotopes.
____ 104. The average atomic mass of an element
a. is the mass of the most abundant isotope.
b. may not equal the mass of any of its isotopes.
c. cannot be calculated.
d. always adds up to 100.
____ 105. The atomic mass of an element listed in the periodic table is the
a. average atomic mass.
b. relative atomic mass of the most abundant isotope.
c. relative atomic mass of the most abundant radioactive isotope.
d. mass number of the least abundant isotope.
____ 106. An aluminum isotope consists of 13 protons, 13 electrons, and 14 neutrons. Its mass number is
a. 13.
c. 27.
b. 14.
d. 40.
____ 107. The number of atoms in a mole of any pure substance is called
a. its atomic number.
c. its mass number.
b. Avogadro's constant.
d. its gram-atomic number.
____ 108. Molar mass
a. is the mass in grams of one mole of a substance.
b. is numerically equal to the average atomic mass of the element.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
____ 109. The mass of a sample containing 3.5 mol of silicon atoms (atomic mass 28.0855 amu) is approximately
a. 28 g.
c. 72 g.
b. 35 g.
d. 98 g.
____ 110. A prospector finds 39.39 g of pure gold (atomic mass 196.9665 amu). She has
a. 1.204  1023 atoms of Au.
c. 4.306  1023 atoms of Au.
b. 2.308  1023 atoms of Au.
d. 6.022  1023 atoms of Au.
____ 111. The periodic table
a. permits the properties of an element to be predicted before the element is discovered.
b. will be completed with element 118.
c. has been of little use to chemists since the early 1900s.
d. was completed with the discovery of the noble gases.
____ 112. Evidence gathered since Mendeleev's time indicates that a better arrangement than atomic mass for elements
in the periodic table is an arrangement by
a. mass number.
c. group number.
b. atomic number.
d. series number.
____ 113. What are the elements with atomic numbers from 58 to 71 called?
a. the lanthanides
c. the actinides
b. the noble gases
d. the alkali metals
____ 114. The periodic law states that the physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their
atomic
a. masses.
c. radii.
b. numbers.
d. charges.
____ 115. The principle that states that the physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic functions of
their atomic numbers is
a. the periodic table.
c. the law of properties.
b. the periodic law.
d. Mendeleev's law.
____ 116. The periodic law states that
a. no two electrons with the same spin can be found in the same place in an atom.
b. the physical and chemical properties of the elements are functions of their atomic
numbers.
c. electrons exhibit properties of both particles and waves.
d. the chemical properties of elements can be grouped according to periodicity but physical
properties cannot.
____ 117. Elements in a group or column in the periodic table can be expected to have similar
a. atomic masses.
c. numbers of neutrons.
b. atomic numbers.
d. properties.
____ 118. Barium, atomic number 56, is the fifth element in Group 2. What is the atomic number of radium, the next
element in Group 2?
a. 64
c. 88
b. 74
d. 103
____ 119. For elements in groups 1, 2, and 18, the increase in atomic number for successive elements follows the pattern
8, 8, 18, ?, 32. What number completes the pattern?
a. 18
c. 24
b. 20
d. 26
____ 120. Refer to the figure below. To which group do fluorine and chlorine belong?
a. alkaline-earth metals
b. transition elements
c. halogens
d. actinides
____ 121. Refer to the figure above. Potassium and bromine belong to
a. Period 4.
c. Period 1.
b. Group 4.
d. Group 1.
____ 122. How many elements are in a period in which only the s and p sublevels are filled?
a. 2
c. 18
b. 8
d. 32
____ 123. Calcium, atomic number 20, has the electron configuration [Ar] 4s2. In what period is calcium?
a. Period 2
c. Period 8
b. Period 4
d. Period 20
____ 124. In the elements shown in the figure below, the s sublevel of the highest occupied energy level
a.
b.
c.
d.
always contains one electron.
always contains two electrons.
varies in the number of electrons it contains.
is always empty.
____ 125. Elements in which the d-sublevel is being filled have the properties of
a. metals.
c. metalloids.
b. nonmetals.
d. gases.
____ 126. Within the p-block elements, the elements at the top of the table, compared with those at the bottom,
a. have larger radii.
c. have lower ionization energies.
b. are more metallic.
d. are less metallic.
____ 127. The elements whose electron configurations end with s2 p5 in the highest occupied energy level belong to
Group
a. 3.
c. 10.
b. 7.
d. 17.
____ 128. The electron configuration of an element is [Kr] 4d6 5s1. To what group does this element belong?
a. Group 4
c. Group 7
b. Group 5
d. Group 9
____ 129. Magnesium, atomic number 12, has the electron configuration [Ne] 3s2. To what group does magnesium
belong?
a. Group 2
c. Group 5
b. Group 3
d. Group 12
____ 130. The most reactive group of the nonmetals is the
a. lanthanides.
c. halogens.
b. transition elements.
d. noble gases.
____ 131. The first member of the noble gas family, whose highest energy level consists of an octet of electrons, is
a. helium.
c. neon.
b. argon.
d. krypton.
____ 132. The most characteristic property of the noble gases is that they
a. have low boiling points.
b. are radioactive.
c. are gases at ordinary temperatures.
d. are largely unreactive.
____ 133. When determining the size of an atom by measuring the distance between bonded, identical, adjacent nuclei,
the radius of an atom is
a.
b.
c.
d.
equal to the distance between nuclei.
one-half the distance between nuclei.
twice the distance between nuclei.
one-fourth the distance between nuclei.
____ 134. When an electron is added to a neutral atom, a certain amount of energy is
a. always absorbed.
b. always released.
c. either released or absorbed.
d. transferred to the more electronegative element.
____ 135. Which represents a neutral atom acquiring an electron in a process where energy is released?
a. A + e– + energy  A–
b. A + e–  A– – energy
c. A + e–  A– + energy
d. A– + energy  A + e–
____ 136. The energy required to remove an electron from an atom is the atom's
a. electron affinity.
c. electronegativity.
b. electron energy.
d. ionization energy.
____ 137. One-half the distance between the nuclei of identical atoms that are bonded together is called the
a. atomic radius.
c. atomic volume.
b. atomic diameter.
d. electron cloud.
____ 138. Within a group of elements, as the atomic number increases, the atomic radius
a. increases.
b. remains approximately constant.
c. decreases regularly.
d. varies unpredictably.
____ 139. In the alkaline-earth group, atoms with the smallest radii
a. are the most reactive.
b. have the largest volume.
c. are all gases.
d. have the highest ionization energies.
____ 140. Across a period in the periodic table, atomic radii
a. gradually decrease.
b. gradually decrease, then sharply increase.
c. gradually increase.
d. gradually increase, then sharply decrease.
____ 141. The ionization energies for removing successive electrons from sodium are 496 kJ/mol, 4562 kJ/mol, 6912
kJ/mol, and 9544 kJ/mol. The great jump in ionization energy after the first electron is removed indicates that
a. sodium has four or five electrons.
b. the atomic radius has increased.
c. a d electron has been removed.
d. the noble gas configuration has been reached.
____ 142. As you move down Group 14 in the periodic table from carbon through lead, atomic radii
a. generally increase.
c. do not change.
b. generally decrease.
d. vary unpredictably.
____ 143. As you move left to right in Period 4 from gallium through bromine, atomic radii
a. generally increase.
c. do not change.
b. generally decrease.
d. vary unpredictably.
____ 144. The force of attraction by Group 1 metals for their valence electrons is
a. weak.
b. zero.
c. strong.
d. greater than that for inner shell electrons.
____ 145. The electrons available to be lost, gained, or shared when atoms form compounds are called
a. ions.
c. d electrons.
b. valence electrons.
d. electron clouds.
____ 146. Valence electrons are those s and p electrons
a. closest to the nucleus.
b. in the lowest energy level.
c. in the highest energy level.
d. combined with protons.
____ 147. The number of valence electrons in Group 1 elements is
a. 1.
c. 8.
b. 2.
d. equal to the period number.
____ 148. In Group 2 elements, the valence electrons are in sublevel
a. d.
c. s.
b. p.
d. f.
____ 149. The number of valence electrons in Group 17 elements is
a. 7.
c. 17.
b. 8.
d. equal to the period number.
____ 150. For groups 13 through 18, the number of valence electrons is equal to the group number
a. plus 1.
c. minus the period number.
b. plus the period number.
d. minus 10.
____ 151. In groups 13 through 18, valence electrons may be in sublevels
a. s and d.
c. d and f.
b. s and p.
d. p and d.
____ 152. Across a period, ionization energies of d-block elements generally
a. increase.
c. remain constant.
b. decrease.
d. drop to zero.
____ 153. Which groups in the main group have lower electronegativity than d-block elements?
a. groups 1 and 2
c. groups 17 and 18
b. groups 13 through 18
d. groups 13 through 17
____ 154. Among the d-block elements, as atomic radii decrease, electronegativity values
a. remain constant.
c. decrease.
b. increase.
d. drop to zero.
____ 155. The electrostatic attraction between positively charged nuclei and negatively charged electrons permits two
atoms to be held together by a(n)
a. chemical bond.
c. neutron.
b. London force.
____ 156. Atoms naturally move
a. toward high potential energy.
b. toward low potential energy.
d. ion.
c. toward less stability.
d. away from each other.
____ 157. As atoms bond with each other, they
a. increase their potential energy, thus creating less-stable arrangements of matter.
b. decrease their potential energy, thus creating less-stable arrangements of matter.
c. increase their potential energy, thus creating more-stable arrangements of matter.
d. decrease their potential energy, thus creating more-stable arrangements of matter.
____ 158. When atoms share electrons, the electrical attraction of an atom for the shared electrons is called the atom's
a. electron affinity.
c. resonance.
b. electronegativity.
d. hybridization.
____ 159. If the atoms that share electrons have an unequal attraction for the electrons, the bond is called
a. nonpolar.
c. ionic.
b. polar.
d. dipolar.
____ 160. What are shared in a covalent bond?
a. ions
b. Lewis structures
c. electrons
d. dipoles
____ 161. Most chemical bonds are
a. purely ionic.
b. purely covalent.
c. partly ionic and partly covalent.
d. metallic.
____ 162. Nonpolar covalent bonds are not common because
a. one atom usually attracts electrons more strongly than the other.
b. ions always form when atoms join.
c. the electrons usually remain equally distant from both atoms.
d. dipoles are rare in nature.
____ 163. The greater the electronegativity difference between two bonded atoms, the greater the percentage of ____ in
the bond.
a. ionic character
c. metallic character
b. covalent character
d. electron sharing
____ 164. The pair of elements that forms a bond with the least ionic character is
a. Na and Cl.
c. O and Cl.
b. K and Cl.
d. Mg and Cl.
____ 165. The B—F bond in BF3 (electronegativity for B is 2.0; electronegativity for F is 4.0) is
a. polar covalent.
c. nonpolar covalent.
b. ionic.
d. metallic.
____ 166. In the three molecules, O2, HCl, and F2, what atom would have a partial negative charge?
a. oxygen
c. chlorine
b. hydrogen
d. fluorine
____ 167. The percentage ionic character and the type of bond in Br2 (electronegativity for Br is 2.8) is
a. 0%; nonpolar covalent.
c. 0%; pure ionic.
b. 100%; polar covalent.
d. 100%; pure ionic.
____ 168. Which of the following is not an example of a molecular formula?
a. H2O
c. NH3
b. B
d. O2
____ 169. When a stable covalent bond forms, the potential energy of the atoms
a. increases.
c. remains constant.
b. decreases.
d. becomes zero.
____ 170. Bond length is the average distance between two bonded atoms
a. at which potential energy is at a minimum.
b. at which kinetic energy is at a maximum.
c. at which potential energy is at a maximum.
d. and equal to one-half the diameter of the electron cloud.
____ 171. The energy released when a covalent bond forms is the difference between zero and the
a. maximum potential energy.
c. minimum potential energy.
b. kinetic energy of the atom.
d. bond length expressed in nanometers.
____ 172. What is placed between a molecule's resonance structures to indicate resonance?
a. double-headed arrow
c. series of dots
b. single-headed arrow
d. Lewis structure
____ 173. Compared with energies of neutral atoms, a crystal lattice has
a. higher potential energy.
c. equal potential energy.
b. lower potential energy.
d. less stability.
____ 174. The forces of attraction between molecules in a molecular compound are
a. stronger than the forces among formula units in ionic bonding.
b. weaker than the forces among formula units in ionic bonding.
c. approximately equal to the forces among formula units in ionic bonding.
d. zero.
____ 175. The properties of both ionic and molecular compounds are related to the
a. lattice energies of the compounds.
b. strengths of attraction between the particles in the compounds.
c. number of covalent bonds each contains.
d. mobile electrons that they contain.
____ 176. The Lewis structure for the ammonium ion, NH4, has
a. nonpolar covalent bond.
c. polar covalent bond.
b. ionic bond.
d. metallic bond.
____ 177. How many extra electrons are in the Lewis structure of the phosphate ion, PO43–?
a. 0
c. 3
b. 2
d. 4
____ 178. Compared with nonmetals, the number of valence electrons in metals is generally
a. smaller.
c. about the same.
b. greater.
d. almost triple.
____ 179. In metallic bonds, the mobile electrons surrounding the positive ions are called a(n)
a. Lewis structure.
c. electron cloud.
b. electron sea.
d. dipole.
____ 180. Which best explains the observation that metals are malleable and ionic crystals are brittle?
a. their chemical bonds
c. their enthalpies of vaporization
b. their London forces
d. their net change
____ 181. The strength of London dispersion forces between molecules depends on
a. only the number of electrons in the molecule.
b. only the number of protons in the molecule.
c. both the number of electrons in the molecule and the mass of the molecule.
d. both the number of electrons and the number of neutrons in the molecule.
____ 182. The following molecules contain polar bonds. The only polar molecule is
a. CCl4.
c. NH3.
b. CO2.
d. CH4.
____ 183. Iodine monochloride (ICl) has a higher boiling point than bromine (Br2) partly because iodine monochloride
is a(n)
a. nonpolar molecule.
c. metal.
b. polyatomic ion.
d. polar molecule.
Chemistry Midterm Exam Review
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS:
OBJ:
2. ANS:
OBJ:
3. ANS:
OBJ:
4. ANS:
OBJ:
5. ANS:
OBJ:
6. ANS:
OBJ:
7. ANS:
OBJ:
8. ANS:
OBJ:
9. ANS:
OBJ:
10. ANS:
OBJ:
11. ANS:
OBJ:
12. ANS:
OBJ:
13. ANS:
OBJ:
14. ANS:
OBJ:
15. ANS:
OBJ:
16. ANS:
OBJ:
17. ANS:
OBJ:
18. ANS:
OBJ:
19. ANS:
OBJ:
20. ANS:
OBJ:
21. ANS:
OBJ:
22. ANS:
C
1
B
1
A
1
B
1
D
1
B
1
D
1
C
1
D
2
C
2
D
2
D
2
A
3
B
3
D
3
C
3
B
3
C
4
A
4
C
5
A
5
C
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.1.4.3
1
SC.A.1.4.3
1
SC.A.1.4.3
1
SC.A.1.4.3
1
SC.A.1.4.3
1
SC.B.1.4.2
1
SC.B.1.4.2
1
SC.A.2.4.2
1
SC.A.2.4.2
1
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: III
REF: 2
DIF: III
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
OBJ:
23. ANS:
OBJ:
24. ANS:
OBJ:
25. ANS:
OBJ:
26. ANS:
OBJ:
27. ANS:
OBJ:
28. ANS:
OBJ:
29. ANS:
OBJ:
30. ANS:
OBJ:
31. ANS:
OBJ:
32. ANS:
OBJ:
33. ANS:
OBJ:
34. ANS:
OBJ:
35. ANS:
OBJ:
36. ANS:
OBJ:
37. ANS:
OBJ:
38. ANS:
OBJ:
39. ANS:
OBJ:
40. ANS:
OBJ:
41. ANS:
OBJ:
42. ANS:
OBJ:
43. ANS:
OBJ:
44. ANS:
OBJ:
45. ANS:
OBJ:
46. ANS:
OBJ:
5
B
5
C
5
A
5
B
1
D
4
C
1
D
3
B
3
D
3
B
1
C
1
C
1
C
2
D
2
C
2
D
2
C
2
B
2
D
2
A
2
D
2
C
2
D
2
C
2
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
SC.A.2.4.2
1
SC.A.2.4.2
1
SC.A.2.4.2
1
SC.A.2.4.2
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.H.1.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: II
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
47. ANS:
OBJ:
48. ANS:
OBJ:
49. ANS:
OBJ:
50. ANS:
OBJ:
51. ANS:
OBJ:
52. ANS:
OBJ:
53. ANS:
D
3
D
3
C
4
B
4
C
4
C
4
B
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: III
REF: 2
OBJ: 4
DIF: III
REF: 2
OBJ: 4
DIF: III
REF: 2
OBJ: 4
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
REF: 2
OBJ: 5
Solution:
PTS: 1
STA: SC.H.2.4.1
54. ANS: A
Solution:
PTS: 1
STA: SC.H.2.4.1
55. ANS: B
Solution:
56.
57.
58.
59.
PTS:
STA:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
1
SC.H.2.4.1
D
5
B
5
D
5
C
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
Solution:
PTS: 1
DIF: II
STA: SC.H.2.4.1
60. ANS: D
Solution:
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
PTS:
STA:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
1
SC.H.2.4.1
B
4
C
4
A
4
D
4
C
4
C
5
C
5
D
5
A
5
A
1
B
1
C
DIF: II
REF: 2
OBJ: 5
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
DIF: III
REF: 3
DIF: III
REF: 3
DIF: III
REF: 3
DIF: III
REF: 3
DIF: III
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: II
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: II
REF: 1
DIF: III
REF: 1
OBJ: 1
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
DIF: II
REF: 1
DIF: III
REF: 1
DIF: II
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.B.1.4.2
1
SC.B.1.4.2
Solution:
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
PTS:
STA:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
1
SC.B.1.4.2
C
1
B
1
A
1
D
1
A
1
B
1
D
1
SC.B.1.4.2
1
SC.B.1.4.2
1
SC.B.1.4.2
1
SC.A.2.4.1
1
SC.A.2.4.1
1
SC.A.2.4.1
1
OBJ:
80. ANS:
OBJ:
81. ANS:
OBJ:
82. ANS:
OBJ:
83. ANS:
OBJ:
84. ANS:
OBJ:
85. ANS:
OBJ:
86. ANS:
OBJ:
87. ANS:
OBJ:
88. ANS:
OBJ:
89. ANS:
OBJ:
90. ANS:
OBJ:
91. ANS:
OBJ:
92. ANS:
OBJ:
93. ANS:
OBJ:
94. ANS:
OBJ:
95. ANS:
OBJ:
96. ANS:
OBJ:
97. ANS:
OBJ:
98. ANS:
OBJ:
99. ANS:
OBJ:
100. ANS:
OBJ:
101. ANS:
OBJ:
102. ANS:
OBJ:
103. ANS:
OBJ:
1
B
1
A
1
B
1
A
2
D
2
B
2
A
2
A
3
B
3
D
3
B
3
A
3
C
3
B
3
C
4
D
4
B
1
A
1
B
1
C
2
B
2
B
2
A
2
A
2
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
SC.A.2.4.1
1
SC.A.2.4.1
1
SC.A.2.4.1
1
SC.A.2.4.1
1
SC.A.2.4.1
1
SC.A.2.4.1
1
SC.A.2.4.1
1
SC.A.2.4.1
1
SC.C.2.4.2
1
SC.C.2.4.2
1
SC.C.2.4.2
1
SC.C.2.4.2
1
SC.C.2.4.2
1
SC.C.2.4.2
1
SC.C.2.4.2
1
SC.A.2.4.2
1
SC.A.2.4.2
1
SC.A.2.4.3
1
SC.A.2.4.3
1
SC.A.2.4.3
1
SC.A.2.4.3
1
SC.A.2.4.3
1
SC.A.2.4.3
1
SC.A.2.4.3
1
SC.A.2.4.3
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
104. ANS:
OBJ:
105. ANS:
OBJ:
106. ANS:
OBJ:
107. ANS:
OBJ:
108. ANS:
OBJ:
109. ANS:
B
2
A
2
C
3
B
4
C
4
D
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
1
SC.A.2.4.3
1
SC.A.2.4.3
1
SC.A.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: III
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: III
REF: 3
OBJ: 5
DIF: III
REF: 3
OBJ: 5
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: II
REF: 1
DIF: II
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
Solution:
PTS: 1
STA: SC.H.2.4.1
110. ANS: A
Solution:
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
PTS:
STA:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
1
SC.H.2.4.1
A
2
B
2
A
2
B
3
B
3
B
3
D
4
C
4
A
4
C
4
A
4
B
1
B
1
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
124. ANS:
OBJ:
125. ANS:
OBJ:
126. ANS:
OBJ:
127. ANS:
OBJ:
128. ANS:
OBJ:
129. ANS:
OBJ:
130. ANS:
OBJ:
131. ANS:
OBJ:
132. ANS:
OBJ:
133. ANS:
OBJ:
134. ANS:
OBJ:
135. ANS:
OBJ:
136. ANS:
OBJ:
137. ANS:
OBJ:
138. ANS:
OBJ:
139. ANS:
OBJ:
140. ANS:
OBJ:
141. ANS:
OBJ:
142. ANS:
OBJ:
143. ANS:
OBJ:
144. ANS:
OBJ:
145. ANS:
OBJ:
146. ANS:
OBJ:
147. ANS:
OBJ:
148. ANS:
C
1
A
2
D
2
D
3
C
3
A
3
C
4
C
4
D
4
B
1
C
1
C
1
D
1
A
1
A
2
D
2
A
2
D
2
A
2
B
2
A
3
B
3
C
3
A
3
C
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.H.2.4.1
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.1.4.2
1
SC.A.1.4.2
1
SC.A.1.4.2
1
SC.A.1.4.2
1
SC.A.1.4.2
1
SC.A.1.4.2
1
SC.A.1.4.2
1
SC.A.1.4.2
1
SC.A.1.4.2
1
SC.A.1.4.2
1
SC.A.1.4.2
1
SC.A.1.4.1
1
SC.A.1.4.1
1
SC.A.1.4.1
1
SC.A.1.4.1
1
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: II
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: II
REF: 3
DIF: II
REF: 3
DIF: II
REF: 3
DIF: II
REF: 3
DIF: II
REF: 3
DIF: II
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
OBJ:
149. ANS:
OBJ:
150. ANS:
OBJ:
151. ANS:
OBJ:
152. ANS:
OBJ:
153. ANS:
OBJ:
154. ANS:
OBJ:
155. ANS:
OBJ:
156. ANS:
OBJ:
157. ANS:
STA:
158. ANS:
OBJ:
159. ANS:
OBJ:
160. ANS:
OBJ:
161. ANS:
OBJ:
162. ANS:
OBJ:
163. ANS:
OBJ:
164. ANS:
OBJ:
165. ANS:
OBJ:
166. ANS:
OBJ:
167. ANS:
OBJ:
168. ANS:
OBJ:
169. ANS:
OBJ:
170. ANS:
OBJ:
171. ANS:
OBJ:
172. ANS:
OBJ:
3
A
3
D
3
B
3
A
4
A
4
B
4
A
1
B
2
D
SC.A.1.4.5
B
3
B
3
C
3
C
4
A
4
A
4
D
5
B
5
C
5
A
5
B
1
B
2
A
2
C
2
A
5
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
SC.A.1.4.1
1
SC.A.1.4.1
1
SC.A.1.4.1
1
SC.A.1.4.1
1
SC.A.1.4.2
1
SC.A.1.4.2
1
SC.A.1.4.2
1
SC.A.1.4.5
1
SC.A.1.4.5
1
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
1
DIF: I
SC.A.1.4.5
1
DIF: I
SC.A.1.4.5
1
DIF: I
SC.A.1.4.5
1
DIF: I
SC.A.1.4.5
1
DIF: I
SC.A.1.4.5
1
DIF: I
SC.A.1.4.5
1
DIF: III
SC.C.2.4.5
1
DIF: III
SC.C.2.4.5
1
DIF: III
SC.C.2.4.5
1
DIF: III
SC.C.2.4.5
1
DIF: II
SC.A.2.4.2
1
DIF: I
SC.A.1.4.2 | SC.C.2.4.5
1
DIF: I
SC.A.1.4.2 | SC.C.2.4.5
1
DIF: I
SC.A.1.4.2 | SC.C.2.4.5
1
DIF: I
SC.A.1.4.5
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: II
REF: 3
DIF: II
REF: 3
DIF: II
REF: 3
DIF: II
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: I
OBJ: 2
REF: 1
REF: 1
REF: 1
REF: 1
REF: 1
REF: 1
REF: 1
REF: 1
REF: 1
REF: 1
REF: 2
REF: 2
REF: 2
REF: 2
REF: 2
173. ANS:
OBJ:
174. ANS:
OBJ:
175. ANS:
OBJ:
176. ANS:
OBJ:
177. ANS:
OBJ:
178. ANS:
OBJ:
179. ANS:
OBJ:
180. ANS:
OBJ:
181. ANS:
OBJ:
182. ANS:
OBJ:
183. ANS:
OBJ:
B
3
B
4
B
4
C
4
C
4
A
1
B
1
A
3
C
4
C
5
D
5
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
PTS:
STA:
1
SC.A.1.4.5
1
SC.A.1.4.5
1
SC.A.1.4.5
1
SC.A.1.4.5
1
SC.A.1.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.2.4.5
1
SC.A.1.4.5
1
SC.A.1.4.5
DIF: II
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: III
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 4
DIF: I
REF: 4
DIF: I
REF: 4
DIF: II
REF: 5
DIF: III
REF: 5
DIF: II
REF: 5