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Name:
Last
First
ID#___________________________
Lab. Date and Time____________________
Lab. TA____________________
Biological Sciences 1B – Dr. Herrlinger
Summer Sessions I 1998
Midterm 1
July 10, 1998
Please Read the Instructions First
Check your pages. There are 11 pages in this exam.
You are responsible for making sure that you have all the pages.
This examination is worth 85 points.
Write your name, ID#, and Lab. Section on your scantron.
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Indicate your answers on the scantron sheet using a number 2 or test scoring pencil. Press
heavily, don’t stray out of the margins, and completely erase any changed answers.
2. If you think that a multiple choice question is ambiguous or confusing, use the “gripe sheet” at
the end of the examination to explain the problem.
3. There are 30 multiple choice questions worth 2 points each.
Fill-in Questions
1. Use pen only (no grade corrections for pencil or white–out).
2. Write only one answer per question. You can elaborate on an answer, but you will not be
given any credit if you write two different answers to the question.
3. Spelling rules: ½ credit for 2–3 letters wrong or transposed. No points will be given if the
misspelling alters the meaning of the word.
4. There are 10 fill–in questions worth 25 points in total.
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Choose the one best answer:
1. Organisms that are capable of self–fertilization will produce
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
all identical offspring
homozygote abundance
more heterozygotes
smaller individuals
sterile offspring
2. An example of a phenotypic trait controlled by more than two alleles on one gene is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
ABO blood type in humans
feather color in budgies
morph color in peppered moths
size of platyfish
skin color in humans
3. Which of the following is NOT a related consequence of volcanic activity and its effect on
organisms?
a. after eruptions, continents can subside, causing rises in sea level
b. eruptions can eject massive amounts of iridium into the atmosphere, eventually
smothering plants and animals
c. eruptions can produce dust clouds that block sunlight and reduce temperatures
d. lava flows as large as 1 million square miles can inundate a landscape
e. magma can build beneath continents, lifting them up as much as 1000 feet, causing rapid
drops in temperature
4. Suppose there is a gene in a population of woodrats that determines susceptibility to fleas (S).
Assume there are two alleles for this gene. f(S) = 0.35. What would be the frequency of
individuals with the homozygous recessive genotype?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
(0.35)(0.35)
(0.65)(0.65)
2(0.35)(0.65)
(0.35)(0.65)
based on the information provided, the frequency cannot be determined
5. When a single gene affects several different characters in the same individual (as in Siamese
cats) it is called
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
parapatic
pathetic
pleiotropic
polygenic
polygynous
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6. Recall the salamander named the Mexican axolotl (Ambystoma mexicanum). It differs from
the ancestral condition by having its somatic development retarded while the timing of sexual
maturity has remain unchanged. This is an example of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
a change in the ploidy level
hypermorphosis
neoteny
progenesis
throxification
7. Weismann’s Doctrine of Segregation of the Germ Line explains why
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
humans have become resistant to antibiotics over time
mutations are deleterious
mutations are important in the germ line
mutations in somatic cells are passed along to offspring
weightlifting results can be inherited
8. Which of the following is NOT a condition of the Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium theory?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
assortative mating
large population size
mutation rates at equilibrium
no advantage to particular alleles
no migration
9. Natural selection operates on __________ and evolution is recorded by changes in
__________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
individuals; individuals
individuals; populations
populations; populations
species; natural selection
species; populations
10. While it is rare for marine invertebrates to face extinction, white abalone (Haliotis sorenseni)
populations may not recover. If a portion of the remaining individuals were captively bred
and released into the wild, what would you expect from a genetic analysis of the individuals
before they are returned to the ocean?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
the captives have undergone speciation
the captives should have a higher relative fitness than wild abalone
the captives will have a different number of chromosomes than wild abalone
the captives would have formed hybrids among themselves
the degree of genetic similarity is higher within the captives than within the wild abalone
11. The range of phenotypes possible from a single genotype describes
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
anagenesis
genetic drift
homoplasy
hybrid vigor
norm of reaction
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12. Genetic variation can be produced by all of the following EXCEPT
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
a founder effect
gene flow
negative assortative mating
recombination
sexual reproduction
13. The agent of selection in peppered moths (Biston betularia) is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
air pollution
birds
entomologists
lichen diseases
tree color
14. The predatory Anomalocaris that was seen in the Burgess Shale video
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
existed before the extinction of the dinosaurs
died during the Cambrian explosion
is an organism that exhibited stasis
gave rise to onychophorans
all of the above
15. Brown trout and rainbow trout often live in the same streams, but brown trout breed in the
fall whereas rainbow trout breed in the spring. This is an example of what type of
reproductive isolating mechanism?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
behavioral
ecological
mechanical
spatial
temporal
16. The offspring of a mating between a horse and a donkey is an example of
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
a fertile hybrid
gametic isolation
hybrid inviability
hybrid sterility
all of the above
17. Compared to a normal mating system, the effective population size in elephant seals
practicing harem polygyny is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
the same
reduced
increased
inconsequential
none of the above
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18. On the graph to the right, individuals beneath the arrow have the lowest relative fitness.
What type of selection would result in this case?
Selection
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
directional
disruptive (diversifying)
dissociative
negative
stabilizing
Frequency
Body Weight
19. The placement of reptiles in the class Reptilia and birds in the class Aves
a. demonstrates that scales on the legs of birds are completely different from scales on
reptiles
b. ignores the fact that birds branched off from reptiles
c. is acceptable to cladists
d. violates the Linnaean classification system
e. none of the above
20. Which of the following is an example of stasis?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
budgies
horseshoe crab
Mexican axolotl
platyfish
zebras
21. True or False. The theory of plate tectonics provided a mechanism for how the continents
have drifted over geologic time.
A. True
B. False
22. Which of the following statements about allele frequencies is NOT true?
a. If an allele is absent from a population, its frequency is 0.
b. If there is only one allele at a locus, its frequency is 1.
c. If there are two alleles at a locus and we know the frequency of one of them, we can
calculate the frequency of the other by subtraction.
d. If two populations have the same alleles, they will have the same allelic frequencies.
e. The sum of all allele frequencies at a locus is 1.
23. A farmer applies pesticide to his broccoli crop. Almost all the targeted pest insects were
killed (say 99.9%). The pest population then increases rapidly again and the farmer reapplies
the pesticide. This time less than 1% of the pests are killed. What do you think happened?
a. The behavior of the insects changed and they flew away.
b. The first application selected for insecticide–resistant genotypes.
c. The insecticide caused mutations for resistance and a new species of pesticide–resistant
insect was created.
d. The population of insects drifted to a new, pesticide–resistant genotype.
e. The population of insects became acclimated to the pesticide.
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24. What is the maximum number of gamete genotypes that could be produced by an individual
with the diploid genotype RrSs?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
1
2
3
4
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25. Which of the following is a true statement about Tasmanian wolves and North American
wolves?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
they are an example of adaptive radiation
they are an example of convergent evolution
they are both members of the same taxonomic family
they have a recent common ancestor
with all other carnivores, they exhibit a monophyletic history
26. Which of the following structures are NOT homologous?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
bat wing
horse foreleg
human arm
flamingo leg
whale flipper
27. Which of the following statements about Charles Darwin is NOT true?
a. He was seasick much of the time on the voyage of the HMS Beagle.
b. He overcame early ideas of creation, teleology, typology, and Lamarckian thought to
become an evolutionist, a mechanist, a populationist, and supported Darwinian concepts.
c. He was primarily a botanist.
d. He abstained from drinking and was an excellent student.
e. He bred pigeons.
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F
D
C
H
G
J
E
I
4
B
3
2
A
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Use the cladogram above to answer the following questions:
28. What is the most likely number of times that antlers (that stuff on the head) evolved?
a.
b.
c.
d.
once
twice
three times
four times
29. If species G, H, I, and J were grouped together, the new grouping would be considered
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
monophyletic
parapatric
paraphyletic
parsimonious
polyphyletic
30. If genetic evidence was found to move species B to the right hand branch of the cladogram,
what position would be the most logical placement?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
3
4
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Fill–in questions:
31. The frequencies of three genotypes in a population are:
Genotype
AA
Aa
aa
Frequency
0.6
0.4
0.0
What will be the genotype frequencies in the next generation, assuming that H–W
assumptions apply? Show your calculations (to two decimal places) to provide a
mathematical rationale for your answer. (4 pts.)
32. Label one population A and another population B. Draw circles below to represent their
distributions so they exhibit sympatry. (2 pts.)
33. Give one reason why male infanticide in primates increases the relative fitness of the killer.
(2 pts.)
34. List (in order!) the seven major taxonomic categories of the Linnean system. (2 pts.) Feel
free to share your mnemonic that helps you remember them.
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35. If a prey population can attain a minimum size where it can escape predation from a gape–
limited predator, what category of selection would you expect to see and what would be the
strength of selection? (2 pts.)
36. In a population of turtles from Putah Creek, shell color is controlled by two alleles at one
locus. The black shell color allele (B) is dominant over the brown shell color allele (b). f(B)
= 0.6 and f(b) = 0.4. What are the expected genotype and phenotype frequencies of the F1
generation based on the allele frequencies observed in the parent population above? Assume
that all the conditions for Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium are valid. Show your calculations.
(3 pts.)
If there are 100 turtles in our Putah Creek population, how many individuals will have at
least one B allele in the same F1 generation? (1 pt.)
37. Without using an example discussed in lecture, make up an example of negative assortative
mating within a species that demonstrates your knowledge of this concept. (2 pts.)
38. What specific process does phyletic gradualism and punctuated equilibrium refer to?
(1 pt.)
Describe the difference between phyletic gradualism and punctuated equilibrium. (2 pts.)
39. A large population of plants consists of 51% yellow–blossomed plants (the dominant
phenotype) and 49% white–blossomed plants (the recessive phenotype). At H–W
equilibrium, the frequency of the yellow–flowered allele in the population is what? (2 pts.)
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40. Differentiate between genetic drift and gene flow. (2 pts.)
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Name: ___________________________
Last
First
ID#________________________
Gripe Sheet
Instructions:
1. Put your name at the top of the page.
2. If you think that a question is ambiguous or confusing, indicate the question number, the
answer you gave, and the reason that you gave this answer.
Question # Answer you gave
Gripe
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