Download BIOL 105 S 2011 Midterm Exam 2 QA 110513.5

Biology 105 – Human Biology
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Ch 5 Integumentary System
1. Which of the following is the correct order of the layers of the cutaneous membrane?
A) epidermis, hypodermis, dermis
B) dermis, epidermis, hypodermis
C) epidermis, dermis, hypodermis
D) hypodermis, dermis, epidermis
E) dermis, hypodermis, dermis
2. As cells are pushed from the deeper portion of the epidermis toward the surface,
A) they divide.
B) they die.
C) their nutrient supply increases.
D) they enter the dermis.
E) all of the above
3. Thick skin can be found on the
A) back.
B) palms.
C) legs.
D) arms.
E) chest.
4. The skin is also called the
A) serous membrane.
B) mucous membrane.
C) synovial membrane.
D) cutaneous membrane.
E) none of the above
5. The primary mode of heat loss from the body is
A) radiation.
B) conduction.
C) convection.
D) evaporation.
E) none of the above
6. Functions of the skin include
A) regulating body temperature.
B) synthesizing antibodies.
C) producing adipose tissue.
D) synthesizing digestive enzymes.
E) release of large amounts of hormones.
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Biology 105 – Human Biology
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RIDDELL
7. The pigment melanin
A) is produced by cells called melanocytes and is found in higher concentration in individuals with darker skin.
B) is usually some shade of red, yellow, or brown.
C) protects DNA from the damaging effects of UV radiation.
D) A and C only
E) all of the above
8. Which of the following is a function of the integumentary system that aids the endocrine system?
A) protection of underlying tissue
B) excretion
C) maintenance of body temperature
D) synthesis of vitamin D
E) nutrition and storage
9. Folds of the dermis that cause fingerprints are called
A) arrector pili.
B) dermal ridges.
C) dermal papillae.
D) cuticles.
E) the papillary layer of the dermis.
10. Injections made under the skin are called
A) epidermal injections.
B) subcutaneous injections.
C) dermal injections.
D) hypodermal injections.
E) intramuscular injections.
11. Accessory structures of the skin include
A) hair follicles.
B) arrector pili muscles.
C) sebaceous glands.
D) apocrine sweat glands.
E) all of the above
12. Why would an elderly person be more prone to skin infections than a younger person?
A) Skin repairs take longer in the elderly.
B) The epidermis is thinner in the elderly.
C) There are fewer macrophages in the skin of the elderly.
D) The blood supply to the dermis is reduced in the skin of the elderly.
E) all of the above
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Biology 105 – Human Biology
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55244 / 61816 4 Units
UVC1, 3 and 7 St. Helena
F 9:00 AM – 3:50 PM
RIDDELL
13. Which of the following is the correct order of the layers of the cutaneous membrane?
A) epidermis, hypodermis, dermis
B) dermis, epidermis, hypodermis
C) epidermis, dermis, hypodermis
D) hypodermis, dermis, epidermis
E) dermis, hypodermis, dermis
14. As cells are pushed from the deeper portion of the epidermis toward the surface,
A) they divide.
B) they die.
C) their nutrient supply increases.
D) they enter the dermis.
E) all of the above
15. Thick skin can be found on the
A) back.
B) palms.
C) legs.
D) arms.
E) chest.
16. The skin is also called the
A) serous membrane.
B) mucous membrane.
C) synovial membrane.
D) cutaneous membrane.
E) none of the above
17. The primary mode of heat loss from the body is
A) radiation.
B) conduction.
C) convection.
D) evaporation.
E) none of the above
18. 1Functions of the skin include
A) regulating body temperature.
B) synthesizing antibodies.
C) producing adipose tissue.
D) synthesizing digestive enzymes.
E) release of large amounts of hormones.
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Biology 105 – Human Biology
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UVC1, 3 and 7 St. Helena
F 9:00 AM – 3:50 PM
RIDDELL
19. The pigment melanin
A) is produced by cells called melanocytes and is found in higher concentration in individuals with darker skin.
B) is usually some shade of red, yellow, or brown.
C) protects DNA from the damaging effects of UV radiation.
D) A and C only
E) all of the above
20. Which of the following is a function of the integumentary system that aids the endocrine system?
A) protection of underlying tissue
B) excretion
C) maintenance of body temperature
D) synthesis of vitamin D
E) nutrition and storage
21. Folds of the dermis that cause fingerprints are called
A) arrector pili.
B) dermal ridges.
C) dermal papillae.
D) cuticles.
E) the papillary layer of the dermis.
22. Injections made under the skin are called
A) epidermal injections.
B) subcutaneous injections.
C) dermal injections.
D) hypodermal injections.
E) intramuscular injections.
23. Accessory structures of the skin include
A) hair follicles.
B) arrector pili muscles.
C) sebaceous glands.
D) apocrine sweat glands.
E) all of the above
24. Why would an elderly person be more prone to skin infections than a younger person?
A) Skin repairs take longer in the elderly.
B) The epidermis is thinner in the elderly.
C) There are fewer macrophages in the skin of the elderly.
D) The blood supply to the dermis is reduced in the skin of the elderly.
E) all of the above
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Biology 105 – Human Biology
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RIDDELL
Ch 8 Nervous System
25. Masses of myelinated nerve fibers appear
A) gray.
B) white.
C) yellow.
D) brown.
E) transparent.
26. The posterior horns of the spinal cord contain
A) sensory nuclei.
B) somatic motor nuclei.
C) autonomic motor nuclei.
D) nerve tracts.
E) all of the above
27. The part of the brain that functions to control skeletal muscles is the
A) medulla oblongata.
B) cerebral cortex.
C) midbrain.
D) diencephalons.
E) thalamus.
28. Major centers concerned with autonomic control of breathing, blood pressure, heart rate, and
digestive activities are located in the
A) medulla oblongata.
B) pons.
C) midbrain.
D) diencephalons.
E) cerebellum.
29. A neural cortex is found on the surface of the
A) cerebrum.
B) midbrain.
C) cerebellum.
D) pons.
E) both A and C
30. The region of the brain that is involved in conscious thought and intellectual function as well as
processing somatic sensory and motor information is the
A) medulla.
B) pons.
C) midbrain.
D) cerebellum.
E) cerebrum.
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RIDDELL
31. The two cerebral hemispheres are separated by the
A) longitudinal fissure.
B) central sulcus.
C) lateral sulcus.
D) frontal lobe.
E) postcentral sulcus.
32. The surface of the postcentral gyrus contains the
A) primary sensory cortex.
B) primary motor cortex.
C) visual cortex.
D) olfactory cortex.
E) auditory cortex.
33. Which of the following is glandular tissue?
A) third ventricle
B) posterior pituitary
C) thalamus
D) hypothalamus
E) anterior pituitary
34. Which of the following is a function of the cerebellum?
A) temperature regulation
B) thirst sensation
C) hunger sensation
D) postural reflexes
E) hormone production
35. The highest levels of information processing occur in the
A) cerebrum.
B) midbrain.
C) cerebellum.
D) medulla.
E) spinal cord.
36. Nerves exit the vertebral canal through
A) vertebral foramen.
B) intervertebral foramina.
C) sacral foramina.
D) intervertebral discs.
E) both B and C
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Biology 105 – Human Biology
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RIDDELL
37. The only cranial nerve that is attached to the cerebrum is the
A) optic.
B) oculomotor.
C) trochlear.
D) olfactory.
E) vestibulocochlear.
38. Reflexes help to control
A) heart rate.
B) blood pressure.
C) digestion.
D) pupil size.
E) all of the above
39. Pulling away from a painful stimulus is an example of the ________ reflex.
A) cross-extensor
B) pupillary
C) withdrawal
D) knee-jerk
E) ankle-jerk
40. Ascending tracts
A) carry sensory information to the brain.
B) carry motor information to the brain.
C) carry sensory information from the brain.
D) carry motor information from the brain.
E) none of the above
41. Control of the viscera is the job of the
A) spinal cord.
B) conscious control.
C) brain.
D) autonomic nervous system.
E) all of the above
42. The autonomic division of the nervous system directs
A) voluntary motor activity.
B) conscious control of skeletal muscles.
C) unconscious control of skeletal muscles.
D) processes that maintain homeostasis.
E) all of the above
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RIDDELL
43. Control of glands is through the
A) PNS.
B) ANS.
C) SNS.
D) CNS.
E) RAS.
44. The division of the autonomic nervous system that prepares the body for activity and stress is the
A) sympathetic division.
B) parasympathetic division.
C) craniosacral division.
D) arachnoid division.
E) somatic motor division.
45. The division of the autonomic nervous system that maintains homeostasis during stressful conditions
is the
A) sympathetic division.
B) parasympathetic division.
C) thoracolumbar division.
D) arachnoid division.
E) somatic motor division.
46. Effects produced by the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system include
A) dilation of the pupils.
B) increased secretion by digestive glands.
C) dilation of respiratory passages.
D) increased heart rate.
E) all of the above
Match the term in the first column with its description in the second.
TERM
Definition / Association
47. _____ exteroceptor
A. neuron cell body
48. _____ neuroglia
B. neurotransmitter
49. _____ astrocytes
C. provide(s) information about the external
environment
50. _____ dopamine
51. _____ soma
D. provide(s) a supporting framework
E. largest and most numerous type of glial cells
Answer: 1-C, 2-D, 3-E, 4-B, 5-A
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Biology 105 – Human Biology
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Ch 9
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RIDDELL
General and Special Senses
52. The term general senses refers to sensations of
A) hot and cold.
B) pain.
C) touch and vibration.
D) both B and C
E) all of the above
53. 2) The special senses are
A) olfaction.
B) vision.
C) gustation.
D) equilibrium.
E) all of the above
54. 6) Pain receptors
A) reduce in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus.
B) increase in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus.
C) are stimulated by things that cause tissue damage.
D) adapt rapidly.
E) are widely distributed in all tissues.
55. 7) Nociceptors are sensitive to
A) pain.
B) light touch.
C) pressure.
D) osmotic pressure.
E) blood pressure.
56. 9) Olfactory receptors are examples of
A) pain receptors.
B) thermoreceptors.
C) mechanoreceptors.
D) chemoreceptors.
E) proprioceptors.
57. 10) Sensory receptors that monitor the position of joints are called
A) nociceptors.
B) chemoreceptors.
C) baroreceptors.
D) proprioceptors.
E) thermoreceptors.
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RIDDELL
58. Sensory receptors that respond to changes in blood pressure are called
A) nociceptors.
B) baroreceptors.
C) chemoreceptors.
D) proprioceptors.
E) thermoreceptors.
59. The function of gustatory receptors parallels that of
A) light receptors in the eye.
B) mechanoreceptors in the ear.
C) olfactory receptors in the nose.
D) nociceptors.
E) baroreceptors.
60. LASIK surgery is performed on the _____of the eye is the
A) conjunctiva.
B) cornea.
C) iris.
D) pupil.
E) canthus.
61. The pigmented portion of the eye is the
A) conjunctiva.
B) cornea.
C) iris.
D) pupil.
E) canthus.
62. The space between the iris and the cornea is the
A) anterior chamber.
B) posterior chamber.
C) pupil.
D) aqueous humor.
E) vitreous body.
63. A blind spot in the retina occurs where
A) the fovea is located.
B) ganglion cells synapse with bipolar cells.
C) the optic nerve attaches to the retina.
D) rod cells are clustered to form the macula.
E) amacrine cells are located.
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RIDDELL
64. The hearing receptors are located in the
A) ampulla.
B) organ of Corti.
C) utricle.
D) saccule.
E) semicircular canals.
65. Movement of the sensory receptors in the ampullae of the semicircular canals
A) produces sound.
B) allows us to hear sounds.
C) stimulates the receptor cells, alerting us to rotational movement.
D) stimulates the receptor cells to a change in body position with respect to gravity.
E) allows us to perceive linear acceleration.
66. The ossicles connect the
A) tympanic membrane to the oval window.
B) tympanic membrane to the round window.
C) oval window to the round window.
D) cochlea to the tympanic membrane.
E) cochlea to the oval window.
67. Sound waves are converted into mechanical movements by the
A) auditory ossicles.
B) cochlea.
C) oval window.
D) round window.
E) tympanic membrane.
Match the chamber in the first column with its structure in the second column.
Term
68. external ear
69. middle ear
70. internal ear
Constituents
,B
C
A
A. cochlea, vestibule, semicircular canals
B. auricle, auditory meatus
C. auditory ossicles
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Ch 10 Endocrine System
71. The nervous system
A) produces rapid and specific responses to environmental stimuli.
B) communicates by the release of neurotransmitters.
C) continues to produce a response long after neural output ceases.
D) A and B only
E) all of the above
72. The endocrine system
A) releases chemicals into the bloodstream for distribution throughout the body.
B) releases hormones that alter the metabolic activities of many different tissues and organs simultaneously.
C) produces effects that can last for hours, days, and even longer.
D) A and C only
E) all of the above
73. Generally, the actions of hormones
A) tend to be more widespread than actions of the nervous system.
B) are longer lasting than actions of the nervous system.
C) are slower to react than the nervous system.
D) cause changes in the machinery of the cells.
E) all of the above
74. Hormone concentration levels are most commonly controlled by
A) positive feedback.
B) the quantity of circulating hormone.
C) negative feedback.
D) cellular demands.
E) body temperature.
75. Endocrine organs can be controlled by
A) hormones from other endocrine glands.
B) releasing hormones from the hypothalamus.
C) direct neural stimulation.
D) A and C only
E) all of the above
76. The most complex endocrine responses involve the
A) thyroid gland.
B) pancreas.
C) suprarenal glands.
D) hypothalamus.
E) thymus.
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77. The hormone oxytocin
A) promotes uterine contractions.
B) is responsible for milk production in the mammary glands.
C) regulates blood pressure.
D) governs the ovarian cycle.
E) both A and B
78. Triiodothyronine is a hormone secreted by the
A) thyroid gland.
B) pancreas.
C) parathyroid glands.
D) hypothalamus.
E) all of the above
79. The suprarenal medulla produces
A) androgens.
B) glucocorticoids.
C) mineralocorticoids.
D) epinephrine.
E) steroids.
80. Which of the following has both endocrine and exocrine functions?
A) pancreas
B) anterior pituitary
C) thyroid
D) liver
E) hypothalamus
81. The pancreatic hormone that causes blood sugar levels to lower is
A) growth hormone.
B) cortisol.
C) insulin.
D) glucagon.
E) erythropoietin.
82. The hormone that dominates during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is
A) testosterone.
B) aldosterone.
C) cortisol.
D) thyroid hormone.
E) epinephrine.
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RIDDELL
83. Alcoholic beverages cause excessive urine production by blocking the action of
A) aldosterone.
B) FSH.
C) ADH.
D) cortisol.
E) TSH.
Match the HORMONE with the respective GLAND to which they are most closely associated.
#
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
Hormone

Adrenocorticotropic Hormone B
Aldosterone A
 Antidiuretic Hormone AC
 Calcitonin BC
 Estrogen D
 Glucagon E
 Insulin E
 Melanocyte -stimulating hormone B
 Melatonin AC
 Oxytocin AD
 Parathyroid Hormone AB
 Progesterone D
 Releasing Hormones C
 Testosterone AE
 Thymosin BC
 Thyroid Hormone BD
 Thyroid Stimulating Hormone B
CODE
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
AB.
AC.
AD.
AE.
BC.
BD.
Endocrine Organ
Adrenal Gland
Anterior Pituitary
Hypothalamus
Ovary
Pancreas
Parathyroid Gland
Pineal Gland
Posterior Pituitary
Teste
Thymus
Thyroid Gland
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Ch 14 Lymphoid System and Immunity
101.
The lymphoid system is composed of
A) lymphatic vessels.
B) lymph nodes.
C) the spleen.
D) A and B only
E) all of the above
102.
A) pathogen.
B) antigen.
C) antibody.
D) virus.
E) bacteria.
A foreign invader that may cause disease is called a(n)
103.
The primary function of the lymphoid system is
A) circulation of nutrients.
B) transport of hormones.
C) production, maintenance, and distribution of lymphocytes.
D) production, maintenance, and distribution of plasma proteins.
E) all of the above
104.
The two collecting ducts that drain the lymphatic trunks are the
A) thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct.
B) lumbar duct and left lymphatic duct.
C) intestinal duct and left intercostal duct.
D) bronchomediastinal duct and subclavian duct.
E) none of the above
105.
Flow through lymph vessels resembles flow through
A) elastic arteries.
B) arterioles.
C) the vena cava.
D) veins.
E) muscular arteries.
106.
Lymph returns to the venous circulation by way of draining into the
A) right lymphatic duct.
B) subclavian veins.
C) inferior vena cava.
D) superior vena cava.
E) dural sinus.
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107.
Lymph nodes
A) produce antibodies from specialized T cells.
B) monitor the contents of lymph by removing debris and pathogens.
C) act as a "check station" for cancer cells.
D) B and C only
E) all of the above
108.
In general, lymphocytes
A) spend little time in the blood.
B) have a relatively long life span.
C) are not evenly distributed in the lymphoid tissues.
D) B and C only
E) all of the above
109.
A) sinus.
B) medulla.
C) hilum.
D) nodule.
E) capsule.
The region of a lymph node through which blood vessels enter and exit is called the
110.
The spleen
A) is the largest lymphoid organ.
B) contains nodules similar to other lymphoid nodules.
C) contains lymphocytes.
D) is located in the left upper quadrant.
E) all of the above
111.
Lymphatic vessels that exit the lymph node are called
A) lacteals.
B) afferent lymphatic vessels.
C) efferent lymphatic vessels.
D) lymphatic trunks.
E) lymphatic ducts.
112.
The thymus gland is positioned
A) posterior to the thyroid gland.
B) just behind the sternum.
C) inferior to the heart.
D) posterior to the trachea.
E) in the inguinal region.
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113.
The first line of cellular defense against pathogens is
A) T cells.
B) B cells.
C) NK cells.
D) phagocytes.
E) plasma cells.
114.
The cells primarily responsible for immunity are
A) lymphocytes and macrophages.
B) neutrophils and macrophages.
C) monocytes and macrophages.
D) eosinophils and lymphocytes.
E) basophils and monocytes.
115.
Which of the following is a specific body defense?
A) hair
B) epithelium
C) secretions
D) immunity
E) basement membranes
116.
Humoral immunity is the responsibility of the
A) cytotoxic T cells.
B) helper T cells.
C) suppressor T cells.
D) B cells.
E) plasma cells.
117.
With advancing age, the immune system
A) becomes more effective at combating disease.
B) remains the same and is not affected by the aging process.
C) has alternating periods of efficacy.
D) becomes less effective at combating disease.
E) becomes more responsive to antigens.
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Ch 15 Respiratory System
118.
Functions of the respiratory system include
A) protecting respiratory surfaces from dehydration, temperature changes, or other environmental variations.
B) defending the respiratory system and other tissues from pathogenic invasion.
C) providing an extensive area for gas exchange between air and circulating blood.
D) A and C only
E) all of the above
119.
Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the
A) upper respiratory tract.
B) lower respiratory tract.
C) lungs.
D) alveoli.
E) all of the above
120.
Microorganisms removed from incoming air by the sticky mucus of the respiratory tract are
most likely destroyed by
A) toxins in the mucus.
B) the cilia.
C) gastric juice.
D) a lack of nutrients.
E) all of the above
121.
The passageways from the end of the external environment and the nasal cavity into the
nasopharynx are the
A) external nares.
B) internal nares.
C) vestibules.
D) turbinates.
E) palates.
122.
A) larynx.
B) glottis.
C) vestibule.
D) pharynx.
E) trachea.
The common passageway shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the
123.
The pitch of a vocal sound is controlled by changing the
A) force of air.
B) tension in the vocal cords.
C) size of the laryngeal cartilage.
D) shape of the laryngeal cartilage.
E) nasal cavity.
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124.
The adenoids lie in the roof of the
A) nasopharynx.
B) oropharynx.
C) laryngopharynx.
D) larynx.
E) nasal cavity.
125.
The elastic cartilage that shields the opening to the larynx during swallowing is the
A) thyroid cartilage.
B) cricoid cartilage.
C) corniculate cartilage.
D) cuneiform cartilage.
E) epiglottic cartilage.
126.
The airway that passes through the mediastinum anterior to the esophagus is the
A) pharynx.
B) bronchiole.
C) trachea.
D) alveolar duct.
E) laryngeal duct.
127.
The following is a list of some of the structures of the respiratory tree:
1. secondary bronchi
2. bronchioles
3. alveolar ducts
4. primary bronchi
5. respiratory bronchioles
6. alveoli
7. terminal bronchioles
128.
The order in which air passes through these structures beginning at the trachea is
A) 4, 1, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6.
B) 4, 1, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6.
C) 1, 4, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6.
D) 1, 4, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6.
E) 2, 4, 1, 7, 5, 3, 6.
129.
Which of the following is the first structure of the lower respiratory passageway?
A) nasal cavity
B) pharynx
C) larynx
D) trachea
E) bronchi
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RIDDELL
130.
In this procedure, an incision is made through the anterior tracheal wall
A) tracheostomy
B) tracheotomy
C) bronchoscopy
D) laryngotomy
E) none of the above
131.
The walls of the alveoli are composed of
A) stratified epithelium.
B) pseudostratified epithelium.
C) simple squamous epithelium.
D) loose connective tissue.
E) reticular connective tissue.
132.
Which is greater?
A) the number of lobes in the right lung
B) the number of lobes in the left lung
133.
Pulmonary ventilation refers to
A) the movement of air into and out of the lungs.
B) the movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.
C) the movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the interstitial space.
D) the movement of dissolved gases from the interstitial space to the cells.
E) the utilization of oxygen.
134.
The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the blood and lungs is
A) pulmonary ventilation.
B) external respiration.
C) internal respiration.
D) cellular respiration.
E) breathing.
135.
Internal respiration involves the
A) movement of air into and out of the lungs.
B) diffusion of gases between the cells and the circulating blood.
C) exchange of dissolved gases between the blood and the interstitial fluid.
D) binding of oxygen by hemoglobin.
E) utilization of oxygen by tissues to support metabolism.
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RIDDELL
136.
Most of the carbon dioxide transported by the blood is
A) dissolved in plasma.
B) bound to hemoglobin.
C) in ionic form as solute (bicarbonate) in the plasma.
D) bound to the same protein as carbon dioxide.
E) carried by white blood cells.
Ch 16 Digestive System
137.
A) stomach
B) liver
C) spleen
D) colon
E) esophagus
Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion?
138.
Ingestion refers to the
A) progressive dehydration of indigestible residue.
B) input of food into the digestive tract.
C) chemical breakdown of food.
D) absorption of nutrients in the gut.
E) mixing of nutrients with digestive enzymes.
139.
The beginning and end of the digestive tract is lined by
A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
B) cuboidal epithelium.
C) stratified squamous epithelium.
D) simple epithelium.
E) simple columnar epithelium.
140.
Chewing is called
A) segmentation.
B) pendulum movements.
C) peristalsis.
D) churning movements.
E) mastication.
141.
Functions of the tongue include
A) mechanical processing of food.
B) manipulation of food.
C) sensory analysis of food.
D) A and B only
E) all of the above
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142.
A) vestibule.
B) palate.
C) gingival.
D) tongue.
E) pharynx.
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RIDDELL
The roof of the oral cavity is formed by the
143.
The first place mechanical digestion takes place is the
A) oral cavity.
B) esophagus.
C) stomach.
D) pancreas.
E) small intestine.
144.
A) body.
B) antrum.
C) pylorus.
D) cardia.
E) fundus.
The first portion of the stomach that food enters is the
145.
Absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by
A) plicae.
B) villi.
C) microvilli.
D) intestinal movements.
E) all of the above
146.
The portion of the small intestine that is attached to the pylorus of the stomach is the
A) ileum.
B) colon.
C) cecum.
D) jejunum.
E) duodenum.
147.
A) ileum.
B) duodenum.
C) jejunum.
D) pylorus.
E) cecum.
The portion of the small intestine that performs most absorption is the
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RIDDELL
148.
The longest portion of the small intestine is the
A) cecum.
B) appendix.
C) ileum.
D) jejunum.
E) duodenum.
149.
The liver functions to
A) form glucose from noncarbohydrates.
B) store vitamins.
C) destroy damaged RBC.
D) produce bile.
E) all of the above
150.
Bile is produced in the
A) liver.
B) duodenum.
C) pancreas.
D) gall bladder.
E) appendix.
151.
Which of the following NEVER comes in physical contact with ingested food?
A) tongue
B) esophageal wall
C) HCl
D) pancreatic wall
E) small intestinal wall
152.
Which of the following is a major action of the large intestine?
A) secrete enzymes
B) reabsorb water
C) regulate the release of bile
D) secrete digestive enzymes
E) produce hormones
153.
Major regions of the large intestine include the
A) cecum, colon, and duodenum.
B) duodenum, ileum, and jejunum.
C) cecum, colon, and duodenum.
D) ascending colon, descending colon, and ileum.
E) cecum, colon, and rectum.
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RIDDELL
Ch 17 Nutrition and Metabolism
154.
The sum of all of the biochemical processes going on within the human body at any given
instant is called
A) glycolysis.
B) oxidation.
C) catabolism.
D) anabolism.
E) metabolism.
155.
The cells that are most dependent upon a continual supply of glucose are those of the
A) muscular system.
B) nervous system.
C) respiratory system.
D) digestive system.
E) integumentary system.
156.
Muscles store metabolic reserves as
A) carbohydrates.
B) glycogen.
C) amino acids.
D) triglycerides.
E) fatty acids.
157.
During lipolysis,
A) triglycerides are converted into molecules of acetyl CoA.
B) triglycerides are broken down into glycerol and fatty acids.
C) lipids are converted into glucose molecules.
D) lipids are formed from excess carbohydrates.
E) lipids are metabolized to yield ATP.
d Terms
158.
The food source most clearly linked to heart disease is
A) simple sugars.
B) complex carbohydrates.
C) lipids.
D) proteins.
E) nucleic acids.
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RIDDELL
159.
Diets containing too many calories and too many lipids by proportion increase the incidence
of
A) obesity.
B) heart disease and atherosclerosis.
C) diabetes.
D) hypertension.
E) all of the above
160.
Which of the following is a complete protein source?
A) eggs
B) corn
C) gelatin
D) rice
E) none of the above
161.
A calorie unit used in food is equal to the amount of energy necessary to raise the
temperature of 1 kilogram of water ________ degree(s) Celsius.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 10
D) 100
E) 1,000
162.
The nutrients that yield ZERO energy per gram are
A) carbohydrates.
B) proteins.
C) fats.
D) nucleic acids.
E) vitamins.
163.
Major food source of Vitamin C is derived from`
A) dairy
B) meats
C) fruits and vegetables
D) desserts
E) breads
164.
A) breads
B) meats
C) dairy
D) fruits
E) vegetables
Which food group is the best source of calcium?
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RIDDELL
165.
Factors that influence an individual's BMR (basal metabolic rate) include
A) sex.
B) age.
C) body weight.
D) genetics.
E) all of the above
166.
In order to get enough energy out of food to survive, humans must have a constant supply of
A) oxygen.
B) water.
C) carbon dioxide.
D) iron.
E) vitamins
Respiratory System Anatomical Identification
Structure
ALVEOLI
BRONCHIOLE
BRONCHUS
CAPILLARY
LARYNX
LUNG
MOUTH
NASAL CAVITY
PHARYNX
PULMONARY ARTERIOLE
PULMONARY VENULE
TRACHEA
Select From Diagram / Illustration
167.
AC
168.
AB
169.
B
170.
A
171.
E
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RIDDELL
Illustration of Human Respiratory Anatomy
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RIDDELL
Nervous System
Matching Match the Nerve Group to the appropriate response and motor system
Group
172.
173.
Cranial and Sacral Nerves A
Spinal / Vertebral Nerves B
System
A Parasympathetic
B Sympathetic
For the following micrograph, Spinal Cord Anatomy, superior view, fill in the identification for the structures
(indicator lines) and perspectives. Use Column of CHOICES below.
Structure
174.
175.
176.
_____Perspective % anterior A
_____structure # gray matter C
__________structure $ white matter
Code
A
B
C
D
E
AB
AC
AD
AE
BC
BD
BE
CD
CE
Choices
Anterior
Central Canal
Gray Matter
Inferior
Inter - neuron
Meninges
Motor Neuron
Patient Left
Patient Right
Posterior
Sensory Neuron
Superior
White Matter
None of the ABove
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RIDDELL
Photograph Cross section Spinal Cord
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RIDDELL
Neuron Anatomy
For the following illustration, Neuron Anatomy, fill in the identification and processes for the structures
(indicator lines) and regions (boundary lines) indicated.
Structure
177.
178.
179.
_______ ## C
_________& AC
_________? A
Code
A
B
C
D
E
AB
AC
Term
Axon
Axon Hillock
Dendrite
Myelin Sheath
Nuronal Gap
Soma
Symaptic End bulbs
Neuron
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RIDDELL
EYE Anatomy Match the Anatomical term with its corresponding indicator on the following diagram
Term
180.
181.
182.
anterior chamber BC
cornea E
iris B
Term
183.
184.
lens C
optic nerve BE
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RIDDELL
Ear Anatomy Match the Anatomical term with its corresponding indicator on the following diagram
Term
185.
186.
Auditory Canal CE
Auditory tube E
Term
187.
188.
Semicircular canals A
Tympanic Membrane CD
Illustration o Human Ear
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RIDDELL
Integumentary System
Match the indicated structures to their appropriate term
Question
189.
190.
191.
192.
Identify
Identify
Identify
Identify
>> C
? BE
X A
$ AC
Code
A
B
C
D
E
AB
AC
AD
AE
BC
BD
BE
CD
Term
Arrector pili
Deep
Dermal papillae
Dermis
Epidermis
Hair shaft
Hypodermis
Medial
Pore
Sebaceous gland
Simple Squamous
Stratified Squamous
Superficial
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RIDDELL
Endocrine System Organs
Question
193.
194.
195.
196.
Identify
Identify
Identify
Identify
W E
# AE
$ AC
& C
Code
A
B
C
D
E
AB
AC
AD
AE
BC
Term
Hypothalamus
Ovary
PaNcreas
Parathyroids
Pineal
Pituitary
Suprarenal
Testis
Thymus
Thyroid
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RIDDELL
Endocrine System Organs Illustration
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RIDDELL
Digestive System
Question
197.
198.
199.
200.
Identify
Identify
Identify
Identify
@ D
$ E
# AE
% AD
Code
A
B
C
D
E
AB
AC
AD
AE
BC
BD
Term
Deep
Lateral
Microvilli
Mucosa
Muscularis
Peritoneum
Plicae
Serosa
Submucosa
Superficial
Villi
Illustration Digestive Tract Histology
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