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Ministry of the Health of Ukraine KHARKOV NATIONAL MEDICAL UNIVERSITY HUMAN ANATOMY DEPARTMENT Head of the department – prof. A. Tereshchenko MATERIALS for preparation of the practical classes Human anatomy tests Human anatomy clinical tests KROK-1 Kharkov – 2015 1 Materials for preparation of human anatomy tests . Common editor prof. A. Tereshchenko – Kharkov: KNMU, 2015 – 125 р. Compilers: A. Polyakova I. Ladna M. Lupir N. Jarova A. Korobchanska D. Sheyan O. Boyagina L. Babiy Approved by the Learned Counsil of Kharkov National Medical University © Kharkov National Medical University, 2015 First answers are right 2 OSTEOLOGY 5. Scapula, clavicle, first rib. 1. The bone grows in length due to: 7. In which bone is the radial fossa 1. Metaphyseal cartilages. located? 2. Epiphyseal centres of osification. 1. Humerus. 3. Diaphyseal cavity. 2. Ulna. 4. Diaphysis. 3. Radius. 5. Periosteum. 4. Clavicle. 5. Sternum. 2. The bone grows in width due to: 1. Kambial layer of periosteum. 8. Which bone of the forearm is 2. Apophysis. located medially? 3. Diaphysis. 1. Ulna. 4. Epiphyseal cartilages. 2. Radius. 5. Medullar cavity. 9. Name the bones which have a 3. Clavicle is classified as: styloid process: 1. Mixed bone. 1. Temporal bone, ulna, radius. 2. Spongy bone. 2. Ulna, radius, pisiform bone. 3. Tubular bone. 3. Temporal bone, radius, humerus. 4. Flat bone. 4. Radius, humerus, ulna. 5. Sesamoid bone. 5. Sternum, clavicle, temporal bone. 4. Patella is classified as: 10. Lunate and scaphoid bones 1. Sesamoid bone. belong to: 2. Mixed bone. 1. Proximal row of carpal bones. 3. Spongy bone. 2. Distal and proximal rows of carpal 4. Tubular bone. bones. 5. Pneumatic bone. 3. Distal row of carpal bones. 4. Bones of metacarpus. 5. What bones of an adult have red 5. Sesamoid bones. bone marrow? 1. Sternum, ribs, vertebrae, bones of 11. How many metacarpal bones skull, epiphysis of tubular bones. are there in one hand? 2. Sternum, tubular bones, bones of 1. 5. pelvis. 2. 8. 3. Ribs, bones of skull, vertebrae, 3. 14. long tubular bones. 4. 12. 4. Flat and spongy bones, epiphysis 5. 7. and of tubular bones. 12. Which vertebra has the carotid 6. The bones of shoulder girdle tuberculum? 1. 6-th cervical. are: 1. Scapula, clavicle. 2. 7-th cervical. 2. Scapula, clavicle, sternum. 3. 5-th cervical. 3. Scapula, humerus, clavicle. 4. 1-st thoracic. 4. Sternum, scapula, humerus. 5. 2-nd cervical. 3 5. 31-32. 19. Which bones have the spinous process? 1. Vertebrae. 2. Ulna. 3. Humerus. 4. Temporal. 5. Sphenoid. 20. Which ribs are joined to the sternum? 1. 1-7. 2. 8-9. 3. 8-10. 4. 9-10. 5. 8-11. 21. Which vertebrae have the bifid spinous processes? 1. Cervical except 1-st and 7-th. 2. Lumbar. 3. Thoracic except 1-st. 4. Sacrum and lumbar. 5. 6-th and 7-th lumbar. 22. What is the largest measure of the pelvis? 1. Transverse diameter. 2. Diagonal conjugate. 3. Oblique diameter. 4. Anatomical conjugate. 5. Gynaecological conjugate. 23. Which bone has xiphoid process? 1. Sternum. 2. Temporal bone. 3. 4-th cervical vertebra. 4. Scapula. 5. 6-th cervical vertebra. 24. Which vertebra has fovea dentis? 1. 1-st cervical. 2. 3-th cervical. 3. 2-nd cervical. 4. 1-st thoracic. 5. 12-th thoracic. 13. In which plane are the articular processes of thoracic vertebrae located? 1. Frontal. 2. Horizontal. 3. Sagittal. 4. Between sagittal and frontal. 5. Between frontal and horizontal. 14. Which vertebra doesn’t have a body? 1. 1-st cervical. 2. 2-nd cervical. 3. 5-th cervical. 4. 6-th cervical. 5. 1-st thoracic. 15. Which vertebrae have foramen of transverse processes? 1. Cervical. 2. Cervical except 1-st. 3. Cervical except 6-th. 4. Thoracic. 5. Lumbar. 16. Which thoracic vertebrae have the complete costal facet on its body? 1. 1, 11, 12. 2. 10, 12. 3. 1, 10, 11, 12. 4. 1, 12. 5. 1, 10, 11. 17. Which bones have the auricular surfaces? 1. Sacrum and iliac bone. 2. Sacrum and temporal bone. 3. Temporal bone and iliac bone. 4. Sternum and sacrum. 5. Scapula and sacrum. 18. How many vertebrae does the vertebral column have? 1. 30-34. 2. 35-38. 3. 34-36. 4. 30-32. 4 4. Lumbar and sacral. 5. 11-12 thoracic. 31. Which ribs has not the costal groove? 1. 1 and 12. 2. 2-11. 3. 1, 2. 4. True ribs. 5. False ribs. 32. What are the boundaries of the thoracic inlet? 1. Body T1 vertebra, manubrium sterni, 1-st ribs. 2. Body T2 vertebra, manubrium sterni, 1-st ribs, clavicle. 3. Body C7vertebra, manubrium sterni, 1-st ribs, clavicle. 4. Infrasternal angle, T12 vertebra, 7-12 ribs. 33. What are the boundaries of the thoracic outlet? 1. Infrasternal angle, T12 vertebra, 7-12 ribs. 2. Body T1 vertebra, manubrium of sternum, 1-st rib. 3. Body T2 vertebra, manubrium of sternum, 1-st rib, clavicule. 4. Body C7 vertebra, manubrium of sternum, 1-st rib, clavicule. 34. On which rib is tubercle for scalenus anterior muscle located? 1. On 1. 2. On 2. 3. On 10. 4. On 11. 5. On 12. 35. On which thoracic vertebrae are costal facets on the transverse processes absent? 1. On XI, XII. 2. On X. 3. On IX. 5. On III. 25. Which bone has the trochanters? 1. Femur. 2. Tibia. 3. Fibula. 4. Calcaneus. 5. Navicular. 26. Which bone has a medial malleolus? 1. Tibia. 2. Fibula. 3. Talus. 4. Navicular. 5. Femur. 27. Which parts the foot has? 1. Tarsus, metatarsus, phalanges. 2. Carpus, metacarpus, metatarsus. 3. Phalanges, carpus, metatarsus. 4. Metatarsus, carpus, phalanges. 5. Metacarpus, metatarsus, phalanges. 28. What are the borders of scapula? 1. Lateral, medial, superior. 2. Lateral, medial, inferior. 3. Superior, inferior, lateral. 4. Lateral, inferior, posterior. 29. What are the physiological curvatures of vertebral column? 1. Cervical and lumbar lordoses, thoracic and sacral kyphosis. 2,Cervical and lumbar lordoses, . thoracic kyphosis. 3. Thoracic and cervical lordoses,lumbar kyphosis. 4. Cervical,sacral and lumbar lordosis,. 4. Cervical and sacral kyphosis, thoracic lordosis. 30. Which vertebrae has the costal facets on its transverse processes? 1. 1-10 thoracic 2. Cervical and lumbar. 5 1. Promontory. 2. Protection. 3. Atlant. 4. Axis. 42. What are the special features of the first rib? 1. Head has one articular facet; tubercle and angle of shaft are in one point; it has no costal groove. 2. Head has two articular facets; shaft has outer and inner surfaces and upper and lower borders. 3. Head has two articular facets; it is the shortest, broadest shaft and has upper and lower borders. 43. What are the structures related to grooves on superior surface of the first rib? 1. Arterior groove for subclavian vein; posterior groove for subclavian artery. 2. Arterior groove for subclavian artery; posterior groove for subclavian vein. 44. What are the special features of the 12th rib? 1. Neck, tubercle, angle and groove are absent. 2. Groove, angle and head are absent. 3. Neck is absent; head has two articular facets. 45. What are the typical thoracic vertebrae? 1. 2nd-9th thoracic vertebrae. 2. 1st-10th thoracic vertebrae. 3. 2nd-10th thoracic vertebrae. 4. 1st, 9th-12th thoracic vertebrae. 46. Which vertebra has two arches? 1. I cervical. 2. II thoracic. 3. I sacral. 36. Which vertebra is the prominent vertebra? 1. VII cervical. 2. I cervical. 3. V lumbar. 4. I sacral. 5. VII thoracic. 37. On which part of sternum is jugular notch located? 1. Manubrium. 2. Body. 3. Xiphoid process. 4. Sternal angle. 38. What structures form the intervertebral foramen? 1. Upper vertebral incisura and lower vertebral incisura. 2. Upper vertebral incisura and two transverse processes. 3.Lower vertebral incisura and two bodies of vertebrae. 4. Two vertebral arches. 39. What are the characteristic features of all thoracic vertebrae? 1. Costal facets on the body. 2. Small body. 3. Costal facets on the transversus process. 40. What are the characteristic features of the first cervical vertebra? 1. Anterior and posterior arches, 4 articular facets, transversus processes,lateral masses, anterior and posterior tubercles. 2. Body, arch, processes,lateral masses,transverse processes. 3. Anterior and posterior arches,body. 41. What is the name of the junction between base of sacrum and body of the last lumbar vertebra? 6 4. II cervical. 47. Which bones form the shoulder girdle? 1. Clavicle, scapula. 2. Clavicle, acromion. 3. Scapula, olecranon. 4. Sternum, scapula. 48. Name processes of the scapula? 1. Coracoid, acromion. 2. Sternal, coracoid 3. Coronoid, acromion. 4. Spine, coracoid. 49. On which margin of scapula is scapular notch located? 1. Superior. 2. Inferior. 3. Medial. 4. Lateral. 5. Anterior. 50. On which surface of humerus is deltoid tuberosity located? 1. Lateral. 2. Medial. 3. Anterior. 4. Posterior. 51. On which end of humerus are medial and lateral epicondyles located? 1. Distal. 2. Upper. 3. Proximal. 4. Lower. 52. What is the anatomical position of the humerus in arm? 1. Head is directed medially, upwards and backwards. 2. Head is directed laterally, upwards and backwards. 3. Medial epicondile is directed anteriorly. 53. What are the boundaries of the trochlear notch of ulna? 1. Olecranon, coronoid process. 3. Olecranon, styloid process. 4. Olecranon, trochlear process. 5. Olecranon, acromion process. 54. On which surface of radius is radial tuberosity situated? 1. Medial. 2. Lateral. 3. Anterior. 4. Posterior. 55. On which end of ulna is head located? 1. Distal. 2. Proximal. 3. Medial. 4. Lateral. 56. On which end of radius is head located? 1. Proximal. 2. Distal. 3. Medial. 4. Lateral. 57 . Where is ulnar groove present? 1. Posterior surface of medial epicondyle of humerus. 2. Posterior surface of lateral epicondyle of humerus. 3. On the posterior surface of shaft of humerus. 4. On the anterior surface of shaft of humerus. 58. What are the different parts of hip bone? 1. Ilium, pubic, ischium. 2. Ilium, acetabulum, pubic. 3. Ischium, ilium, femur. 4. Ilium, sacrum, pubic, ischium. 59. What bones form the boundaries of obturator foramen? 1. Pubic and ischium. 2. Ilium and pubic. 3. Sacrum and ischium. 4. Ilium and ischium. 7 60. Which structures form terminal line? 1. Arcuate lines of hip bones and promontorium of sacrum. 2. Pubic crest and pubic symphisis. 3. Abturator groove and iliac crest. 4. Arches of pubic bone and pubic symphysis. 61. Where is the intertrochanteric crest of femur located? 1. Between trochanters on the posterior surface. 2. Between trochanters on the anterior surface. 3. Between trochanters on the medial surface. 4. Between trochanter and head of femur. 62. Where is trochateric fossa of femur located? 1. On medial surface of greater trochanter. 2. On lateral surface of lesser trochanter. 3. On the neck. 4. Lower intertrochanteric crest. 63. Where is a rough line of the femur situated? 1. On posterior surface of the femur shaft. 2. On anterior surface of the femur shaft. 3.On posterior surface of the trochanters. 4. Between head and greater trochanter. 64. What is the normal anatomical position of the femur in the thigh? 1. Head is directed medially, two condyles are on the distal epiphysis. 2. Head is directed laterally, two condyles are on the lower surface 65. Which sesamoid bones present in the lower limb? 1. Patella, two bones on the foot. 2. Patella, epicondyles. 3. Patella, navicular. 4. Patella, cuboid. 66. Which structures are located on the posterior surface of tibia? 1. Line of soleus muscle. 2. Pectineus line. 3. Linea aspera. 4. Patellar surface. 5. Intercondylar fossa. 66. Which structures are located on the posterior surface of tibia? 1. Line of soleus muscle. 2. Pectineus line. 3. Linea aspera. 4. Patellar surface. 5. Intercondylar fossa. 67. What are parts of the ilium? 1. Body and wing. 2. Body and crest. 3. Body and rami. 4. Body and head. 68. What are parts of the ischium? 1. Body and 1 ramus. 2. Body and 2 rami. 3. Body and wing. 4.Body and crest. 69. What are parts of the pubis? 1. Body and 2 rami.. 2. Body and 1 ramus. 3. Body and wing. 4.Body and crest. 70. What are boundaries of the obturator foramen? 1. Two rami of the pubis and ramus of the ischium. 2. One ramus of the pubis and ramus of the ischium. 8 3. 6 4. 9 78. What two rows are formed by the carpal bones? 1. Proximal and distal. 2. Superior and inferior. 3. First and second. 4. Medial and lateral. 79. Which carpal bone of the hand is sesamoid? 1. Pisiform 2. Lunate 3. Capitate 4. Scaphoid 80. Which bones are called “sesamiod”? 1. Small bones located inside muscle’s tendon. 2. Small bones located inside muscle’s belly. 3. Small bones located outside muscle’s tendon. 4. Small bones located outside muscle’s belly. 81. On which end of the humerus is capitulum humeri located? 1. Distal epiphysis. 2. Proximal epiphysis. 3. Medial epiphysis. 4. Lateral epiphysis. 82. On which surface of the humerus is sulcus nervi radialis located? 1. Posterior. 2. Anterior. 3. Medial. 4. Lateral. 83. Which bone of the forearm is medial bone? 1. Ulna. 2. Radius. 3. Humerus. 4. Metacarpal. 71. By means of what structures is acetabulum formed? 1. By bodies of the ilium, ischium and pubis. 2. By bodies of the ilium and pubis. 3. By bodies of the ilium and ischium. 4. By bodies of the ischium and pubis. 72. How many tarsal bones are on the foot? 1. 7 2. 6. 3. 8. 4. 5. 73. On which tarsal bone the sustentaculum tali is located ? 1.On the calcaneus. 2. On the talus. 3. On the navicular bone. 4. On the cuboid bone. 74. Which bone is medial bone of the leg? 1. Tibia 2. Fibula. 3. Ulna 4. Femur. 75. What bone has a lateral malleolus? 1. Fibula 2. Tibia 3. Femur 4. Ulna 76. On what fibular epiphysis is head located? 1. Proximal 2. Distal. 3. Medial 4. Lateral 77. How many carpal bones are on the hand? 1. 8 2. 10 9 84. On what forearm’s bone is the large styloid process located? 1. Radius. 2. Ulna. 3. Humerus . 4. Metacarpal. 85. Interosseus margin of the ulna faces: 1. Laterally 2. Medially 3. Proximally 4. Distally 86. Interosseus margin of the radius faces: 1. Medially 2. Laterally 3. Proximally 4. Distally 87. What ribs are called “true”? 1. 1-7. 2. 8-10. 3. 11,12. 4. 1-9. 5. 1-6. 88. What ribs are called “false”? 1. 8-10. 2. 1-7. 3. 11,12. 4. 1-9. 5. 1-6. 89.What ribs are called “floating”? 1. 11, 12. 2. 1-7. 3. 8-10. 4. 1-9. 5. 1-6. 90. On which angle of the scapula is cavitas glenoidalis located? 1. Lateral 2. Superior 3. Inferior 4. Medial 91. On which part of the sternum are clavicular notches located? 1. Manubrium. 2. Body. 3. Xiphoid process. 92. How many costal facets are on the lateral margin of the manubrium sterni? 1. One and half. 2. Two. 3. One. 4. Two and half. 93. Which vertebra has only transverse processes? 1. 1-st cervical. 2. 2-nd cervical. 3. 5-th cervical 4. 1-st thoracic. 94. Which vertebra has dens? 1. Axis 2. Atlas 3. Prominens 95. On what process of 6-th cervical vertebra is carotid tubercle located? 1. Transverse 2. Spinous 3. Superior articular 4. Inferior articular 96. Which cervical vertebra has longest spinous process? 1. 7. 2. 6. 3. 5. 4. 4. 97. How many vertebrae form sacrum? 1. 5. 2. 4. 3. 6. 98. How many vertebrae form coccyx usually? 1. 1-5 10 2. 1-3 3. 1-6 4. 1-7 99. Crista sacralis mediana is formed by following processes of the vertebrae: 1. Spinous 2. Transverse 3. Superior articular 4. Inferior articular 100. Hiatus sacralis is: 1. Exit of the sacral canal 2. Entrance of the sacral canal 101. The sagittal plane divides body into the following parts: 1. Right (dexter) and left (sinister) 2. Superior (upper, cranial) and inferior (lower, caudal) 3. Anterior (front) and posterior (back) 102. The frontal plane divides the body into the following parts: 1. Anterior (front) and posterior (back) 2. Right (dexter) and left (sinister) 3. Superior (upper, cranial) and inferior (lower, caudal) 103. The horizontal plane divides the body into the following parts: 1. Superior (upper, cranial) and inferior (lower, caudal) 2. Anterior (front) and posterior (back) 3. Right (dexter) and left (sinister) SKULL 1. Between what formations of the frontal bone is the ethmoid notch located? 1. Between orbital parts. 2. Between nasal and orbital parts. 3. Between frontal squama and orbital parts. 4. Between internal part and. external part. 2. At which surface of the frontal squama is foramen caecum located? 1. Internal. 2. External. 3. In which part of the sphenoid bone is canalis opticus located? 1. Lesser wing. 2. Greater wing. 3. Pterygoiod process greater wing. 4. Body. 5. Sella turcica. 4. Which surface of the body of the sphenoid bone has sella turcica? 1. Upper. 2. Back. 3. Front. 4. Lover. 5. Lateral. 5. In which part of the sphenoid bone is foramen rotundum located? 1. Greater wing. 2. Lesser wing. 3. Pterygoid process. 4. Body. 5. Pterygoid hamulus. 3. Temporal. 4. Lateral. 5. Lower. 11 3. Petrosal part. 4. Mastoid part. 5. Tympanic cavity. 12. Which part of the temporal bone has styloid process? 1. Petrosal part. 2. Lateral part. 3. Basilar part. 4. Perpendicular plate. 5. Tympanic part. 13. Which part of the temporal bone has mastoid process? 1. Petrosal. 2. Tympanic. 6. Which part of the sphenoid bone has orbital surface? 1. Greater wing. 2. Pterygoid process. 3. Lesser wing. 4. Body. 5. Maxillary. 6. Frontal. 7. In which part of the sphenoid bone are lateral and medial plates located? 1. Pterygoid process. 2. Greater wing. 3. Lesser wing. 4. Superior orbital fissure. 5. Sella turcica. 8. On which part of the occipital bone is pharyngeal tubercle located? 1. Basilar part. 2. Lateral part. 3. Occipital squama. 4. Occipital process. 5. Clivus. 9. Which part of the occipital bone has occipital condyle? 1. Lateral part. 2. Basilar part. 3. Occipital squama. 4. External occipital protuberance. 5. Cruciate eminence. 10. Which part of the ethmoidal bone do superior and medial nasal conchae belong to? 1. Ethmoidal labyrinth. 2. Ethmoidal plate. 3. Perpendicular plate. 4. Uncinate process. 5. Ethmoidal bulla. 11. Which part of the temporal bone has zigomatic process? 1. Squamous. 2. Tympanic part. 3. Squamosus. 4. Lateral. 5. Pyramidal. 14. To which type of bones does maxilla belong to? 1. Paired bones, pneumatic. 2. Unpaired bones. 3. Sesamoid. 4. Pneumatic. 15. On which surface of the maxilla is foramen infraorbitale located? 1. Anterior surface. 2. Orbital surface. 3. Infraorbital surface. 4. Nasal surface. 5. Alveolar surface. 16. Which type of bones does the palatine bone belong to? 1. Paired. 12 2. Unpaired. 3. Pneumatic. 17. Which bones have perpendicular and horizontal plates? 1. Palatine. 2. Nasal. 21. Choose all parts of the occipital bone: 1.Basilar,lateral parts and occipital squama. 2. Basilar, lateral and mastoid parts. 3. Basilar,orbital and lateral parts. 3. Zygomatic. 22. Which margins does parietal bone have? 4. Hyoid. 5. Temporal. 1. Frontal, occipital, sagittal, squamous. 18. What are the boundares of the jugular foramen? 1. Jugular notch of the occipital and jugular fossa of the temporal bones. 2. Jugular notch of the occipital and jugular fossa of the temporal bones. 2. Frontal, occipital, mastoid,sagittal. 6. Frontal, occipital, sagittal, zygomatical. 23. On which surface of the temporal pyramid is trigeminal impression located? 1. Anterior. 2. Posterior. 3. Occipital process and pyramid of the temporal bones. 4. Temporal pyramid and clivus. 5. Basilar part of the occipital bone and temporal pyramid. 19. What parts does the frontal bone have? 1. Squama part, orbital part, nasal part. 2. Squama part, orbital par jugular fossae, petrosal part. 3. Squama part, orbital part, basilar part. 20. What parts does sphenoidal bone have? 1. Body, greater and lesser wings, pterygoid processes. 2. Body and two pairs of processes. 3. Inferior. 4. Superior. 5. Medial. 6. Lateral. 24. Name the parts of the maxilla: 1. Body, frontal process, palatine process, alveolaris process, zygomatic process. 6. Body, frontal process, palatine process, maxillar process. 7. Body, frontal process, palatine process, pterygoid process. 8. Body, frontal process, palatine process, alveolaris process, occipital 3. Body, frontal process, greater and lesser wings. 13 process. 4. Foramen ovale. 3. The ratio of the minimum diameter to the maximum length of the skull. 4. Meeting point between coronal and sagittal sutures. 29. What types of skull are distingnished by cephalic index? 1. Brachycephalic, mesocephalic, dolichocephalic. 2. Mesocephalic, dolichocephalic, miton. 3. Meson, metacephalic. 30. Name surfaces of the greater wings of the sphenoid bone? 1. Orbital, temporal cerebral, maxillary,infratemporal. 2. Infratemporal, basilar, pterygoid, orbital. 3. Anterior, temporal, infratemporal, cerebral. 31. What bones of skull have pneumatic sinuses? 1. Ethmoid, frontal, maxilla, sphenoid. 2. Ethmoid, occipital, nasal. 3. Ethmoid, occipital, temporal. 4. Ethmoid, zygomatic, occipital, frontal. 32. What is the ratio of cerebral and facial skull of new-born? 1. 8:1. 2. 8:3. 5. Pterygoid canal. 3. 4:1. 28. What is the cephalic index? 4. 2:1. 1. The ratio of the maximum diameter to the maximum length of the skull. 2. It is the highest point on sagittal suture. 5. 1:1. 25. What are the portions of the internal base of skull? 1. Anterior, middle and posterior cranial fossae. 2. Temporal, infratemporal, anterior cranial fossae. 3. Pterygoid, anterior and posterior cranial fossae. 26. Pterygopalatine fossa is connected with nasal casity through: 1. Foramen sphenopalatinum. 2. Foramen rotundum. 3. Foramen lacerum. 4. Inferior orbital fissure. 5. Foramen ovale. 27. Pterygopalatine fossa is connected with middle cranial fossa through: 1. Foramen rotundum. 2. Foramen sphenopalatinum. 3. Foramen lacerum. 33. Name the periods of more intensive growth of facial skull of a child? 1. The period of sexual maturation. 14 2. The period of formation of milk occlusion (2-6 years). 4. Pterygopalatine fossa with nasal cavity. 5. Bone palate with pterygopalatine fossa. 37. In which of the formations does maxillar sinus open? 1. Middle nasal meatus. 2. Pterygopalatine fossa. 3. The period of formation of permanent occlusion (7-15 years). 4. The period of formation of milk and permanent occlusion. 3. Superior nasal meatus. 34. What formations are jointed through the sphenopalatine foramen? 1. Pterygopalatine fossa and nasal cavity. 2. Infratemporal and pterygopalatin fossae. 4. Inferior nasal meatus. 5. Sphenoid sinus. 38. In which of the formations does frontal sinus open? 3. Sphenoidal sinus and nasal cavity. 1. Middle nasal meatus. 2. Superior nasal meatus. 4. Bone palate and pterygopalate fossa. 3. Inferior nasal meatus. 5. Medial cranial fossa and pterygopalate fossa. 35. What formations are jointed through the pterygoid canal? 1. Pterygopalatin fossa and external base of the skull. 2. Spenoidal sinus and nasal cavity. 3. Pterygopalatin fossa and nasal cavity. 4. Bones palate and pterygopalate fossa. 5. Medial cranial fossa and pterygopalatin fossa. 36. Which of the mentioned structures is connected through the foramen rotundum? 1. Middle cranial fossa with pterygopalatine fossa. 2. Pterygopalatine fossa with external base of skull. 3. Sphenoid sinus with nasal cavity. 4. Common nasal meatus. 5. Pterygopalatine fossa. 39. Which openings are located on the bone (hard) palate? 1. Greater palatine foramen, lesser palatine foramen, incisive foramen. 2 Greater palatine foramen, lesser palatine foramen, ethmoidal foramen. 3 Greater palatine foramen, lesser palatine foramen, millar foramen. 40. On what part of lower jaw is mandibular foramen located? 1. On inner surface of ramus. 2. On anterior surface of body. 3. On posterior surface of body. 4. On external surface of body. 15 5. On the alveolar process. 41. Pterygopalatine fossa connects with orbital cavity through: 1. Inferior orbital fissure. 2. Superior orbital fissure. 4. Fundus of the external auditory opening. 5. Arcuate eminence. 46. In what formation does carotic canal finish? 1. Apex of petrosal part. 2. Tympanic cavity. 3. Rotundum foramen. 4. Foramen orale. 5. Optic canal. 42. Into what formation does the nasolacrimale canal open? 1. Inferior nasal meatus. 2. Superior nasal meatus. 3. Internal auditory meatus. 4. Muscolutubal canal. 5. Jugular fossa. 47. In what formation does facial canal finish? 1. Stylomastoid foramen. 2. Arcuate fossa. 3. Middle nasal meatus. 4. Inferior nasal concha. 43. Name the formations, which belong to occipital bone? 1. Hypoglossal canal, jugular notch. 2. Foramen rotundum, mastoid canal. 3. Petrosal fossula. 4. Meatus acusticus externus. 3. Stylomastoid foramen, optic canal, jugular foramen. 5. Canalis musculotubarius. 48. What formations does alveolar process of maxilla have? 1. Dental (alveolar) sockets, interalveolar septa. 2. Oblique line. 3. Myloyoid line. 4. Mental tubercule. 5. Zygomatic arch. 49. What parts does hyoid bone have? 1. Lesser horn, body, greater horn. 2. Lesser horn, lacrimal process. 3. Lesser horn, alveolar process. 4. Greater horn, orbital process. 50. Which bones form the superior wall of orbit? 1. Orbital part of frontal bone, lesser wing of sphenoid bone. 2. Greater wing of sphenoid bone. 4. Carotic groove, temporale angle, groove for chiasma. 44. What structures does ethmoid bone have? 1. Perpendicular plate, cribriform plate, etmoidal labyrinth. 2. Nasal part, infraorbital bordes. 3. Perpendicular plate, pterygospinous process. 45. In what formation does the canal of the facial nerve begin? 1. Fundus of the internal auditory meatus. 2. Subarcuate fossa. 3. Petrous fossula. 16 4. Nasal part of frontal bone. 5. Lacrimal bone. 6. Zygomatic bone. 51. Which structures form the lateral wall of orbit? 1. Orbital surface of zygomatic bone, orbital surface of greater wing. 2. Orbital surface of occipital bone, orbital surface of lacrimal bone. 3. Orbital surface of zygomatic bone, orbital surface of maxilla. 52. Which structures form the medial wall of orbit? 1. Frontal process of maxilla, lacrimal bone, orbital plate of ethmoid bone, body of sphenoid bone. 2. Greater wing of sphenoid bone, body of sphenoid bone, lacrimal bone. 3. Orbital plate of ethmoid bone, lesser wing of sphenoid bone. 53. The orbit is jointed with middle cranial fossa through the following formations: 1. Superior orbital fissure, optic canal. 2. Anterior and posterior ethmoidal foramen. 3. Zygomaticotemporal foramen. 4. Nasolacrimal canal. 54. Which structures form the nasal floor? 1. Palatine process of maxilla, horizontal plate of palatine bone. 2. Alveolar process of maxilla. 5. Perpendicular plate of palatine bone. 55. Which structures form the septum of nasal cavity? 1. Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone and vomer. 2. Perpendicular plate of palatine bone and vomer. 3. Medial plate of pterygoid process and vomer. 4. Lateral of pterygoid process and vomer. 56. Which formations open in superior nasal meatus? 1. Sphenoid sinus, posterior ethmoid air cells, sphenopalatine foramen. 3. Frontal sinus. 4. Maxillary sinus. 5. Anterior ethmoid air cells. 6. Middle ethmoid air cells. 57. Which structures form the walls of pterygopalatine fossa? 1. Pterygoid process of sphenoid bone, maxilla, plate of palate bone. 2. Pterygoid process of sphenoid bone, plate of sphenoid bone. 3. Body of sphenoid bone. 4. Ramus of mandibule. 58. What grooves for mentioned sinuses does occipital bone have? 1. For inferior petrosal sinus, for transverse sinus, for superior sagittal sinus, for sigmoid sinus. 2. For superior petrosal sinus, for transverse sinus, for cavernous sinus. 3. For inferior sagittal sinus, for transverse sinus, for superior sagittal sinus. 59. On what formation is arcuate eminence located? 1. Petrous part of temporal bone. 2. Squamous part of temporal bone. 3. Pterygoid process. 4. Medial plate of pterygoid process. 17 3. Tympanic part of temporal bone. 4. Lateral wall of part of temporal cavity. 5. Fundus of jugular fossa. 60. Parts of the mandibule are: 1. Body, two rami. 2. Body, one ramus. 3. Body, coronoid process. 4. Body, condylar process. 61. What structures are on the mandible’s alveolar part? 1. Alveoli dentales, septae interalveolares, septa interradicularis, jugae alveolaria. 2. Alveoli dentales, septae interalveolares, spina mentalis, tuberculum mentale, foramen mentale. 3. Alveoli dentales, septa interradicularis, jugae alveolaria, foramen mandibulae, lingula mandibulae. 62. What tuberositas is located on the outer surface of the mandibular angle? 1. Tuberositas masseterica. 2. Tuberositas pterygoidea. 1. Tuberositas mentalis. 1. Tuberositas mandibularis. 63. Name the anterior process of the mandibular ramus: 1. Processus coronoideus 2. Processus condylaris 3. Processus corocoideus 4. Processus mandibularis 64. Name the posterior process of the mandibular ramus: 1. Processus condylaris 2. Processus coronoideus 3. Processus corocoideus 4. Processus mandibularis 65. Name the entrance of the mandibular canal: 1. Foramen mandibulae 2. Foramen mentale 3. Foramen alveolaris 4. Foramen condylaris 66. Name the exit of the mandibular canal: 1. Foramen mentale 2. Foramen mandibulae 3. Foramen alveolaris 4. Foramen condylaris 67. What tuberositas is located on the inner surface of the mandibular angle? 1. Tuberositas pterygoidea 2. Tuberositas masseterica 3. Tuberositas mandibularis 4. Tuberositas mentalis 68. What fovea is located above the mylohyoid line? 1. Fovea sublingualis 2. Fovea submandibularis 3. Fovea pterygoidea 4. Fovea mentalis 69. What fovea is located under the mylohyoid line? 1. Fovea submandibularis 2. Fovea sublingualis 3. Fovea pterygoidea 4. Fovea mentalis 70. On what part of mandible is fovea pterygoidea located? 1. On the neck 2. On the head 3. On the angle 4. On the body 71. On what surface of the maxilla are foramina alveolaria located? 1. On the infratemporal surface 2. On the anterior surface 3. On the nasal surface 4. On the alveolar surface 72. Sinus maxillaris opens on the: 1. Nasal surface of the maxillar body 18 2. Nasal surface of the frontal process 3. Nasal surface of the alveolar process 73. On what part of the maxilla is the conchal crest located? 1. On the nasal surface of the body 2. On the nasal surface of the frontal process 3. On the anterior surface of the body 4. On the infratemporal surface of the body 74. On what part of the maxilla is the ethmoidal crest located? 1. On the nasal surface of the frontal process 2. On the nasal surface of the body 3. On the anterior surface of the body 4. On the infratemporal surface of the body 75. Between what bones is jugular foramen located? 1. Between temporal and occipital 2. Between temporal and spenoid 3. Between temporal and frontal 4. Between temporal and parietal 76. Between what bones is foramen lacerum located? 1. Between temporal and spenoid 2. Between temporal and frontal 3. Between temporal and parietal 4. Between temporal and occipital 77. Where is foramen lacerum located? 1. Between apex of the temporal pyramid and sphenoid body 2. Between apex of the temporal pyramid and greater sphenoid wing 3. Between apex of the temporal pyramid and occipital bone 4. Between apex of the temporal pyramid and its squama 78. Name the small bones of the facial skull: 1.Lacrimal, nasal, inferior nasal concha, vomer 2.Lacrimal, nasal, inferior nasal concha, zygomatic 3.Lacrimal, nasal, inferior nasal concha, palate 4.Lacrimal, nasal, inferior nasal concha, ethmoid 79. Name the processes of the ethmoid bone: 1. Superior nasal concha, middle nasal concha, uncinate process 2. Superior nasal concha, middle nasal concha, inferior nasal concha 3. Superior nasal concha, inferior nasal concha, uncinate process 4. Superior nasal concha, middle nasal concha, posterior nasal concha 80. How many groups of the air cells does the ethmoid bone have? 1.3 2.2 3.4 4.5 ARTROLOGY 2. Between sphenoid and temporal. 1. Between which bones of skull is anterior fontanelle located? 1. Between parietals and frontal. 3. Between frontal and temporal. 19 4. Between parietal and ethmoid. 5. Between temporal and sphenoid. 2. Between which bones of skull is posterior fontanelle located? 1. Between parietals and occipital. 2. Between sphenoid and temporal. 2. Plane. 3. Pivot. 4. Bail-and-socket. 8. Which is type of the proximal radio-ulnar joint? 1. Pivot. 2. Plane. 3. Ball-and-socket. 4. Hinge. 9. Which is type of the humeroradial articulation? 1. Ball-and-socket. 2. Pivot. 3. Plane. 4. Hinge. 10. Which is type of the wrist joint? 1. Ellipsoid. 2. Plane. 3. Hinge. 4. Pivot 11. Which is type of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb? 1. Saddle. 2. Pivot. 3. Plane. 4. Ellipsoid. 12. Which is type of the mediocarpal joints? 1. Compound. 2. Simple. 3. Complex. 4. Combined. 13. What is type of the metacarpophalangeal joints? 1. Simple. 2. Compound. 3. Complex. 4. Combined. 14. Which of the following joints are uniaxial? 1. Hinge, pivot. 3. Between frontal and temporal. 4. Between parietal and frontal. 5. Between temporal and sphenoid. 3. Name the sutures posed between the bones of cerebral skull? 1. Coronal suture, lambdoid suture, sagittal suture. 2. Coronal suture, lambdoid suture, nasofrontal. 3. Lambdoid suture, sagittal suture, nasofrontal. 4. What are fontanells of the skull of new-born? 1. Anterior, posterior, mastoid, sphenoid. 2. Anterior, posterior, parietal, occipital. 3. Jugular, occipital, mastoid, sphenoid 5. Which is type of the sternoclavicular joint? 1. Saddle. 2. Plane. 3. Ball and socket. 4. Hinge. 6. Which is type of the acromioclavicular joint? 1. Plane. 2. Saddle. 3. Pivot. 4. Hinge. 7. Which is type of the elbow joint? 1. Hinge. 20 2. Ball-and-socket, ellipsoid. 3. Plane , condyloid. 4. Compound ,hinge. 5. Complex ,pivot. 15. Which of the following joints are biaxial? 1. Ellipsoid, condyloid, saddle. 2. Ellipsoid, ball-and-socket. 3. Pivot, hinge. 16. Which of the following joints are condyloid? 1. Knee joint. 2. Radiocarpai. 3. Humeroulnar 4. Humeroradial. 17. Which of the following joints are hinge? 1. Humeroulnar. 2. Radiocarpal. 3. Knee joint. 4. Humeroradial. 18. Which of the following joints are trochoid? 1. Proximal radio-ulnar. 2. Humeroradial. 3. Humeroulnar. 4. Tarsometatarsal. 19. Which of the following joints are ball-and-socket? 1. Humeroradial, shoulder joint. 2. Elbow joint, humeroulnar. 3. Lateral atlantoaxial joint. 20. What are the characteristic features of synovial joint? 1. Articular surfaces, fibrous capsule, articular cavity. 2. Articular surfaces, cartilaginous lip. 3. Articular surfaces, articular disc. 21. How are joints classified according to their structure? 1. Fibrous, cartilagenous, synovial joints. 2. Fibrous, cartilagenous joint, interosseous membrane. 3. Freely movable, slightly movable, immovable. 22. Which is type of the proximal radioulnar joints? 1. Pivot joint, type of synovial joint. 2. Pivot joint, syndesmoses. 4. Pivot joint, trochoid joint. 23. Name the ligaments of the wrist joint. 1. Radiocarpale dorsale and palmare, ulnar and radial collateral ligaments. 2. Ulnar collateral ligament, arcuate ligament. 3. Radial collator ligament, radioulnar ligament. 24. Inversion of the foot is the movement so that the sole faces: 1. Medially. 2. Downward and posteriorly. 3. Laterally. 4. Downward. 5. Downward and laterally. 25. What are the movements of elbow joint? 1. Flexion, extension. 2. Adduction. 3. Supination. 4. Rotation. 26. Where.are hyaline cartilages present? 1. Cover the articular surfaces of the synovial joints 2.Found in the intraarticular discs. 3.Found in the intervertebral discs. 27. Why the shoulder joint is a weak joint? 1. The glenoid cavity is shallow and small, head of humerus is larger than glenoid cavity. 21 2. The glenoid cavity is deep and large, head of humerus is larger than glenoid cavity 28. Name the ligaments of elbow joint. 1. Ulnar and radial collateral ligaments. 2. Anterior and posterior ligaments. 3. Glenohumeral and ulnar collateral. 4. Anterior and posterior cruciate. 29. What movements are possible around of the sagittal axis? 1. Abduction, adduction. 2. Flexion, extension. 3. Pronation, supination. 4. Rotation. 30. What movements are possible around of the vertical axis? 1. Pronation, supination, rotation. 2. Flexion, extension. 3. Abduction, adduction. 31. What movements are possible at the knee joint? 1. Flexion, extension, medial and lateral rotations. 2. Abduction, adduction. 3. Pronation, supination. 32. What type of movements are termed "conjunct" rotation at the knee joint? 1. Rotation of knee joint combined with flexion. 2. Rotation of knee joint occurring independently in a partially flexed knee. 33. What are the intraarticular ligaments of the knee joint? *1. Anterior and posterior cruciate, transverse. 2. Collateral tibial. 3. Collateral fibular 4. Obbique popliteal. 5. Arcuate popliteal. 34. What is the type of the hip joint? 1. Cotyloid (cup-like), synovial. 2. Ball-and-socket, hinge. 3. Biaxial. 4. Saddle. 35. The yellow ligament joins: 1. Vertebral arches. 2. Vertebral body. 3. Transverse processes of the vertebrae in the cervical part. 4. Spinous processes. 5. Transverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae with crista iliaca. 36. The temporomandibular joint is related to the: 1. Complex joint, combined joint. 2. Compound joint, simple joint. 3. Complex joint, simple joint. 4. Complex joint, compound joint. 5. Combined joint, simple joint. 37. The ligaments of the temporomandibular joint are: 1. Sphenomandibular, stylomandibular and lateral ligaments. 2. Anterior and posterior discotemporal ligaments. 3. Lateral and medial discomandibular ligaments. 4. Sphenomandibular and lateral ligaments 38. The extension at the elbow joint is limited by: 1. The olecranon. 2. The anular ligament of the radius. 3. The articular capsule. 4. The coronoid process of the ulnar. 5. The ulnar collateral ligament. 39. The radiocarpal (wrist) joint is related to: 1. Compound joint. 2. Simple joint. 3. Complex joint. 22 4. Combined joint. 40. The radiocarpal (wrist) joint is related to: 1. Ellipsoid joint. 2. Saddle joint. 3. Spheroid joint. 4. Hinge joint. 5. Pivot joint. 41. The abduction and adduction at the wrist joint are carried by: 1. The anterior radiocarpal ligament. 2. The medical ligament (lig. collaterale carpi ulnare). 3. The lateral ligament (lig. collaterale carpi radiale). 4. The posterior radiocarpal ligament. 5. The interosseous membrane of the forearm. 42. Which motions are possible in the proximal and distal radioulnar joints? 1. The pronation, the supination. 2. The pronation, the abduction. 3. The adduction, the abduction. 4. The circumduction. 43. The II-V carpometacarpal joints are related to: 1. The plane joints. 2. The ellipsoid joints. 3. The saddle joints. 4. The hinge joints. 5. The condyloid joints. 44. In which condition the extramotions are possible in the talocrural joint to side? 1. In the plantar flexion. 2. In the dorsiflexion. 3. In the support on the heel. 4. In the flexion at the knee joint. 5. In the support on the toes. 45. What is type of the talocrural joint ? 1. The hinge joint 2. The condyloid joint 3. The saddle joint 4. The ball-and-socket joint 5. The ellipsoid joint 46. How many longitudinal arches are distinguished in the whole arched structure of the foot? 1. Five 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. Four 47. Shape of the temporomandibular joint is: 1. Condyloid 2. Ellipsoid 3. Hinge 4. Trochoid 5. Saddle 48. Articular surfaces of the temporomandibular joint are: 1. Mandibular fossa of the temporal bone and head of the mandibule 2. Coronoid process of the mandibule and mandibular fossa of the temporal bone 3. Neck of the mandibule and mandibular fossa of the temporal bone 49. Name the main ligament of the temporomandibular joint: 1. Lateral ligament 2. Sphenomandibular ligament 3. Stylomandibular ligament 50. What ribs articulate with the sternum by synchondrosis? 1. 1-st ribs 2. 2-nd ribs 3. 5-th ribs 4. 7-th ribs 51. Which ribs form sternocostal joints? 23 1. 2 – 7 ribs 2. 1 – 7 ribs 3. 3 – 5 ribs 4. 2 – 6 ribs 52. Joints between ribs and vertebrae are: 1. Trochoid 2. Hinge 3. Plane 4. Ellipsoid 5. Saddle 53. What is shape of the sternoclavicular joint? 1. Saddle 2. Plane 3. Ellipsoid 4. Hinge 5. Trochoid 54. What is shape of the distal radioulnar joint? 1. Trochoid 2. Saddle 3. Ellipsoid 4. Hinge 5. Plane 55. What is shape of the shoulder joint? 1. Ball-and-socket 2. Cotyloid 3. Saddle 4. Ellipsoid 56. Due to presence of which cartilage the shoulder joint is complex? 1. Cartilaginous lip 2. Cartilaginous disk 3. Cartilaginous meniscus 57. Name the type of the intermetacarpal joints: *1. Plane, amphiarthroses 2. Plane, mobile 3. Ellipsoid, immovable 4. Trochoid, mobile 58. What are shape of the metacarpophalangeal joints? 1. Ellipsoid 2. Trochoid 3. Hinge 4. Plane 59. What are shape of the interphalangeal joints? 1. Hinge 2. Trochoid 3. Ellipsoid 4. Plane 60. The pubic symphysis is related to following bone articulations: 1. Hemiarthroses 2. Synarthroses 3. Diarthroses 61. What is type of the knee joint? 1. Compound, complex, condyloid 2. Compound, complex, ellipsoid 3. Compound, complex, hinge 4. Compound, complex, cotyloid 62. How many synovial bursae are in the knee joint? 1. 7 2. 8 3. 5 4. 6 5. 4 67. Which articulation is between proximal ends of the leg’s bones? 1. Tibiofibular joint 2. Tibiofibular hemiarthrosis 3. Tibiofibular syndesmosis 4. Tibiofibular synchondrosis 68. Which articulation is between distal ends of the leg’s bones? 1. Tibiofibular syndesmosis 2. Tibiofibular synchondrosis 3. Tibiofibular joint 4. Tibiofibular hemiarthrosis 69. Shape of the subtalar joint is: 1. Trochoid 24 2. Ellipsoid 3. Hinge 4. Saddle 70. Shape of the talocalcaneonavicular joint is: 1. Ball-and-socket 2. Cup-like 3. Plane 4. Ellipsoid 71. Shape of the calcaneocuboid joint is: 1. Saddle 2. Ball-and-socket 3. Ellipsoid 4. Hinge 72. Chopar’s joint is formed by: 1. Talocalcaneonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints 2. Talocalcaneonavicular and cuneonavicular joints 73. What ligament is “key” to the Chopar’s joint? 1. Bifurcate ligament 2. Calcaneonavicular ligament 3. Talonavicular ligament 74. What joints are named as Lisfranc’s joint? 1. Tarsometatarsal joints 2. Intertarsal joints 3. Metatarsophalangeal jonts 75. Shapes of the metatarsophalangeal jonts are: 1. Ball-and-socket 2. Ellipsoid 3. Condyloid 4. Cotyloid MYOLOGY 5. Zygomatic m.m. 4. The main muscle of the laugh is: 1. Greater zygomatic m. 2. Smaller zygomatic m. 3. Levator m. of upper lip. 4. Risorius m. 5. Procerus m. 5. What fascia of the neck covers deep muscles? 1. Prevertebral layer of cervical fascia. 2. Superficial layer of cervical fascia. 3. Profundus layer of cervical fascia. 4. Pretracheal layer of cervical fascia. 5. Retrovisceral layer of cervical fascia. 6. What are the boundaries of interscalene space? 1. Anterior and middle scalene m.m. 1. Erector muscle of spine consists of: 1. Iliocostal, longissimus, spinalis m.m. 2. Splenius mm. of head and neck. 3. Spinalis, semispinal m.m. 4. Rotator m.m. 2. Lateral displacement of the mandible is realized by contraction of: 1. Lateral pterygoid m. 2. Masseter m. 3. Temporal m. 4. Medial pterygoid m. 5. Sternocleidomastoid m. 3. What muscles of the facial expression have fascia? 1. Buccinator (cheek) m. 2. Epicraniusl m. 3. Depressor m. of the mouth angle . 4. Risorius m. 25 2. Anterior and posterior scalene m.m. 3. Middle and posterior sclene m.m. 4. All scalene m.m. 7. What muscles elevate the ribs? 1. External intercostal. 2. Internal intercostal. 3. Subclavius. 4. Subcostal. 5. Transversus thoracis. 8. What muscles lower the ribs? 1. Internal intercostals, subcostal, transversus thoracis. 2. External intercostals, subcostal, transversus thoracis 3. Subclavius, subcostal,. 9. Which muscle is the main flexor of the vertebral column? 1. Rectus m. of abdomen. 2. Qudratus lumborum m. 3. External oblique m. 4. Internal oblique m. 5. Transversus abdominis m. 10. Which openings does the inguinal canal have? 1. Superficial, deep. 2. Superior, inferior. 3. Anterior, posterior. 4. Superior, profundus. 5. Anterior, inferior. 11. Which structures form the lower wall of the inguinal canal? 1. Inguinal ligament. 2. Internal oblique m. 3. Ilioinguinal ligament. 4. Lacunar ligament. 5. Transvers ligament. 12. Which structures form the anterior wall of inguinal canal? 1. Aponeurosis of external oblique. 2. Aponeurosis of internal oblique. 3. Aponeurosis of trunsversus m. of abdomen. 4. Inguinal ligament. 13. Which structures form the posterior wall of inguinal canal? 1. Transversus fascia. 2. Aponeurosis of external oblique. 3. Aponeurosis of internal oblique. 4. Aponeurosis of transversus m. of abdomen. 14. Which structure corresponds to the deep inguinal ring? 1. Lateral inguinal fossa. 2. Supravesical fossa. 3. Medial inguinal fossa. 4. Umbilical fossa. 15. The superficial inguinal ring is located opposite to: 1. Medial inguinal fossa. 2. Supravesical fossa. 3. Lateral inguinal fossa. 4. Umbilical fossa. 16. Aponeurosis of what muscles form the anterior wall of the sheath of rectus abdominis muscle above navel? 1. External oblique, half of internal oblique.mm. 2. Internal oblique m... 3. Transversus m.. 4. Quadratus lumborum.m. 5. Rectus m. 17. What muscles rotate the trunk on the same side of contraction? 1. Internal oblique m.. 2. Rectus m.. 3. Transversus m. . 4. Quadratus lumborum m. 5. External oblique.m. 18. What muscles contract on the opposite side to which the trunk is rotated? 1. External oblique m. 2. Internal oblique m.. 3. Rectus m. . 26 4. Transversus m.. 5. Quadratus lumborum m.. 19. What muscles form the anterior abdominal wall? 1. Rectus, pyramidalis mm.. 2. Rectus m. 3. Transversus m.. 4. Quadratus lumborum m.. 5. External oblique m.. 20. Which of the neck muscles take part in the inspiration (inhalation)? 1. Scalene m.m. 2. Long muscles of the head. 3. Frontal and lateral muscles of the neck. 4. Sternohyoid, sternothyoid mm.. 5. Each of the mentioned muscles. 21. In which triangle is Pirogov's triangle located? 1. Submandibular. 2. Carotic triangle. 3. Omoclavicular. 4. Omotracheal. 22. What are actions of the sternocleidomastoid m. while one muscle contracts? 1. Bend neck part of the spine in its direction and at the same time raised the head turning the face at the opposite side. 2. Bend neck part of the spine in the opposite direction. 3. Bend neck part of the spine in its direction and at the same time lower the head turning the face at its side. 4. Bend neck part of the spine backwards. 23. Which muscles pull down the lower jaw with fixed hyoid bone? 1. Mylohyoid, digastric, geniohyoid. 2. Mylohyoid, stylohyoid, digastric. 3. Mylohyoid, thyrohyoid, digastric. 4. Digastric, stylohyoid. 24. Which muscles form the muscular basis of the oral cavity diaphragm? 1. Mylohyoid mm.. 2. Geniohyoid mm.. 3. Geniohyoid, digastrics mm.. 4. Stylohyoid mm.. 25. Point of the insertion of the anterior scalenus m.? 1. On tubercul of the first rib, in the front of the sulcus of subclavian artery. 2. On the first rib, behind of the sulcus of subclavian artery. 3. On the tubercul of the first rib, behind of the sulcus of subclavian artery. 4. On the head of the second rib. 26. What is the action of splenius capitis and cervicis muscles during their bilateral contractions? 1. Bend the head and neck backwards. 2. The head turns in its direction. 3. The head turns in opposite direction. 4. Hold the neck erect. 27. What are the boundaries of the carotid triangle? 1. Posterior belly of digastric, superior belly of omohyoid, sternocleidomastoid m.m. 2. Anterior belly of digastric, omohyoid, mylohyoid m.m. 3. Anterior belly of digastric, inferior belly of omohyoid, sternocleidomastoid m.m. 28. What are the boundaries of the submandibular triangle? 1. Mandible, two bellies of digastric m.. 27 2. Anterior belly of digastric m., mylohyoid m., mandible. 3. Posterior belly of digastric m., superior belly of omohyoid m., mandible. 4. Posterior and anterior bellies of digastric m., mandible. 29. What muscles are inserted to the crest of lesser tubercle of the humerus? 1. Latissimus dorsi. 2. Trapezius. 3. Pectoralis major. 4. Pectoralis minor. 5. Rhomboid major and minor. 30. What muscles are inserted to the crest of the greater tubercle of the humerus? 1. Pectoralis major. 2. Pectoralis minor. 3. Rhomboid major and minor. 4. Trapezius. 5. Latissimus dorsi. 31. Where is insertion of internal abdominis muscle? 1. Inferior margins of the three lower ribs. 2. Iliac crest, pubic tubercle. 3. Xiphoid process of sternum. 4. Arch of rib. 32. Where is tranversus abdominis muscle originated? 1. Internal lip of iliac crest, inner surface of six lower ribs, thoracolumbar fascia, lateral 2/3 of inguinal ligament. 2. Inner surface of three lower ribs, lumbal fascia. 3. Iliac crest, lumbal fascia. 4. Inner lip of iliac crest, three lower ribs. 33. Where is the inferior angle of scapula displaced, if the inferior fibres of trapezius muscle contract? 1. Downward and to the medial side. 2. Back and downward. 3. Forward, and to the lateral side. 4. Upward, and to the lateral side. 34. Where is the head displaced ,if the fibres of trapezius muscle contract? 1. Backward. 2. Forward. 3. To the lateral side. 4. To the right. 35. Where are insertions of rhomboid major and minor muscles located? 1. Medial border of scapula. 2. Acromial end of clavicle, inferior angle of scapula. 3. To the 2-6 ribs. 4. Lateral border of scapula. 36. Between what plates of neck’s fascia is the suprasternal space situated? 1. Between superficial and deep plates of the pretracheal fascia. 2. Between endocervical and prevertebral fascia. 3. Between pretrachealis and previsceralis plate. 37. Between what structures of the neck is the previsceral space situated? 1. Pretrachealis fascia and trachea. 2. Superficial and pretrachealis fascia. 3. Superficial and prevertebralis fascia. 4. Pharynx and prevertebralis fascia. 38. Between what structures of the neck is the retrovisceral space situated? 1. Pharynx and prevertebralis fascia. 28 2. Superficial and pretrachealis fascia. 3. Pretrachealis fascia and trachea. 4. Prevertebralis. 39. What is the insertion of muscular fibres of diaphragm? 1. Central tendon. 2. Lower six ribs. 3. Lumbar vertebra. 4. Sternum, angle of ribs. 40. Where is the origin of diaphragm located? 1. Xiphoid process, lower six ribs, lumbar vertebra. 2. Central tendon. 3. Sacral vertebra, lower five ribs, sternum. 41. Name the infrahyoid muscles. 1. Sternohyoid, sternothyroid, thyrohoid, omohyoid. 2. Sternohyoid, sternothyroid, thyrohoid, mylohyoid. 3. Sternohyoid, sternothyroid, thyrohoid, digastric. 4. Sternohyoid, sternothyroid, thyrohoid, geniohyoid. 42. Name the suprahyoid muscles. 1. Mylohyoid, digastric, stylohyoid, geniohyoid. 2. Mylohyoid, digastric, sternohyoid, geniohyoid. 3. Omohyoid, digastric, sternohyoid, geniohyoid. 4. Sternothyroid, digastric, sternohyoid, geniohyoid. 43. What is the action of the pyramidalis muscle? 1. It tenses the linea alba. 2. It is accessory muscle of expiration. 3. It is accessory muscle of inspiration. 4. It compresses abdominal contents. 44. What is the action of the transversus abdominis muscle? 1. It compresses abdominal contents. 2. It is accessory muscle of expiration. 3. It flexes vertebral column. 4. It assists in forced expiration. 45. Which structure forms the posterior wall of the rectus m. sheath 4-5 cm below the navel? 1. Transversalis fascia. 2. Transversus abdominis m. 3. External oblique abdominis m. 4. Internal oblique abdominis m. 5. Conjoint tendon. 46. Where is foramen vena cavae located in the diaphragm? 1. At the level of the Th8 vertebra in the central tendon. 2. Anterior to the body of the Th12 vertebra between crura. 3. At the level Th10 vertebra in a sling of muscle fibres derived from the right crus. 47. Where is aortic opening located in the diaphragm? 1. Anterior to the body of the Th12 vertebra between crura of the diaphragm. 2. At the level Th10 vertebra in a sling of muscle fibres derived from the right crus. 3. At the level of the Th8 vertebra in the central tendon. 48. Where is oesophageal opening located in the diaphragm? 1. At the level Th10 vertebra between the muscular fibers of the lumbar part of the diaphragm. 2. Anterior to the body of the Th12 vertebra between crura. 29 3. At the level Th11 vertebra in a sling of muscle fibres derived from the right crus. 49. What is the action of the diaphragm? 1. Pulls down its central tendon,. takes part in inspiration (inhalation) 2. Pulls down its central tendon, takes part in expiration. 3. Supports abdominal contents. 50. What is the origin of external intercostal muscle? 1. Lower border of the rib. 2. Upper border of the rib. 3. Middle part of the rib. 51. In what part of the intercostal spaces are the external intercostal muscles located? 1. From the spine to the costal cartilages. 2. From the lateral margin of the sternum to the angles of the ribs. 52. In what part of the intercostal spaces are the internal intercostal muscles located? 1. From the lateral margin of the sternum to the angles of the ribs. 2. From the tubercle of rib to its costochondral junction. 53. What is the direction of bundles of the external oblique abdominis muscle? 1. Obliquely downward and forward. 2. Longitudinal bundles running verticaly. 3. Fibres run upward. 4. Fibres run horizontally forward and medially. 54. What are the boundaries of pectoral triangle? 1. Upper and lower border of pectoralis minor m. 2. Upper border of pectoralis major m. and clavicle. 3. Upper border of pectoralis minor m. and clavicle. 55. What parts of the diaphragm are the weakest? 1. Sternocostal and lumbocostal triangles. 2. Lumbar and costal parts. 3. Sternal parts. 4. Lumbal, sternocostal triangle. 56. Which muscles protrude the mandible? 1. Lateral pterygoid mm.. 2. Medial pterygoid mm.. 3. Deep part of masseter mm.. 4. Horizontal fibres of temporalis mm.. 57. Quadrangular opening is situated in the: 1. Back wall of axillary fossa. 2. Lumbar region. 3. Femur front surface. 4. Diaphragm. 5. Popliteal fossa. 58. What muscles restrict triangular opening? 1. Subscapular muscle, teres major muscle, triceps muscle of arm (long head). 2. Triceps muscle of arm, trapezoid muscle. 3. Serratus anterior muscle, pectoral minor muscle, pectoral major muscle. 4. Brachial muscle, brachioradial muscle, biceps muscle of arm. 5. Anconeus muscle, biceps muscle of arm (short head). 59. What canal is situated on an arm? 1. Radial nerve canal. 2. Medial. 30 3. Metacarpal canal. 4. Inguinal canal. 5. Abductor canal. 60. What muscles abduct an arm? 1. Deltoid and supraspinous mm. 2. Deltoid and trapezoid mm. 3. Deltoid and coracobracial mm. 4. Teres minor and teres major mm. 61. What muscles pronate a forearm? 1. Pronator quadratus and pronator teres mm. 2. Flexor carpiradialis m. and flexor carpi ulnaris m. 3. Biceps m. of arm. 4. Pronator teres m. and pronator anconeus m. 62. What muscles adduct 2,4,5 fingers to middle finger? 1. Palmar interosseous mm. 2. Lumbrical mm. 3. Dorsal and palmar interesseous mm. 4. Dorsal interosseous mm. 5. Dorsal interosseous and lumbrical mm. 63. What muscles abduct 2, 4, 5, fingers from the 3 finger? 1. Dorsal interosseous mm. 2. Lumbrical mm. 3. Dorsal and palmar dorsal interosseous mm. 4. Palmar mm. 5. Dorsal interosseous and lumbrical mm. 64. What formation corresponds to external foramen of the femoral canal? 1. Saphenous opening. 2. Vacular part 3. Tendinous opening. 4. Femoral ring. 5. Muscular part. 65. What muscles adduct femur? 1. Adductor magnus, brevis and longus muscles, pectineal m. 2. Adductor magnus m., adductor, adductor brevis m., adductor longus m., gemellus muscles. 3. Adductor magnus, brevis and longus muscles, piriform m. 4. Gluteus medius m., gluteus minimus m. 5. Piriform m., gemellus m., iliopsoas m. 66. What formations are the walls of cruropopliteal canal? 1. Posterior tibial m., soleus m. 2. Long flexor muscle of great toe. 3. Fibula. 4. Fibrosus crural septum. 67. What formations are the walls of musculofibularis canal? 1. Fibula, flexor hallucis longus muscle, posterior tibial m. 2. Fibula, long peroneal muscle. 3. Fibrasus crural septum. 68. The muscles of arm are subdivided into the following groups: 1. Anterior and posterior. 2. Anterior, posterior and lateral. 3. Anterior, posterior and medial. 4. Profound and superficial. 5. Superficial, middle and profound. 69. What muscles are related to the anterior group of the arm? 1. M. brahialis, m. biceps brahii, m. coracobrahialis. 2. M. triceps brahii, m. brahialis, m. anconeus. 3. M. biceps brahii, m. brahialis, m. anconeus. 4. M. coracobrahialis, m.anconeus, m. biceps brahii. 5. M. biceps brahii, m. triceps brahii. 31 3. M. supraspinatus. 4. M. triceps brachii. 77. What muscle passes through lacuna musculorum? 1. M. iliopsoas. 2. M. pectineus. 3. M. gluteus maximus. 4. A. and v. femoralis. 78. What muscle passes through foramen ischiadicum minor? 1. M. obturatorius internus. 2. M. pectineus. 3. M. iliopsoas. 4. M. piriformis. 5. M. obturatorius externus. 79. What muscle passes through foramen ischiadicus major? 1. M. piriformis. 2. M. iliopsoas. 3. M. pectineus. 4. M. internus. 5. M. obturatorius externus. 80. What is muscle of the thigh’s posterior group? 1. M. semitendinosus. 2. M. quadriceps femoris. 3. M. gracialis 4. M. adductor longus. 5. M. pectineus. 81. What is muscle of the thigh’s medial group? 1. M. gracialis. 2. M. semitendinosus. 3. M. semimembranosus. 4. M. biceps femoris. 5. M. quadriceps femoris. 82. What structure restricts femoral triangle from medial side? 1. M. adductor longus. 2. M. sartorius. 3. Lig. inguinale. 4. Lig. pectineale. 70. What structures form anterior wall of the canalis n. radialis? 1. Os humerus. 2. M. biceps brachii. 3. Os ulna. 4. M. triceps brachii. 5. M. coracobrachialis. 71. What structures form posterior wall of the canalis n.radialis? 1. M. triceps brachii. 2. M. biceps brachii. 3. Os radii. 4. M. coracobrachiatis. 5. Os humeri. 72. What muscles bend(flex) forearm? 1. M. biceps brachii, m. brachialis. 2. M. coracobrachialis. 3. M. coracobrachialis, m. brachialis. 4. Caput longum m.triceps brachii. 73. What formations lies in the canalis carpi radialis? 1. Tendon m. flexor carpi radialis. 2. N. ulnaris. 3. N. radialis. 4. A. ulnans. 5. Tendon m. flexor carpi ulnaris. 74. What muscle forms bottom of cubital fossa? 1. M. brachialis. 2. M. brachioradialis. 3. M. pronator teres. 4. M. anconeus. 75. What muscle abducts arm? 1. M. deltoideus. 2. M. latissimus dorsi. 3. M. pectoralis major. 4. M. biceps brachii. 5. M. triceps brachii. 76. What muscle adducts arm? 1. M. pectoralis major. 2. M. deltoideus. 32 2. From tuberculum supraglenoidale. 3. From processus coracoideus. 4. From acromion. 89. From what do the most of flexors muscles of the forearm begin? 1. From epicondilus medialis humerus. 2. From epicondilus lateralis humerus. 3. From tuberositas deltoideae. 4. From tuberositas radii. 90. To what formation does m. biceps brachii insert? 1. Tuberositas radii. 2. Olecranon. 3. Tuberositas deltoidea. 4. Tuberositas ulnae. 91. Name the muscles of the arm’s posterior group : 1. M. triceps brachii m. anconeus. 2. M. biceps brachii m. anconeus. 3. M. triceps brachii m. coracobrachialis. 4. M. triceps brachii m. brachialis. 92. Name the muscles of the shoulder girdle: 1. M. deltoideus, m. supraspinatus, m. infraspinatus, m. subscapularis. 2. M. deltoideus, m. supraspinatus, m. brachialis. 3. M. anconeus, m. infraspinatus, m. subscapulans. 93. Name the antogonist of m gluteus maximus: 1. M. iliopsoas. 2. M. psoas major. 3. M. iliacus. 4. M. psoas minor. 94. Name the action of m. quadriceps femoris: 1. Extension of the leg in knee joint. 2. Flexion in knee joint. 83. What formation forms the internal foramen of the femoral canal? 1. Anulus femoralis. 2. Lacuna vasorum. 3. Lacuna musculorum. 4. Anulus inguinalis superficialis. 5. Hiatus saphenus. 84. What muscles realize flexing of the knee joint? 1. Muscles of femur (posterior group). 2. Muscles of femur (anterior group). 3. Muscles of femur (medial group). 4. Muscles of femur (lateral group). 85. To what does m. triceps brachii insert? 1. Olecranon. 2. Acromion. 3. Tuberositas radii. 4. Tuberositas ulnae. 86. What muscles restrict sulcus bicipitalis lateralis? 1. M. biceps brachii and m. brachialis on lateral side of the arm. 2. M. biceps brachii and m. brachialis on medial side of the arm. 3. M. biceps brachii and m. anconeus. 4. M. triceps brachii and m. brachialis. 87. What structures restrict sulcus bicipitalis medialis? *1. M. biceps brachii and m. brachialis on the medial arm’s side. 2. M. triceps brachii and m.brachialis. 3. M. biceps brachii and m. brachialis on the lateral arm’s side. 4. M. biceps brachii and m.anconeus. 88. From what does the long head of m. triceps brachii begin? 1. From tuberculum infraglenoidale. 33 3. Rotate the shin inward. 4. All named functions. 95. What structures bound superior musculoperoneal canal? 1. Fibula and m.peroneus longus. 2. Fibula and m.flexor hallucis longus. 3. Fibula and m.flexor digitorum longus. 4. Fibula and m.peroneus brevis. 96. What structures bound fossa poplitea? 1. M. biceps femoris and facies poplitea femoris, m. semitendinosus and semimembranosus, m. gastrocnemius: caput laterale and mediale. 2. M. biceps femoris, mm. semimem-branosus and semitendinosus. 3. M. soleus, mm. semimembranosus and semitendinosus 4. M. quadriceps femoris, m. gastrocnemius: caput laterale and mediale. 97. What muscles form sulcus femoralis anterior? 1. M. vastus medialis, mm. adductores longus and magnus. 2. M. vastus lateralis, m. adductor magnus. 3. M. vastus intermedius, m. adductor longus. 4. M. adductor longus and m. adductor brevis. 98. What muscles form adductor canal? 1. M. vastus medialis. m. adductor magnus and lamina vastoadductoria. 2. M. rectus femoris, m. adductor magnus and lamina cribrosa. 3. M. vastus intermedius, m. adductor longus and fascia lata 4. M. vastus lateralis, m. vastus medialis and tractus iliotibialis 99. What structures form posterior wall of femoral canal? 1. Deep lamina of fascia lata femoris. 2. Superior horn of falciform margin. 3. Femoral vessels. 4. Lacunar ligament. 100. Name the functions of m. peroneus longus and m. peroneus brevis. 1. Pronation of foot, elevate lateral margin of foot. 2. Depress medial margin of foot. 3. Abduction of foot. 4. Plantar flexion of foot. 101. What muscles bound sulcus plantaris medialis? 1. M. flexor digitorum brevis and m. abductor hallucis. 2. M. flexor digitorum brevis, m. adductor hallucis. 3. M. abductor hallucis, m. flexor hallucis brevis. 4. M. flexor digitorum brevis, m. abductor digiti minimi. 102. Name the anterior muscle of the leg. 1. M. extensor digitorum longus. 2. M. peroneus longus. 3. M. gastrocnemius. 4. M. soleus. 103. Name the posterior muscle of the leg. 1. M. triceps surae. 2. M. peroneus longus. 3. M. tibialis anterior. 4. M. extensor digitorum longus. 104. What structures bound exit opening of femoral canal? 1. Margo falciformis and its superior and inferior cornua(horns). 2. Margo falciformis and its cornua superius. 34 3. Margo falciformis and its cornua infenus. 4. Ligg. inguinale and lacunare. 105. Between what muscles is sulcus iliopectineus situated? 1. M. iliopsoas and m. pectineus. 2. M. iliopsoas and m. adductor magnus. 3. M. iliopsoas and m. rectus femoris. 4. M. iliopsoas and m. gracilis. 5. M. iliopsoas and m. piriformis. 106. What structures bound femoral triangle? 1. Lig. inguinale, m. adductor longus and m. sartorius. 2. Lig. inguinale, m. adductor magnus and m. sartorius. 3. Lig. inguinale, m. gracilis and m. sartorius. 4. Lig.inguinale, m. iliopsoas and m. pectineus. 107. What structures bound entrance opening of femoral canal? 1. Femoral vein, lig. inguinale, lig. lacunare and lig. pectineale. 2. Femoral vein, femoral artery, anulus femoralis. 3. Femoral vein, iliopectineal arch, lacuna musculorum. 4. Femoral vein, subcutaneous vein, n. obturatorius. 108. What structures form anterior wall of femoral canal? 1. Lig. inguinale and cornu superius of falciform margin of fascia lata. 2. Pectineal fascia and septum femorale. 3. Inferior horn of superficial sheeth of wide fascia and v. femoralis. 109. What structure forms lateral wall of femoral canal? 1. Femoral vein. 2. Lacunar ligament. 3. Superior horn of falciform margin. 4. Iliopectineal arch. 110. What muscles carry out flexion in the knee joint? 1. M. semimembranosus and m. semitendinosus, m. biceps femoris and m. popliteus. 2. M. adductor longus, m. adductor magnus 3. M. rectus femoris, m. soleus. 4. M. sartorius, m. gracilis and m. gastrocnemius 111. What muscle carries out extension in the knee joint? 1. M. quadriceps femoris. 2. M. sartorius, m. gracilis. 3. M. adductor longus, m. quadratus femoris. 4. M. biceps femoris. 112. What structures form m. triceps surae? 1. M. soleus and mm. gastrocnemius. 2. M. soleus and m. tibialis anterior. 3. M. soleus and m.tibialis posterior. 3. M. soleus and m. plantaris. 113. Name the muscles of the leg’s anterior group: 1. M. tibialis anterior, m. extensor digitorum longus, m. extensor hallucis longus. 2. Mm. peroneus longus and brevis. 3. M. flexor digitorum longus, m. peroneus anterior. 4. M. extensor digitorum brevis. m. extensor hallucis brevis. 114. Name the muscles of the leg’s posterior group : 1. M. gastrocnemius, m. plantaris, m. soleus, m. tibialis posterior, 35 m. flexor digitorum longus, m. flexor hallucis longus. 2. M. gastrocnemius, m. plantaris, m. tibialis posterior. 3. M. triceps surae, m. flexor digitorum longus, m. tibialis posterior. 4. M. triceps surae, m. flexor digitorum longus. 115. Name the muscles of the leg’s lateral group: 1. M. peroneus longus and m. peroneus brevis. 2. M. peroneus longus, m. tibialis anterior. 3. M. peroneus brevis, m. peroneus tertius. 4. Mm. peronei (all of them). 116. To what formation does triceps of the leg insert? 1. Tuber calcanei. 2. Tuberosity of V-th metatarsus bone. 3. I-st sphenoid and I- st metatarsus bone. 4. Three sphenoid bones and basis of II-V metatarsus bone. 117. By what structures is trigonum clavipectorale bounded? 1. Superior margin of m. pectoralis minor and clavicle. 2. Inferior margin of m. pectoralis major and clavicle. 3. Inferior margin of m. pectoralis minor and clavicle. 4. Superior margin of m. pectoralis minor and inferior margin of m. pectoralis major. 118. What are situated in lacuna musculorum? 1. M. iliopsoas and n. femoralis. 2. M. iliopsoas, n. femoralis, n. ilioinguinalis. 3. M. iliopsoas, n. femoralis, v. femoralis. 4. M. iliopsoas, a. and v. femoralis. 119. Where is trigonum pectorale located? 1. Under m.pectoralis minor 2. Under m.pectoralis major 3. Under m.subclavius 120. By what muscles is trigonum subpectorale bounded? 1. Inferior margins of m.pectoralis minor and m.pectoralis major 2. Superior margins of m. pectoralis minor and m.pectoralis major 3. Superior margins of m.pectoralis minor and inferior margin of m.pectoralis major 121. Name the superficial muscles of the chest: 1. Greater and lesser pectoral mm, anterior serrate m, subclavius m. 2. Greater pectoral m., anterior serrate m., posterior serrate m. 3. Greater pectoral m., subclavius m., transversus thoracis m. 122. What are deep chest's muscles? 1. Mm. intercostales externus and internus. 2. Mm. intercostales externus and m.subclavius 3. Mm. intercostales externus and m.serratus anterior 123. What muscles are flexors of the upper arm? 1. Coracobrachial, biceps, brachial muscles. 2. Coracobrachial, biceps, supraspinatus muscles. 3. Coracobrachial, brachial, teres minor muscles. 124. What muscles are located on the posterior surface of the arm? 36 1. Triceps, anconeus mm. 2. Triceps, brachial mm. 3. Triceps, deltoid mm. 4. Triceps, brachioradial mm. 125. Abduction of the arm is performed by the contraction of: 1. Deltoid and supraspinatus mm. 2. Deltoid and infraspinatus mm. 3. Deltoid and teres major mm. 4. Deltoid and teres minor mm. 126. Adduction of the arm is performed by the contraction of: 1. Greater pectoral, teres major, lattissimus dorsi mm. 2. Greater pectoral, teres minor, deltoid mm. 3. Greater pectoral, teres major and minor mm. 127. Flexion and medial rotation of the arm are performed by the contraction of: 1. Deltoid, biceps brachii, teres major, subscapular mm. 2. Deltoid, triceps brachii, teres major mm. 3. Deltoid, infraspinatus, teres major, subscapular mm. 128. Flexion of the forearm is performed by the contraction of: 1. Biceps brachii, brachial, brachioradial, round pronator mm. 2. Biceps brachii, coracobrachial, brachial mm. 3. Biceps brachii, brachioradial, coracobrachial mm. 129. Extension of the forearm is performed by the contraction of: 1. Triceps, anconeus mm. 2. Triceps, extensor digitorum mm. 3. Triceps, radial extensor of the wrist mm. 130. Flexion of the thigh is performed by the contraction of: 1. Iliopsoas, rectus femoris, sartorius mm. 2. Iliopsoas, gracilis, sartorius mm. 3. Iliopsoas, biceps femoris, sartorius mm. 131. Flexion of the leg is performed by the contraction of: 1. Semimembramosus, semitendinosus, biceps femoris, popliteus mm. 2. Semimembranosus, rectus femoris, biceps femoris mm. 3. Semimembranosus, quadriceps femoris, biceps femoris mm. 132. Dorsal flexion of the foot is performed by the contraction of: 1. Anterior leg's muscles. 2. Lateral leg's muscles. 3. Posterior leg's muscles. 133. Plantar flexion of the foot is performed by the contraction of: 1. Posterior leg's muscles. 2. Anterior leg's muscles. 3. Lateral leg's muscles. 134. Closing of the mouth is performed by the contraction of: 1. Temporal, masseter, medial pterygoid mm. 2. Temporal, masseter, lateral pterygoid mm. 3. Temporal, masseter, digastric mm. 135. Opening of the mouth is performed by the contraction of: 1. Three suprahyoid mm. of the neck. 2. Two suprahyoid muscles of the neck. 3. One suprahyoid muscles of the neck. 136. Name some superficial anterior muscles of the forearm: 1. M. pronator teres, m. flexor carpi radialis, m. flexor carpi ulnaris. 37 2. M. pronator teres, m. flexor carpi radialis, m. flexor pollicis longus. 3. M. pronator teres, m. flexor carpi ulnaris, m.pronator quadratus. 137. Name the deep anterior muscles of the forearm: 1. M. pronator quadratus, m. flexor digitorum profundus, m. flexor pollicis longus. 2. M. pronator quadratus, m. flexor digitorum profundus, m. flexor carpi ulnaris 3. M. pronator quadrarus, m. flexor digitorum profundus, m. flexor carpi radialis 138. Name the muscles of the posterior lateral group of the forearm: 1. M. brachioradialis, mm. extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis. 2. M. extensor digitorum, mm. extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis. 3. M. brachioradialis, mm. extensor carpi ulnaris longus and brevis. 139. Name the superficial posterior muscles of the forearm: 1. M. extensor digitorum, m. extensor digiti minimi, m. extensor carpi ulnaris. 2. M. extensor digitorum, m. extensor digiti minimi, m. extensor carpi radialis. 3. M. extensor digitorum, m. extensor digiti minimi, m. abductor pollicis brevis. 4. M. extensor digitorum, m. extensor digiti minimi, m. extensor pollicis longus. 140 Name the deep posterior ulnar muscles of the forearm: 1. M. abductor pollicis longus, m. extensor pollicis longus and brevis, m. supinator, m. extensor indicis. 2. M. abductor pollicis longus, m. abductor pollicis brevis, m. supinator. 3. M. abductor pollicis longus, m. extensor pollicis longus, m. pronator, m. extensor indicis. 141. What are muscles of the thenar group? 1. M. abductor pollicis brevis, m. flexor pollicis brevis, m. opponens pollicis, m. adductor pollicis. 2. M. abductor pollicis brevis, m. flexor pollicis longus, m. oppones pollicis, m. adductor pollicis. 3. M. abductor pollicis brevis, m. abductor pollicis longus, m.opponens pollicis, m. adductor pollicis. 142. What are muscles of the hypothenar group? 1. M. palmaris brevis, m. abductor digiti minimi, m. flexor digiti minimi, m. opponens digiti minimi. 2. M. palmaris longus, m. abductor digiti minimi, m. flexor digiti minimi, m. opponens digiti minimi. 3. M. palmaris brevis, m. adductor digiti minimi, m. flexor digiti minimi, m. opponens digiti minimi. 143. What are muscles of the hand's hollow? 1. Four mm. lumbricales, three mm. interossei palmares, four mm. interossei dorsales. 2. Four mm. lumbricales, three mm. interossei palmares, three mm. interossei dorsales. 3. Four mm. lumbricales, five interossei palmares, two interossei dorsales. 38 surgical neck of the humerus. 149. What is muscle of the anterior group of the pelvic girdle? 1. M. iliopsoas 2. M. piriformis 3. M. sartorius 4. M. pectineus 5. M. obturatorius 150. Foramen supraperiforme is bounded by: 1. Upper margin of m. piriformis and incisura ischiadicum major 2. Upper margin of m. piriformis and incisura ishiadicum minor 3. Upper margin of m. piriformis and lig. sacrospinale. 151. Foramen infrapiriforme is bounded by: 1. Lower margin of m. piriformis and lig.sacrospinale 2. Lower margin of m. piriformis and lig. sacrotuberale 3. Lower margin of m. piriformis and incisura ishiadicum minor. 152. What are medial muscles of the thigh? 1. Mm. adductor longus, brevis, magnus, minimus, m. gracilis, m. pectineus. 2. Mm. adductor longus, brevis, magnus, minimus, m. sartorius, m. bicipes. 3. Mm. adductor longus, brevis, magnus, minimus, m. gracilis, m. triceps. 153. What are muscles of the medial plantar group? 1. M. abductor hallucis, m. flexor hallucis brevis, m. adductor hallucis. 2. M. abductor hallucis, m. extensor hallucis brevis, m. adductor hallucis. 3. M. abductor hallucis, m. flexor digitorum, m. adductor hallucis. 144. How many canals are located under retinaculum flexorum on the palmar surface of the wrist? 1. 3 2. 5 3. 6 4. 4 145. How many canals are located under retinaculum extensorum on the dorsal surface of the wrist joint? 1. 6 2. 5 3. 7 4. 4 146. What forearm's muscles move thumb? 1. M. flexor pollicis longus, m. extensor pollicis longus and brevis. m. abductor pollicis longus. 2. M. flexor pollicis longus, m. abductor pollicis longus and brevis, m. extensor pollicis. 3. M. flexor pollicis longus, m. adductor pollicis, m. extensor pollicis longus. 147. What is superficial muscle of the back? 1. M. rhomboideus 2. M. erector spinae 3. M. splenius capitis 4. M. serratus anterior 148. What are boundaries of the quadrangular opening? 1. M. teres major, m. subscapularis, long head of the m. triceps brachii, surgical neck of the humerus. 2. M. teres major, m. subscapularis, short head of the m. triceps brachii, surgical neck of the humerus. 3. M. teres major, m. teres minor, long head of the m. triceps brachii, 39 1. Aponeurosis of the external oblique abdominis muscle. 2. Aponeurosis of the internal oblique abdominis muscle. 3. Aponeurosis of the transversus abdominis muscle. 160. Posterior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by: 1. Fascia transversalis. 2. Tunica serosa. 3. Fascia interna. 4. Fascia subserosa. 161. Superior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by: 1. Inferior borders of the internal oblique and transversus mm. 2. Inferior borders of the internal oblique and external oblique mm. 3. Inferior borders of the internal oblique and pyramidalis mm. 4. Inferior borders of the internal oblique and rectus abdominis mm. 162. Inferior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by: 1. Groove of the inguinal ligament. 2. Groove of the ligamentum reflexum. 3. Groove of the lacunar ligament. 163. Aponeurosis of what abdominal muscles form the posterior wall of the sheath of rectus abdominis muscle above navel? 1. Half of mm. obliques internus abdominis and m. transversus abdominis. 2. M. obliques externus abdominis and m. obliques internus abdominis. 3. M. obliques externus abdominis and m. transversus abdominis. 164. Posterior wall of the sheath of rectus abdominis muscle 4-5cm below navel is formed by: 154. What are muscles of the lateral plantar group? 1. M. abductor digiti minimi, m. flexor digiti minimi, m. opponens digiti minimi. 2. M. abductor digiti minimi, m. flexor digiti minimi, m. adductor digiti minimi. 3. M. abductor digiti minimi, m. flexor digitorum brevis, m. adductor digiti minimi. 155. What are muscles of the middle group of the sole? 1. M. flexor digitorum brevis, m. quadratus plantae, four mm. lumbricales, seven mm.interossei. 2. M. flexor digitorum brevis, m. quadratus plantae, three mm. lumbricales,seven mm.interossei. 3. M. flexor digitorum brevis, m. quadratus plantae, four mm. lumbricales, six mm. interossei. 156. What is superficial muscle of the back? 1. M. levator scapulae. 2. M. erector spinae. 3. M. pectoralis major. 157. Name superficial chest's muscles. 1. M. pectoralis major, subclavius. 2.M. pectoralis minor, m. transversus thoracis. 3. M. pectoralis major, serratus posterior. 158. What deep muscles of the chest are inspiration muscles? 1. Mm. intercostales externi. 2. Mm. intercostales interni. 3. Mm. subcostales. 4. Mm. transversus thoracis. 159. Anterior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by: 40 1. Fascia transversalis. 2. Aponeurosis of the m. transversus abdominis. 3. Aponeurosis of the m. obliquus internus abdominis. 165. Anterior wall of the sheath of rectus abdominis muscle 4-5cm below navel is formed by: 1. Aponeuroses of three lateral abdominal muscles. 2. Aponeuroses of the two lateral abdominal muscles. 3. Aponeurosis of four lateral abdominal muscles. 167. What muscle forms posterior abdominal wall? 1. M. quadratus lumborum. 2. M. rectus abdominis. 3. M. serratus posterior. 4. M. transversospinalis. 168. What structure passes through male inguinal canal? 1. Spermatic cord. 2. A. testicularis. 3. Spermatic duct. 4. N. testicularis. 169. What structure passes through female inguinal canal? 1. Lig. teres uteri. 2. Uterine tube. 3. Lig. teres ovary. 4. Lig. lata uteri. 170. Where is Pirogov's triangle located? 1. In the inferior angle of the submandibular triangle. 2. In the inferior angle of the carotid triangle. 3. In the inferior angle of the omotracheal triangle. 41 DIGESTIVE SYSTEM 1. Contraction of what muscle makes tongue flat? 1. M. verticalis linguae. 2. M. longitudinalis inferior 3. M. longitudinalis superior. 4. M. transversus linguae. 2. In what papillae of the tongue are the gustatory receptors located? 1. Fungiformes, vallatae, foliatae,lentiformes 2. Fungiformes, vallatae, filiformes.lentiformes 3. Vallatae, filiformes, conicae,lentiformes 4. Fungiformes, vallatae, conicae. 3. Name the proper muscles of the tongue. 1. Upper longitudinal muscle, lower longitudinal muscle, transversal muscle of tongue, vertical muscle of tongue. 2. Stiloglottis muscle, transversal muscle of tongue, vertical muscle of tongue. 3. Stylopharyngeal m., transversal muscle of tongue, vertical muscle of tongue. 4. Which of the mentioned parts does tongue have? 1. Root, body, tip. 2. Bottom, body, tip. 3. Fornix, tip, body. 5. Where do the excretory ducts of the sublingual salivary gland open? 1. On the sublingual papilla. 2. On the root of tongue. 3. On the mucous cheek on the level of canine. 4. On the mucous cheek on the level of 1st molar. 5. On the sublingual fold. 6. The ducts of what mentioned salivary glands open on the sublingual papilla? 1. Submandibular, sublingual.. 2. Submandibular,lingual. 3. Submandibular,labial. 4. Submandibular,parotid. 7. Name the formula of milk-teeth. 1. 2.1.0.2 2. 2.0.1.2 3. 1.2.0.2 4. 0.2.1.2 5. 1.2.2.0 8. Name the formula of permanent teeth. 1. 2.1.2.3 2. 3.2.1.2 3. 2 2.1.3 4. 1.3.2.2 5. 3.2.2.1 9. What parts does the tooth have? 1. Corona, root, neck. 2. Corona, root, body. 3. Root, neck, head. 10. Which tissues form the tooth's substance? 1. Enamel, dentine, cement. 2. Enamel, dentine, collagen. 3. Dentine, cement, elastin. 11. Which of the mentioned glands belong to the large salivary glands? 1. Parotis, submandibular, sublingual. 2. Parotis, submandibular, buccal. 3. Parotis, submandibular, labial. 12. What parts does pharynx have? 1. Nasal, oral, laryngeal. 2. Nasal, oral, subpalate. 3. Nasal, oral, thoracal. 42 3. Cervical, thoracic, diaphragmatic. 19. What anatomical constrictions does oesophagus have? 1. Pharyngeal, bronchial, diaphragmatic. 2. Pharyngeal, bronchial, aortal. 3. Aortic, cardiac. 20. What parts does stomach have? 1. Fundus, cardiac, body, piloric. 2. Ampula, horizontal, abdominal, thoracic. 3. Cardiac, fundus, ampula. 21. With what muscular layer is m.sphincter pylorici formed? 1. Stratum circulare. 2. Stratum obliquum. 3. Stratum longitudinale. 4. Stratum fibroelastica. 22. In what part of stomach is incisura angularis located? 1. Lesser curvature. 2. Pars pylorica 3. Pars cardiaca. 4. Corpus ventriculi. 5. Fundus ventriculi. 23. What layers (coats) does the wall of stomach have? 1. Serous, muscular, submucous, mucous. 2. Adventitia, collagen, endothelial. 3. Serous, muscular, adventitia. 4. Mucous, submucous, adventitia. 24. What ligaments of the stomach does peritoneum form? 1. Hepatogastric, gastrolienal, gastrocolicum. 2. Gastrodiaphragmatic, gastrolienal. 3. Gastrocolic, gastroduodenal. 25. On the mucous coat of stomach along the lesser curvature there are such plicae: 1. Longitudinal. 2. Semilunar. 3. Serrate. 4. Reticulate. 5. Circular. 13. In what part of the pharynx is ostium pharyngeum tubae auditivae located? 1. Lateral wall of the nasopharynx. 2. Anterior wall of the oral part. 3. Posterior wall of the laryngeal part. 4. Upper wall of the nasopharynx. 5. Pearshaped pocket. 14. The duct of which salivary glands open into the vestibulum oris on the level of the second upper molar? 1. Parotis. 2. Buccal. 3. Sublingual. 4. Subjawal. 5. Lingual. 15. With what structure does pharynx begin on the base of skull? 1. Fascia pharyngobasilaris 2. Mucous tunic. 3. Muscular tunic. 4. Adventitia. 5. Submucosal layer. 16. Which of the mentioned tonsils form the Pirogov’s lymphoid ring of the pharynx? 1. Tonsilla pharyngea, tonsillae tubariae, tonsillae palatinae, tonsilla lingualis. 2. Tonsilla pharyngea, tonsilla palatina, tonsilla submandibularis. 3. Tonsilla tubaria, tonsilla sublingualis. 17. Where is the lingual tonsil located? 1. In the root of the tongue. 2. In the vault of the pharynx. 3. In the soft palate. 4. In the almond-shaped fossa. 5. In the lower surface of the tongue. 18. What parts does oesophagus have? 1. Cervical, thoracic, abdominal. 2. Cervical, thoracic, cephalic. 43 26. How is stomach located according to the peritoneum? 1. Intraperitonealy. 2. Extraperitonealy. 3. Mesoperitonealy. 4. Retroperitonealy. 27. What parts does small intestine have? 1. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum. 2. Colon, caecum, rectum. 3. Duodenum, jejunum, colon. 4. Colon, caecum, duodenum. 28. What parts does duodenum have? 1. Upper, descending, horizontal, ascending. 2. Lower, upper, descending. 3. Upper, descending, lower. 4. Descending, ascending, lower 29. What formations form the relief of mucous membrane of small intestine? 1. Circular plicae, villi intestinales 2. Fibres. 3. Fields. 4. Semilunar folds. 30. What parts of intestine don't have mesentery? 1. Colon ascendens, duodenum. 2. lleum, colon descendens. 3. Jejunum, .colon ascendens 4. Colon sigmoideum, duodenum. 31. On what level is flexura duodenojejunalis located? 1. II lumbar vertebrae. 2. I lumbar vertebrae. 3. III lumbar vertebrae. 4. XII thoracic vertebrae. 5. XI thoracic vertebrae 32. On what formation of the duodenum is the opening of additional duct of pancreas located? 1. On the lesser papilla. 2. On the greater papilla. 3. On the circular plica. 4. On the semilunar plica. 33. How is duodenum located according to the peritoneum? 1. Intraperitonealy, extraperitonealy. 2. Retroperitonealy, intraperitonealy. 3. Extraperitonealy, retroperitonealy. 4. Mesoperitonealy, extraperitonealy. 5. Mesoperitonealy, intraperitonealy. 34. How are jejunum and ileum located according to the peritoneum? 1. Intraperitonealy. 2. Extraperitonealy. 3. Mesoperitonealy. 4. Extraperitonealy, mesoperitonealy. 5. Mesoperitonealy, intraperitonealy. 35. What parts does large intestine have? 1. Caecum, colon, rectum. 2. Sigmoid intestine, ileum, caecum. 3. Caecum, colon, sigmoid intestine. 4. Colon, rectum, sigmoid intestine. 36. What parts of large intestine don't have mesentery? 1. Caecum, ascending colon, descending colon. 2. Transverse colon, sigmoid colon. 3. Caecum, ascending colon, transverse colon. 4. Transverse colon, sigmoid colon, descending colon. 37. Which of the mentioned features are main for caecum and colon? 1. Haustrae coli, appendices epiploicae, teniae coli. 2. Circular plicae, crypts, tenia coli. 3. Haustrae coli, circular plicae, tenia coli. 38. How is appendix vermiformis located according to the peritoneum? 1. Intraperitonealy 2. Mesoperitonealy 3. Extraperitonealy. 4. Retroperitonealy. 44 39. How is colon descendens located according to the peritoneum? 1. Mesoperitonealy. 2. Intraperitonealy. 3. Extraperitonealy. 4. Retroperitonealy. 40. What formations form the relief of mucous coat of the colon? 1. Semicircular plicae, single lymph follicles. 2. Aggregate lymph nodes, circular plicae, papillae. 3. Semicircular plicae, aggregate lymph nodes, circular plicae. 4. Single lymph nodes, aggregate lymph nodes. 41. Name the teniae of colon: 1. Mesentery, omental, libera. 2. Longitudinal, intestine, omental. 3. Mesentery, omental, longitudinal. 4. Longitudinal, intestine, mesentery. 42. What flexures does rectum have? 1. Sacral, perineal. 2. Pelvic, perineal. 3. Left, right. 43. What parts does the diaphragmatic surface of liver have? 1. Left, right lobes. 2. Square, caudate lobes. 3. Upper lobe. 44. Which of the mentioned ligaments connect liver with diaphragm? 1. Coronal, triangular, falciform. 2. Round, liverodiaphragmal. 3. Coronal, triangular, liverodiaphragmal. 45. Which of the mentioned ducts leave the porta of liver? 1. Common hepatic. 2. Common bile. 3. Thoracic. 4. Subgastric. 5. Cystic. 46. What formations are located in the hepatoduodenal ligament? 1. Common bile duct, portal vein, proper hepatic artery. 2. Gastric artery, upper mesenterial artery, portal vein. 3. Gastric artery, upper mesenterial artery, proper hepatic artery. 47. What formations separate the caudate lobe of liver? 1. Liver's porta, fossa of venous duct, groove of vena cava. 2. Fossa of gall bladder, groove of vena cava. 3. Groove of umbilical vena, groove of vena cava. 48. The surface of which part of liver is the upper wall of omental sac? 1. Caudate lobe. 2. Square lobe. 3. Left lobe. 4. Right lobe. 49. The surface of which part of liver is the wall of pregastric sac? 1. Left lobe. 2. Caudal lobe. 3. Square lobe. 4. Right lobe. 5. None. 50. What parts does gall bladder have? 1. Fundus, body, neck. 2. Head, tail, body. 3. Bottom, body, head. 4. Head, tail, neck. 51. What parts does pancreas have? *1. Head, body, tail. 2. Square part, tail part, body. 3. Head, square part, tail part. 52. How is pancreas located according to the peritoneum? 1. Extraperitonealy. 2. Mesoperitonealy. 3. Intraperitonealy. 4. Retroperitonealy. 45 3. Jejunum. 4. Stomach. 5. Caecum. 60 .The molars of the maxilla have: 1. Three roots. 2. One root. 3. Two roots. 61. The molars of the mandible have: 1. Two roots. 2. One root. 3. Three roots. 62. Which of the following types of the teeth are not found in deciduous (milk) row? 1. Premolars. 2. Incisors. 3. Canines. 4. Molars. 63. Crown of each tooth has: 1. 5 surfaces. 2. 3 surfaces. 3. 4 surfaces. 4. 2 surfaces. 64. Contact surfaces of the tooth are: 1. Facies approximalis mesialis and distalis. 2. Facies vestibularis and lingualis. 3. Facies occlisalis and vestibularis. 65. Name the surfaces of the tooth crown: 1.Vestibular, lingual, masticating and two contact surfaces. 2.Vestibular, 2 lingual and 2masticating surfaces. 3. Vestibular, 2 lingual, right and left surfaces. 4. Vestibular, 2 contact, masticating and right surfaces. 66. What three sings determine to which side of the teeth row a tooth belongs? 1. Root sing, crown sing, crown curvature sing. 2. Angel of the root sing, crown angel sing, crown curvature sing. 3. Root sing, curvature of angel sing, crown curvature sing. 67. What is the tooth organ? 1. Tooth, periodontum, walls of the alveoli, gum. 53. What organs of abdomen are located intraperitonealy but have no mesentery? 1. Stomach, caecum, part of duodenum. 2. Ascending colon, transverse colon. 3. Descending colon, sigmoid colon 4. Sigmoid colon, transverse colon. 54. What ligaments form the lesser omentum? 1. Hepatogastric, hepatoduodenal . 2. Falciform, gastrocolonal. 3. Gastrocolonal, coronal. 55. How many layers of the peritoneum compose greater omentum? 1. Four. 2. Two 3. Three. 4. Five. 5. Six. 56. How many layers of the peritoneum compose the mesentery of small intestine? 1. Two 2. One. 3. Three. 4. Four. 5. Five. 57. Where is omental bursa located? 1. Behind stomach. 2. In front of stomach. 3. Behind pancreas. 4. Between liver and gallbladder. 5. In front of right kidney. 58. What organs are situated mesoperitonealy? 1. Ascending colon, descending colon. 2. Stomach, ileum. 3. Stomach, sigmoid colon. 4. Descending colon, sigmoid colon. 59. In which intestinal part are Peyer’s patches located? 1. lleum. 2. Duodenum. 46 2.Tooth, cementum, periodontum, gum. 3.Tooth, periosteum, walls of the alveoli, gum. 68. Time of the eruption of the “milk teeth”: 1. 6 month — 2 years of age. 2. 1 —3 years of age. 3. 1 — 3 years of age. 4. 1 — 2 years of age. 69. What molar erupted at 6 years of age? 1. First. 2. Second. 3. Third. 70. Name the groups of the small salivary glands: 1. Labial, buccal, palatine, lingual. 2. Labial, buccal, parotis, lingual. 3. Labial, buccal, sublingual, lingual. 4. Labial, submandibular, buccal, palatine. 71. Contraction of what muscles of the soft palate separates nasal and oral parts of the pharynx? 1. M. levator veli palatine, m. tensor veli palatine. 2. M. levator veli palatine, m. palatoglossus. 3. M. levator veli palatine, m. palatopharyngeus. 4. M. levator veli palatine, m. uvulae. 72. What opening communicates mouth cavity with oral part of the pharynx? 1. Isthmus faucium. 2. Ostium pharyngeum tubae auditivae. 3. Choanae. 4. Aditus laryngis. 73. Boundaries of the isthmus faucium are formed by: 1. Soft palate, root of the tongue, palate's arches. 2. Soft palate, body of the tongue, palate's arches. 3. Soft palate, tongue, palate's arches. 74. Where are palate tonsils located? 1. Between two palate's arches. 2. Inside soft palate. 3. Inside hard palate. 75. Where is pharyngeal tonsil located? 1. Between superior and posterior walls of the nasopharynx. 2. Between superior and lateral walls of the nasopharynx. 3. Between superior and anterior walls of the nasopharynx. 76. In what papillae of the tonguae are receptors of the common senses located? 1. Filiformes, conical. 2. Filiformes, vallatae. 3. Fungiformes, conical. 4. Fungiformes, filiformes. 77. The oesophageal wall is formed by the following coats (from inner to outer): 1. Mucous, submucous, muscular, adventitious coats. 2. Mucous, muscular, submucous, adventitious coats. 3. Mucous, adventitious, submucous, muscular. 78. How many layers are in the muscular coat of the oesophegus? 1. Two. 2. Three. 3. One. 4. Four. 79. How many layers are in the muscular layer of the stomach's wall? 1. Three. 2. Two. 3. One. 4. Four. 80. What are muscular layers of the stomach's wall? 1. External longitudinal, middle circular, inner oblique layers. 2. External circular, middle oblique, inner longitudinal layers. 3. External longitudinal, middle oblique, inner circlar layers? 81. Length of the small intestine in the body of the living person is: 1. 5-6,5m. 2. 5-5,5m. 3. 5-6,0m. 4. 5-7,0m. 82. Length of the duodenum is: *1. 25-30cm. 47 2. 25-40cm. 3. 25-50cm. 83. What part of the duodenum is covered intraperitoneally? 1. Superior. 2. Descending. 3. Horizontal. 4. Ascending. 84. What part of the duodenum are covered extraperitoneally? 1. Descending, horizontal, ascending. 2. Descending, superior, ascending. 3. Descending, ascending, superior. 85. How is colon ascendens located according to the peritoneum? 1. Mesoperitoneally. 2. Intraperitoneally. 3. Extraperitoneally. 4. Retroperitoneally. 86. What parts of the large intestine have mesantary? 1. Transverse colon, sigmoid colon. 2. Caecum, sigmoid colon. 3. Transverse colon, descending colon. 4. Transverse colon, ascending colon. 87. Which part of the large intestine is called “intestinal tonsil ”? 1. Vermiforme process. 2. Caecum. 3. Sigmoid colon. 4. Rectum. 88. How is rectum covered by peritoneum (from up to down)? 1. Intraperitoneally, esoperitoneally, extraperitoneally. 2. Intraperitoneally, extraperitoneally, mesoperitoneally. 3. Mesoperitoneally, intraperitoneally, extraperitoneally. 89. In what part of the rectum the longitudinal mucous folds located? 1. Anal canal. 2. Rectal ampulla. 3. Pelvic part. 90. On the liver's visceral surface there are following lobes: 1. Caudate, quadrate, right, left lobes. 2. Caudate, quadrate, superior, inferior lobes. 3. Caudate, quadrate, right, inferior lobes. 91. How is liver covered by peritoneum? 1. Mesoperitoneally. 2. Intraperitoneally. 3. Extraperitoneally. 4. Retroperitoneally. 92. Common bile duct is formed by: 1. Common hepatic and cystic ducts. 2. Common hepatic and right hepatic ducts. 3. Common hepatic and left hepatic ducts. 93. What sacs (bursae) located in the upper storey of the peritoneal cavity? 1. Hepatic, pregastric, omental bursae. 2. Hepatic, pregastric, superior bursae. 3. Hepatic, mesenteric, omental bursae. 94. The upper storey of the peritoneal cavity is bounded by: 1. Diaphragm and root of the mesocolon transversum. 2. Diaphragm and root of mesentery. 3. Diaphragm and entrance of the true pelvis. 95. How many ligaments are in the upper storey of the peritoneal cavity? 1. Nine. 2. Eight. 3. Seven. 4. Ten. 96. Which mesenteric sinuses are located in the middle storey of the peritoneal cavity? 1. Right and left. 2. Right and upper. 3. Right and inferior. 4. Right and lateral. 97. Which mesenteric sinus is closed? 1 Right. 2. Left. 3. Superior. 4. Inferior. 98. Which mesenteric sinus communicates with the pelvis cavity? 48 1. Left. 2. Right. 3. Superior. 4. Inferior. 99. How many peritoneal recesses are in the middle story of the peritoneal cavity? 1. Six. 2. Five. 3. Four. 4. Seven. 100. How many pouches are located in male's lower peritoneal storey? 1. One. 2. Two. 3. Three. 4. Four. 101. How many pouches are located in female's lower peritoneal storey? 1. Two. 2. One. 3. Three. 4. Four. RESPIRATORY SYSTEM 1. Name the opening in the superior nasal meatus: 1. Posterior ethmoidal air cells 2. Frontal air sinus 3. Maxillary air sinus 4. Middle ethmoidal air cells 2. Name the opening in the inferior nasal meatus: 1. Nasolacrimal duct 2. Frontal air sinus 3. Maxillary air sinus 4. Middle ethmoidal air cells 5. Posterior ethmoidal air cells 3. Name the paranasal air sinuses: 1. Frontal, maxillary, sphenoidal, ethmoidal 2. Superior sagittal, sigmoidal 3. Frontal, maxillary, sigmoidal 4. Where is the larynx located? 1. In front of C 4-6 vertebrae 2. In front of C 2-3 vertebrae 3. From root of tongue to bronchi 4. From root of tongue to bifurcation of trachea 5. Name the unpaired cartilages forming the skeleton of larynx: 1. Thyroid, cricoid, epiglottis 2. Arytenoid, corniculate, cuneiform 3. Thyroid, cricoid, cuneiform 4. Epiglottic, corniculate, cuneiform 6. Name the paired cartilages forming the skeleton of larynx: 1. Arytenoid, corniculate, cuneiforme 2. Thyroid, cricoid, epiglottic 3. Thyroid, cricoid, cuneiform 4. Epiglottic, corniculate, cuneiform 7. Name laryngeal ligaments. 1. Hyoepiglottic, thyrohyoid 2. Cricotracheal, quadrate 3. Hyoepiglottic, cricotracheal 4. Thyrohyoid, quadrate 8. What are the parts of the laryngeal cavity? 1. Vestibule, glottis part, infraglottis part 2. Vestibule,glottis part, floor. 3. Vestibule,apex, glottis part 9. Which surfaces does the lung have? 1. Diaphragmatic, medial, costal 2. Cardiac, medial, costal 3. Diaphragmatic, medial, lateral 4. Diaphragmatic, lateral, costal 5. Sternal,cardiacal, medial 10. Name the structures forming the alveolar tree: 1. Respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveoli, alveolar saccules 2. Terminal bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveoli, air saccules 49 3. Terminal and respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveoli. 11. Name the structures forming the bronchial tree: 1. All bronchi, from the principal bronchi to the terminal bronchioli. 2. All bronchi, from the principal bronchi to the lobular.. 3. All bronchi, from the principal bronchi to the seqmental bronchi 12. What is pleura? 1. It is serous membrane 2. It is a mucous membrane 3. It is an adventitial membrane 4. It is a connective membrane 13. Name the structures of the posterior mediastinum: . 1. Descending aorta, oesophagus, thoracic duct, azygos and hemiazygos veins, vena cava inferior,vagus nerves,splanchnic nerves. 2. Heart, pericardium, arch of the aorta, oesophagus,vagus nerves., 3. Oesophagus, heart, descending aorta, splanchnic nerves,vagus nerves. 14. Name the structures of the anterior mediastinum. 1. Heart, pericardium, bifurcation of the trachea, bronchi, phrenic nerves 2. Loose alveolar tissue, lymphatic glands and vessels, arteriel vessels 3. Oesophagus, heart, descending aorta, splanchnic nerves 15. What are portions of the parietal pleura? 1. Costal, diaphragmatic, mediastinal 2. Costal, pulmonary 3. Diaphragmatic, mediastinal, pulmonary 4. Mediastinal, costal, pulmonary 16. What are portions of the pleura? 1. Visceral, parietal 2. Visceral, costal 3. Costal, mediastinal, 4. Parietal, mediastinal 17. Name of the pleural recesses: 1.Costodiaphragmatic,costomediasti nal 2. Diaphragmatic, phrenicocostal, mediastinal 3. Costomediastinal, diaphragmatic 4. Costomediastinal, mediastinal 18. The main structures composing the root of the right lung from up to down: 1. Bronchus, pulmonary artery, pulmonary veins 2. Bronchus, pulmonary artery, bronchial glands 3. Bronchus, pulmonary vein, pulmonary artery 4. Pulmonary artery, bronchus, pulmonary vein 19. The main structures composing the root of the left lung from up to down: 1. Pulmonary artery, bronchus, pulmonary veins 2. Bronchus, pulmonary artery, pulmonary vei 3. Pulmonary artery, pulmonary vein, bronchus 4. Pulmonary vein, pulmonary artery, bronchus 20. The root of the lung is formed by: 1. Bronchus, pulmonary artery and veins, nerves, lymphatic vessels 2. Bronchus, trachea, pulmonary artery and vein 3. Bronchial tube, pulmonary artery and vein, nerves, alveolar lobules 4. Bronchus, pulmonary artery, lymphatics, alveolar lobules 21. Name the structures bounding the inlet of the larynx: 1. Epiglottis, arytenoid cartilages, interarytenoid fold, aryepiglottic folds 2. Cricoid cartilages, epiglottis,interarytenoid fold , aryepiglottic fold 3. Epiglottis, arytenoid cartilages, vestibular ligament 50 22. Where is the trachea situated? 1. From VI-th cervical to V-th thoracic vertebra 2. From IV-th cervecal to VII-th thoracic vertebra 3. From IV-th cervical to III-th thoracic vertebra 23. Where is the apex of the lung situated? 1. 3-4sm above the I-st rib 2. 2-5 sm above the clavicle 3. 1-2 sm above the I-st rib 4. 4-5 sm above the clavicle 24. Which lobe of the lung forms lingula pulmonis? 1. Upper lobe of left lung 2. Lower lobe of left lung 3. Lower lobe of right lung 4. Middle lobe of right lung 25. How many semirings of the cartilage does trachea have? 1. 16-20 2. 15-25 3. 10-15 4. 30-35 26. What is sinus of Highmore? 1. Maxillary sinus. 2. Frontal sinus. 3. Sphenoidal sinus. 4. Ethmoidal air cells. 27. What are nasal conchae? 1. Processes of ethmoidal labyrinth, and separating small shell – like bone projection 2. Process of maxilla, process of ethmoidal labyrinth 3. Margins of maxilla, shell-like bony projections from lateral wall of nose. 28. What are the meatuses of nose? 1. Passages beneath the overhanging conchae. 2. Passages above the overhanging conchae. 3. Space between the conchae and the nasal septum. 29. What are the common meatus of nose? 1. Space between the conchae and the nasal septum. 2. Passages above the overhanging conchae. 3. Passages beneath the overhanging conchae. 30. Where does maxillary sinus open? 1. In middle meatus. 2. In superior meatus. 3. In inferior meatus. 31. Where does frontal sinus open? 1. In middle meatus. 2. In superior meatus. 3. In inferior meatus. 32. Where does posterior ethmoidal air cells open? 1. In sphenoethmoidal recess of the superior miatus. 2. In superior meatus. 3. In middle meatus. 4. In inferior meatus. 33. Where does anterior and medial ethmoidal air cells open? 1. In middle meatus. 2. In superior meatus. 3. In sphenoethmoidal recess. 4. In inferior meatus. 34. Where is the olfactory region situated? 1. Superior concha, superior nasal meatus, upper part of nasal septum. 2. Middle concha, superior concha 3. Middle meatus, superior nasal meatus 4. Inferior concha, upper part of nasal septum. 35. What are respiratory parts of pharynx? 1. Nasal, oral. 2. Nasal, laryngeal. 3. Nasal, pharyngeal 4. Laryngeal. 36. What is the position of palatine tonsils? 51 1. Between diverging of the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches. 2. On the posterior wall of the pharynx. 3. Between diverging of the palatoglossal and palatolaryngeal arches. 4. On the superior wall of the pharynx. 37. What is the position of pharyngeal tonsil? 1. Between superior and posterior walls of pharynx. 2. Between superior and anterior walls of pharynx. 3. Between superior and lateral walls of pharynx. 38. What tonsils form Pirogov's ring? 1. Palatine tonsils, tubarian tonsils, lingual, pharyngeal tonsils. 2. Pharyngeal, lingual tonsils, thyroid. 3. Epiglottic, lingual, pharyngeal tonsils. 39. What are laryngeal joints? 1. Cricothyroid, cricoarytenoid. 2. Thyroepiglottic, cricoarytenoid. 3. Conus elasticus, cricothyroid 40. What movements are produced by cricothyroid joint? 1. Flexion, extention. 2. Rotation, flexion 3. Gliding movements. 41. What movements are produced by cricoarytenoid joint? 1. Rotation, gliding movements. 2. Flexion, rotation 3. Extention. 42. Where is the ventricle of the larynx situated? 1. On each side of larynx between vestibular and vocal cords. 2. Between thyrohyoid membrane and conus elasticus. 3. In infraglottic part. 4. On each side of larynx in vestibule. 43. What is the conus elasticus? 1. Cricothyroid ligament, its lateral part 2. Oblique arytenoid ligament. 3. Posterior cricoarytenoid. 4. Thyroepiglottic ligament. 5. Lateral cricoarytenoid. 44. Name parts of trachea. 1. Cervical, thoracic. 2. Esophageal, thoracic 3. Tracheal, cervical 4. Laryngeal, tracheal 45. What are anterior relations of the thoracic part of trachea? 1. Thymus, aortic arch. 2. Thyroid gland, sternothyroid muscle 3. Oesophagus, aortic arch 46. What are posterior relations of thoracic part of the trachea? 1. Oesophagus, vertebral column. 2. Thyroid gland, oesophagus 3. Aortic arch, vertebral column 4. Thymus, oesophagus 47. Where trachea can be palpated? 1. In suprastenal notch, midway. 2. Between thyroid and cricoid cartilages. 3. In retrothyroid region after cutting the isthmus of thyroid gland. 48. Where is bifurcation of trachea situated? 1. Between T4 and T5 vertebra. 2. Between T3 and T4 vertebra. 3. T6 vertebra. 4. Between T5 and T6 vertebra. 5. Between T6 and T7 vertebra. 49. The right main bronchus is: 1. Wider, shorter (2,5 cm) and more vertical, passes to root of lung on the level of T5. 2. Wider, shorter (2,5 cm) and more vertical, passes to root of lung on the level of T6. 52 3. Narrower, longer (5 cm) and less vertical. 4. Wider, shorter (2,5 cm) and less vertical. 50. The left main bronchus is: 1. Narrower, longer (5 cm) and less vertical,passes to the root of the lung on the level of T6. 2. Narrower, longer (5 cm) and less vertical,passes to the root of the lung on the level of T5. 3. Wider, shorter (2,5 cm) and less vertical. 4. Wider, shorter (6 cm) and more vertical. 51. Foreign bodies and inspirated material tend to pass rather into right bronchus or into left? 1. Into right bronchus, because of the greater width and more vertical course. 2. Into right bronchus, because of the greater width and less vertical course. 3. Into left bronchus, because of the greater width and more vertical course. 52. On what level are the roots of lungs located? 1. T5 -T7 vertebra. 2. T3 -T4 vertebra. 3. T1 -T3 vertebra. 4. T7 -T9 vertebra. 53. What structures unite semirings of the cartilages of the trachea? 1. Fibrous annular ligaments. 2. Fibrous broad ligaments. 3. Tringular ligaments. 4. Pulmonary ligaments. 5. Fibrous membrane. 54. Name the lobes of the right lung? 1. Superior, inferior, middle. 2. Anterior, inferior, middle 3. Superior, interior, lingula. 55. Name the margins of the lung? 1. Inferior, anterior, posterior. 2. Superior, diaphragmatic 3. Inferior, posterior. 4. Diaphragmatic, posterior. 56. What is a broncho-pulmonary segment? 1. Segment of the lung with segmental bronchus. 2. Segment of the lung with lobar bronchus. 3. Pulmonary tissue with respiratory bronchioles. 57. What are the features of the right lung? 1. Wider, 3 lobes, shorter. 2. 3 lobes, cardiac notch . 3. Longer, narrower 58. On what level the horizontal fissure of lung lie? 1. IV-d rib. 2. II-d rib. 3. III-d rib. 4. V-d rib. 5. VI-d rib. 59. The lingula of the lung is part of the: 1. In upper lobe of left lung. 2. In upper lobe of right lung. 3. In middle lobe of right lung. 4. In lower lobe of left lung. 60. What part of the right lung corresponds to the lingula of the left lung? 1. Middle lobe. 2. Upper lobe. 3. Lower lobe. 4. Cardiac notch. 5. Root of lung. 61. The inferior boundary of the right pleural sac crossing medioclavicular line is located on the level of: 1. YII rib 2. YIII rib 3. X rib 4. Y rib 62.The inferior boundary of the right pleural sac crossing middle 53 1. Mediastinal, diaphragmatic, costal. 2. Pulmonary, diaphragmatic 3. Mediastinal, thoracic. 4. Mediastinal, pulmonary 69. Which part of the pleura covers lung? 1. Visceral. 2. Thoracic. 3. Diaphragmatic. 4. Costal. 5. Mediastinal. 70. What are the boundaries of the mediastinum? 1. Diaphragm, thoracic vertebral column, sternum, mediastinal pleurae, thoracic inlet. 2. Thoracic inlet, sternum, mediastinal pleura, ribs. 3. Thoracic inlet, sternum, visceral pleura. 4. Diaphragm, mediastinal pleura, visceral pleura. 71. What cartilages form wings of the nose? 1. Cartilagines alares minores and cartilago alaris major. 2. Cartilagines alares minores and cartilago nasi lateralis. 3. Cartilago alaris major and cartilago nasi lateralis. 72. Which laryngeal muscle streatch the vocal ligaments? 1. Crycothyroid and vocal muscles. 2. Crycothyroid and thyroepiglotic muscles. 3. Crycothyroid and aryepiglottic muscles. 73. Which tissue forms posterior wall of the trachea? 1. Membranous. 2. Cartilaginous. 3. Bone. 4. Connective. axillary line is located on the level of: 1. IX rib 2. VII rib 3 X rib 4. X rib 63. The inferior boundary of the right pleural sac crossing scapular line is located on the level of: 1. XI-XII ribs. 2. VII-YIII ribs. 3. VIII-IX ribs 4. X-XI ribs 5. X-XI ribs. 64. The inferior boundary of the right pleural sac crossing paravertebral line is located on the level of: 1. The head of the XII rib. 2. The head of the XI rib. 3. The head of the X rib. 4. The head of the IX rib. 65. Where does parietal pleura continuous with visceral one? 1. On the root of the lung. 2. On the costal surface of the lung. 3. On the diaphragmatic surface of the lung. 66. How many tubular systems are in the lungs? 1. 6. 2. 3. 3. 4. 4. 5. 5. 2. 67. Name the tubular systems of the lungs: 1. Bronchial arteries and veins, lymphatic vessels, bronchi, pulmonary arteries and veins. 2. Alveolar ducts, bronchi, limphatic vessels 3. Bronchi, alveolar tissue, pulmonary arteries and veins 68. Which following parts of pleura are parietal? 54 1. Principal, lobar, segmental, lobular bronchi and terminal bronchioles. 2. Principal, segmental, lobular bronchi and respiratory bronchioles. 3. Principal, lobar, segmental bronchi and ductuli alveolares. 80. Alveolar tree consists of: 1. Bronchioli respiratorii, ductuli alveolares, sacculi alveolares. 2. Bronchioli respiratorii, sacculi alveolares, terminal bronchioles. 3. Bronchioli respiratorii, terminal bronchioles, ductuli alveolares. 81. How is anatomical unit of the lung's parenchyma called? 1. Acinus. 2. Nephron. 3. Saccculus. 4. Nodulus. 82. In which part of the bronchial tree the cartilages disappear completely? 1. Terminal bronchiole. 2. Respiratory bronchioli. 3. Lobar bronchi. 4. Ductuli alveolares. 83. Which is the common area of all alveoli? 1. 80m2 2. 70m2 3. 90m2 4. 60m2 74. How many segments are in the upper lobes of the right and left lungs? 1. Three and five. 2. Two and five. 3. Four and six. 4. Five and one. 75. How many segments are in the middle lobe of the right lung? 1. Two. 2. Three. 3. One. 4. Four. 76. How many segments are in the lower lobes of the right and left lungs? 1. Five and five. 2. Four and five. 3. Two and four. 4. Three and five. 77. Name the segments of the upper lobe of the right lung? 1. Apical, anterior, posterior. 2. Apical, anterior, medial. 3. Apical, posterior, lateral. 4. Apical, medial, lateral. 78. Name the segments of the middle lobe of the right lung? 1. Lateral, medial. 2. Superior, inferior. 3. Lateral, inferior. 4. Medial, superior. 79. Bronchial tree consists of: UROGENITAL SYSTEM 3. From upper border of XII thoracic to centre of body of III lumbar vertebrae 4. From XI thoracic to III lumbar vertebrae 2. Where is the left kidney situated? 1. Where is the right kidney situated? 1. From the lower margin of XI thoracic vertebrae to midline of III lumbar vertebrae 2. From I to III lumbar vertebrae 55 1. From centre of body of XI thoracic vertebrae to upper border of III lumbar vertebrae 2. From I to III lumbar vertebrae 3. From X thoracic to II lumbar vertebrae 4. From XII thoracic to III lumbar vertebrae 3. What are the constituents of muscular seat of the kidney? 1. Psoas major and quadratus lumborum muscles, transversus abdominis muscle and diaphragm 2. Psoas minor and psoas major muscles 3. Internal oblique muscle and diaphragm 4. A complex of the folowing structures is responsible for fixation of the kidney in place: 1. Muscular seat, renal vessels, fascia renalis, intra-abdominal pressure 2. Muscular seat, fibrous capsule of kidney 3. Fatty capsule of kidney, muscular seat 5. What are the coverings of the kidneys? 1. Fibrous capsule, fatty capsule, renal fascia 2. Fibrous capsule, cortex, renal fascia 3. Fibrous capsule, renal fascia, peritoneum 4. Fibrous capsule, perirenal fat, peritoneum 6. How many major calyces are located in kidney? 1. 2-3 2. 3-10 3. 10-15 4. 8-12 7. In the kidney there are following surfaces: 1. Anterior, posterior 2. Lateral, medial 3. Upper, lower 4. External, internal 8. In the kidney there are following ends (poles): 1. Upper, lower 2. Lateral, medial 3. Anterior, posterior 4. External, internal 9. In the kidney there are following margins: 1. Lateral, medial 2. Anterior, posterior 3. Upper, lower 4. External, internal 10. What are the structures located at the hilum of kidney (from front to back) 1. Renal vein, renal artery, renal pelvis 2. Renal artery, renal vein, pelvis of the ureter 3. Ureter, renal artery, renal vein 11. Where are the renal pyramids located? 1. In renal medulla 2. In renal pelvis 3. In renal cortex 4. In renal columns 12. Where are the renal columns located? 1. Between the renal pyramids 2. In renal cortex 3. Between renal cortex and renal medulla 4. In renal pelvis 13. The renal cortex is divided into: 1. Radiate part, convoluted part 2. Renal columns, pyramidale part 3. Radiate part, pyramidale part 4. Renal columns, convoluted part 14. What structures form the renal pelvis? 1. 2-3 greater calyces 2. 8-12 lesser calyces 3. Greater calyces and ureter 56 4. Lesser calyces and fornical apparatus 15. What is the glomerulus? 1. Tufts of blood vessel’s capillaries 2. Renal tubules 3. Convoluted tubule 16. What are the contens of nephron? 1. Corpuscle of kidney, proximal and distal convoluted tubules, Henle's loop, junctional tubule 2. Glomerulus, Henle's loop, collecting tubule 3. Corpuscle of kidney, proximal and distal convoluted tubules, 4. Henle's loop, collecting tubule 17. Where are the corpuscles of the kidney located? 1. In convoluted part of the renal cortex 2. In radiate part of renal cortex 3. In pyramids 4. In renal colums 18. What is the ureter? 1. It is a pair of narrow, thick walled muscular tubes, which convey urine from the kidneys to urinary bladder 2. This is a tube extending from the urinary bladder to the external urethral orifice 19. The ureter is divided into next parts: 1. Abdominal, pelvic, intramural 2. Sacral, abdominal, pelvis 3. Abdominal, sacral, pelvis 4. Abdominal, sacral, adventitious 20. What are the coats of the ureter? 1. Adventitious, muscular, mucous 2. Fibrous, muscular, adventitious 3. Mucous, serous, muscular 4. Fibrous, muscular, serous 21. By means of what is the reflux (back flowing) of urine from the urinary bladder into ureter prevented? 1. The intramural oblique course of ureter has valvular action 2. Iliopsoas, psaas minor and obturator internus muscles 3. Sphincter vesicae muscle 4. Sphincter urethrae muscle 22. What are the parts of the urinary bladder? 1. Apex, body, fundus, neck 2. Body, fundus, head 3. Body, neck, head 4. Base, neck, trigone 5. Base, neck, trigone, apex 23. What are the coats of the urinary bladder? 1. Serous, muscular, submucous, mucous 2. Serous, muscular, mucous, adventitious 3. Adventitious, muscular, serous 4. Serous, muscular, submucous 5. Adventitious, muscular, mucous 24. Mucous coat of the urinary bladder never forms folds in the next parts: 1. Trigone 2. Neck of bladder 3. Base, trigone 4. Trigone, apex 5. Trigone, neck 25. What are the characteristic features of the bladder’s trigon? 1. Mucosa is firmly attached to muscular coat, folds are absent 2. Interureteric ridge forms base of trigone, which are the continuations of longitudinal muscle coat of two ureters 3. Mucosa forms folds 4. Mucosa forms medial umbilical fold 26. What are the parts of urethra in male? 1. Prostatic, membranous, spongy 2. Prostatic, membranous, cavernous 3. Prostatic, perineal, cavernous 57 4. Prostatic, pelvic, spongy 27. What are the characteristic features of internal urethral sphincter? 1. Involuntary, made up of smooth muscular fibres 2. Voluntary, made up of smooth muscular fibres 3. Voluntary, made up of striated muscular fibres 4. Involuntary, made up of striated uscular fibres 28. What are the characteristic features of external urethral sphincter? 1. Voluntary, made up of striated muscular fibres 2. Involuntary, made up of smooth muscular fibres 3. Voluntary, made up of smooth muscular fibres 4. Involuntary, made up of striated muscular fibres 29. Which part of male urethra can be ruptured during examination? 1. Membranous part because it is narrowest and curved 2. Proctatic part, because it is narrowest and least dilatable 3. Spongy part, because it is narrowest and longest 4. Pelvic part, because it is narrowest and longest 30. Where are constrictions of the male urethra situated ? 1. External and internal urethral orifices, membranous part 2. In prostatic and membranous part 3. Internal urethral orifice, membranous and prostatic part 4. External urethral orifice, membranous part 31. Where are dilatations of male urethra situated ? 1. In prostatic part, bulb, fossa navicularis 2. In membranous part, prostatic part 3. In membranous and spongy part, terminal fossa (navicularis) 4. In membranous, bulb, terminal fossa (navicularis) 32. Where is the terminale fossa (fossa navicularis) of the male urethra situated ? 1. In glans penis 2. In prostatic part of urethra 3. In bulb 4. In membranous part 33. What ducts open into prostatic part of urethra ? 1. Prostatic ducts, ejaculatory ducts 2. Vas deferens, vasa recta, vasa eferentia 3. Prostatic ducts, ducts of bulbourethral gland 4. Prostatic ducts, duct of seminal vesicle 34. What are the bodies of penis ? 1. 2 corpora cavernosa, 1 corpus spongiosum 2. 2 corpora spongiosa. 1 corpus cavernosum 3. 1 corpus cavernosum, 1 corpus spongiosum 35. The head (glans) penis is formed by: 1. Corpus spongiosum 2. Corpus cavernosum 3. Fibrous-elastic tissue 4. Musculo-mucous tissue 36. What is scrotum ? 1. It is cutaneous bag containing testis, epididymis, spermatic cord 2. It is cutaneous bag containing testis, seminal vesicles,epididymis 3. It is cutaneous bag containing testis, epididymis, bulbourethral glands, spermatic cord 37. Name the structures forming coats of the testis (from outside inside): 1. Skin, tunica dartos, external spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, cremasteric muscle, internal spermatic fascia, tunica vaginalis 58 2. Skin, dartos muscle, external and internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia and muscle, tunica vaginalis 3. Skin, dartos muscle, external spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia and muscle, tunica vaginalis, internal spermatic fascia 38. What is processus vaginalis ? 1. It is a prolongation of peritonium projecting into a scrotum 2. It is a process of external spermatic fascia 3. It is a process of external oblique muscle 4. It is a part of mucous membrane 39. What are the surfaces of the testes ? 1. Medial, lateral 2. Right, left 3. Anterior, posterior 4. Lower, upper 40. What are the borders of the testes ? 1. Anterior, posterior 2. Medial, lateral 3. Lower, upper 4. Anterior, medial 41. What are the poles of the testes? 1. Lower, upper 2. Lateral, medial 3. Anterior, posterior 42. What are the components of the spermatic cord ? 1. Vas deferens, coverings of testis, vessels , nerves, pampiniform venous plexus 2. Vas deferens, remains of processus vaginalis, areolar tissue, vessels, pampiniform plexus, nerves 3. Epididymis, vas deferens. pampiniform plexus- vessels , nerves 43. External spermatic fascia is continuation of the: 1. Fascia superficialis 2. Internal oblique aponeurosis 3. Internal oblique and transversus abdominal muscle 44. What structures form the ejaculatory duct ? 1. Duct of seminal vesicle unites with deferent duct 2. Duct of seminal vesicle unites with prostatic part of urethra 3. Straight seminiferous tubules unites with efferent ductules of the testis 45. What is position of prostate ? 1. Below neck of urinary bladder, in front of rectum ampulla 2. Just beneath of head of epididymis 3. Above fundus of urinary bladder, in front of rectum 4. Posteriorly urinary bladder 46. Name the structures lying in the prostate interior? 1. Prostatic urethra, ejaculatory ducts, prostatic utricle 2. Prostatic urethra, prostatic utricle, duct of seminal vesicle 3. Ejaculatory ducts, prostatic utricle, prostatic ducts 4. Prostatic utricle, prostatic ducts, prostatic urethra 47. What is the mesosalpinx ? 1. It is part of the uterus broad ligament located between mesovarium and uterine tube 2. It is part of round ligament of the uterus 3. It is part of broad ligament between ovary and rectum 48. Infundibulum of the uterine tube opens into: 1. Peritoneal cavity by abdominal opening 2. Uterine cavity by uterine opening 49. What are the parts of uterus ? 1. Fundus, body, cervix 2. Body. cervix, isthmus, fundus 3. Isthmus, cervix, body, round ligament 4. Cervix, body. right and left borders 59 50. What are the parts of the neck of the uterus ? 1. Supravaginal, vaginal 2. Upper, lower 3. Vaginal, uterus's part 4. Vaginal, isthmus, supravaginal 51. What are the layers of uterus wall ? 1. Endometrium, myometrium, perimetrium, 2. Perimetrium, parametrium, endometrium 3. Myometrium, endometrium, parametrium 4. Perimetrium, connective tissue, epithelium 52. What are the ligaments of the ovary? 1. Proper ligament, suspensory ovarian. ligament. 2. Round and broad ligament. 3. Inguinal ligament. 53. The internal spermatic fascia is continuation of the : 1. Transverse fascia. 2. Cremasteric fascia. 3. Superficial fascia of the abdomen. 4. Vaginal process. 54. What are the muscles of urogenital diaphragm? 1. Deep transverse perinei m., sphincter urethrae m., superficial transverse perinei m., ischiocavernous m., bulbospongious m. 2. Levator ani m., ischiocavernous m., bulbospongious m. 3. Deep transverse perinei m., superficial transverse perinei m., levator ani m. 55. What are the muscles of pelvic diaphragm? 1. Levator ani m., coccygeal m., external anal sphincter m. 2. Deep transverse perinei m., superficial transverse perinei m. 3. Levator ani m., coccygeal m., deep transverse perinei m. 56. How many lesser calyces are located in the renal sinus? 1. 8-9. 2. 10-12. 3. 5-6. 4. 2-3. 57. What walls of the empty urinary bladder are covered by the serous coat? 1. Posterior wall and apex. 2. Anterior wall and apex. 3. Lateral wall and apex. 58. M. sphincter vesicae is: 1. Involuntary smooth muscle. 2. Voluntary smooth muscle. 3. Involuntary skeletal muscle. 4. Voluntary skeletal muscle. 59. With what organ does posterior wall of the female urethra contact? 1. Vagina. 2. Rectum. 3. Sigmoid colon. 60. How many coats cover testis? 1. 7. 2. 8. 3. 6. 4. 9. 61. Name the ligaments of the epididymis. 1. Superior and inferior. 2. Superior and posterior. 3. Superior and anterior. 4. Superior and lateral. 62. Name the parts of the epididymis: 1. Head, body, tail. 2. Head, neck, body. 3. Head, body, processes. 63. Where is paradidymis located? 1. On the upper pole of the testis. 2. On the lower pole of the testis. 60 3. On the anterior border of the testis. 4. On the posterior border of the testis. 64. How many lobes are in the testis? 1. 250-300. 2. 100-200. 3. 300-500. 4. 150-250. 65. What seminiferous tubules are in each lobe of the testis? 1. 2-3 convoluted and 1 straight. 2. 1 convoluted and 2-3 straight. 3. 5-6 convoluted and 2-3 straight. 4. 2-3 convoluted and 2-3 straight. 66. How long is straightened out convoluted seminiferous tubules? 1. 90cm. 2. 3m. 3. 50cm. 4. 2m. 67. How long is straightened out epididymis duct? 1. 3-4m. 2. 1-2m. 3. 5-6m. 4. 2-5m. 68. Which seminiferous tubules produce semen? 1. Convoluted. 2. Straight. 3. Efferent ducts. 4. Network of channels. 69. Epididymis duct continuous with the: 1. Deferent duct. 2. Efferent duct. 3. Ejaculatory duct. 4. Excretory duct. 70. What are parts of the penis? 1. Root, body, glans. 2. Root, body, neck. 3. Root, body, head. 71. Which ligament bridges between pubic symphysis and root of the penis? 1. Lig. suspensorium penis. 2. Lig. puboprostatica. 3. Lig. anterior penis. 4. Lig. fundiforme penis. 72. In which part of the male urethra is the seminal colliculus located? 1. Prostatic part. 2. Membranous part. 3. Spongy part. 73. Into which part of the male urethra do ducts of the bulbourethral glands open? 1. Bulbus urethrae. 2. Fossa navicularis urethrae. 3. Prostatic part. 74. Which ligament bridges between linea alba and lateral surfaces of the penis? 1. Lig. fundiforme penis. 2. Lig. suspensorium penis. 3. Lig. puboprostatica. 75. The infrapubic curvature is fixed by: 1. Puboprostatic ligament, suspensory ligament, urogenital diaphragm. 2. Puboprostatic ligament, fundiforme ligament, urogenital diaphragm. 3. Puboprostatic ligament, suspensory ligament, pelvic diaphragm. 76. What is right position of the uterus? 1. Anteversio, anteflexio. 2. Anteversio, retroflexio. 3. Retroversio, anteflexio. 4. Retroversio, retroflexio. 61 2. Uterine part, neck, ampulla, infundibulum. 3. Uterine part, body, ampulla, infundibulum. 84. How does peritoneum cover uterine tube? 1. Intraperitoneally. 2. Mesoperitoneally. 3. Extraperitoneally. 4. Retroperitoneally. 85. The mucous coat of the uterine tube forms following folds: 1. Longitudinal. 2. Circular. 3. Oblique. 86. What are layers of the uterine tube from outer to inner? 1. Tunica serosa, tunica subserosa, tunica muscularis, tunica mucosa. 2. Tunica adventitia, tunica subserosa, tunica muscularis, tunica mucosa. 3. Tunica serosa, tunica muscularis, tunica submucosa, tunica mucosa. 87. What ends does ovary have? 1. Upper and lower. 2. Upper and medial. 3. Upper and lateral. 88. What surfaces does ovary have? 1. Lateral and medial. 2. Superior and inferior. 3. Right and left. 4. Lateral and posterior. 89. What margins does ovary have? 1. Anterior and posterior. 2. Anterior and lateral. 3. Anterior and superior. 4. Posterior and inferior. 90. What margin of the ovary is called “margo liber”? 1. Posterior. 77. Ligamentum teres uteri is more good visible on the: 1. Anterior surface of the broad ligament. 2. Posterior surface of the broad ligament. 78. What is the mesometrium? 1. It is part of the uterus broad ligament located below mesovarium and proper ligament of the ovary. 2. It is part of the mesosalpinx. 3. It is part of the broad ligament located above mesovarium and proper ligament of the ovary. 79. Name the ligament which fixes uterine neck: 1. Lig. cardinale uteri. 2. Lig. teres uteri. 3. Lig. ovarium proprium. 80. Where is parametrium located? 1. On the sides of the uterine neck and upper part of the vagina. 2. On the sides of the uterine neck and body. 3. On the sides of the uterine neck and fundus. 81. How does peritoneum cover uterus? 1. Intraperitoneally. 2. Mesoperitoneally. 3. Extraperitoneally. 4. Retroperitoneally. 82. The Dougla's pouch is located between: 1. Uterus, vagina and rectum. 2. Uterus, vagina and urinary bladder. 3. Uterus and ovary. 83. The parts of the uterine tube? 1. Uterine part, isthmus, ampulla, infundibulum. 62 2. Anterior. 3. lateral. 4. Medial. 91. Is ovary covered with peritoneum? 1. No. 2. Yes. 3. Partly. 92. What tissue covers the ovary? 1. Embryonic epithelium 2. Serous coat. 3. Adventitious coat. 4. Mucous coat. 93. Which fornix of the vagina is deeper? 1. Posterior. 2. Anterior. 3. Lateral. 4. Medial. 94. Which fornix of the vagina takes part in the formation of the Dougla's pouch? 1. Posterior. 2. Anterior. 3. Medial. 4. Lateral. 95. Pudendum femininum consists of: 1. Greater and lesser pudendal lips, greater and lesser vestibular glands, clitoris, vestibular bulb. 2. Greater and superior pudendal lips, greater and inferior vestibular glands, clitoris, cavernous body. 3. Greater and lesser pudendal lips, spongy body, vestibular gland, clitoris, vestibular bulb. 96. What body of the penis does the clitoris correspond to? 1. Cavernous body. 2. Spongy body. 3. Bulbus penis. 97. What body of the penis does the vestibular bulb correspond to? 1. Spongy body. 2. Cavernous body. 3. Bulbus penis. 98. Is m. sphincter ani externus voluntary muscle? 1. Yes. 2. No. 3. Partly. 99. What are fasciae of the urogenital diaphragm? 1. Superficial, superior and inferior. 2. Superficial, deep and inferior. 3. Superficial, anterior and posterior. 100. What are fasciae of the pelvic diaphragm? 1. Parietal, visceral and inferior. 2. Parietal, internal and external. 3. Parietal, visceral and superior. HEART, LYMPHATIC SYSTEM 1. How many chambers does heart have? 1. 4. 2. 3. 3. 2. 4. 5. 5. 1. 2. From what chamber of the heart does the greater circulation begin? 1. From the left ventricle. 2. From the right auricle. 3. From the right ventricle. 4. From the left auricle. 5. From the left auricle. 3. In what chamber of the heart does the lesser circulation begin? 1. In the right ventricle. 2. In the left ventricle. 3. In the left ventricle and left auricle. 4. In the right ventricle and right atrium 5. In the left auricle 63 4. What blood fills the pulmonary veins? 1. Arterial (oxyginated). 2. Venous (dioxyginated) 3. Mixed. 5. To what chamber of the heart does the venosus blood from systemic circulation flow? 1. To the right atrium. 2. To the left atrium. 3. To the left ventricle. 4. To the right ventricle. 5. To the arterial cone. 6. What veins carry blood to right atrium? 1. V. cava superior, v. cava inferior, sinus coronarius, anterior and smallest veins of the heart 2. V. jugularis interna, v. jugularis externa. 3. Vv. pulmonales dextrae, sinus coronarius. 4. V. jugularis anterior, v. jugularis externa 5. V. cava inferior et v. azygos. 7. What layers of myocardium are common for both ventricles? 1. External and internal. 2. External. 3. Internal. 4. Middle. 5. Middle and internal. 8. What layers of myocardium are their own for each ventricle? 1. Middle. 2. External. 3. Internal. 4. External and internal. 5. Middle and internal. 6. Middle and external. 9. What layer of myocardium forms papillar muscles? 1. Internal. 2. External. 3. Middle. 4. External and internal. 5. Middle and internal. 6. Middle and external. 10. What layer of the heart’s wall form valvulae of the coronary sinus and inferior vena cava? 1. Endocardium. 2. Epicardium. 3. Fibrous pericardium. 4. Serous pericardium. 5. Myocardium. 11. What valvulae does valve of pulmonary trunk have? 1. Valvulae semilunares anterior, dextra and sinistra. 2. Valvulae semilunares posterior, dextra and sinistra. 3. Valvulae semilunaris anterior,cuspis anterior,cuspis posterior. 12. What valvulae does valve of aorta have? 1. Valvulae semilunares posterior, dextra and sinistra. 2. Valvulae semilunares anterior, dextra and sinistra. 3. Vavula semilunaris posterior, cuspis anterior. 13. What cuspises does right atrioventricular valve have? 1. Cuspises septalis, anterior and posterior. 2. Cuspis anterior, valvula semilunaris anterior,cuspis posterior 3. Cuspis posterior, valvula semilunaris posteri,cuspis septalis. 4. Cuspis septalis, valvula semilunaris dextra, cuspis anterior 14. What cuspises does left atrioventricular valve have? 1. Cuspises anterior and posterior. 2. Cuspis posterior, valvula semilunaris anterior. 3. Cuspis septalis and anterior 4. Valvula semilunaris posterior. 5. Valvula semilunaris dextra. 15. Where is oval fossa located? 1. On the atrial septum from the side of right atrium. 2. On the atrial septum from the side of left atrium. 3. On posterior wall of right atrium. 4. In posterior expension of right atrium. 5. Between ostium venae cavae inferioris and crista terminalis. 16. What sinuses does pericardium have? 64 1. Transverse and oblique. 2. Apical and interatrial. 3. Cavernous and sigmoid. 4. Intervenous and aortic. 5. Subaortic and intervenous. 17. What arteries carry blood to the walls of the heart ? 1. Coronary arteries. 2. Subclavicular artery. 3. Commune carotids. 4. lleac arteries. 5. Pulmonary arteries. 18. How is line of upper bound of the heart projected on anterior thoracis wall? 1. Along upper margin of III costal cartilages 2. Along lower margin of II costal cartilages. 3. On the level of II costa. 4. On the level of IV costa. 5. Along upper margin of IV costal cartilages. 19. How is apex of heart projected on anterior thoracic wall? 1. On the level of V intercostals space on 1-1,5 cm to the right from the left medioclavicular line 2. On the level of lower margin of V costal cartilage from the left. 3. On the level of V intercostals space on 1-1,5 cm to the left from left medioclavicular line. 4. On the level of V rib on 1 -1,5 cm to the left from the margin of sternum. 5. On the level of V intercostals space on 1-1,5 cm to the left from the margin of sternum. 20. Where can we hear cardiac (apical) beat ? 1. On the level of V intercostal space on 1-1,5 cm to the right from left medioclavicular line. 2. On the level of lower margin of costal cartilage from the left. 3. On the level of V rib on 1 -1,5 cm to the right from the left medioclavicular line. 4. On the level of V rib on 1-1,5 cm to the left from the margin of sternum. 5. On the level of V intercostal space on 1-1,5 cm to the left from the margin of sternum 21. What anatomical formation of a foetus directs the blood flowing from the right to the left cavity of the heart? 1. Foramen ovale. 2. Ductus venosus. 3. Ductus arteriosus. 4. Vena umbilicalis. 5. Fossa ovalis. 22. What vessel is connected with aorta by obliterated ductus arteriosus of a foetus ? 1. Truncus pulmonalis. 2. A. umbilicalis. 3. Lig.venosus. 4. V.umbilicalis. 5. V.cava inferior. 23. Which part of the conductive system of the heart connects atriums with ventricles? 1. Fasciculus atrioventricularis. 2. Crus dextrum. 3. Crum sinistrum. 4. Nodus sinuatrialis. 5. Nodus atrioventricularis. 24. What vessels are located in sulcus interventricularis anterior cordis ? 1. V.cordis magna and ramus interventricularis anterior a. coronaria sinistra. 2. V.cordis media and ramus interventricularis posterior a. coronaria dextra. 3. Vv.cordis minimae and ramus circumflexus sinister. 4. V.obliqua atrii sinistri and ramus interventricularis anterior a.coronaria sinistra 5. V.cordis magna and ramus circumflexus dexter 25. What chamber of the heart has the heaviest walls? 1. Ventriculus sinister. 2. Atrium dextrum. 3. Atrium sinistrum. 4. Ventriculus dexter. 26. Where are musculi pectinati located? 1. Auricula cordis. 65 2. Atrium cordis. 3. Ventriculus cordis. 4. All named formations. 27. How is external layer of heart's wall called? 1. Epicardium. 2. Endocardium. 3. Myocardium. 4. Pericardium. 28. How is internal layer of heart's wall called? 1. Endocardium. 2. Myocardium. 3. Epicardium. 4. Pericardium. 29. How is middle layer of heart's wall called? 1. Myocardium. 2. Endocardium 3. Epicardium. 4. Pericardium 30. The sound of what cardiac valve can doctor listen on the level of II intercostal space to the right from sternum? 1. Aortic valves. 2. Mitral valve. 3. Tricuspid valve. 4. Pulmonary valve. 31.The sound of what cardiac valves can doctor listen on the level of II intercostal space to the left from the sternum? 1.Pulmonary valve. 2.Mitral valve. 3. Tricuspid valve. 4. Aortic valves. 32. The sound of what cardiac valves can doctor listen close to the right sternal margin on the level of V costal cartilage ? 1.Tricuspid valve. 2. Aortic valves. 3. Pulmonary valve. 4. Mitral valve. 33. Where is sinus transversus pericardii located? 1. Behind aortae and truncus pulmonalis. 2. Between openings of aortae and truncus pulmonalis. 3. Between openings of vv pulmonales sinistri and v.cava inferior. 4. Between openings of vv.pulmonales sinistri and v cava superior. 5. Behind truncus pulmonalis 6. Between openings of v.cava superior et v.cava inferior. 34. Where is sinus obliquus pericardii located? 1. Between openings of vv.pulmonales sinistri and v.cava inferior. 2. Behind aortal and truncus pulmonalis. 3. Between openings of vv.pulmonales sinistri and v.cava superior. 4. Between openings of vv. pulmonales dextri and v.cava superior 5. Between openings of v.cava superior and v.cava inferior. 35. What vessels carry blood from the foetus to placenta? 1. Aa.umbilicales. 2. W.umbilicales. 3. VV.paraumbilicales. 4. Aa.epigastricai interiores. 5. Ductus arteriosus. 6. Ductus venosus. 36. What vessels carry blood from placenta to foetus? 1. V.umbilicalis. 2. Aa.umbilicales. 3. VV.paraumbilicales. 4. Aa.epigastricae interiores. 5. Ductus arteriosus 6. Ductus venosus. 37. In the wall of what heart’s chamber are nodus atrioventricularis and nodus sinuatrialis located? 1. In atrium dextrum. 2. In atrium sinistrum. 3. In ventriculus sinistrum. 4. In ventriculus dextrum. 38. What articulate regions have the highest amount of the regional lymph nodes of the upper limb? 1. Axillary, cubital. 2. Carpioradialis. 3. Sternoclauicularis. 66 39. What regions of the lower limb have the highest amount of the lymph nodes ? 1. Fossa poplitea, regio inguinale. 2. Canalis adductorius 3. Canalis cruropoplitus 4. Canalis cruromuscularis inferior 40. What part of digestive system has chyle vessels? 1. Small intestine. 2. Pharynx. 3. Esophagus. 4. Gaster. 5. Large intestine. 41. Which of the lymph nodes belong to the regional nodes of the head and the neck? 1. Occipital, mastoid, parotid, mandibular,submandibular, submental,buccal,retropharyngeal 2. Auricular anteriores, auricular posteriores, submental, buccal. 3. Mediastinal, mandibular, submandibular, buccal. 42. What lymph nodes collect lymph from tunica mucosa of the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses? 1. Retropharyngeal. 2. Buccal 3. Auricular 4. Mammilar. 43. What lymph nodes collect lymph from bulbus oculi (eye)? 1. Mandibular. 2. Submandibular 3. Buccal 4. Retropharyngeal. 5. Occipital 44. What lymph nodes collect lymph from middle ear? 1. Retropharyngeal. 2. Submandibular. 3. Omental. 4. Occipital. 5. Buccal. 45. What organ is called "cemetery” of erythrocytes"? 1. Spleen. 2. Medulla osseum. 3. Glandula retrostemalis. 4. Hepar. 5. Nodi lymphatici. 46. What structure is called "passive lymphatic heart? 1. Diaphragma. 2. Ileolumbal muscle. 3. Ventriculus dexter. 4. Aorta. 5. Ductus thoracicus. 47. Which statements are right? 1. Lymphatic system is a supplementary bed of the venous system 2. Lymphatic system is a part of systema arterialis, systema lymphatica is a part of systema venosa 48. What formations are major lymphatici ducts? 1. Ductus thoracicus, ductus lymphaticus dexter. 2. Vasa lymphocapillaria. 3. Ductus lymphaticus sinister. 4. Truncus lymphaticus jugularis. 49. What organs have no vasa lymphocapillaria? 1. Bone marrow, cartilages, parts of the eye, brain, placenta. 2. Gaster, duodenum, eye. 3. Uterus, vesica fellea, nails. 4. Heart, trachea, cartilages . 50. Where is the lymphoepitelial Pirogov’s ring located? 1. In fauces region. 2. In gaster. 3. In vesica fellea. 4. In trachea. 5. In caecum. 51. What lymph nodes collect lymph from the lower limb? 1.Popliteal and inguinal 2. External iliac lymph nodes. 3.Internal ileac lymph nodes. 52. What formations form thoracic lymphatic duct? 1. Lumbar trunks. 2. Bronchomediastenal trunks with subclavicular trunks. 3. Right lymph duct and intestineal trunk. 4. Right subclavicular trunk and right jugular trunk. 67 5.Left subclavicular trunk and left jugular trunk. 53. What formations form ductus throracicus dexter? 1. Truncus jugularis dexter, truncus subclavicularis dexter and truncus bronchomediastinales dexter. 2. Ductus intestinales and truncus transversus. 3. Truncus transversus dexter and sinister. 4. It is a continue of truncus transversus. 54. To what formation does ductus thoracicus carry limph? 1.Vena jugularis interna sinistra. 2. Portal vena. 3. Spleen. 4. Atrium dextrum. 5. Atrium sinistrum. 55. To what formation does ductus lymphaticus dexter carry lymph? 1. Vena subclavia dextra. 2. Ductus thoracicus lymphaticus. 3. Atrium dextrum. 4. Vena cave superioris. 5. Vena jugularis interna dextra. 56. How many layers does the myocardium of ventricles have? 1. 3. 2. 2. 3. 4. 4. 1. 57. The superficial layer of the ventricular myocardium is composed of following fibres: 1. Oblique longitudinal. 2. Oblique transverse 3. Oblique circular. 58. The inner layer of the ventricular myocardium is composed of following fibres: 1. Oblique longitudinal. 2. Oblique transverse. 3. Oblique circular. 59. Middle layer of the ventricular myocardium is composed of following fibres: 1. Circular. 2. Longitudinal. 3. Oblique. 4. Transverse. 60. Where is vortex cordis located? 1. Apex of the heart. 2. Base of the heart. 3. Right ventricle. 4. Left atrium. 61. How many layers does the myocardium of atriums have? 1. 2. 2. 3. 3. 4. 4. 1. 62. The superficial layer of the atrium's myocardium is: 1. Transverse. 2. Longitudinal. 3. Oblique. 63. The deep fibres of the atrium's myocardium consist of: 1. Looped and annular. 2. Transverse and annular. 3. Longitudinal and annular. 4. Oblique and annular. 64. What rings separated atriums and ventricules? 1. Fibrous. 2. Connective tissue. 3. Tendinous. 4. Muscular. 65. Name papillary muscles of the right ventricule. 1. Anterior, posterior, septalis. 2. Anterior, posterior, right. 3. Anterior, posterior, left. 4. Anterior, posterior, middle. 66. Name papillary muscles of the left ventricle. 1. Anterior, posterior. 2. Anterior, septalis 3. Anterior, right. 4. Anterior, left. 67. Where do coronary arteries arise? 1. Aortic bulb below superior margins of the aortic valves. 2. Aortic bulb above superior margins of the aortic valves. 68. Posterior papillary muscle of the left ventricle is supplied by: 1. Right coronary artery. 2. Left coronary artery. 3. Superior coronary artery. 4. Inferior coronary artery. 69. Interarterial septum and posterior 1/3of the interventricular septum are supplied by: 1. Right coronary artery. 2. Left coronary artery. 3. Superior coronary artery. 4. Inferior coronary artery. 70. Name the groups of the veins of the heart: 68 1. Veins of the system of the coronary sinus, anterior and smallest cardiac vein. 2. Greater cardiac vein, anterior and deep cardiac veins. 3. Posterior veins, anterior and smallest cardiac veins. 71. Which vein of the heart passes along posterior interventricular groove? 1. Middle cardiac vein. 2. Posterior cardiac vein. 3. Greater cardiac vein. 4. Oblique cardiac vein. 72. Which vein of the heart passes along anterior interventricular groove? 1. Greater cardiac vein. 2. Anterior cardiac vein. 3. Middle cardiac vein. 4. Oblique cardiac vein. 73. Where is superficial extracardiac nerve plexus located? 1. Between aortic arch and bifurcation of the pulmonary trunk. 2. Between aortic arch and vena cava superior. 3. Between aortic arch and bifurcation of the trachea. 74. Where is deep extracardiac nerve plexus located? 1. Between aortic arch and bifurcation of the trachea. 2. Between aortic arch and bifurcation of the pulmonary trunk. 3. Between aortic arch and superior vena cava. 75. How many intracardiac nerve plexuses are located under epicardium? 1. 6. 2. 5. 3. 4. 4. 7. 76. Name intracardiac nerve plexuses. 1. Left and right posterior, left and right anterior plexuses , plexus of the coronary sinus, anterior plexus of the atriums. 2. Left anterior, right posterior, anterior plexus of the ventricles, plexus of the coronary sinus, posterior plexus of the atriums. 77. What tissues form walls of the pericardium? 1. Fibrosum and serosum. 2. Fibrosum and adventitial. 3. Fibrosum and connective tissue. 78. What duct communicates v. umbilicalis and vena cava inferior in the foetus body? 1. Ductus venosus Arantii. 2. Ductus arteriosus Batalii. 3. Ductus urachus. 4. Ductus umbilicalis 79. In which period of the life is ductus arteriosus obliterated? 1. In first 8-10 days after birth. 2. In first 2-3 days after birth. 3. In first 5-6 days after birth. 80. In which period of the life are ductus venosus and umbilical vein obliterated? 1. During 6-7 days after birth. 2. During 8-10 days after birth. 3. During 2-3 days after birth. 81. In which period of the life are umbilical arteries obliterated? 1. During 2-3 days after birth. 2. During 6-7 days after birth. 3. During 8-10 days after birth. 82. What lymphatic trunk collects lymph from the lower lobe of the left lung? 1. Right mediastinal. 2. Left mediastinal. 3. Left subclavian. 4. Right bronchial. 83. The inguinal lymph nodes are subdivided into: 1. Superficial and deep. 2. Superficial and greater. 3. Superior and inferior. 4. Lateral and medial. 84. Name groups of the lymph nodes of the pelvis: 1. External, internal and common iliac, sacral. 2. External, internal, iliac, pelvic, sacral. 3. External, common iliac, vesical, sacral. 85. Name groups of the lymph nodes of the abdomen. 1. Parietal and visceral. 2. Parietal and deep. 3. Parietal and superior. 4. Parietal and superficial. 86. Name parietal lymph nodes of the thoracic cage. 1. Posterior intercostal, anterior parasternal and inferior nodes. 2. Posterior intercostal, posterior parasternal and superior nodes. 3. Posterior intercostal, anterior and posterior parasternal. 69 87. Name visceral lymph nodes of the thoracic cage. 1. Tracheal, tracheobronchial, bronchopulmonary, pulmonary, anterior and posterior mediastinal. 2. Tracheal, tracheobronchial, bronchial, pulmonary, anterior and superior mediastinal. ORGANS OF THE ENDOCRINE AND IMMUNOLOGICAL SYSTEMS 1. What endocrine glands have no control of the hypophysis? 1.Parathyroid. 2.Ovary. 3.Suprarenal. 4.Thyroid. 5.Testis. 2. What endocrine glands are developed by the superior wall of the third ventricle of the brain? 1.Epiphisis. 2. Thymus. 3.Thyroid. 4. Parathyroid. 5. Hypophysis. 3. On what surface of thyroid are parathyroid glands located? 1.On posterior. 2. On lateral. 3. On anterolateral. 4. On posteriolateral. 5. On anterior. 4. What part of the hypophysis produces thyreotrophic hormone? 1.Anterior lobe. 2. Anterior, posterior lobes. 3. Posterior lobe. 4. Isthmus. 5. Intermediate part. 5. What organ is the primary and central organ of immunogenesis? 1.Thymus gland. 2. Spleen. 3. Red marrow. 4. Suprarenal gland. 5. Liver. 6. What part of the interbrain does hypophysis belong to? 1. Hypothalamus. 2. Methatalamus. 3. Thalamus. 4. III ventricle. 5. Epythalamus. 7. How are suprarenal glands located relatively to the peritonium? 1. Extraperitonealy. 2. Intraperitonealy. 3. Retroperitonealy. 4. Mesoperitonealy. 8. What hormones are produced by neurohypophysis? 1. Vasopressin, oxytocin. 2. Vasopressin, somatotropin. 3. Thyreotropin, somatotropin. 4. Adrenocortycotrophic, gonadotrophic. 9. What hormone is produced by hypophysis? 1. Somatotrophic. 2. Adrenalin 3. Cortisone 4. Aldosterone 10. On what surface of the suprarenal gland is the hilum located? 1. Anterior 2. Posterior 3. Lateral 4. Inferior 11. In what part of the pancreas are the endocrine islets located? 1. Cauda pancreatis. 2. Caput pancreatis. 3. Corpus pancreatis. 4. Ductus pancreatis. 12. What hormones of adrenal gland are produced by the medulla of adrenal gland? 1. Adrenaline, noradrenaline. 2. Vasopressin, oxytocin. 3. Glucocorticoid, mineralocorticoid. 13. What hormones are produced by the cortex of adrenal gland? 1. Glucocorticoid, mineralocorticoid. 70 2. Adrenaline, noradrenaline 3. Vasopressin, oxytocin. 14. How many parathyroid glands are on the posterior surface of the thyroid lobe? 1. 2. 2. 4. 3. 1. 4. 5. 15. The parathyroid glands are: 1. Two superior and two inferior. 2. Two superior and one inferior. 3. Two superior and four inferior. 4. Two inferior and one superior. 16. Where is hypophysis cerebri located? 1. In the hypophysial fossa of the sphenoid bone. 2. In the hypophysial fossa of the temporal bone. 3. In the hypophysial fossa of the frontal bone. 17. The hypothalamus is subdivided into: 1. Anterior and posterior parts. 2. Anterior and superior parts. 3. Anterior and inferior parts. 18. The suprarenal glands are located on the level of: 1. Th11-Th12. 2. Th10-Th11 3. Th12- - L1 4. L1-L2. 19. Where is the bone marrow located? 1. In the tubular and spongy bones. 2. In the tubular and flat bones. 3. In the tubular and sesamoid bones. 20. What are types of the bone marrow? 1. Red and yellow. 2. Red and white. 3. Red and black. 4. Red and blue. 21. How is spleen covered by peritoneum? 1. Introperitoneally. 2. Mesoperitoneally. 3. Extraperitoneally. 22. On what level is the isthmus of the thyroid gland located? 1. II-III tracheal rings. 2. I-II tracheal rings. 3. III-IV rings. 23. Which fascia forms capsule of the thyroid gland? 1. Deep layer of the pretrachial fascia. 2. Superficial layer of the pretracheal fascia. 3. Deep layer of the prevertebral fascia. 4. Superficial layer of the prevertebral fascia. 24. How many types of the endocrine glands are in the human body? 1. 3. 2. 4. 3. 2. 4. 5. 25. The sizes of the islets of langerhans are: 1. 0,1-0,3mm. 2. 0,1-0,5mm. 3. 0,2-0,6mm. 4. 0.1-0,4mm. 71 OSTEOLOGY 1. Three separating bones 5. The wounded man has bleeding connected by the cartilage in the from branches of carotid artery. area of the pelvis cavity are For arrest bleeding carotid artery noticed on the X-ray photo of the can be compressed againts carotid newborn’s pelvis. What are these tubercle of the cervical vertebra. bones? Which cervical vertebra has the 1. Iliac, pubic, sciatic carotid tubercle? 2. Iliac sacral, coccyx 1. YI 3. Sacral, pubic, coccyx 2. Y 4. Sciatic, femoral, sacral 3. IY 5. Pubic, sciatic, femoral 4. III 5. II 2. A doctor defined sizes of the pelvis of the pregnant woman. He 6. X-ray photo of the patient shows measured the distance between big opening located on the anterior two superior anterior iliac spines. surface of the hip bone between What size of the pelvis was branches of the pubic and defined? ischiadic bones. What is this 1. Distantia spinarum. opening? 2. Distantia cristorum. 1. Obturator foramen. 3. Distantia trochanterica. 2. Greater ischiadic foramen. 4. Conjugata vera. 3. Lesser ischiadic foramen. 5. Conjugata anatomica. 7. Victim has elbow joint trauma 3. Which bone is more suitable for with avulsion of medial epicondyle the taking of medulla (bone of humerus. What nerve can be marrow) with the help of syringe hurt in this trauma? 1. Ulnar for diagnosis of some diseases? 1. Sternum. 2. Medial cutaneous nerve of 2. Humerus. forearm 3. Ribs. 3. Radial 4. Scapula. 4. Cardiac cutaneous nerve 5. Vertebrae. 5. Musculocutaneous nerve 4. An old woman fractured the 8. During the football match a humeral bone after a fall on ice player injuried his knee joint. The -covered ground. Which part of X-ray examination showed the bone is most probably fracture of the bone, which is fractured? situated in the tendon’s thick-ness 1. Surgical neck of humerus. of musculus quadriceps femoris. 2. Anatomical neck of humerus. What of the mentioned groups 3. Midlle third of humerus. does this bone belong to? 4. Inferior third of humerus. 1. Sesamoid 5. Head of humerus. 2. Tubular 3. Flat 72 4. Hollow 5. Combined 9. A child had fracture 9. A child had a fracture of the humeral bone. After this his arm began to lagging behind in growth. What part of the bone was destroyed? 1. Metaphysis. 2. Epiphysis. 3. Diaphisis. 4. Apophysis. 10. For establishment of the border between cervical and thoracic part of the vertebral column doctor must palpate and find protrude part of the VII cervical vertebra. Name this part? 1. Spinous process. 2. Transverse process. 3. Superior articular process. 4. Inferior articular process. 11. The wounded has bleeding from the branches of the carotid artery. For a temporal stopping of the bleeding the carotid artery must be pressed to the carotid tubercle of the trans-verse process f vertebra. What cervical vertebra has this process? 1. VI 2. VII 3. V 4. IV 5. III 12. As a result of blow on the lateral surface of the chest on the level of the inferior angle of the scapula a man had multiple fractures of the ribs. What ribs were hurt? 1. VI-VII. 2. VIII-IX. 3. X-XI. 4. XII. 5. I-III. 13. A man had fracture of the lower part of the fibula. Name the site of this fracture. 1. Malleolus lateralis. 2. Maleolus medialis. 3. Neck of the fibula. 4. Body of the fibula. 14. As a result of fall down a women had fracture of the process of the ulna which prevents extension of the elbow joint. Name this process: 1. Olecranon. 2. Coronoid. 3. Medial styloid. 4. Lateral styloid. 15. As a result of trauma a man had fracture of the lower lateral 1/3 of the leg. What bone is fractured? 1. Fibula 2. Tibia 3. Femur 4. Talus 5. Calcaneus 16. As a result of diving an young man hit against the bottom of a lake. After that he had acute pain of the neck, could not turn neck. What bones are injured? 1. Cervical vertebrae 2. Frontal bone 3. Hyoid bone 4. Scapula 5. Clavicula 17. The arches of the III and IV lumbar vertebrae did not fuse in the spine of the child. How is such pathology called? 1. Spina bifida 73 2. Kyphosis 3. Lordosis 4. Scoliosis 18. During examination of a child a doctor found out the left bend of the thoracic part of the vertebral column. What diagnosis can be put? 1. Left – side thoracic scoliosis 2. Right – side lumbar scoliosis 3. Thoracic lordosis 4. Lumbar kyphosis 19. What curvatures of the vertebral column must be formed by 11,5 months of a child ? 1. Cervical lordosis, thoracic kyphosis, lumbar lordosis, sacrococcygeal kyphosis 2. Cervical lordosis, thoracic lordosis, lumbar kyphosis, sacrococcygeal kyphosis 3. Cervical kyphosis, thoracic lordosis, lumbar kyphosis, sacrococcygeal lordosis 20. The victim has trauma of the internal surface of middle third of the leg. The fracture of what anatomical structure is most credible? 1. Diaphisis of tibia 2. Proximal epiphysis of fibula 3. Distal epiphysis of tibia 4. Proximal epiphysis of tibia 5. Distal epiphysis of fibula 21. A child has spinal hernia at the level of XII thoracic vertebra. What anatomical structure didn’t fuse? 1. Arch of vertebra 2. Body of vertebra 3. Intervertebral disk 4. Articular processes 5. Spinal process 22. During examination of victim girl doctor found out a bruise of the inferior part of sacral region. What bone is fractured? 1. Coccygeal bone 2. Femur 3. The ischium bone 4. The pubic bone 5. Sternum 23. The defect of the spinal column (fissura of right peduncles of the arches of I-II thoracic vertebrae) was determined after X-ray exami-nation. What can be diagnosed at patient? 1. Spina bifida 2. Fracture of skull’s base 3. Thoracic kyphosis 4. Thoracic lordosis 5. Fracture of arches of I-II thoracic vertebrae 24. As result of trauma a child has bruise on the left side of chest, painfulness during pal-pation and crepitation at the left side of chest. What bones can be injured? 1. Ribs 2. Thoracic vertebrae 3. Clavicula 4. Scapula 5. Sternum 25. A patient has flat chest (small chest’s circumference). For what type of body constitution is such form characteristic? 1. Dolichomorphic 2. Brachyomorphic 3. Mesomorphic 4. Dolichocephalic 5. Brachycephalic 26. Victim has deformation in the middle third of lateral surface of the left leg. The ends of trihedral 74 4. Lunate bone. 31. There was a trauma of a vertebral column.The blood supply a posterior part of a brain was disturbed. What part of the vertebral column has undergone to trauma? 1. Cervical part 2. Thoracic part 3. Lumbar part 4. Sacral part 5. Coccygeal part 32. On X-ray film it is revealed a cleft in the region of middle part of the sacrum posteriorly. Before that clinical signs has not been revealed. As a result of nonunion what processes of the sacral vertebrae this cleft was formed? 1. Spinous. 2. Transverse 3. Articular 4. Accessory 33. The patient was ill with a pneumonia after which the pleuritis has developed. How it is necessary to make a puncture of the pleural cavity? 1. Along the superior edge of a rib 2. Along the inferior edge of the rib 3. Between spinous processes of thoracic vertebrae 4. Between transverse processes of thoracic vertebrae 5. Between articular processes of thoracic vertebrae 34. A 20 years old man complains of a pain in the inferior region of the breast bone. From anamnesis: jumped from a tower in water and has hit on a stone and feel discomfort in this region. Fracture of what formation of a breast bone bone are visible from wound. What bone can be fractured? 1. Fibula 2. Tibia 3. Femur 4. Patella 5. Talus 27. Old man had fracture of femur. Name the most credible site of fracture: 1. Neck of the femur 2. Upper third of the femur 3. Lower third of the femur 4. Condulus of the femur 5. Diaphisis of the femur 28. Three parts of hip bone separated by wide gaps are visible on roentgenogram. What age is it characteristic for? 1. To 16 years 2. To 36 years 3. To 46 years 4. To 40 years 5. To 50 years 29. Fractures often occur in the region of surgical neck of a bone. What bone does surgical neck have? 1. Humerus 2. Radius 3. Femur 4. Fibula 5. Ulna 30. During basketball match a player injured his hand in the carpal region. The X-ray examination showed fracture of the bone located in the tendon of one flexor muscle of the forearm. Name this bone: 1. Pisiform bone. 2. Scaphoid bone. 3. Trapezium bone. 75 has taken place during the jump? 1. Xiphoid process 2. Handle of the sternum 3. Angle of the sternum 4. Body of the sternum 35. At falling on the right hand adducted to a trunk the victim has felt a crunch and acute pain in the superior third of right arm. Movement in the arm is not possible; its superior third is deformated. What bones can be injured? 1. Humerus 2. Sternum 3. Scapula 4. Clavicle 5. Ribs 36. 45 years patient has a trauma of the posterior region of middle third of humerus. What bony formation is injured in this case? 1. Groove of the radial nerve 2. Groove of the biceps brachii muscle 3. Groove of the median nerve 4. Groove of the humeral nerve 5. Groove of the ulnar nerve 37. An young man has fallen to the right arm. After one day he has addressed to the traumatologist with complaints on a severe pain in elbow joint. At medical examination: edema, morbidity in the region of posterior part of elbow joint. What process and what bone has undergone to a trauma? 1. Olecranon of the ulna 2. Styloid process of the ulna 3. Coronoid process of the ulna 4. Styloid process of the radius 38. After trauma a patient had morbidity, edema and hematoma of medial part of the wrist . What bone of the wrist has most likely undergone to a trauma? 1. Pisiform 2. Cuboid 3. Capitate 4. Trapezoid 5. Scaphoid 39. There was a road accident after which 30 years woman has morbidity at a palpation in the region of anterior part of the hip bone. What pelvic bone is injured? 1. Pubic 2. Ischium 3. Ilium 4. Sacral 5. Femur 40. 78-years woman has trauma one of free lower limb bones after falling. Nutrition of the head of this bone is disturbed. Objective findings: swelling, palpatory tenderness, haematoma within upper segment of free lower limb. Which bone is traumatized? 1. Femur. 2. Fibula. 3. Tibia. 4. Talus. 5. Calcaneus. 41. After trauma a patient had edema and hematoma on the medial side of superior third of the leg. Which part at what bone of the leg was injured ? 1. Metaphyseal zone of a tibia 2. Diaphysis of a fibula 3. Metaphyseal zone of a fibula 4. Diaphysis of a tibia 5. Apophysis of a tibia 76 42. A man got trauma as the result of direct impact on internal surface of the middle third of shin. Fracture of what anatomic formation is most possible? 1. Diaphysis of a tibia 2. Distal epiphysis of a fibula 3. Distal epiphysis of a tibia 4. Proximal epiphysis of a tibia 5. Proximal epiphysis of a fibula 43. A patient of 45 years complains of a pain in region of foot. At medical investigation: oedema, morbidity, and a hematoma on the medial side of a dorsum of a foot. The patient cannot step on a sick limb. Fracture of what tarsal bones is most probably in this case? 1. Navicular 2. Calcaneus 3. Cuboid 4. Lateral cuneiform 5. Talus 44. An older women has been hospitalised with acute pain and edema of the right hip joint that appeared after a fall. Objectively: the hip is adducted inwards, hip joint movements are impaired. The patient is most likely to have a fracture of the following bone or bone part: 1. Femoral neck 2. Shaft of femur 3. Ichial bone 4. Pubic bone 5. Condyle of femur 45. A 25 year old patient was examined by a medical board. Examination revealed pathology of the chest. Transverse dimensions were small and the sternum was strongly protruding. What chest tipe is it? 1. Keeled chest 2. Funnel chest 3. Flat chest 4. Cylindrical chest 5. Barrel chest 46. A casuality has a fracture in the region of the inner surface of the left ankle. What is the most likely site for the fracture? 1. Medial malleolus 2. Lower third of the fibula 3. Astragalus 4. Lateral malleolus 5. Calcaneus SKULL 2. Infundibulum of the ethmoid bone. 3. Pterygo-palate foramen. 4. Pterygo-ethmoid depression. 5. Bony air cells of the ethmoid bone. 2. The patient has rhinitis and symptoms of the inflammation of the mucous coat of the frontal 1. The patient has rhinitis and symptoms of the inflammation of the mucous coat of the maxillary sinus. Through which structure the infection can pass from the nasal cavity into the maxillary sinus? 1.Hiatus sinus maxillaris. 77 2. Interpterygoid space. 3. Frontal sinus. 4. Interaponeurotical temporal space. 5. Tympanic cavity. 6. After an acute rhinitis the patient has difficult nasal respiration, increasing of the temperature, headache and pain in the region of the right fossa canina. The inflammation of what sinus starts? 1. Sinus maxillaris dexter. 2. Sinus frontalis dexter. 3. Sinus maxillaris sinister. 4. Sinus sphenoidalis dexter. 5. Right middle air cells of the ethmoid bone. 7. A patient has a pus inflammation of the mucous coat of the frontal sinus. Where will pus spread? 1. Middle nasal passage. 2. Superior nasal passage. 3. Inferior nasal passage. 4. Choanae. 8. A patient complained to the nasal papilloma. A doctor determined that it is located at the formation under which the nasolacrimal canal opens. What is this formation? 1. Inferior nasal concha. 2. Superior nasal concha. 3. Sphenoethmoid depression. 4. Ethomoid bull. 5. Middle turbinated bone. 9. A patient has a headache during 5 days. A doctor found-«maxillary sinusitis». From what nasal passage can infection pass? 1. Middle. 2. Upper. 3. Lower. sinus. Through which structure the infection can pass from the nasal cavity into the frontal sinus? 1. Infundibulum of the ethmoid bone. 2. Semilunar fissure. 3. Pterygo-palate foramen. 4. Pterygo-ethmoid depression. 5. Bony air cells of the ethmoid bone. 3. The patient has rhinitis and symptoms of the inflammation of the mucous coat of the sphenoid sinus. Through which structure the infection can pass from the nasal cavity into the sphenoid sinus? 1. Orifice of the sphenoid sinus. 2. Semilunar fissure. 3. Pterygo-palate foramen. 4. Semilunar fissure. 5. Bony air cells of the ethmoid bone. 4. During examination of the nasal cavity the doctor detected pus in the middle nasal passage. What paranasal sinuses can take this inflammation? 1. Maxillary and frontal sinuses, anterior and middle air cells of the ethmoid bone. 2. Maxillary and sphenoid sinuses. 3. Frontal and sphenoid sinuses, anterior and posterior air cells of the ethmoid bone. 4. Anterior, middle and posterior air cells of the ethmoid bone. 5. Sphenoid sinus, posterior air cells of the ethmoid bone. 5. A patient has abscess of the pterygopalate fossa. Where can the infection pass? 1. Orbit 78 4. Common. 5. Nasopharynx. 10. A patient has inflammation of a fat of the eye-socket. He has purulent inflammation in the region of the infraorbital opening. Through what canal can infection pass? 1. Canalis infraorbitalis. 2. Canalis incisivus. 3. Canalis pterygoideus musseter m. 4. Fissure orbitalis inferior. 5. Canalis nasolacrimalis. 11. There is purulent otitis in a patient.The upper wall of the tympanic cavity is broken. Where can pus spread from the tympanic cavity in this case? 1. In middle cranial fossa. 2. In front cranial fossa. 3. In pterygoid fossa. 4. In orbita. 5. In back cranial fossa. 12. After trauma there was a purulent inflammation of soft tissues of the orbit. Through what anatomical formation will pus pass to the pterygopala-tine fossa? 1. Fissure orbitalis inferior. 2. Pterygopalatine opening. 3. Fissure orbitalis superior. 4. Zigomaticoorbital opening. 5. Round opening. 13. Right maxillary sinus has an accumulation of the pus. In which nasal passage will the pus pass? 1. In a right middle nasal passage. 2. In a right nasopharyngeal passage. 3. In a right lower nasal passage. 4. In a right upper nasal passage. 5. In a right common nasal passage. 14. After an infectious disease of the respiratory apparatus, pain appeared in the area of the frontal bone. Where is the inflammation located? 1. Frontal sinus. 2. Superior nasal concha. 3. Sphenoidal sinus. 4. Maxillary sinus. 5. Superior nasal passage. 15. During the examination of the nasal cavity of a patient accumulation of the pus in the inferior nasal passage was detected. Into which of mentioned formations may the inflammatory process proceed? 1. Nasolacrimal canal. 2. Highmore sinus. 3. Frontal sinus. 4. Sphenoid sinus. 5. Ethmoid sinus. 16. The patient was admitted to the department for the correct of the nasal septa deformity. Which of the mentioned bones form the nasal septum? 1. Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone, vomer. 2. Horisontal plate of palatine bone, vomer. 3. Inferior nasal concha, vomer. 4. Perpendicular plate of palatine bone, vomer. 17. An X-ray photo revealed the shading and presence of liquid in the right maxillary sinus. Maxillary sinusitis was diagnosed. Doctor should do the puncture of the sinus for the extraction of the pus. Into which of the mentioned formations should the needle be introduced for puncture? 1. Medial nasal passage. 2. General nasal passage. 79 3. Inferior nasal passage. 4. Nasal vestibule. 5. Upper nasal passage. 18. The doctor predicts the probability of inflammation of the orbital cellular tissue during the inflammation in the area of fossa canina. Through which formation can the infection spread? 1. Infraorbital canal. 2. Inferior orbital fossura. 3. Pterygoid canal. 4. Nasolacrimal canal. 5. Incisivus canal. 19. Due to the tumor of the hypophysis, destruction and enlargement of the fossa hypophysialis was detected during X-ray examination. Which structure can be destroyed? 1. Sinus of the sphenoid bone. 2. Sinus of the frontal bone. 3. Sinus of the maxilla. 4. Optic canal. 5. Tympanic cavity. 20. After trauma of the head, the pyramid of patient’s temporal bone was broken. The line of fracture was perpendicular to the axis of the pyramid, on the lateral side from internal auditory opening. Which canal of the temporal bone can be destroyed? 1. Facial canal. 2. Mastoid canal. 3. Tympanic canal. 4. Canalicilus of chorda tympani nerve. 5. Semicircular canals of labyrinth. 21. After a nasopharyngeal inflammation, acute pain appeared in the right ear of 2-year-old boy. During exami-nation, the inflammation of middle ear was detected. Through which anatomical formation can the infection pass to the cavity of middle ear from the nasopharynx? 1. Semicanal of auditory tube. 2. Canaliculus of chorda tympani nerve. 3. Canaliculus tympanicus. 4. Caroticotympanic canaliculi. 5. Semicanal of tensor tympanic m. 22. In a car accident the passenger injured the left eyebrow. During the examination of the nasal cavity, blood discharging from the left side of middle nasal passage was detected. The fracture of which formation is possible? 1. Fracture of the wall of frontal sinus. 2. Fracture of sphenoid sinus. 3. Damage of nasolacrimal canal. 4. Damage of labyrinths of ethmoid bone. 5. Fracture of maxillary sinus. 23. After a fall, victim felt pain in occipital area. The fracture of which bone is suspected? 1. Occipital bone. 2. Parietal bone. 3. Temporal bone. 4. Frontal bone. 5. Sphenoid bone. 24. A cranial trauma caused the fracture of the sphenoid bone at the base of the pterygoid process. The content of which canal can be destroyed? 1. Pterygoid. 2. Musculotubarian. 3. Tympanic. 4. Carotid. 5. Facial. 80 4. From posterior cells of ethmoid bone to the upper nasal passage. 5. From frontal sinus to the middle nasal passage. 28. In a car accident the passenger injured the right surface of the face. During X- ray examination the fracture of the zygomatic arch was detected. Which bones form zygomatic arc? 1. Zygomatic process of the temporal bone and temporal process of the zygomatic bone. 2. Zygomatic process of the temporal bone and frontal process of the maxilla. 3. Zygomatic process of the maxilla and temporal process of the zygomatic bone. 29. A 5 year child has the purulent inflammation of the middle ear. The disease began with inflammation of the nasopharynx. Through what canal of the temporal bone did the infection pass to the tympanic cavity? 1. Canalis musculo-tubarius 2. Canalis caroticus 3. Canaliculus tympanici 4. Canalis chorda tympani 5. Canaliculi carotico-tympanici 30. Examination of a patient revealed an abscess of the pterygopalatine fossa. Where can the infection spread to unless the disease is managed in time? 1. To the orbit 2. To the subgaleal temporal space 3. To the interpterygoid space 4. To the frontal sinus 5. To the tympanic cavity 31. At road accident the lachrymal gland together with the bone, on 25. For a long time patient has been suffering from the inflammation of mucous membrane of the labyrinths of the ethmoid bone. Other paranasal sinuses are not injured. In which formation can the doctor find the inflammatory secret. 1. In upper and middle nasal passages. 2. In inferior and middle nasal passages. 3. Only in inferior nasal passage. 4. Only in middle nasal passage. 5. In mandibular sinus. 26. An abscess located deep in infratemporal fossa, partially penetrates the pterygopalatine fossa. Through which formations will the inflammatory process probably spread? 1. Sphenopalatine and round openings, great palatine and pterygoid canals, infraorbital fissure. 2. Jugular and lacerum openings, great palatine and pterygoid canals. 3. Pterygopalatine and round openings, optic and infraorbital canals. 27. Patient complains of the pain in the right side of face. Xray examination of the head showed shading in the right side of the maxillary body. Chronic exudative maxillitis was diagnosed. From which formation and where can the inflammation spread? 1. From maxillary sinus to the middle nasal passage. 2. From nasolacrimal canal to the inferior nasal passage. 3. From incisor canal to the inferior nasal passage. 81 5. Sphenoid 36. A patient had an inflammation of a mucosa of a nose. Disease has become complicated by an inflammation of conjunctiva of the eye. Through what anatomical formation an infection may spread? 1. Nasolacrimal canal. 2. Sphenopalatine foramen. 3. Hiatus semilunaris. 4. Greater palatine canal. 5. Lesser palatine canal. 37. At the patient the complete blindness has appeared after a road accident. What canal has been damaged? 1. Optic canal 2. Superior orbital fissure 3. Inferior orbital fissure 4. Nasolacrimal canal 38. As a result of road accident there was a fracture in the region of the central part of the base of the skull. What bone is damaged at a trauma? 1. Spheniod 2. Frontal 3. Temporal 4. Parietal 5. Ethmoid 39. How inflammatory process may spread from occipital region into the cranial cavity? 1. Via condyloid canal. 2. Via parietal foramen. 3. Via mastoid foramen. 4. Via foramen spinosum. 5. Via foramen ovale. 40. Dissolution of which orbital wall may be happen as a result of the maxillar inflammation? 1. Inferior. which it is situated are damaged. What bone is damaged? 1. Frontal 2. Maxilla 3. Lachrymal 4. Nasal 5. Ethmoid 32. A patient has fracture of the base of the skull. The line of fracture passes through round and spine openings. What bone is injured? 1. Sphenoid. 2. Temporal. 3. Frontal. 4. Ethmoid. 5. Occipital 33. A victim has right-side fracture of middle third of mandible. What canal can be injured? 1. Mandibular. 2. Greater palatine. 3. Pterygoid. 4. Infraorbital. 5. Lesser palatine. 34. At a trauma of the maxilla the numbness is marked in the region of the upper molars. What formations are damaged? 1. Alveolar foramens of maxilla 2. Infraorbital canal 3. Ethmoid aperture of maxilla 4. Infraorbital foramen of maxilla 5. Supraorbital foramen of maxilla 35. After a trauma in the region of the nose a woman complains of the absence of smelling, an edema of mucous layer of the nose. What bone of a skull is damaged? 1. Ethmoid 2. Frontal 3. Zygomatic 4. Temporal 82 2. Superior. 3. Medial. 4. Lateral. 5. Posterior. 41. What is a most probable source of spreading of purulent inflammation into mastoid cells? 1. Tympanic cavity. 2. Sterno-cleido-mastoid muscle. 3. Posterior cranial fossa 4. Middle cranial fossa. 42. A patient has an inflammation in the pterygopalatine fossa. The infection has spread into the nasal cavity. Which anatomical structure has the infection spread through? 1. Foramen sphenopalatinum 2. Foramen rotundum 3. Canalis palatines major 4. Canalis palatines minor 43. Underdvelopment of which parts of facial skeleton in the embryonal period is the reason for such malformation as cleft palate? 1. Palatine processes 2. Frontal processes 3. Frontal and maxillary processes 4. Mandibular processes 5. Mandibular and palatine processes 44. A 5 year old child was admitted to the ENT department with suppurative inflammation of middle ear (tympanitis).It began with the inflammation of nasopharynx. Through what canal of temporal bone did the infection get into tympanic cavity? 1. Musculotubal canal 2. Small canal of chorda tympani 3. Caroticotympanic foramina 4. Small tympanic canal 5. Carotid canal 45. The surgical department admitted a newborn girl who choked during sucking. Examination revealed cleft palate arising from non-union of the middle frontal process and maxillary process of the 1-st branchial arch. The cleft was located in the palate between: 1. Os incisivum et processus palatines maxillae 2. Processus palatines maxillae dextrae et sinistrae 3. Lamina horizontalis os palatinum dextrum et sinistrum 4. Processus palatines maxillae et lamina 46. X-ray examination revealed an accumulation of suppuration in maxillary sinus. Into what nasal meatus the suppuration excretes? 1. Median nasal 2. Nasopharyngeal 3. Inferior nasal 4. Superior nasal 5. Common nasal 47. An eye trauma caused soft tissues infection of eye-socket. Through what anatomical formation can the infection penetrate into the middle cranial fossa? 1. Through the superior orbital fissure 2. Through the anterior ethmoidal foramen 3. Through the posterior ethmoidal foramen 4. Through the inferior orbital fissure 5. Through the zygomatic orbital foramen 48. Examination of a 6 month-old child revealed a delay in closure of 83 3. Until 6 months 4. Until the first year of life 5. Until the end of the second year of life the occipital fontanelle. When it should be normally closed? 1. Until 3 months 2. Before the child is born ARTHROLOGY 1. The anterior fonticulus wasn’t closed in 2 years child. In what age bones of the skull must be joined? 1. On the 2 year of the life 2. On the 4-6 months of the life 3. On the 1 year of the life 4. On the 2-3 months of the life 5. On the 3 year of the life 2. It’s necessary to examine a cerebrospinal fluid in 45 year patient with suspicion on inflammation of the brain’s meninges. Diagnostic puncture was done between the arches of lumbar vertebrae (L3-L4). What ligament must needle penetrate? 1. Ligamentum flava 2. Ligamentum iliolumbalis 3. Ligamentum longitudinale anterior 4. Ligamentum intertransversus 5. Ligamentum longitudinale posterior 3. A victim has the compression break of the lumbar vertebra. Lordosis was multiplied sharply. What ligament is injured in such case? 1. Ligamentum longitudinale anterior 2. Ligamentum flava 3. Ligamentum iliolumbalis 4. Ligamentum intertransversus 5. Ligamentum longitudinale posterior 4. On the X –ray photo there are damages of bodies of two lumbar vertebrae. What anatomical structure which connects the bodies of vertebrae was hurt? 1. Intervertebral discus 2. Ligamentum longitudinale posterior 3. Ligamentum intertransversaria 4. Ligamentum longitudinale anterior 5. Ligamentum sacrococcygea 5. The X-ray examination shows a changing in the intervertebral disk of the thoracic part of the vertebral column. In what type of the connection pathological changes are present? 1. Synchondrosis 2. Syndesmosis 3. Synostosis 4. Symphisis 6. The X-ray examination shows a hernia of the intervertebral disk of the thoracic part of the spine. What articulations have pathological process? 1. Synchondrosis 2. Symphisis 3. Syndesmosis. 7. What type of connection a doctor must do during applying of a bandage to support the lower jaw for a patient with fracture of the lower jaw? 1. Combined 84 2. Complex 3. Simple 4. Complicated 8. Dentist doctor puts his thumbs on the masticatory surfaces of the lower molars of patient, takes the lower edge of the mandibule by second fingers and strongly pulls it down. What trauma does doctor treat? 1. Dislocation of the lower jaw 2. Fracture of the foundation of the lower jaw 3. Fracture of the body of the lower jaw 4. Arthrosis of the temporomandibular joint 9. A patient has the displacement of the acromial end of the clavicle. During pressure clavicle moves downward. What ligaments are injured? 1. Lig. coracoclaviculare, lig.coracoacromiale 2. Lig. costoclaviculare, lig. sternoclaviculare posterior 3. Lig. coracohumerale, lig. sternoclaviculare anterior 10. As a result of falling down from the high place a patient has got a trauma. The muscles of the shoulder girdle are tensed, the clavicular acromial end protrudes sharply, the head of the humerus is under clavicle. What diagnosis can be put? 1. Dislocation of the shoulder joint 2. Dislocation of the acromioclavicular joint 3. Dislocation of the sternoclavicular joint 4. Fracture of the humeral bone 5. Fracture of the scapula 11. At a victim in the crash there is posttraumatic dislocation of the shoulder joint. What ligament is injured? 1. Lig. coracohumerale 2. Lig. acromioclaviculare 3. Lig. sternoclaviculare 4. Lig. transversus 5. Tendon of the long head of m. biceps brachii 12. A 10 years boy has a fracture of bones of the forearm. A child can’t do supination and pronantion of the forearm. In what joints such movements can be? 1. Art. radioulnaris proximalis, art. radioulnaris distalis 2. Art. radioulnaris proximalis, art. cubiti. 3. Art. radioulnaris proximalis, art. radiocarpea. Synchondrosis 13. After trauma patient has rupture of the pubic symphysis . What type of the articulation has suffered? 1. Hemiartrosis 2. 4 longitudinal, 1 transverse. 3. Syndesmosis 4. Synchondrosis. 14. After trauma in the pelvis region X- ray examination of the patient showed the necrosis of the femoral head. Which ligament containing artery was destroyed? 1. Lig.capitis femoris 2. Lig.iliofemorale 3. Lig.pubofemorale 4. Lig.ishiofemorale. 15. A patient has fracture of the femoral neck. There is abnormal 85 position of the femoral head. What structure is damaged? 1. Zona orbicularis 2. N.femoralis 3. A.obturatoria. 16. A footballer fell down on the knee joint and injured leg. Which structures are injured most probably? 1. Menisci of the knee joint 2. Neck of the femur 3. Ligaments of the knee joint 17. A skier fell down on the right bended knee with pronation of the leg. He was hospitalized with acute pain. The mechanism of this trauma is characteristic at a defeat of: 1. Meniscus lateralis 2. Meniscus medialis 3. Lig.transversum genus 4. Lig.cruciatum anterius. 18. After trauma of the knee joint few synovial bursae of this joint were hurt. How many synovial bursae surround knee joint? 1. 7. 2. 6. 3. 5. 4. 8. 19. After trauma a man complains of pathological movements in knee joint – anteroposterior dislocation of the leg relative to thigh (so called “compartment” symptom). What ligaments of the knee joint are injured? 1. Ligg.cruciatum 2. Lig.popliteum arcuatum 3. Membrana interosseum 4. Lig.collaterale 20. Footballer complains of pain in right knee joint. During examination doctor detects dislocation of lateral meniscus. What ligament was injured? 1. Lig.transversum genus 2. Lig.popliteum obliquumn 3. Lig.popliteum arcuatum 4. Lig.patellae 21. A victim has fracture in region of inner surface of left ankle joint. What structure is destroyed? 1. Malleolus medialis 2. Fibula 3. Talus 4. Malleolus lateralis. 22. After trauma of the foot, a patient was operated (disarticulation in Chopar’s joint) The “key” of this joint is: 1. Lig.bifurcatum 2. Lig.talocalcaneum interosseum 3. Lig.cuneocuboideum interosseum 4. Ligg.plantaria. 23. The patient with diabetes mellitus (sugar disease) had gangrene of the foot. The doctor carried out operation in the region of “ Chopar’s” joint. What ligament must doctor cut? 1. Lig.bifurcatum 2. Lig.cuneocuboideum dorsale 3. Lig.talocalcaneum laterale 4. Lig.talocalcaneum interosseum 24. What anatomic feature of newborn contributes in formation of head’s bruise at labor trauma? 1. Presence of fontanelles 2. Mobility of bones which form the vault of skull 3. Weak development of fatty layer of the head’s skin 25. The patient has intra-articular fracture of the femur′s neck with 86 30. A diagnosis “flat foot” was put to 5 years boy. Few longitudinal arches of his foot were not normal. How many arches are on the foot? 1. 5 longitudinal, 1 transverse. 2. 4 longitudinal, 1 transverse 3 .6 longitudinal, 2 transverse. 31. After trauma of the man’s elbow joint X-ray photo shows the destruction of the capitulum humeri. What part of the elbow joint is formed by the capitulum humeri? 1. Articulation humeroradialis. 2. Articulatio humeroulnaris. 3. Articulatio radioulnaris 32. Under laminectomy (removing of vertebral arch) surgeon has to remove ligaments connecting arches. Which ones? 1. Yellow ligament. 2. Posterior longitudinal ligament. 3. Interspinous ligaments. 4. Anterior longitudinal ligament. 5. Intertransverse ligaments. 33. For reposition of dislocation of a mandible it is necessary to move it from superior to inferior. What anatomic formation causes such action? 1. Articular tubercle of temporal bone. 2. Condyloid process of mandible. 3. Mandibular fossa of temporal bone. 4. Notch of mandible. 5. Coronoid process of mandible. 34. The child is about 2 years old. Mother has addressed to the pediatrist with the complaint to revealing of soft area on the anterior part of the skull-cap. the asymmetry of its head. What structure is broken? 1. Lig. capitis femoris 2. Lig. Iliofemorale 3. N. femoralis 4. N. obturatorius 5. A. obturatoria 26. An old woman was hospitalized with acute pain, edema in the right hip joint; the movements in the joint are limited. Which bone or part of it was broken? 1. The neck of the thigh 2. The body of the thigh bone 3. Pubic bone 4. Condyle of the thigh 5. Ischial bone 27. During the operation of the hip joint one ligament, which caused bleeding was cut. What is it? 1. Lig. capitis femoris. 2. Lig. iliofemoralis 3. lig. pubofemoralis 4. Lig.ischiofemoralis. 28. A 45-years man fell on the right knee and felt the acute pain in the joint. On examination: severe edema on the anterior surface of the knee joint. Crunching sounds are heard while moving the joint. Which bone is destroyed? 1. Knee-cap 2. Neck of the thigh bone 3. Head of the thigh bone 4. Left epicondyle of the thigh 5. Right epicondyle of the thigh 29. A doctor carries out operation of the Lisfranc’s joint. This joint is formed by the aggregation of the: 1. Tarsometatarsal joints. 2. Intermetatarsal joints. 3. Metatarsophalangeal joints. 87 What fontanelle was not closed by this time? 1. Anterior (frontal) fontanelle 2. Posterior (occipital) fontanelle 3. Anterior and posterior fontanelle 4. Anterio-lateral (clinoid) fontanelle 5. Posterio-lateral (mastoid) fontanelle 35. After falling at the child the anterior fontanelle has been injured. What kind of connection of skull bones was broken? 1. Syndesmosis 2. Synchondrosis 3. Synostosis 4. Hemiarthrosis 36. At a patient there is bilateral dislocation of temporomandibular joint. What the basic ligaments of a joint will be damaged? 1. Lateral ligaments. 2. Pterygomandibular ligament. 3. Stylomandibular ligament. 4. Intraarticular ligaments. 37. As a result of pathologic labor separation of pubic bones was diagnosed. . What type of bone connection was damaged ? 1. Symphysis. 2. Syndesmosis. 3. Synchondrosis. 4. Synostosis. 5. Diarthrosis. 38. On operation the fracture of a femur within a joint cavity with blood is found out. What ligament of a hip joint is damaged? 1. Ligament of femoral head . 2. Transverse. 3. Pubofemoral. 4. Iliofemoral. 5. Ischiofemoral. 39. X ray examination revealed fracture of bone placed within quadriceps femoris muscle tendon. What kind of bone is it? 1. Sesamoid. 2. Flat. 3. Tubular. 4. Pneumatic. 5. Mixed. 40. Examination of a 6-month-old child revealed a delay in closure of the occipital fontanelle. When should it normally close? 1. Until 3 months. 2. Until the end of the first year of life. 3. Before the child is born. 4. Until the end of the second year of life. 5. Until 6 months. 41. It is necessary to take the cerebrospinal fluid from a patient with suspected inflammation of brains maninges. Diagnostic puncture was performed between the arches of the lumbar vertebrae. During the puncture the needle went through the following ligament: 1. Yellow (flava) 2. Iliolumbar 3. Anterior longitudinal 4. Posterior longitudinal 5. Intertransverse 42. A victim of a road accident has an abruption of a part of mandibular angle, displacement of fragment backwards and upwards. What ligament is responsible for this displacement? 1. Stylomandibular 2. Intraarticular 3. Lateral 88 4. Sphenomandibular 5. Pterygomandibular 43. During the operation on the hip joint of a 5-years-old child her ligament was damaged which caused bleeding. What ligament was damaged? 1. Ligament of the femoral head 2. Iliofemoral ligament 3. Pubofemoral ligament 4. Ischiofemoral ligament 44. A 6-year-old child fell on the cutting object and traumatized soft tissues between tibia and fibula. What kind of bone connection was injured? 1. Membrane 2. Suture 3. Ligament 4. Fontanel 5. Gomphosis 45. A boxer who got a punch in the region of temporomandibular joint has a traumatic dislocation of the mandible. Displacement of what articular surfaces will overstep the limits of physiological norm? 1. Head of mandible and mandibular fossa 2. Coronoid process and pterygoid fossa 3. Coronoid process and submandibular fossa 4. Head of mandible and submandibular fossa 5. Neck of mandible and submandibular fossa MYOLOGY 2. M. rhomboideus major 3. M. levator scapulae 4. M. trapezius 5. M. subscapularis 3. The split on the posterior surface of the humerus was diagnosed. There were symptoms of the affection of the radial nerve in the region of the humeromuscular canal. Which of the following structures form the walls of this canal? 1. Posterior surface of the humerus and m. triceps brachii. 2. Anterior surface of the humerus and m. biceps brachii. 3. Anterior surface of the humerus and m. coracobrachialis. 4. Anterior surface of the humerus and m. brachialis. 1. A patient was admitted with complaints of pain in the left half of the neck, which increases during movements of the head. The declination of the head to the left side with the face turned to the right side gives pain. The action of which muscle is disturbed? 1. Left sternocleidomastoid muscle. 2. Right sternocleidomastoid muscle. 3. Right platisma muscle. 4. Left platisma muscle. 5. Long muscle of the neck. 2. Young man feels a pain in the back during active tightening on the horizontal bar. Objectively: pain while moving of upper extremity, limited pronation and adduction functions. Strained of what muscle is present? 1. M. latissimus dorsi 89 5. Posterior surface of the humerus and m. anconeus. 4. A patient had a foreign object in his respiratory tract. Tracheostomy was formed in the region of the neck, which is bounded by the superior belly of the omohyoid muscle, by the sternocleidomastoid muscle and by the middle line of the neck. How is this triangle called? 1. Omotracheale. 2. Caroticum. 3. Submandibulare. 4. Omotrapezoideum. 5. Omoclaviculare. 5. A tennis player had the inflammation of the tendon of one of the muscle of the shoulder girdle which is caused by the friction of this tendon with the acromion of the scapula. Name this muscle. 1. M. supraspinatus 2. M. subscapularis. 3. M. infraspinatus. 4. M. teres major. 5. M. deltoideus. 6. The lateral part of the face of 18 years patient was traumatized after the fight. During examination a doctor determined that the skin is traumatized, the branch of the lower jaw is broken. Only one muscle is not injured (it does not raise a lower jaw). What is this muscle? 1. Lateral pterygoid muscle. 2. Anterior bundles of the temporal muscle. 3. Middle bundles of the temporal muscle. 4. Medial pterygoid muscle. 7. After trauma a patient does not move the lower jaw to the front and to the right. What muscle is injured? 1. Left lateral pterygoid m. 2. Left masseter m. 3. Right temporal m. 4. Left temporal m. 8. A patient complains of a pain in the region of the left part of the neck which increases during movements of the head. Movements are not trouble for the patient: a slope of the face to the left with turning of the head to the right. What muscle is injured in this case? 1. M. sternocleidomastoideus sinistra. 2. M. sternocleidomastoideus dextra. 3. M. platisma dextra. 4. M. platisma sinistra. 5. M. longus colli. 9. A patient cannot extend elbow joint. What muscle is hurt? 1. Triceps m. 2. Biceps m. 3. Brachial m. 4. Coracobrachial m. 5. Brachioradial m. 10. After trauma a sick man can’t move by the shoulder to the back. Which muscles are hurt? 1. M. deltoideus. 2. M. infraspinatus. 3. M. levator scapule. 4. M. teres major. 5. M. subscapularis. 11. A weak place of the anterior abdominal wall is an umbilical ring. Which elements of a structure of the anterior abdominal wall are absent here? 90 1. Aponeurosis. 2. Superficial fascia. 3. Own fascia. 4. Internal fascia. 5. Peritoneum. 12. During trauma in the region of the processus coronoideus of the lower jaw a sick man does not move the jaw backwards from foreward position. Which muscle is injured? 1. M. temporalis. 2. M. masseter. 3. M. pterygoideus lateralis. 4. M. pterygoideus medialis. 5. M. levator anguli oris. 13. During examination of a patient the function of a closing of eye-slit breaks. Which muscle is injured? 1. M. orbicularis oculi. 2. M. procerus. 3. M. orbicularis oris. 4. M. corrugator supercilii. 5. M. depressor supercilii. 14. A 52 years man has hernial protrusion on the lower part of the anterior abdominal wall. Through which anatomical formation the hernia protrusion was formed more probably? 1. Canalis inguinalis. 2. Anulus femoralis. 3. Anulus umbilicalis. 4. Linea alba. 5. Lig. inguinalis. 15. A 42 years old sick man came to the hospital with a cut wound of the low part of the front surface of the arm. He does not bend the forearm. Which muscles are hurt? 1. M. brachialis, m. biceps brachii. 2. M. biceps brachii, m. anconeus. 3. M. coracobrachialis, m. supraspinatus. 4. M. deltoideus, m. infraspinatus. 5. M. deltoideus, m. biceps brachii. 16. After a trauma of the lateral surface of the head, the condylar and coronoid processes of the lower jaw were fractured. Actions of which muscles are hurt? 1. Lateral pterygoid, temporal. 2. Masseter, temporal. 3. Medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid. 4. Buccal, temporal. 17. In an injury the middle part of the biceps muscle of the arm was ruptured. Which actions of the upper limb are disordered? 1. Flexion in shoulder joint, flexion in elbow joint. 2. Flexion in shoulder joint, extension in elbow joint. 3. Extension in shoulder joint, supination of forearm. 4. Pronation of forearm. 18. After an intramuscular injection abscess in the patient's gluteus maximus muscle was formed. What actions of the hip joint will be limited? 1. Extension, lateral rotation. 2. Extension, flexion. 3. Adduction. 4. Abduction. 5. Pronation. 19. After trauma in a car accident a patient can’t flex the leg in the knee joint. Actions of what muscles are suffered? 1. Semimembranous m., semitendinous m.,biceps femoris 91 2. Semimembranous m., semitendinous m., quadriceps femoris m. 3. Semitendinous m., sartorius m., posterior tibial m. 20. During operation of the woman’s inguinal hernia, the surgeon unintentionally cut part of the fixing apparatus of the uterus. Which of the mentioned ligaments was damaged during this operation? 1. Round lig. 2. Ovarian proper lig. 3. Broad lig. 4. Cardinal lig. 21. A 18 years old patient after having an angina turned to the doctor with complaint of the worsening of her condition. During examination pharyngeal abscess was detected. Which interfascial space should the surgeon penetrate during the section of abscess? 1. Retrovisceral. 2. Previsceral. 3. Interapponeurotic suprathoracal. 4. Submandibular. 5. Pretracheal. 22. For performed operation on the thigh’s vessels, the surgeon should find the femoral triangle. The triangle is formed by: 1. Inguinal lig. adductor longus muscle, sartorius muscle. 2. Lacunar lig. sartorius muscle, adductor brevis muscle. 3. Gracilis muscle, adductor longus muscle,inguinal lig. 23. A trauma caused a defect in the innervation of the thigh's muscles. Patient cannot adduct the femur. Which muscles are suffering? 1. Adductor brevis muscle, adductor longus muscle, gracilis muscle, adductor magnus muscle, pectineus muscle. 2. Adductor brevis muscle, quadrate muscle of thigh, quadriceps muscle of thigh. 3. Adductor brevis muscle, semitendinous and semimembranous muscles. 4. Adductor brevis muscle, sartorius muscle, tensor muscle of fascia lata. 24. A 42-years old man wounded the lower part of the frontal surface of the arm. He can’t flex the forearm. Which muscles are probably damaged? 1. Brachial muscle of arm, biceps muscle of arm. 2. Triceps muscle of arm, anconeus muscle. 3. Coracobrachial muscle, brachioradial muscle. 4. Pronator teres muscle, palmaris longus muscle. 5. Flexor digitirum superficialis and flexor digitorum profundus muscles. 25. A 45-years old man damaged the posterior region of the left elbow joint. It is difficult to extend the forearm now. Which muscles are probably damaged? 1. Triceps m., anconeus m. 3. Triceps m., brachioradial m. 4. Brachioradial m., biceps m. 5. Coracobrachial m. 26. During training a 17-years girl has stretched muscles of the right upper limb. She cannot abduct the arm.Which muscles can be damaged? 92 1. Deltoid and supraspinatus muscles. 2. Brachial and teres major muscles. 3. Brachial and rhomboid muscles. 4. Subscapular and coracobrachial muscles. 5. Teres major and minor muscles. 27. Glass fell on the dorsal surface of the foot, causing a deep cutting injury. Tendons of which muscles were probably suffered in this case? 1. Short and long extensor muscles of toes, short and long extensor muscles of great toe. 2. Short and long flexor muscles of great toe. 3. Adductor hallucis, posterior tibial muscle. 4. Long flexor muscle of toes, adductor longus muscle. 28. During a tennis game, sportsman twisted the foot, causing the fracture of the lateral malleolus. Tendons of which muscles were suffered at the trauma? 1. Long fibular m., short fibular m. 2. Semimembranous, gastrocnemius, biceps m.m. 3. Semitendinous, anterior tibial m.m. 4. Posterior tibial m., long flexion muscle of toes. 5. Anterior tibial m., long extension muscles of toes. 29. A 45-years man was wounded in the front-medial side of the chest along the anterior axillary line. Which muscles are subjected to surgical treatment? 1. Major pectoral m., minor pectoral m., anterior serrate m. 2. Transversus thoracis m., innermost intercostal m.m. 3. Posterior serrate m., major pectoral m., minor pectoral m. 4. Pectoral m.m., serrate m.m. 5. Internal intercostal and subcostal m.m. 30. During examination of the patient with damage of the lumbar region, the restriction in straighten of his back is detected. Which muscle isprobably damaged? 1. Erector spinae m. 2. Latissimus dorsi m. 3. Major rhomboid m. 4. Serratus posterior inferior m. 5. Longest m. 31. After a long period of exposure to cold, actions of some muscles of the patient’s back were affected, causing the impossibility of the bending of the head and neck backward. Which muscles have probably suffered? 1. Splenius m.m. of the head and neck. 2. Major and minor rhomboid m.m. 3. Sternocleidomastiod m. 4. Levator muscle of scapula. 5. Long m.m. of head and neck. 32. The diaphragm of the oral cavity was damaged by a sharp object. Which muscles have probably suffered? 1. Geniohyoid m., mylohyoid m. 2. Tensor muscle of palate velum. 3. Palatoglossal m. 4. Palatopharyngeal m. 33. It is necessary to press artery for temporary stopping of the intensive bleeding in the region of the head. This triangle is located on the neck and bounded by the 93 1. Superficial layer of wide fascia of thigh, femoral vein, deep layer of wide fascia of thigh. 2. Inguinal ligament, femoral vein. 3. Superficial layer of wide fascia of thigh, femoral artery. 37. The girth of right thigh of a 35years woman is much lesser than the girth of left one. The right knee reflex is absent. Which muscle is probably atrophied? 1. Quadriceps. 2. Triceps. 3. Iliopsoas. 4. Obturatorius. 5. Sartorius. 38. A 42-years man suffering from a straight inguinal hernia was operated. Through which anatomical formation did the hernia appear? 1. Medial inguinal fossa. 2. Lateral inguinal fossa. 3. Supravesical fossa. 4. Femoral triangle. 5. Saphenous opening. 39. A 50-years patient complains of impossibility of the adduction and abduction of the fingers in the metacarpophalangeal joints. The actions of which muscles are probably disturbed? 1. Interosseous mm. 2. Lumbrical mm. 3. Deep flexor of fingers. 4. Superficial flexor of fingers. 5. Extensor of fingers. 40. Patient cannot adduct and abduct fingers towards and away from the III finger. Which muscles of hand are damaged? 1. Interosseus palmar mm., interosseus dorsal m.m. sternocleidomastoid muscle, the posterior belly of the digastric muscle, and the superior belly of omohyoid muscle. Name this triangle: 1. Carotid. 2. Submandibular. 3. Omotracheal. 4. Omoclavicular. 5. Omotrapezoid. 34. A patient was admitted with complaints of a pain in the epigastric region. These complaints are connected with the possibility of hernia formation. Name the weak places of the anterior abdominal wall in the epigastric region where the hernia can be formed if there is increasing of the intra-abdominal pressure: 1. Alba (white) line. 2. Inguinal canal. 3. Umbilical region. 4. Femoral canal. 5. Adductor canal. 35. The declination of the head with the face turned to the opposite side was observed. The action of which muscle was probably disturbed? 1. Sternocleidomastoid m. 2. Trapezius m. 3. Mylohyoid m. 4. Anterior and posterior scalenus m.m. 5. Sternothyroid m. 36. A 56-years woman complains of a pain in the left inguinal region. During examination, femoral hernia was diagnosed. Which of the following structures form the walls of femoral canal? 94 2. Interosseus palmar mm., lumbrical m.m. 3. Interosseus palmar mm., hypothenar m.m. 4. Lumbrical mm., interosseus dorsal m.m., thenar m.m. 41. A 45-years man applied to the trauma unit because of shoulder trauma. Objectively: flexibility, adduction and pronation function of the shoulder are absent. What muscle was injured? 1. Subscapular muscle and teres major muscle 2. Supraspinous muscle and infraspinous muscle 3. Teres minor muscle and teres major muscle 42. A 7-years child can’t abduct the shoulder, raise it to the horizontal level. He can raise the hand to the face only with its dorsal side, abduct the shoulder (with help of supraspinous muscle) – “bugler” arm. Active action of what muscle is absent? 1. Deltoid 2. Teres major 3. Infraspinous 4. Teres minor 5. Pectoral major 43. A sick man with neuritis of the femoral nerve has disturbance of the flexion of the thigh and extension of the leg in knee joint. What muscle is damaged? 1. M. quadriceps femoris 2. M. biceps femoris 3. M. semitendinosus 4. M. semimembranosus 44. The patient with affection of the ulnar nerve cannot adduct II, V fingers to the middle line. Which muscles of hand are damaged? 1. M.m. interossei palmares 2. M.m. interossei dorsales 3. M.m. lumbricales 4. M. palmaris brevis 45. A man with the cut wound of the anterior abdominal was admitted to the hospital. The objective data: cut wound of the anterior wall of the rectus abdominis muscle’s sheath above navel. What aponeuroses form this wall? 1. Aponeurosis of the external oblique abdominis m. and half of the lamina of the aponeurosis of the internal oblique abdominis m. 2. Aponeuroses of the external and internal oblique abdominis muscles. 3.Aponeuroses of the external oblique and transversus abdominis mm. 46. A man with the cut wound of the anterior abdominal wall was admitted to the hospital. The objective data: cut wound of the anterior wall of the rectus abdominis muscle’s sheath 5cm below navel. What aponeuroses form this wall? 1. Aponeuroses of the external and internal oblique and transversus abdominis mm. 2. Aponeuroses of the external and internal oblique abdominis mm. 3. Aponeuroses of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles. 47. A 45-years man applied to the trauma unit because of domestic shoulder trauma. Objectively: 95 abduction of the shoulder is absent. What muscle was injured? 1. Supraspinatus muscle 2. Infraspinatus muscle 3. Teres major muscle 4. Subscapular muscle 5. Teres minor muscle 48. A 7-years boy can't pronate the forearm. Active action of what muscle is absent? 1. Square pronator m. 2. Round pronator m. 3. Brachioradial m. 4. Supinator m. 49. A 45-years man with back injury applied to the trauma unit. The objective data: movements of the scapula are limited. What muscles can be damaged? 1. Trapezius, rhomboid mm. 2. Levator scapulae, splenius mm 3. Seratus posterior superior m. 4. Supraspinatus, deltoid mm. 50. A 45-years man with arm injury came to the trauma unit. The objective data are: the pronation and adduction of the arm are absent. What muscle is damaged? 1. Subscapular m. 2. Infraspinatus m. 3. Supraspinatus m. 4. Teres minor m. 51. A physician examined a patient and found inguinal hernia. Through what anatomic formation does hernia pass under the skin? 1. Anulus inguinalis superficialis. 2. Hiatus saphenous. 3. Canalis adductorius. 4. Anulus inguinalis profundus. 52. A 55-years patient was hospitalized in result of the trauma of the medial group of femoral muscles. What kind of movements is the patient unable to do? 1. Adduction of femur 2. Suppination of femur 3. Flexion of femur 4. Abduction of femur 5. Extension of femur 53. A man with cut wound of his right sole was admitted to the hospital. The patient has limited elevation of the lateral foot edge and limited dorsal flexion of the foot. What muscle is injured? 1. Long extensor muscle of toes 2. Anterior tibial m. 3. Triceps muscle of crus 4. Long peroneal m. 5. Short peroneal m. 54. A patient with neuritis of femoral nerve has disturbed flexion of thigh as well as disturbed leg extension in the knee joint. What muscle is disturbed? 1. Quadriceps muscle of thigh 2. Semimembranous muscle 3. Triceps muscle of thigh 4. Semitendinous muscle 5. Biceps muscle of thigh 55. As a result of an accident a patient has intense pain and oedema of the anterior leg surface; dorsal flexion of foot is hindered. Action of which leg’s muscle is most likely to be disturbed? 1. M. tibialis anterior 2. M. flexor hallucis longus 3. M. flexor digitorum longus 4. M. peroneus longus 56. A 35-years man with a trauma of his left hand was admitted to the traumatology department. 96 Objectively: cut wound of palmar surface of left hand; proximal and middle phalanxes of II-V fingers don't bend. What muscles are damaged? 1. Superficial flexor of the fingers 2. Deep flexor of the fingers. 3. Dorsal interosseous muscles 4. Lumbrical muscles 57. A patient with a knife wound in the left lumbar part was delivered to the emergency hospital. In course of operation a surgeon found that internal organs were not damaged but the knife injured one of the muscles of the pelvic girdle. What muscle is it? 1. Greater psoas muscle 2. Abdominal internal oblique muscle 3. Erector muscle of spine 4. Iliac muscle 58. A man with an injury of the superficial dorsal area of his neck was admitted to the hospital. What muscle occupies this area? 1. M. trapezius 2. M. scalenus anterior 3. M. rhomboideus minor 4. M. latissimus dorsi 59. A patient has a deep cut wound on the posterior surface of his upper arm in its middle third. What muscle is damaged? 1. Triceps muscle of arm 2. Anconeus muscle 3. Biceps muscle of arm 4. Brachial muscle 5. Coracohrachial muscle 60. While performing an inguinal canal operation of mail body on account of hernia a surgeon damaged the canal's contents. What exactly was damaged? 1. Funiculus spermaticus 2. Lig. teres uteri 3. Lig. inguinale 4. Ureter. 61. A 38-years patient came to a traumatology centre and complained about an injury of his right hand. Objectively: the patient has a cut wound in the region of the thenar eminence on the right hand; distal phalanx of I finger cannot be flexed. What muscle was injured? 1. Long flexor muscle of the thumb 2. Short flexor muscle of the thumb 3. Abductor muscle of the thumb 4. Opponens muscle of the thumb 5. Short abductor muscle of the thumb 62. After trauma a patient lost ability of elbow extension. What muscle is damaged? 1. M. triceps brachii 2. M. subscapularis 3. M. levator scapulae 4. M. infraspinatus 5. M. teres major 63. A patient was admitted to the surgical department with inguinal hernia. During the operation the surgeon performs plastic surgery on posterior wall of inguinal canal. What structure forms this wall? 1. Transverse fascia 2. Peritoneum 3. Loose inferior edge of transverse abdominal muscle 4. Inguinal ligament 5. Aponeurosis of abdominal external obligue muscle 97 64. A patient has difficulties with hand movement. Examination revealed inflammation of common synovial sheath of flexor muscles. It is know from the patient’s anamnesis that he got a stab wound of finger a week ago. Which finger was most probably damaged? 1. Little finger. 2. Middle finger. 3. Ring’s finger. 4. Index. 5. Thumb. 65. While performing operation for inguinal hernia (in female) a surgeon damaged the inguinal canal’s contents. What exactly was damaged? 1. Lig. teres uteri 2. Lig.inguinale 3. Funiculus spermaticus 4. Urarchus 66. A boy has fallen down from a tree. Now he finds it difficult to abduct his arm into horizontal position. Which muscle is most likely to be injured? 1. M. deltoideus. 2. M. coracobrachialis. 3. M. anconeus. 4. M. triceps brachii. 5. M. supinator. 67. A doctor asked a patient to breath out fully after taking a normal breath. What muscles contract during such exhalation? 1. Diaphragm. 2. Pectoral muscles. 3. External intercostal muscle. 4. Trapezius muscle. 5. Abdominal muscles. 68. When processing a molar tooth with a dental cutter the dentist has by accident deeply wounded the patient’s cheek and damaged not only the mucosa but also a muscle. Which muscle was hurt? 1. Buccal muscle 2. Greater zygomatic muscle 3. Masticatory muscle 4. Orbicular muscle of the mouth 5. Mylohyoid muscle 69. A patient presents with disfunction of shin muscles. He cannot raise his body by standing on tiptoe. Which muscle is affected? 1. M. triceps surae 2. M. tibialis posterior 3. M. extensor digitorum longus 4. M. flexor digitorum longus 5. M. tibialis anterior 70. During manipulations aimed at treatment of mandible dislocation a physician should pay particular attention to a muscle that pulls a capsule and interarticular disc of temporomandibular articulation exteriorly. What muscle is it? 1. M. pterygoideus lateralis 2. M. masseter 3. M. pterygoideus medialis 4. M. temporalis 5. M. mylogyoideus 71. 38-year-old patient came to a traumatology centre and complained about an injury of his right hand. Objectively: the patient has a cut wound in the region of the thenar eminence on the right hand; distal phalanx of the 1 finger cannot be flexed. What muscle was injured? 1. Long flexor muscle of thumb 98 2. Short flexor muscle of the thumb 3. Short abductor muscle of thumb 4. Opposer muscle of thumb 5. Abductor muscle of thumb 72. A 45-year-old man with domestic apper arm injury came to the trauma unit. The objective date are: there are no extension, adduction or pronation functions of the arm. What muscle’s damage caused this condition? 1. Teres major 2. Subscapular 3. Teres minor 4. Subspinous 5. Supraspinous 73. A 5 year old child suffers from the neck deformity. Clinical examination revealed such symptoms: apparent flexion of the head to the left, his face is turned right, passive movements of the head to the right are restricted. What muscle’s development was disturbed in this case? 1. Sternocleidomastoid 2. Trapezius 3. Splenius muscle of the head 4. Sternosublingual 5. Long muscle of the head 74. A patient displays abnormal retrodeviation of his lower jaw as a result of trauma in the region of mandibular coronal process. What muscle is most likely to be damaged? 1. M. temporalis 2. M.masseter 3. M. pterygoideus lateralis 4. M. pterygoideus medialis 5. M. levator anguli oris 75. A patient has difficulties with hand movement. Examination revealed inflammation of common synovial sheath of flexor muscles. It is known from the patient’s anamnesis that he got a stab wound of finger a week ago. Which finger was most probably damaged? 1. Digitus minimus 2. Polles 3. Digitus medius 4. Index 5. Digitus anularis 76. A patient complained about being unable to adduct and abduct fingers in the metacarpophalangeal articulations towards and away from the 3rd finger. What muscle’s function is impaired? 1. Interosseous muscles 2. Lumbrical muscles 3. Breviflexors of fingers 4. Long flexors of fingers 5. Extensors 77. Usually the intravenous injection is done into median cubital vein because it is slightly movable due to fixation by the soft tissues. What structure fixes it in the cubital fossa? 1. Aponeurosis of biceps muscle 2. Tendon of the triceps muscle 3. Brachial muscle 4. Brachioradial muscle 5. Anconeus muscle DIGESTIVE SYSTEM 99 forms one wall of this bursa. What is it? 1. Posterior. 2. Anterior. 3. Lateral. 4. Superior. 5. Inferior. 6. The patient had the trauma of the abdomen. During operation the damage of the posterior wall of the stomach was revealed. Through which foramen the doctor can examine the posterior wall of the stomach? 1. Epiploic. 2. Hepatic. 3. Pancreatic. 4. Abdominaal. 5. Mesenteric. 7. The patient has inflammation of the sublingual papilla. What salivary glands will have difficult salivation in this case? 1. Sublingual and submandibular. 2. Sublingual and parotid. 3. Parotid and submandibular. 4. Parotid and palate. 5. Sublingual and buccal. 8. An aggregations of the lymphatic nodules called Peyer’s patches are revealed in the mucous coat of the intestine. Which part of the intestine is it? 1. Ileum. 2. Jejunum. 3. Caecum. 4. Duodenum. 5. Rectum. 9. During operation of the stone in the bile duct, the doctor must find the common bile duct. Between two layers of which ligament is this duct located? 1. Hepatoduodenal 2. Hepatogastric. 3. Hepatorenal. 4. Round ligament of the liver. 5. Venous ligament. 10. Resection of part of the pancreas was conducted. How is 1. A 18-years patient after having an angina turned to the doctor with complaint of the worsening of her condition. During examination pharyngeal abscess was detected. Which interfascial space should the surgeon penetrate during the section of abscess? 1. Retrovisceral. 2. Previsceral. 3. Interapponeurotic suprasternal. 4. Submandibular. 5. Pretracheal. 2. The part of the intestine with the appendices epiploicae was revealed in the hernia’s sac during the operation owing to the strangulation of hernia. What part of the intestine was strangulated? 1. Transverse colon. 2. Duodenum. 3. Jejunum. 4. Ileum. 5. Caecum. 3. During X-ray examination of the 8 years child the foreign body was discovered in the oesophagus on the level of the tenth thoracic vertebra. In what constriction of the oesophagus the foreign body comes to a stop? 1. Diaphragmatic constriction. 2. Pharyngeal constriction. 3. Bronchial constriction. 4. Aortic constriction. 5. Abdominal constriction. 4. During surgical intervention of the small intestine longitudinal fold on the mucous coat was found. Which part of the small intestine has such fold? 1. Descending part of the duodenum. 2. Horizontal part of the duodenum. 3. Ascending part of the duodenum. 4. Beginning of the jejunum. 5. Last part of the ileum. 5. During operation of the phlegmona of the pancreas pus was revealed in the omental bursa. It is known that the pancreas 100 15. A patient has the perforation of the back wall of the stomach by the ulcer. Through what formation of the peritoneum the doctor can touch this wall of the stomach? 1. Epiploic opening. 2. Falciform ligament of the liver. 3. Lesser omentum. 4. Coronary ligament of the liver. 5. Greater omentum. 16. A patient was admitted to the hospital with perforation of the back wall of the stomach by the ulcer. What part of the peritoneal cavity must be examined? 1. Omental bursa. 2. Hepatic bursa. 3. Pregastric bursa. 4. Left lateral canal. 5. Right mesenteric sinus. 17. After operation of the small intestine the patient has an abscess which passed into the right mesenteric sinus. Where the purulent discharge can pass from this sinus? 1. Be left in this sinus. 2. Pass into the pelvic cavity. 3. Pass into the retrocaecal recess. 4. Pass into the right lateral canal. 5. Pass into the intersigmoid recess. 18. A patient had a yellow color of his skin, which complications set in the mechanical icterus. During examination a stone in the common bile duct was detected. What bile ducts form the common bile duct? 1. Ductus hepaticus communis and ductus cysticus. 2. Ductus hepaticus dexter and sinister. 3. Ductus hepaticus dexter and ductus cysticus. 4. Ductus hepaticus sinister and ductus cysticus. 5. Ductus hepaticus communis and ductus choledochus. 19. Patient had tumor of the pancreas and mechanical icterus. Which duct was squeezed? 1. Ductus choledochus. pancreas located according to the peritoneum? 1. Extraperitonealy. 2. Mesoperitonealy. 3. Intraperitonealy. 4. Intramural. 11. A patient had destruction of the vermiform process and abscess located under diaphragm. In what formation of the peritoneal cavity is abscess located? 1. Hepatic bursa. 2. Pregastric bursa. 3. Omental bursa. 4. Right lateral canal. 5. Left lateral canal. 12. A 65-years patient had tumor of the oesophagus. During X-ray examination the tumor was revealed on the level of the boundary between pharynx and oesophagus. On the level of which cervical vertebra is this tumor located? 1. VI. 2. V. 3. IV. 4. III. 5. II. 13. A 50-years patient has inflammation of the gall bladder. The greater duodenal papilla must be examined in this case. In what part of the duodenum will doctor find this papilla? 1. Descending. 2. Ascending. 3. Horizontal. 4. Superior. 5. Duodenal bulb. 14. During the resection of the gall bladder the stones can pass through the cystic duct to another bill duct. Which duct must be examined by doctor? 1. Ductus choledochus. 2. Ductus hepatic communis. 3. Ductus hepatic dexter. 4. Ductus hepatic sinister. 5. Ductuli biliferi. 101 2. Ductus cysticus. 3. Ductus hepaticus communic. 4. Ductus hepaticus dexter. 5. Ductus hepaticus sinister. 20. During operation of the abdominal cavity it is necessary to find the beginning of the root of the mesentery. Where is this place located? 1. On the left side of the duodenojejunal flexura. 2. On the level of the right flexura of the colon. 3. On the level of the left flexura of the colon. 4. On the level of the sigmoid colon. 5. In the right mesenteric sinus. 21. A patient complained of the pain in the right lateral region of the abdominal cavity. During examination the compact, immovable tumor was revealed. In which part of the digestive tract is presence of the tumor possible? 1. Colon ascendens. 2. Colon transversum. 3. Colon descendens. 4. Colon sigmoideum. 22. The tumor of the stomach located closer to the entrance of the oesophagus into the stomach was revealed. In which part of the stomach is this tumor located? 1. Pars cardiaca. 2. Pars pylorica. 3. Fundus. 4. Fornix. 5. Corpus ventruculi. 23. During examination of the cavity of the mouth the doctor saw a small ulcer on the left anterior palate arch. Into which muscle, located inside this arch, can inflammation pass? 1. M. palatoglossus. 2. M. styloglossus. 3. M. palatopharyngeus. 4. M. genioglossus. 5. M. hyoglossus. 24. A patient has a tumor of the last part of the small intestine. Where is this tumor located? 1. Ileum 2. Jejunum. 3. Caecum. 4. Colon sigmoideum. 5. Duodenum. 25. A patient has a tumor of the initial part of the large intestine. Where is this tumor located? 1. Caecum. 2. Colon ascendens. 3. Colon sigmoideum. 4. Rectum. 5. Colon descendens. 26. A patient has a tumor of the greater duodenal papilla. In which part of the duodenum is this tumor located? 1. Descending part. 2. Superior part. 3. Horisontal part. 4. Ascending part. 5. Ampulla. 27. The tumor of the anal canal was diagnosed. How is this part of the rectum covered by peritoneum? 1. Extraperitoneal position. 2. Intraperitoneal position. 3. Mesoperitoneal position. 4. Retroperitonial position. 28. During the operation a surgeon found the bowel with the fat protrusions, bands and protrusions. What is this? 1. Colon 2. Rectum 3. Duodenum 4. Jejunum 5. Ileum 29. During examination of a patient a doctor found the polyp in the distal part of the large intestine. Determine the localization of this polyp. 1. Rectum 2. Caecum 3. Colon descendens 4. Colon sigmoideum 102 5. Colon transversum 30. A patient has the trauma of the cheek. Duct of what salivary gland can be damaged? 1. Parotid 2. Buccal 3. Submandibular 4. Sublingual 5. Palatel 31. At a result of a serious trauma of the facial part of the skull food passes to the nasal part of the pharynx. What muscle is damaged? 1. M. levator veli palatine 2. M. palatoparyngeus 3. M. stylopharyngeus 4. M. genioglossus 5. M. palatoglossus 32. A 35- years patient complains to pain and oedema in the region of the bottom of the oral cavity. During examination a doctor found the inflammation in the region of the leading duct of the submandibular salivary gland. Where does this duct open? 1. Caruncula sublingualis 2. Vestibulum oris 3. Foramen caecum linguae 4. Plica fimbriata 5. Recesus gingivalis 33. One of the organ of the mouth, located between two folds of the mucous membrane, has many lymph follicules. What’s name of this organ? 1. Palate tonsil 2. Sublingual gland 3. Parotid gland 4. Tongue 5. Submandibular gland 34. During X-ray examination a patient was in a vertical position. A doctor found a presence of air in the stomach. Where is this air in the stomach located? 1. Fundus. 2. Body 3. Pylorus 4. Lesser curvature 5. Cardiac part 35. A patient has appendicitis. The appendix occupies retrocaecal position. With inflammation of which organs a doctor must carry out a differential diagnosis? 1. Kidneys 2. Stomach 3. Liver 4. Ovary 5. Rectum 36. During appendectomy a doctor wants to find the ileocaecal angle. To which external peculiarity a doctor must pay attention to find it? 1. Bands of the colon 2. Frenulum of the ileocaecal valve 3. Right flexura of the colon 4. Left flexura of the colon 37. A 18 years old patient had inflammation of the nasopharynx, he complained to the murmur and painful feelings at the ear. A doctor diagnosed: «acute respiratory disease, otitis». What opening the infection penetrated and got to the tympanic cavity? 1. Pharyngeal orifice of the auditory tube 2. Tympanic orifice of the auditory tube 3. Choanae 4. Fauces 5. Orifice of the larynx 38. A 45-years old patient was admitted to the surgical department with complaints of abrupt sharp pain in the epigastric region. After examination it was diagnosed: perforated ulcer of the posterior wall of the stomach. Where did content of the stomach flow out while perforation? 1. To the omental bursa 2. To the left mesenteric sinus 3. To right mesenteric sinus 4. To the liver bursa 5. To the proventriculus suc 39. Obturative jaundice developed in a 60-years patient because of malignant tumour of the greater 103 duodenal papilla. Lumen of what anatomical structure is squeezed with the tumour? 1. Hepatopancreatic ampulla 2. Right hepatic duct 3. Left hepatic duct 4. Common hepatic duct 5. Cystic duct 40. A man with internal abdominal right side injury and suspicion of liver rupture was admitted to the hospital. In what peritonial formation will blood accumulate? 1. Bursa omentalis 2. Recessus intersigmoideus 3. Recessus duodenalis inferior 41. A man with internal abdominal right side injury and suspicion of liver rupture was admitted to the surgical department. In what peritonial structure will blood accumulate? 1. Bursa omentalis 2. Fossa ischio-analis 3. Recessus duodenalis inferior 4. Excavatio rectovesicalis 5. Recessus intersigmoideus 42. A 27-years man has purulent inflammation of the gall bladder. Into what region of the peritoneal cavity will the pus fall, if gall bladder is in its typical position? 1. Into the hepatic bursa. 2. Into the pregastric bursa. 3. Into the superior duodenal recess. 4. Into the omental bursa. 43. During the endoscopy the inflammation of a major papilla of the duodenum and the disturbances of bile secretion were found. In which part of duodenum were the problems found? 1. Descending part 2. Bulb 3. Ascending part 4. Upper horizontal part 5. Lower horizontal part 44. Children often have heavy nasal breathing resulting from excessive development of lymphoid tissue of the pharyngeal mucous on the lateral wall of the nasopharynx rmembrane. Growth of what tonsils may cause this effect? 1. Tonsilla tubaria 2. Tonsilla palatina 3. Tonsilla pharyngea 4. Tonsilla lingualis 5. All above mentioned tonsils 45. A patient with a stab wound of the anterior stomach wall is in surgical care. What formation of abdominal cavity is formed by the anterior wall of the stomach? 1. Pregastric bursa 2. Right mesenteric sinus 3. Hepatic bursa 4. Left mesenteric sinus 5. Omental bursa 46. In case of a penetrating wound of the anterior abdominal wall the wound tract went above the lesser curvature of stomach. What peritoneum formation is most likely to be injured? 1. Ligamentum hepatogastricum 2. Ligamentum hepatorenale 3. Ligamentum triangulare sinistrum 4. Ligamentum gastrocolicum 5. Ligamentum hepatoduoduodenale 47. A patient was admitted to the surgical department with suspected inflammation of Meckel`s diverticulum. What part of bowels should be examined in order to discover the diverticulum in course of an operation? 1. Ileum 2. Jejunmum 3. Colon ascendens 4. Duodenum 5. Caecum 48. An injured person was delivered to the hospital with a penetrating wound in the left lateral region of abdomen. What part of the large intestine is most likely damaged? 1. Colon descendens 2. Colon transverses 3. Colon ascendens 4. Rectum 5. Caecum 49. While examining of the oral cavity a dentist revealed inflammation of papillae on the 104 border of the median and posterior third of the back of tongue. What are these papillae? 1. Papillae vallatae. 2. Papillae filiformes 3. Papillae conicae 4. Papillae fungiformes 50. A patient complains about impaired evacuation function of stomach (longtime retention of food in stomach). Examination revealed a tumour of initial part of duodenum. Specify localization of the tumour: 1. Pars superior 2. Pars ascendens 3. Flexura duodeni inferior 4. Pars inferior 5. Pars descendens 51. Examination of a patient revealed hypertrophy and inflammation of lymphoid tissue, oedema of mucous membrane between palatine arches (acute tonsillitis). What tonsil is situated in this area? 1. Tonsilla palatina 2. Tonsilla tubaria 3. Tonsilla pharyngealis 4. Tonsilla lingualis 52. A patient complained about pain in the tongue root. Examination shown redden root of the tongue and inflammation of lymphoid tissues inside it. What lymphoid tissues located in the tongue root? 1. Tonsilla lingualis. 2. Tonsilla palatine. 3. Tonsilla pharyngea. 4. Tonsilla tubaria. 53. A 5 years boy had heavy nasal breathing, increasing of the temperature,painful feelings in the nasal and oral parts of the pharynx. Inflamation of the tonsils of the lymphoepitelial pharyngeal ring was diagnosed. What tonsils form this ring? 1. All tonsills located ih the nasoand oropharynx. 2. Tonsillae pharyngea and lingualis 3. Tonsillae palatine and tubaria. 54. A patient has high temperature and pain in the nasopharynx. During examination the inflammation of the mucous covering upper and posterior walls of the nasopharynx was revealed. Name the tonsil located between these walls of the pharynx? 1. Tonsilla pharyngea. 2. Tonsilla tubaria. 3. Tonsilla palatine. 4. Tonsilla lingualis. 55. A patient has inflammation of the tonsils of the Pirogov’s lymphoepitelial ring. How many tonsils form this ring? 1. 6 2. 4 3. 5 4. 7 56. During examination of a child’s mouth the dentist had found eruption of the inferior first molars. How old is the child? 1. 6-7 years 2. 5-6 years. 3. 8-9 years. 4. 10-11 years. 57. A child 9 months was hospitalized in clinic. He hadn’t any tooth. What are the terms of eruption of the first teeth ? 1. 6-7 months. 2. 5-6 months. 3. 7-8 months. 4. 10 months. 58. During the first feeding of newborn, milk began to flow into nasal cavity. What anomaly or abnormally had a newborn get? 1. Cleft palate. 2. Cleft lip. 3. Atrezy of esophagus. 4. Atrezy of anal canal. 59. The child 10 years old complains about difficulty of the nasal breathing. It is determine at an inspection, that reason is hypertrophy of the lymphoid tissues. Overgrowth of what structure is it? 1. Pharyngeal tonsil 2. Retropharyngeal lymph node. 3. Mental lymph node 105 4. Lingual tonsil 60. A patient complained about ear noise ad pain sensations. Objectively: the patient has acute respiratory disease, rhinitis. The infection penetrated into the tympanic cavity through the following opening of the pharynx: 1. Pharyngeal opening of auditory tube 2. Tympanic opening of auditory tube 3. Choanae 4. Fauces 5. Aperture of larynx 61. A patient had his tooth extracted. The lingual surface of this tooth was smaller than the buccal one. Masticatory surface has oval form. Deep transverse sulcus separates buccal and lingual tubercles. The root is strongly compressed in medio-distal direction and has longitudinal sulci on its aproximal surfaces, it is bifurcated. What tooth was extracted? 1. First upper premolar 2. Upper canine 3. Lower canine 4. First lower premolar 5. Second upper premolar 62. A surgeon should reach the omental bursa to perform an operation on abdominal cavity. How can he reach this part of peritoneal cavity without affecting the integtiry of lesser omentum? 1. Through the epiploic foramen 2. Through the right paracolic sulcus 3. Through the left paracolic sinus 4. Through the right mesenteric sinus 5. Through the left mesenteric sinus 63. A patient has an injury in right lateral area of the abdomen. What part of large intestine is most likely injured? 1. Ascending colon 2. Transverse colon 3. Descending colon 4. Sigmoid 5. Rectum 64. During the examination of patient’s oral cavity a dentist noticed a slight overbite of mandibular teeth by maxillary incisors. What occlusion belongs such position of teeth to? 1. Orthognathic occlusion 2. Prognahism 3. Biprognatic occlusion 4. Orthogenic occlusion 5. Closed occlusion 65. Children often have labored nasal breathing which is caused by overdevelopment of lymphoid tissue of the pharyngeal mucous membrane. This phenomenon may cause enlargement of the following tonsils: 1. Tonsilla pharyngea 2. Tonsilla palatina 3. Tonslla lingualis 4. Tonsilla tubaria 5. All above-mentioned 66. While oral cavity examination the dentist revealed the formation of the first molar on the lower jaw of a child. How old is this child? 1. 6-7 years old 2. 4-5 years old 3. 8-9 years old 4. 10-11 years old 5. 12-13 years old 67. During the examination of patient’s oral cavity a dentist found a carious cavity on the crown surface of the second premolar tooth that was turned to the first molar tooth. Name the damaged crown surface: 1. Facies medialis 2. Facies vestibularis 3. Facies lingualis 4. Facies distalis 5. Facies occlusalis 68. A mother consulted the doctor about her one year old child, who has got teeth come out. How many teeth should the child of such age have? 1. 8 2. 10 106 3. 7 4. 12 5. 6 69. Examination of a patient with impaired blood coagulation revealed thrombosis of a branch of inrefior mesenteric artery. What bowel segment is damaged? 1. Colon sigmoideum 2. Ileum 3. Caecum 4. Colon transversum 5. Colon ascendens 70. For the direct injection of medicaments into the liver surgeons use the round ligament of liver. This manipulation involves bougie (lumen dilatation of the following structure: 1. Obliterated V. umbilicalis 2. A. umbilicalis 3. Ductus venosus 4. V. porta 5. A. hapatica propria 71. A patient complains about impaired evacuatory function of stomach ( long-term retention of food in stomach) Examination revealed a tumor of initial part of duodenum. Specify localization of the tumor: 1. Pars superior 2. Pars inferior 3. Pars descendens 4. Pars ascendens 5. Flexura duodeni inferior 72. A female patient with a tumor of pancreas has developed mechanic jaundice resulting from compression of a bile-excreting duct. Which duct is compressed? 1. Ductus choledochus 2. Ductus cysticus 3. Ductus hepaticus communis 4. Ductus hepaticus dexter 5. Ductus hepaticus sinister 73. A 53-year-old female patient was diagnosed with liver rupture resulting from a blunt abdominal injury. The escaped blood will be assembled in the following anatomic form 1. Omental bursa 2. Rectouterine pouch 3. Vesicouterine pouch 4. Right mesenteric sinus 5. Left mesenteric sinus 74. Children often have heavy nasal breathing resulting from excessive development of lymphoid tissue of pharyngeal mucous membrane. What tonsils growth may cause this effect? 1. Tonsilla pharyngea 2. Tonsilla palatina 3. Tonsilla lingualis 4. Tonsilla tubaria 5. All above mentioned tonsils RESPIRATORY SYSTEM 1. During the examination of the nasal cavity of a hospitalized patient accumulation of pus in the inferior nasal passage was detected. Into which of mentioned formations may the inflammatory process proceed? 1. Nasolacrimal canal. 2. Highmore sinus. 3. Frontal sinus. 4. Sphenoid sinus. 5. Ethmoid sinus. 2. A woman, who works on chemical factory, complains of disturbance of smell. What anatomic structure was damaged? 1. Regio olfactoria 2. Tractus olfactorius 3. Bulbus olfactorius 4. Trigonum olfactotium. 3. Child inspired button. Where is it likely to be? 1. In the right main bronchus 2. In the trachea 107 3. In the pharynx 4. In the left main bronchus 5. In the larynx 4. The patient had pneumonia. Xray examination confirmed the presence of serous liquid in the pleural cavity above right cupola of the diaphragm. In which of the pleural recess the accumulation of the serous liquid can be more often? 1. Costodiaphragmatic. 2. Costomediastinal. 3. Mediastinophrenic. 4. Vertebromediastinal. 5. Costovertebral. 5. A lobectomy of the superior lobe of the right lung was performed. Which segments were injured? 1. Apical, posterior, anterior. 2. Lateral, medial, superior. 3. Medial basal, lateral basal 4. Posterior basal, superior and inferior lingular. 5. Posterior apical. 6. A patient has pneumonia. A doctor found that the lower border of the right lung is located on the level of the IX rib on the middle axillar line. Where is a normal lower border of the right lung on the middle axillar line located? 1. VIII rib 2. VII rib 3. VI rib 4. IX rib 5. X rib 7. A 35 -years patient complains to intense cold in the head and an absence of olfaction about one week. During examination a doctor found very much pus covered the mucous tissue and blockaded the olfactory receptors. Where are these receptors located? 1. Concha nasalis superior 2. Concha nasalis medialis 3. Concha nasalis inferior 4. Common nasal passage 8. A foreign body about 1,5 cm in diameter is detected in the respiratory tract of 3 years child. Where is a foreign body may located? 1. In a right main bronchus 2. In a left main bronchus 3. In a right segmental bronchus 4. In a lobular bronchus 5. In a left segmental bronchus 9. A follicular angina became complicated by acute otitis (inflammation of the middle ear). Which anatomical preconditions exist for this? 1. Eustachian tube 2. Pirogov’s ring 3. Fallopian tube 4. Presence of recessus piriformis 10. X-ray examination of the 67years patient shows the tumor of the middle lobe of the right lung. Which segments this lobe has? 1. Medial, lateral. 2. Superior lingular, inferior lingular. 3. Anterior, lateral and posterior basal. 4. Apical, posterior, anterior. 5. Apical-posterior, anterior, posterior. 11. A 50-years patient had cancer of the lung. Lobectomy of the superior lobe of the right lung was performed. How many segments were removed? 1. Three. 2. Four. 3. Five. 4. Two. 12. A patient had right side lobar pneumonia of the medial and lateral segments. To which lobe of the lung are they related? 1. Middle. 2. Superior. 3. Superior and middle. 4. Inferior. 5. Inferior and middle. 13. A 53-years patient was admitted to the hospital with complaints of the cough up 108 4. Upper lobe. 5. Lobulus of the lung. 17. Why the doctor must make upper tracheostomy for the child? Owing to the lower position of the: 1. Isthmus of the thyroid gland. 2. Lobes of the thyroid gland. 3. Larynx. 4. Trachea. 18. During operation of a lung a doctor removed a clot of blood from the horizontal fissure. Where is this fissure located? 1. Between the upper and middle lobes of the right lung 2. Between the upper and lower lobes of the right lung 3. Between the lower and middle lobes of the right lung 4. Between the upper and middle lobes of the left lung 5. Between the upper and lower lobes of the left lung 19. After trauma of the chest the patient had pain in the breastbone, which increased in the time of the tapping, and oedema of the neck and thoracic cage. The organs of which mediastinum are struck? 1. Anterior. 2. Middle. 3. Posterior. 4. Superior. 5. Inferior. 20. The dilatation of the true glottis of a patient is impossible. Which muscles are damaged? 1. M. cricoarythenoideus posterior 2. M. cricoarythenoideus lateralis 3. M. cricothyreoideus 4. M. thyreoarythenoideus 5. M. vocalis 21. A patient has exsudative pleurisy. A doctor wants to remove liquid from the pleural cavity. On which level he must make the puncture? 1. IX intercostal space 2. III intercostal space 3. II intercostal space phlegm, temperature, pain in the left part of the thoracic cage. The agent of the tuberculosis was revealed in the phlegm. X-ray examination showed the pathological process in one segment of the superior lobe of the left lung. Call the name of the segment in the superior lobe of the left lung. 1. Segm. lingulare inferius. 2. Segm. mediale. 3. Segm. laterale. 4. Segm. basale posterius. 5. Segm. basale laterale. 14. A patient, complaining of sudden cough and asthmatic fit, was admitted to hospital. X-ray examination of the respiratory tract discovered a foreign body in bifurcatio tracheae . On what level is foreign body located? 1. TH4-Th5. 2. C8-Th2. 3. Th1-Th2. 4. C7-Th1. 5. Th6-Th8. 15. A 45-years patient was admitted to the hospital with the complaints of the high temperature, the pain during respiration, asthmatic fits and cough. After examination the diagnosis of pleurisy was given. The puncture of the pleural cavity was needed. In which of the pleural recess would be the greatest accumulation of the serous liquid? 1. Costodiaphragmatic sinus. 2. Mediastinophrenic sinus. 3. Costomediastinal sinus. 4. Under the cupula of the peura. 5. Under the root of the lung. 16. One part of the lung, which is ventilated by the bronchus of the third order, was removed during operation. What part of the lung was removed? 1. Segment of the lung. 2. Middle lobe. 3. Lower lobe. 109 4. X intercostal space 5. VI intercostal space 22. A patient has a tumour in the region of the apex of the right lung. Which segments are in the upper lobe of the right lung? 1. Apical segment, posterior segment, anterior segment 2. Apico-posterior segment, anterior segment 3. Superior and inferior lingular segments 4. Superior and inferior lingular segments, apical segment 5. Posterior segment, anterior segment 23. During pleural puncture in VIII intercostal space between the middle axillar line and scapular line a surgeon put a needle inside very deep. What structure did a doctor traumatized? 1. Lower lobe of the lung 2. Middle lobe of the lung 3. Upper lobe of the lung 4. Root of the lung 5. Pulmonary ligament 24. During bronchoscopy a doctor must know the place of the bifurcation of the trachea. Where is bifurcation located? 1. V thoracic vertebra 2. VII cervical vertebra 3. VII thoracic vertebra 4. IX thoracic vertebra 25. A 5-years child was admitted to the hospital with diagnosis: inflammation of the middle ear. Disease started with the inflammation of the nasopharynx. Through what canal of the temporal bone did the infection get into the tympanic cavity? 1. Musculotubal canal 2. Tympanic canaliculus tympanicus 3. Carotid canal 4. Canaliculus chordal tympani 5. Canaliculus caroticotympanici 26. Child inspired button. Where is it likely to be? 1. In the right main bronchus 2. In the trachea 3. In the gullet 4. In the larynx 5. In the left main bronchus 27. A 44-years woman was admitted to the therapeutic department with the right-side pleurisies. The examination confirmed the presence of liquid in the pleural cavity. What sinus of the pleura will have the biggest accumulation of the serous fluid? 1. Right costodiaphragmatic 2. Right mediastinodiaphragmatic 3. Left cost o mediastina 4. Left mediastinodiaphragmatic 5. Right cost mediastinal 28. An 18-years patient applied with the complaints of bleeding trauma in the vestibule of his nose. On examination: the mechanical injure of the mucous layer of the vestibule of the nasal cavity without continuation into nasal cavity proper. What is the boundary between the vestibule and nasal cavity proper? 1. Nasal limen 2. Nasal roller 3. Nasal septa 4. Choanes 5. Nostrils 29. In course of an operation surgeon removed a part of a lung that was ventilated by a tertiary bronchus accompanied by branches of pulmonary artery and other vessels. What part of a lung was removed? 1. Bronchopulmonary segment 2. Inferior lobe 3. Superior lobe 4. Pulmonary lobule 5. Middle lobe 30. A 35 years patient applied with complaints of the rhinitis and loss smelling senses for a week. Objectively: nasal cavity contains a lot of mucous that covers mucous membrane and blocks olfactory receptors. In what part of nasal cavity are these receptors situated? 1. Superior nasal meatus 2. Common nasal meatus 110 3. Vestibule of nose 4. Median nasal meatus 5. Inferior nasal meatus 31. A button closed the space of the right inferior lobar bronchus. What segments of the right lung won’t be supplied with air? 1. Apical, posterior basal, medial basal, anterior basal, lateral basal 2. Superior and inferior lingual, apical, posterior, anterior. 3. Apical and median basal, medial and lateral 32. A patient underwent lobectomy of the right middle lobe of a lung. What segments of the lung were affected? 1. Lateral and medial 2. Apical, anterior 3. Basal medial and anterior 4. Basal posterior and lateral 5. Apical posterior and anterior 33. Chronic rhinitis was complicated by inflammation of frontal sinus. Through what nasal meatus did the infection get into this sinus? 1. Middle 2. Inferior 3. Common 4. Superior 5. Nasopharyngeal 34. A patient complains of headache, heavy breathing. X-ray examination confirmed the diagnosis – frontitis. What nasal meatus may contain purulent discharge? 1. Middle 2. Inferior 3. Common 4. Superior 5. Above the superior nasal concha 35. In the speciment of one of the parts of respiratory system a tubular organ was found. It has low epithelium, well developed muscular tunic, glands and cartilage are absent. Name this organ: 1. Respiratory bronchioli 2. Trachea 3. Terminal bronchioli 4. Main bronchioli 5. Segmetal bronchioli 36. A patient has an exudative pleurisy. At what level should the pleural puncture along the posterior axillary line be taken? 1. IX intercostal space 2. VIII intercostal space 3. VII intercostal space 4. XI intercostal space 5. VI intercostal space 37. A three year old child was admitted to the hospital with a foreign body in bronchus. What bronchus contains most likely a foreign body? 1. Right principal 2. Left principal 3. Right segmantal 4. Left segmantal 5. Lobular 38. A 35 year old patient applied to a doctor with complains about having intense rhinitis and loss of sense of smell for a week. Objectively: nasal cavity contains a lot of mucus that covers mucous membrane and blocks olfactory receptors. In what part of nasal cavity are these receptors located? 1. Superior nasal meatus 2. Median nasal meatus 3. Inferior nasal meatus 4. Common nasal meatus 5. Vestibule of nose UROGENITAL SYSTEM the fixing apparatus of the uterus. Which of the mentioned ligaments 1. During operation of the woman’s inguinal hernia, the surgeon unintentionally cut part of 111 was damaged during this operation? 1. Round lig. 2. Ovarian proper lig. 3. Broad lig. 4. Cardinal lig. 5. Infundibulopelvic lig. 2. A patient has appendicitis. The appendix occupies retrocaecal recess. With inflammation of which organs a doctor must carry out a differential diagnosis? 1. Kidneys 2. Stomach 3. Liver 4. Ovary 5. Rectum 3. Ovarian tumor was diagnosed in the woman. What ligament should be cut by the surgeon to disconnect the ovary and the uterus? 1. The proper ovarian ligament 2. Suspensory ligament of ovary 3. Round ligament of uterus 4. Lateral umbilical ligament 5. Broad ligament of uterus 4. During examination of 6 –years boy the hydrocele was diagnosed. What coat of the testis forms serous sac where the serous fluid can be accumulated? 1. Tunica vaginalis testis. 2. Tunica albuginea testis. 3. Fascia spermatica external. 4. Fascia spermatica internal. 5. Tunica dartos. 5. During examination of 3 months old child the absence of the right testis in the scrotum was revealed. This testis is in the anterior abdominal wall above the superficial inguinal ring. How is this pathology called? 1. Monorchism. 2. Cryptorchism. 3. Anarchism. 4. Funicocele. 5. Varicocele. 6. The patient has suppression of the urination. Doctor must examine his prostate gland through the rectum. What part of the prostate gland can be palpable in this case? 1. Posterior surface. 2. Anterior surface. 3. Base of the gland. 4. Apex of the gland. 5. Inferolateral surface. 7. Loss of the tonus of the muscles of the female perineum results in the prolapsus (descending) of the uterus. Decreasing of the tonus of which muscle is main in this pathology? 1. Levator ani muscle. 2. Deep transverse perinea muscle. 3. External sphincter of the anus. 4. Internal sphincter of the anus. 5. Coccygeus muscle. 8. A stone left a kidney of a patient. On what level of the ureter the stone can come to stop? 1. On border line of the abdominal and pelvic parts. 2. In the pelvis of the kidney. 3. In the middle of the abdominal part. 4. 2 cm above the urinary bladder. 9. For surgical intervention in the female pelvis the surgeon must tie up the uterine artery. What of following structures can be tied up by chance together with it? 1. Ureter. 2. Uterine tube. 3. Round ligament of the uterus. 4. Internal iliac vein. 5. Urethra. 10. Tumor on the posterior wall of the male’s urinary bladder is diagnosed. Which organs can be drawn into this pathology? 1. Rectum, seminal vesicles, ampulla of the deferent duct. 2. Prostate gland. 3. Rectum, prostate gland. 4. Male urethra. 5. Cowper’s gland’s. 11. The inflammation of the testis of the 40 year man with hydrocele was diagnosed. The operation is 112 3. Between tunica dartos and external spermatic fascia. 4. Between external spermatic fascia and cremaster muscle. 5. Between internal spermatic fascia and vaginal coat. 16. A patient had unpleasant sense during urination and pus from the urethra. In confirmation of the diagnosis the bacteriological analysis must be done. A doctor took the mucus for microscopic examination from the fossa navicularis urethrae. Where is fossa navicularis located? 1. Glans penis. 2. Cavernous body. 3. Prostatic gland. 4. Membranous part. 5. Bulbus urethrae. 17. A mother of the 2-years boy turned to the doctor with complaints of the increasing of the size of the scrotum of her child. During examination the hydrocele was diagnosed. Which coat of the testis contains serous fluid? 1. Vaginal. 2. Tunica dartos. 3. Tunica albuginea. 4. External spermatic fascia. 5. Internal spermatic fascia. 18. A patient had tumor of the prostate gland. During operation the doctor saw that the tumor gave off metastasis into the urinary bladder. Into which part of the urinary bladder can metastasis pass at first? 1. Neck. 2. Apex. 3. Fundus. 4. Body. 19. A 65-years patient had the fibromioma (tumor) of the uterus. In what layer of the uterine wall is this tumor located? 1. Myometrium. 2. Endometrium. 3. Perimetrium. 4. Parametrium. necessary. What coat of the testis will be dissected last during operation? 1. Parietal lamina of the vaginal coat. 2. Tunica dartos. 3. Internal spermatic fascia. 4. Cremaster muscle. 5. External spermatic fascia. 12. During operation for removing of the uterus doctor must tie up the uterine artery, which is located in the depth of the broad ligament of the uterus. The doctor must keep in his mind that ureter is closer to this artery. Where is ureter located according to the uterine artery? 1. Behind. 2. In front. 3. Above. 4. Below. 5. Laterally. 13. During the examination of the newborn boy the absence of the left testis in scrotum (monorchidism) was found. In what age the testis must be in the scrotum? 1. On the birthday. 2. In 1 year old. 3. In 3 years old. 4. In 5 years old. .14. During the examination of the woman pus was suspected in the rectouterine pouch. Through which anatomical formation is punction of this pouch carried out for diagnostic purposes? 1. Posterior vaginal fornix. 2. Anterior vaginal fornix. 3. Ampulla of the rectum. 4. Diaphragm of the pelvis. 5. Anterior wall of the vagina. 15. A 40-years man had painful tumor in the scrotum. The hydrocele was diagnosed. Between which coats of the testis the fluid can accumulate? 1. Between parietal and visceral lamina of the vaginal coat. 2. Between skin and tunica dartos. 113 5. Peritoneum. 20. A 70-years patient had suppression of diuresis. During examination the hypertrophy of the organ which envelops the proximal part of the urethra was revealed. How is this organ called? 1. Prostate gland. 2. Bulbourethral gland. 3. Bulb of the penis. 4. Epididymis. 5. Seminal vesicles. 21. The inflammation of the peritoneum in the true pelvis of the small girl was diagnosed. Through what anatomical formation the infection could pass into the true pelvis? 1. Ostium vaginae. 2. Ostium urethrae externum. 3. Ostium urethrae internum. 4. Ductuli glandulae vestibularis major. 5. Canalis analis 22. The inflammation of the subserous tissue around neck of the uterus gave the pain for the patient. The inflammation of what part of the genital organs was detected? 1. Parametrium. 2. Mesometrium. 3. Myometrium. 4. Endometrium. 5. Perimetrium. 23. One of the complication of the epidemic parotidis is the affection of the spermatic epithelium. Which structures of the testes are affected by this disease? 1. Tubuli seminiferi contorti. 2. Ductus epididimydis. 3. Rete testis. 4. Ductuli prostatici. 5. Ductuli efferentes testis 24. A woman was admitted to the hospital with internal bleeding as a result of the extra-uterine pregnancy. Through what anatomical formation can puncture of abdominal cavity carried out for diagnostic purposes? 1. Posterior fornix of the vaginae. 2. Anterior fornix of the vaginae. 3. Neck of the uterus. 4. External os uteri. 5. Anterior wall of the vaginae. 25. It is necessary to remove urine from the patient’s urinary bladder by means of catheter. Which part of man’s urethra can be damaged while carelessly inserting the catheter? 1. Pars membranacea. 2. Pars spongiosa. 3. Pares cavernosa. 4. Pars prostatica. 5. Pars bulbaris. 26. A 18-years old woman was admitted to the hospital with traumatic injury of the vaginal wall in the urethra’s region. Which column of the rugae was damaged? 1. Front. 2. Back. 3. Right. 4. Left. 5. Upper. 27. As a result of inflammation of the testis (orchitis) the man has the affection of the semen. Which structures of the testis are affected? 1. Ductuli seminiferi contorti. 2. Rete testis. 3. Ductuli seminiferi recti. 4. Ductuli efferentes testis. 5. Ductus epididimidis. 28. During examination of the 47year woman the reflux (back flowing of the urine) was diagnosed. In what part of the kidney are the smooth muscles for prevention of the reflux located? 1. Calyx renalis minor. 2. Calyx renalis major. 3. Pelvis renalis. 4. Ductuli papillares. 5. Capsula glomeruli. 114 3. Right mesenteric sinus 4. Left mesenteric sinus 35. Which part of the urethral canal can be damaged during mechanical trauma of the penis? 1. Spongy 2. Cavernous 3. Prostatic 4. Bladder 5. Membranous 36. For making more exact diagnosis to a sick woman a doctor must do a puncture of Dougla’s pouch (excavatio rectouterina). Where a doctor must do a puncture of the vaginal wall? 1. Back part of the vaginal vault 2. Front part of the vaginal vault 3. Front lateral part of the vaginal vault 4. Left lateral part of the vaginal vault 5. Front wall of the vagina 37. A sick-woman needs in the catheterization of the urinary bladder. Where is the external opening of the urethral canal located? 1. Between clitoris and opening of the vagina 2. Lateral from the frenulum of the clitoris 3. At the head of the clitoris 4. Between the opening of the vagina and anal opening 38. A sick man has the increasing of the prostatic gland. Which part of the urethra is damaged? 1. Prostatic 2. Spongy 3. Cavernous 4. Membranous 39. During X-ray examination of a 19 years man a doctor found a nephroptosis (descending of the kidneys). Where are kidneys located in normal position? 1. XI thorax and III lumbar vertebrae 2. IX-X thorax 3. IV-V lumbar 4. XII thorax and I lumbar 29. The cystoscopic examination was prescribed for the 35-years man. In this case doctor must remember what is the border-line between fixed and mobile parts of the man’s urethra? 1. Lig. fundiforme penis. 2. Lig. suspensorium penis. 3. Pars prostatica urethrae. 4. Radix penis. 5. Fascia penis profunda. 30. A woman has the uterus with an opened angle to the back. Which position does this uterus occupy? 1. Retroflexia 2. Anteflexia 3. Lateroposition 4. Retroversia 5. Anteversia 31. The ovary of a sick woman is displaced to lower parts of a small pelvis. Which ligament is damaged? 1. Lig. suspensorium ovarii 2. Lig. teres uteri 3. Lig. ovarii proprium 32. A sick woman has an inflammation of the fat around the uterus. Call this formation. 1. Parametrium 2. Endometrium 3. Myometrium 4. Perimetrium 5. Peritendineum 33. A 17-years adolescent has no testes in a scrotum. Both testes are located in the region of the inguinal canals. What is the name of this anomaly? 1. Cryptorchism 2. Monorchism 3. Anorchism 4. Binochrism 5. Triorchism 34. A 28 years woman has extra uterine pregnancy. Where blood can be accumulated in the peritoneal cavity? 1. Excavatio rectouterina 2. Excavatio vesicouterina 115 5. IX-XII thorax 40. During childbirth woman’s pubic symphisis was broken. What organ can be traumatized? 1. Urinary bladder 2. Rectum 3. Ovaries 4. Uterine tube 5. Uterus 41. During examination a doctor found in a 70 year man the tumour of the right kidney. What organ is located above the kidney? 1. Adrenal gland 2. Lien 3. Stomach 4. Pancreas 5. Gallbladder 42. X-ray examination exposed that a right kidney of the patient is located at the level IV-V lumbar vertebrae. Is this normal position or not? 1. Normal position – on the level of XI thorax and III lumbar vertebrae 2. Normal position – on the level of II-III lumbar vertebrae 3. Normal position – on the level of III-I lumbar vertebrae 4. Normal position – on the level of X-XI thorax vertebrae 5. Normal position – on the level of IV-V lumbar vertebrae 43. A spermatic cord consists of all parts except: 1. Ejaculator duct 2. Deferent duct 3. Arteries and veins of the testis 4. Nerves 5. Lymphatic vessels 44. In which part of the nephron is primary urine formed? 1. Tuft (glomerulus) 2. Proximal convoluted tubule 3. Distal convoluted tubule 4. Henle’s loop 5. Straight tubule 45. Name the parts of the male urethra: 1. Prostatic, membranous, spongy 2. Bladder, prostatic, spongy 3. Prostatic, cavernous 4. Bladder, membranous, spongy 5. Prostatic, spongy, cavernous 46. During operation in a 60 year woman a doctor determined that fibromioma grows between layers of the lig. lata uteri near the fundus of the uterus. Where is fibromioma located? 1. In mesosalpinx 2. In mesometrium 3. In mesovarium 4. In parametrium 47. During examination of a 60 years patient a doctor found that an orifice of one duct, passing the semen, is closed. This duct opens in the seminal colliculus in the prostatic part of the male urethra. What is this duct? 1. Ductus ejaculatorius 2. Ductus deferens 3. Ductus excretorius 4. Ductus epididymis 5. Glandulae bulbourethralis 48. A patient hospitalized on the occasion of a renal colic. A doctor found stone in the renal pelvis. Where is a normal level of the renal pelvis located? 1. II lumbar vertebrae 2. III lumbar vertebrae 3. XI thoracic vertebrae 4. IX thoracic vertebrae 5. I lumbar vertebrae 49. A patient had operation on the occasion of a tumour of the ureter. During operation a doctor found that a tumour grew into mesenterium of the intestine. What part of the ureter is damaged by the tumour? 1. Abdominal 2. Pelvic 3. Intramural 50. After the inflammation of a peritoneum a sick man has an inflammation of one coat of the testis. What coat of the testis is damaged? 1. Tunica vaginalis testis 116 2. Fascia cremasterica 3. Fascia spermatica interna 4. Fascia spermatica externa 5. M. cremaster 51. During examination of a 42 years man doctor found the inflammation in the region of a sinus of the epididymis. What coat of the testis is damaged? 1. Tunica vaginalis testis 2. Fascia cremasterica 3. Fascia spermatica interna 4. Fascia spermatica externa 5. M. cremaster 52. During examination a doctor found the tumour located between two ejaculator ducts. What part of the prostatic gland is damaged? 1. Isthmus 2. Lobus sinister 3. Lobus dexter 4. Lobus anterior 5. Lobus posterior 53. In consequence of a wound the woman has damages of the front part of the uterus. The position of the uterus is anteversion. What part of the uterus is damaged? 1. Fundus 2. Corpus 3. Isthmus 4. Portio vaginalis cervix uteri 5. Portio supravaginalis cervix uteri 54. During a careless manipulation a sick woman received the damage in the region of the deepest section of the vaginal vault. What is this section? 1. Back 2. Front 3. Right 4. Left 5. Lower 55. In a sick woman the doctor found a tumour of the vagina about 1 cm. It’s located in the region of the excavatio rectouterina. Where is a tumour located? 1. Upper 1/3 part of the back wall 2. Upper wall 3. Front wall 4. Lower 1/3 part of the back wall 5. Middle 1/3 part of the back wall 56. After wound in a region of the perineum a 53 year patient complains to involuntary urination. What muscle is damaged? 1. M. sphincter urethrae 2. M. ischiocavernosus 3. M. bulbospongiosus 4. M. transversus perinei superficialis 5. M. transversus perinea profundus 57. During examination of an elderly patient a doctor determined diagnosis-“floating kidney” (nephroptosis). What structural parts of the kidney changed? 1. Corpus adiposum 2. Hilus renalis 3. Ureter 4. Sinus renalis 58. At the urology department a doctor cannot bring catheter into the urethra (only on a half of the distance). What part of the urethra can be narrow in this case? 1. Spongy 2. Internal orifice 3. Cavernous 4. External orifice 5. Prostatic 59. A 65 years patient has retention of urine. What organ is damaged? 1. Prostatic gland 2. Seminal vesicles 3. Epididymus 4. Bulbourethral gland 60. Which organ of the abdominal cavity a doctor can operate without opening of the peritoneal cavity? 1. Kidney 2. Liver 3. Intestine 4. Duodenum 117 61. During the examination of a mucous coat of a urinary bladder a doctor saw a section without folds. What is the name of this section? 1. Trigonum vesicae 2. Trigonum uretralis 3. Trigonum pubovesicalis 4. Trigonum ureteris 5. Area vesicalis posterior 62. A patient has urolithiasis. During examination a doctor saw the stone at the final portion of a right ureter. What is a name of this part of a ureter? 1. Pars intramuralis 2. Pars pelvina 3. Pars abdominalis 4. Pars renalis 5. Pars vesicalis 63. A mother complains on a compact formation on the posterior wall of the scrotum of her 7 years son. A doctor soothed a mother and explained to her that this is a rudimental formation connected with the development of sexual male organs, it’s good developed in boys. What is a name of this formation? 1. Paradidymis 2. Ductuli aberrantes 3. Vesicular seminalis 4. Appendix epididymis 64. A doctor diagnosed-«Uterine prolapse» (descent of the womb) in the pelvis of a 32 years woman. Which ligaments fix the uterus in the normal position? 1. Lig. teres uteri, lig. cardinale uterine,m.rectouterinus 2. Lig. cardinale, lig. lata uteri, mesometrium 3. Lig. propria uteri, mesometrium, lig. teres uteri 4. Lig. lata uteri, lig. teres uteri, lig. propria uteri 5. Mesometrium, lig. lata uteri, lig. propria uteri 65. A 60 years sick man needs to remove urine by catheter. In which place a doctor can break a urinal canal during the manipulation? 1. Pars membranacea 2. Ostium uretrae externum 3. Fossa navicularis 4. Pars spongiosa 5. Pars prostatica 66. Patient complains of frequent and difficult urination. Imperfection of what formation can cause it? 1. Prostate 2. Bulbourethral glands 3. Seminal vesicles 4. Testes 67. During operation a doctor must find a gate of the kidney. What structures go out from the gate of kidney? 1. V. renalis, ureter 2. A. renalis, ureter 3. A. renalis, nerves and lymph vessels 4. A., v. renalis 5. Vessels of kidney and nerves 68. During operation a doctor must find a gate of the kidney. What structures come into the gate of kidney? 1. A. renalis, nerves 2. A. renalis, ureter 3. A., v. renalis 4. Vessels of kidney and nerves 69. Ovarian tumour was diagnosed in the woman. Surgery was indicated. What ligament should be cut by the surgeon to disconnect the ovary and the uterus? 1. Own ligament of the ovary 2. Lateral umbilical ligament 3. Broad ligament of uterus 4. Suspensory ligament of ovary 5. Round ligament of uterus 70. During the complicated labour the symphysis pubis ruptured. What organ can be damaged the most? 1. Urinary blader 2. Rectum 3. Uterus 4. Ovaria 5. Uterine tubes 118 1. Bladder floor. 2. Bladder isthmus. 3. Bladder body. 4. Bladder apex. 5. Bladder cervix. 76. A 28 year old woman has been diagnosed with extrauterine pregnancy complicated by the fallopian tube rupture. The blood is most likely to penetrate the following peritoneal space: 1. Rectouterine. 2. Intersigmoid sinus. 3. Vesicouterine. 4. Left mesenteric sinus. 5. Right mesenteric sinus. 77. Examination of a 19-year-old man revealed nephroptosis. Normally the kidneys should be located at the following vertebral level: 1. XI thoracic and III lumbar 2. IX-X thoracic 3. IV-V lumbar 4. XII thoracic and I lumbar 5. IX-XII thoracic 78. A patient has urolithiasis that was complicated by a renal calculus passage. At what level of ureter is it most likely to stop? 1. Between abdominal and pelvic part 2. In pelvis 3. In the middle abdominal part 4.5 cm above flowing into urinary bladder 5. 5 cm above pelvic part 79. A 58 year old woman has her uterus and all appendages completely removed. It resulted in sroppage of urine excretion. Cystoscopy results: bladder doesn't contain any urine, urine doesn't come also from ureteric orifices. What part of urinary excretion system was damaged during the operation? 1. Ureter 2. Uretra 3. Vesica urinaria 4. Pelvis renalis 5. Ren 71. A 32-years patient has been diagnosed with bartholinitis (inflammation of Bartholin's glands). In what part of the female urogenital system are the Bartholin's glands located? 1. In the labia majora 2. In the clitoris 3. In the uterus 4. In the vagina 5. In the labia minora 72. Inflammatory process of modified subserous layer around cervix of the uterus caused an intensive pain syndrome. In what region of genitals does the pathological process take place? 1. Parametrium 2. Myometrium 3. Endometrium 4. Mesometriurn 5. Perimetrium 73. In course of a small pelvis operation it became necessary to ligate an ovarian artery. What formation may be accidentally ligated together with it? 1. Ureter 2. Round ligament of uterus 3. Urethra 4. Uterine tube 5. Internal iliac vein 74. The patient 23 years old entered gynecological department with complaints of the massive edema of labia minora and purulent excretion near their base in a vestibule of a vagina nearer to the posterior comissure. About inflammation of what glands of genital organs it is necessary to think: 1. Large glands of vestibule (Bartoliny’s). 2. Bulbouretral (Cowper’s). 3. Prostatic. 4. Small glands of vestibule. 75. During cytoscopy mucous membrane of urinary bladder normally makes folds except for a single triangular area with smooth mucosa. This triangle is located in the following part of urinary bladder: 119 4.5 cm above flowing into urinary bladder 5. 5 cm above pelvic part 84. A 58 year old woman has her uterus and all appendages completely removed. It resulted in sroppage of urine excretion. Cystoscopy results: bladder doesn't contain any urine, urine doesn't come also from ureteric orifices. What part of urinary excretion system was damaged during the operation? 1. Ureter 2. Uretra 3. Vesica urinaria 4. Pelvis renalis 5. Ren 85. A patient complains of having urination disorder. He is diagnosed the hypertrophy of prostate gland. What part of gland is damaged? 1. Median lobe 2. Left lobe 3. Right lobe 4. Base 5. Apex 86. A patient was diagnosed with bartholinitis (inflammation of greater vulvovaginal glands). In which organ of urogenital system are these glands localized? 1. Greater pudendal lips 2. Lesser pudendal lips 3. Clitoris 4. Vagina 5. Uterus 80. A patient complains of having urination disorder. He is diagnosed the hypertrophy of prostate gland. What part of gland is damaged? 1. Median lobe 2. Left lobe 3. Right lobe 4. Base 5. Apex 81. A patient was diagnosed with bartholinitis (inflammation of greater vulvovaginal glands). In which organ of urogenital system are these glands localized? 1. Greater pudendal lips 2. Lesser pudendal lips 3. Clitoris 4. Vagina 5. Uterus 82. Examination of a 19-year-old man revealed nephroptosis. Normally the kidneys should be located at the following vertebral level: 1. XI thoracic and III lumbar 2. IX-X thoracic 3. IV-V lumbar 4. XII thoracic and I lumbar 5. IX-XII thoracic 83. A patient has urolithiasis that was complicated by a renal calculus passage. At what level of ureter is it most likely to stop? 1. Between abdominal and pelvic part 2. In pelvis 3. In the middle abdominal part HEART, FOETUS CIRCULATION, LYMPHATIC SYSTEM 3. Aorta and inferior vena cava 4. Pulmonary trunk and superior vena cava 5. Aorta and superior vena cava 2. During the examination of a patient the systolic murmur in V intercostal space, 1 cm to the right from left medioclavicular line was 1. During the foetal period of the development in the vascular system of the foetus large arterial (Botalli) duct is present, it will converted into lig. arteriosum after birth. What anatomical formations does this duct connect? 1. Pulmonary trunk and aorta 2. Right and left auricle 120 detected. What valve has pathology in this case? 1. Mitral. 2. Aortic. 3. Valve of the inferior vena cava. 4. Valve of the pulmonary trunk. 5. Tricuspid. 3. X-ray examination of the organs of the thoracic cavity showed the incresing of the left contour size of the heart. Modification of what structure is it? 1. Left ventricle. 2. Left atrium. 3. Arc of the aorta. 4. Pulmonary trunk. 5. Right ventricle. 4. A 50-years patient, complaining of the pain behind sternum and asthmatic facts after physical work, admitted to the hospital. The pathological changes of the posterior interventricular artery were revealed by angiography. Which part of the heart were injured? 1. Posterior walls of the right and left ventricles. 2. Left atrium. 3. Anterior walls of the right and left ventricles. 4. Right atrium. 5. Right atrioventricular valve. 5. Myocardial infarction of the anterior wall of the left ventricle and of the ventricular septum, which is accompanied by the disturbance of the rhythmic work of the heart, is diagnosed. What parts of the conducting system of the heart are destroyed? 1. Atrioventricular bundle. 2. Sinoatrial node. 3. Atrioventricular node. 4. Left crus of the atrioventricular bundle. 5. Right crus of the atrioventricular bundle. 6. During an auscultation of the heart the doubling of the first sound in the fifth intercostal space along mammillary line was determined. Pathology of which valve of the heart did doctor diagnose? 1. Bicuspid valve. 2. Tricuspid valve. 3. Aortic valve. 4. Valve of the pulmonary trunk. 5. Valve of the inferior cava vein. 7. During an auscultation of the heart the doubling of the first sound on the base of the xiphoid process of the breast-bone (sternum) was determined. Pathology of which valve of the heart did doctor diagnose? 1. Tricuspid. 2. Bicuspid. 3. Aortic valve. 4. Valve of the pulmonary trunk. 5. Valve of the inferior cava vein. 8. During an auscultation of the heart the diastolic murmur in the second intercostal space along right sternal line was determined. Pathology of which valve of the heart did doctor diagnose? 1. Aortic valve. 2. Bicuspid valve. 3. Tricuspid valve. 4. Valve of the pulmonary trunk. 5. Valve of the inferior cava vein. 9. During an auscultation of the heart the systolic murmur in the second intercostal space along left sternal line was determined. Pathology of which valve of the heart did doctor diagnose? 1. Valve of the pulmonary trunk. 2. Bicuspid valve. 3. Tricuspid valve. 4. Aortic valve. 5. Valve of the inferior cava vein. 10. During examination of the 65years patient, who suffers from cardiac unrhythmic, the changes of the function of the intracardiac nervous plexuses are diagnosed. How many intracardiac plexuses the heart has according to Vorobiev? 1. 6. 121 2. 8. 3. 11. 4. 7. 5. 3. 11. Name the vessel, which carries arterial blood from mother to foetus: 1. V. umbilicalis. 2. A. umbilicalis. 3. Aorta. 4. Truncus pulmonalis. 5. V. cava superior. 12. During auscultation a cardiologist found an apical systolic murmur. What diagnosis a doctor did determine? 1. Mitral valve incompetence 2. Aortic valve incompetence 3. Tricuspid valve incompetence 4. Pulmonary valve incompetence 5. Tricuspid valve stenosis 13. During examination a cardiologist found that the apex beat is located on 2.5 cm outside of the medioclavicular line. What part of the heart is abnormal? 1. Hypertrophy of the left ventricle 2. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle 3. Hypertrophy of the right auricle 4. Hypertrophy of the left auricle 5. Hypertrophy of the right and left auricle 14. A sick man has expressive pulse of carotid arteries: wavy raisings of the skin along the internal edge of the m. sternocleidomastoideus. A hurt of what valve is this symptom? 1. Valva aortae 2. Valva tricuspidalis 3. Valva mitralis 4. Valva trunci pulmonalis 5. Valvula sinus coronarii 15. Cancer of the organ in the thoracic cavity gives off metastases which pass into the thoracic lymphatic duct. What organ is it? 1. Oesophagus. 2. Lung. 3. Trachea. 4. Heart. 5. Thymus. 16. Where should be the catheter inserted for evacuation of the lymph from the thoracic lymph duct? 1. To the left venous angle 2. To the inferior vena cava 3. To the left inguinal vein 4. To the superior vena cava 5. To the right venous angle 17. A patient with tuberculosis has big tracheobronchial lymph nodes which are located between the arch of the aorta and bifurcation of the trachea. It has led to changing into a heart’s rhythm. What nerves or nervous plexuses can be pressed by nodes? 1. Plexus cardiacus profundus 2. N. vagus 3. Plexux cardiacus superficialis 4. Sympathetic nerves 5. Intraorganic cardiac plexus 18. The patient had inflammatory purulent process of the skin between first and second toes of the foot. What lymph nodes will react with pain and swelling? 1. Nodi limphatici inguinales superficiales. 2. Nodi limphatici inguinales profundi. 3. Nodi limphatici parietalis. 4. Nodi limphatici poplitei. 5. Nodi limphatici iliaci externi. 19. A patient has a malignisation of thoracic part of oesophagus. What lymphatic nodes are regional for this organ? 1. Nodi lymphatici mediastinales posteriores 2. Nodi lymphatici paratrachealis 3. Anulus lymphaticus cardiae 4. Nodi lymphatici pericardiales laterales 5. Nodi lymphatici prevertebralis 20. A patient has pain, oedema and reddening of his skin in the anterosuperior area of his thigh and his big toe. What lymph nodes of his lower limb responded to the inflammatory process? 122 1. Superficial inguinal 2. Internal longitudinal 3. General longitudinal 4. Superficial longitudinal 5. Deep inguinal 21. While palpating mammary gland of a patient a doctor revealed an induration in form of a node in the inferior medial quadrant. Metastases may extend to the following lymph nodes: 1. Anterior parasternal 2. Deep lateral cervical 3. Bronchopulmonary 4. Posterior mediastinal 5. Superior diaphragmatic 22. Preventive examination of a patient revealed an enlarged lymph node of metastatic origin on the medial wall of the left axillary fossa. Specify the most likely localization of the primary tumour: 1. Mammary gland 2. Lung 3. Stomach 4. Thyroid gland 5. Submandibular salivary gland 23. A 2-years child suffers from pneumonia often. Medical examination revealed unclosed ductus arteriosus. What vessels are communicated by this duct? 1. Aorta and pulmonary trunk 2. Aorta and pulmonary veins 3. Superior cava and aorta 4. Superior cava and pulmonary trunk 5. Pulmonary trunk and pulmonary veins 24. At a patient the malignant tumor of the abdominal part of the esophagus is diagnosed. What lymph nodes are regional for this part of the esophagus? 1. Anulus lymphaticus cardiae. 2. Nodi lymphatici paratracheales. 3. Nodi lymphatici pericardiales laterales. 4. Nodi lymphatici mediastinales posteriores. 25. At the patient furuncle is exposed in an external auditory canal. What lymph nodes can react on an inflammatory process? 1. Nodi lymphatici parotidei. 2. Nodi lymphatici retropharingeales. 3. Nodi lymphatici cervicales superficiales. 4. Nodi lymphatici mandibulares. 26. The patient appealed to the dentist with complaints about long-term pain in area of the anterior teeth of lower jaw. At examination the doctor found out the caries of lower right incisor. An increasing in the sizes of group lymphatic nodes was marked. To what lymph nodes does lymph outflow from lower incisors and canines? 1. Submental. 2. Facial. 3. Submandibular. 4. Superficial neck. 5. Deep neck. 27. A patient long time suffered from pain of lower jaw teeth. At examination the doctor found out carious cavities on the contact surfaces of first and second lower molar on the left. To what lymph nodes do lymphatic vessels pass from lower premolar and molar? 1. Submandibular. 2. Submental. 3. Facial. 4. Retropharyngeal. 28. At a patient 47 years old the tumor of tongue tip is diagnosed. To what regional lymph nodes are the metastases possible? 1. Submental. 2. Mastoid. 3. Parotid. 4. Retropharyngeal. 29. At the patient 16 years old there is furuncle in the right area of nose wing. A process was complicated by the increasing of the lymph nodes. To what lymph nodes does lymph outflow from this area? 1. Nodi lymphatici submandibulares. 2. Nodi lymphatici occipitales. 3. Nodi lymphatici mastoidei. 123 4. Nodi lymphatici parotidei. 30. Patient had a wound of skin on lateral edge of the foot with an inflammatory process. It is suspicion of infection spread from the wound along lymphatic vessels. What lymph nodes must be inspected first of all? 1. Superficial popliteal. 2. Deep popliteal. 3. Posterior tibial. 4. Anterior tibial. 5. Inguinal. 31. The patient came to the doctor with complaints about the density in the superior-lateral area of right mammary gland. What lymph nodes must the doctor check up first of all, to make sure of non-spreading of this pathological process? 1. Intercostal. 2. Axillary. 3. Parasternal. 4. Superior diaphragmatic. 5. Anterior mediastinal. 32. During operation on the resection of the tumor of the mammary gland, the surgeon removed the lymph nodes of the axillary fossa, where metastases could spread. Thus there was complication as an edema of upper limb. In what lymph trunk was the outflow of lymph disordered? 1. Subclavian. 2. Jugular. 3. Bronchomediastinal. 4. Intestinal. 33. A weightlifter has a disruption of the thoracic lymphatic duct as a result of lifting a weight Choose the most likely site of injury: 1. In the region of aortic hiatus 2. In the region of lumbosacral plexus 3. In the posterior mediastinum 4. In the region of venous angle ENDOCRINE SYSTEM 3. Pineal gland 4. Adrenal cortex 5. Hypophysis 4. A 30 years patient complains of a strong thirst, dryness in a mouth, which appeared after strong nervous shock. At the laboratory examination the increasing of sugar is exposed in a blood. Disfunction of what endocrine gland this patient has? 1. Pancreas. 2. Thyroid. 3. Sexual. 4. Adrenal. 5. Epiphisis. 5. A woman, 39 years old, during 8 years can’t become pregnant. At the examination of a patient exophtalm, tremor of eyelids, tachycardia (increasing of the heart’s bittings) are found. Disease of what endocrine gland is accompanied with such symptoms? 1. Why the doctor must make upper tracheostomy for the child? Owing to the lower position of the: 1. Isthmus of the thyroid gland. 2. Lobes of the thyroid gland. 3. Larynx. 4. Trachea. 2. During examination a doctor found the tumour above the right kidney in the body of 70 years man. What organ is located above this kidney? 1. Adrenal gland 2. Lien 3. Stomach 4. Pancreas 5. Gall bladder 3. A 2-years child experienced convulsions because of lowering calcium ions concentration in the blood plasma. Function of what structure is decreased? 1. Parathyroid glands 2. Thymus 124 1. Thyroid. 2. Pancreas. 3. Sexual. 4. Adreanl. 5. Epiphysis. 6. A patient, 50 years old, complains of increasing of the size of ears, nose, hands. Hyperfunction of what gland will give these symptoms? 1. Hypophysis. 2. Sexual. 3. Thyroid. 4. Suprarenal. 5. Epiphisis. 7. A girl, 9 years old, has the increasing of mammilary glands, blood secretion from vagina, increasing of the growth of hairs on a body and around external genital organs,changing in skin color. Function of what endocrine gland is broken? 1. Epiphisis cerebri 2. Hypophysis cerebri. 3. Gl. thyroidea. 4. Gl. suprarenalis. 5. Gl. parathyroidea. 8. In position on the back a 6month child gaspes. On the front wall of trachea above jugular notch of the sternum a tumor is found. What organ can squeeze the trachea? 1. Thymus. 2. Thyroid gland. 3. Parathyroid gland. 4. Lymphatic nodes. 9. At laboratory examination the increase of the level of glucose is marked in the blood of a patient. Disfunction what endocrine gland a patient has? 1. Pancreas. 2. Gl. suprarenalis 3. Gl. thyroidea. 4. Gl. parathyroidea. 5. Gl. pineale. 10. A patient has the muscular convulsions. About hypofunction of what endocrine gland it is possible to think? 1. Parathyroid gland. 2. Epiphisis. 3. Sexual glands. 4. Adrenal glands. 11. X-ray examination of the bones on the base of the skull finds out the increasing of the Turkish saddle. Tumour of what endocrine gland can give such destruction of the bone? 1. Hypophisis. 2. Thymus. 3. Epiphisis. 4. Thyroid. 5. Adrenal. 12. A patient has tremor of fingers, muscular weakness, tachycardia, sleeplessness, emaciation the good appetite. Symptoms of disease of which gland are these ones? 1. Thyroid. 2. Pancreas. 3. Adrenal. 4. Epiphisis. 13. A girl, 10 years old, has the exposed signs of the premature secondary sexual characters. The decline of function of what endocrine gland could give this phenomen? 1. Epiphisis. 2. Thyroid. 3. Parathyroid. 4. Adrenal. 14. A patient has diabetes insipidus. The activity of what endocrine gland is abnormal? 1. Hypophisis. 2. Thyroid. 3. Sexual. 4. Adrenal. 5. Epiphisis. 15. A patient, complaining of weight loss (10 kg during 2 months), pallpitation and exophthalmos, came to a doctor. For the hyperfunction of what endocrine gland are these complaints most typical? 125 1. Thyroid 2. Ovaria 3. Adrenal glands 4. Pancreas 5. Parathyroid glands 16. A 6-month child is suffocating while lying on his back.The palpation on the anterior wall of trachea up to jugular notch of the sternum revealed tumor-like mass, stretching into the anterior mediastinum. What organ can squeeze trachea? 1. Thymus gland 2. Thyroid gland 3. Parathyroid glands 4. Parathyroid lymph nodes 17. At a boy of 13 years old the signs of cretinism are exposed (nanism, excalation of privy parts and mental lag). What could serve a reason of development of this pathology? 1. Hypofunction of thyroid. 2. Hyperfunction of thyroid. 3. Hypofunction of parathyroid glands. 4. Hypofunction of parathyroid glands. 5. Hypofunction of posterior lobe of hypophysis. 18. A man appealed to the doctor with complaints about that female sexual signs appeared at him. About the tumor of what gland is it possible to think? 1. Glandula pineale. 2. Insulae pancreaticae. 3. Glandula suprarenalis. 4. Glandula thyroidea. 5. Glandula parathyroidea. 19. To the child 2 years old with the pneumonia X-ray of thorax was performed out, on which shade of thymus was found. At what age process involution of this gland starts? 1. After 14-15 years. 2. After 5-6 years. 3. Afterl 7-8 years. 4. After 10-11 years. 20. A mother appealed a doctor. Her son during a summer grew on 18 cm. At the inspection of fellow 12 years: growth 180 cm, weight 68 kg. To disorder activity of what endocrine gland is it related? 1. Hypophysis. 2. Epiphysis. 3. Thyroid. 4. Sexual. 21. A patient complains of a frequent pulse and shaking of finger tips. The exophthalm, dryness of skin were objective. Taking account information of laboratory researches – Bazedov’s disease was diagnosed. At the hyperfunction of what gland does it develop? 1. Thyroid. 2. Inferior parathyroid. 3. Suprarenal. 4. Superior parathyroid. 5. Hypophysis. 22. The patient of 31 years old appealed to a doctor with complaints about edema of subcutaneous fat, apathy, decline of ability to work, decline of temperature of body. A mixedema was diagnosed. The function of what gland is disorder? 1. Thyroid. 2. Thymus. 3. Pancreas. 4. Parathyroid. 5. Suprarenal. 23. Gigantism developed at a man. The function of what gland is broken? 1. Hypophysis. 2. Thyroid. 3. Epiphysis. 4. Thymus. 5. Suprarenal. 24. A patient complains of an increased physical and mental 126 weakness, adynamia. At examination a hyperpigmentation of skin and mucous were found. What endocrine glands are staggered? 1. Suprarenal. 2. Genital glands. 3. Hypophysis. 4. Insular islets of pancreas. 5. Thyroid gland. 25. On back position a six-month child cannot breathe. By palpation on an anterior wall of trachea to jugular notch of sternum tumor, going to anterior mediastinum, is determined. What organ can press a trachea? 1. Thymus gland. 2. Parathyroid glands. 3. Thyroid gland. 4. Paratracheal lymphatic nodes. 26. A patient with a disorder of function of breathing is necessary to perform a tracheotomy. At the level of what cartilaginous rings of trachea more frequent can be an isthmus of thyroid gland? 1. II-III. 2. IV-V. 3. III-IV. 4. I-II. 27. While playing a child got a punch in the sternal region. As a result of the trauma an organ located behind the manubrium sterni was damaged. Name this organ: 1. Thymus. 2. Larynx. 3. Thyroid gland. 4. Pericardium. 5. Heart. 127