Download Oncology_6

1.Which of the metastasis is not typical for gastric cancer?
A. Krukenberg's metastasis
B. Sorgius's metastasis
C. Shnitsler's metastasis
D. Virchov's metastasis
E. Sister Joseph's metastasis
ANSWER: B
2. What is localization of the Shnitsler’s metastasis?
A. Umbilicus
B. Ovaries
C. Left supraclavicular area
D. Douglas space
E. Rectum
ANSWER: D
3. What type of bone metastases has a breast cancer?
A. Osteolytic
B. Osteoblastic
C. Retention
D. Consolidating
E. Mixed
ANSWER: A
4. What type of bone metastases has a lung cancer?
A. Osteolytic
B. Osteoblastic
C. Retention
D. Consolidating
E. Mixed
ANSWER: A
5. What type of bone metastases has a prostate cancer?
A. Osteolytic
B. Osteoblastic
C. Retention
D. Consolidating
E. Mixed
ANSWER: B
6. What type of bone metastases has hypernephroma?
A. Osteolytic
B. Osteoblastic
C. Retention
D. Consolidating
E. Mixed
ANSWER: A
7. What type of bone metastases has a thyroid cancer?
A. Osteolytic
B. Osteoblastic
C. Retention
D. Consolidating
E. Mixed
ANSWER: A
8. Which malignant tumour has osteoblastic metastases?
A. Hypernephroma
B. Lung cancer
C. Prostate cancer
D. Thyroid cancer
E. Breast cancer
ANSWER: C
9. What is the most effective method of diagnosis of bone metastases in case of
follicular thyroid carcinoma?
A. Magnetic resonance imaging
B. Computed tomography
C. Digital radiography
D. Scintigraphy by J-131
E. Thermography
ANSWER: D
10. Which type of radiation therapy is preferred in case of multiple skeletal
metastases?
A. Gamma radiation
B. X-ray
C. Alpha-particles radiation
D. Systemic radiotherapy
E. Neutron radiation
ANSWER: D
11. Which radiopharmaceutical radionuclide does not apply to therapy of bone
metastases?
A. Phosphorus-32 (32P)
B. Strontium-89 chloride (89Sr)
C. Colloidal gold-198 (198Au)
D. Samarium-153 (153Sm)
E. Rhenium-186 (186Re)
ANSWER: C
12. What is the most effective method for early diagnosis of bone metastases?
A. Radiography
B. Radioisotope diagnosis (Bone Scan)
C. Determination of tumor markers
D. Immunohistochemistry
E. Bone biopsy
ANSWER: B
13. Which of the drugs most effective in adjuvant therapy of pain syndrome caused
by bone metastases?
A. Bisphosphonates
B. Adrenergic agonist’s alpha2-receptor
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Antagonists of exciting amino acids
E. Spasmolytics
ANSWER: A
14. Which of the drug does not belong to bisphosphonates?
A. Nifedipin
B. Bonefos
C. Aredia
D. Zometa
E. Pamiredin
ANSWER: A
15. Which of the drugs does not belong to a group of calcium channel blockers?
A. Nifedipin
B. Verapamil
C. Izoptin
D. Falikard
E. Sirdalud
ANSWER: E
16. Which of these diuretics is potassium sparing?
A. Hypothiazid
B. Diakarb
C. Mannit
D. Spironolactone
E. Furosemide
ANSWER: D
17. What drug is not used topically to stop bleeding from wounds or tumors?
A. Tahokomb
B. Beryplast
C. Helaspon
D. Vikasol
E. Gelfoum
ANSWER: D
18. Which drug is not antihemorrhagic?
A. Etamzilat
B. Tardiferon
C. Vikasol
D. Pamba
E. Dicinon
ANSWER: B
19. What way is mainly metastasizing skin cancer?
A. Lymphogenous
B. Hematogenous
C. Implantation
D. Retrograde
E. Contact
ANSWER: A
20. What is localization of the Krukenberg’s metastases?
A. Umbilicus
B. Ovaries
C. Left supraclavicular area
D. Douglas space
E. Interpectoral spaces
ANSWER: B
21. What is localization of the Virchov’s metastasis?
A. Left supraclavicular area
B. Interpectoral spaces
C. Ovaries
D. Rectum
E. Douglas space
ANSWER: A
22. Atelectasis as a complication is most common to following lung cancer:
A. Central
B. Peripheral
C. Lung carcinomatosis
D. Pancoast lung cancer
E. Non-small lung cancer
ANSWER: A
23. What is the cause of lung atelectasis?
A. Compression of lungs outside the pleural fluid
B. Depressurization pleural cavity
C. Fibrosis of lung tissue
D. Bronchial obstruction
E. Lung tissue ischemia due to occlusion of arteries
ANSWER: D
24. What is the main difference between atelectasis and lung collapse?
A. Collapse captures the whole of lung and atelectasis may develop in some
parts
B. Atelectasis resulting from bronchial obstruction and collapse – no
C. Atelectasis develops gradually, and the collapse – a sudden
D. Atelectasis has tumor aetiology, and collapse – the inflammatory
E. The basis of atelectasis is organic changes, and collapse – functional
ANSWER: B
25. Which of the following tumours often leads to pneumothorax?
A. Central lung cancer
B. Peripheral lung cancer
C. Mediastinal form of lung cancer
D. Pleural mesothelioma
E. Mediastinal tumor
ANSWER: B
26. Which types of pneumothorax is the most dangerous to the patient's life?
A. Open
B. Closed
C. Valvular
D. Combined
E. All are equally dangerous
ANSWER: C
27. Which symptom does not occur with pneumothorax?
A. Absent of breath on the side of lesion
B. Dyspnea
C. Pulsion of intercostal spaces
D. Bandbox percussion sound on the side of lesion
E. Dull percussion sound on the side of lesion
ANSWER: E
28. Specify the location of pleural puncture in case of pneumothorax.
A. 2nd intercostals space by mid-clavicular line
B. 4th intercostals space by the anterior axilla line
C. 6th intercostals space by the mid axilla line
D. 8th intercostals space by the posterior axilla line
E. 9th intercostals space by the scapular line
ANSWER: A
29. Which of the following symptoms are not found in patient with pleural effusion?
A. Dyspnea
B. Cough
C. Absence or weakening of breathing on the side of lesion
D. Bandbox percussion sound on the side of lesion
E. Dull percussion sound on the side of lesion
ANSWER: D
30. What cancer may cause pleural effusion at least?
A. Breast cancer
B. Cancer of lower lip
C. Lung cancer
D. Ovarian cancer
E. Malignant lymphoma
ANSWER: B
31. Specify the location of pleural puncture in case of pleural effusion.
A. 2nd intercostals space by mid-clavicular line
B. 4th intercostals space by the anterior axilla line
C. 6th intercostals space by the mid axilla line
D. 7-9th intercostals space by the posterior axilla line
E. 10th intercostals space by the scapular line
ANSWER: D
32. What treatment is preferable in case of malignant pleural effusion?
A. Surgical
B. Radiation
C. Cytostatic
D. Hormonal
E. Photodynamic laser therapy
ANSWER: C
33. What clinical sign not included in the superior vena cava syndrome?
A. Cyanosis scalp and neck
B. Dyspnea
C. Descent of angle of mouth
D. Dilatation of subcutaneous veins of the neck and chest
E. Dizziness
ANSWER: C
34. What sign is not part of the superior vena cava syndrome?
A. Swelling of the face and neck
B. Dyspnea
C. Dilatation neck and chest veins
D. Varicose veins of oesophagus
E. Dizziness
ANSWER: D
35. What sign is not part of the superior vena cava syndrome?
A. Cough
B. Dyspnea
C. Increased blood pressure
D. Neck veins
E. Drowsiness
ANSWER: C
36. What sign is not part of the superior vena cava syndrome?
A. Cough
B. Dyspnea
C. Compensatory vein’s dilatation of the lower torso
D. Hypotension
E. Swelling face
ANSWER: C
37. What tumor frequently cause superior vena cava syndrome?
A. Thyroid gland cancer
B. Larynx cancer
C. Oesophagus cancer
D. Lungs cancer
E. Liver cancer
ANSWER: D
38. What medications are not used in symptomatic treatment of superior vena cava
syndrome?
A. Bronchodilatators
B. Hypotensive
C. Cardiac glycosides
D. Diuretics
E. Corticosteroids
ANSWER: B
39. What specific treatment should be applied first in the case of superior vena cava
syndrome?
A. Surgical
B. Chemotherapy or radiation therapy
C. Immunotherapy
D. Photodynamic therapy
E. Symptomatic treatment
ANSWER: B
40. When should be special treatment of patient with superior vena cava syndrome?
A. Preceding to symptomatic treatment
B. After successful symptomatic treatment
C. In parallel with the symptomatic treatment
D. Not indicated due to high risk of complications
E. Only after morphological confirmation of malignant tumor
ANSWER: C
41. What clinical symptoms not typical for cardiac tamponade?
A. Dyspnea
B. Acrocyanosis
C. Pale skin
D. Reducing blood pressure
E. Increased blood pressure
ANSWER: E
42. What changes in instrumental diagnostics do not indicate cardiac tamponade?
A. Reduced P-wave on ECG
B. Reducing the height of QRS-T on ECG
C. Increased central venous pressure to 120-140 mm water column
D. Increased heart shadow on chest X-ray
E. Presence of liquid level in the pericardial cavity
ANSWER: C
43. Where is the most common localization of primary thrombi which cause the
pulmonary embolism?
A. Pulmonary vein
B. Veins of the pelvis and lower extremities
C. Pulmonary artery
D. Veins of the upper half of body
E. Heart ventricles
ANSWER: B
44. Which of the listed pathologies not increase the risk of pulmonary artery
embolism?
A. Varicose disease
B. Obliterating endarteritis
C. Malignant tumor
D. Diabetes
E. Adiposity
ANSWER: B
45. Which clinical forms of pulmonary artery embolism cause the developing of
infarct-pneumonia?
A. Fulminant
B. Acute
C. Subacute
D. Chronic
E. Syncopal
ANSWER: C
46. How long does the acute form of pulmonary artery embolism last?
A. 1-10 min
B. Several hours
C. 3-5 days
D. 7 days
E. Several weeks
ANSWER: B
47. How long last the fulminant form of pulmonary artery embolism?
A. 1-10 min
B. Several hours
C. 1 day
D. 3-5 days
E. Several weeks
ANSWER: A
48. How long last the subacute form of pulmonary artery embolism?
A. 1-10 min
B. Several hours
C. 1 day
D. 3-5 days
E. Several weeks
ANSWER: D
49. What clinical symptom is not typical for pulmonary artery embolism?
A. Chest pain
B. Dyspnea
C. Hypotension
D. Increased blood pressure
E. Tachycardia
ANSWER: D
50. What symptom is not typical for pulmonary artery embolism?
A. Haemoptysis
B. Pericardial rubbing sound
C. Noise pleural friction
D. Swelling of neck veins
E. Increased venous pressure
ANSWER: B
51. What sign is not typical for pulmonary artery embolism?
A. Expanding the right border of heart
B. Triple (gallop) cardiac rhythm
C. Collapse
D. Pale cyanosis
E. Reduction of alveolar-arterial pCO2 gradient
ANSWER: E
52. What auscultation sign is typical for pulmonary artery embolism?
A. Systolic noise over the aorta
B. Diastolic noise over the tip of heart
C. Accent of 2nd tone over the aorta
D. Diastolic noise over the pulmonary artery
E. Accent of 2nd tone over the pulmonary artery
ANSWER: E
53. What ECG sign is not typical for pulmonary artery embolism?
A. Wide negative T-wave in the 1-4 chest positions
B. Deep S-wave in the first chest position
C. Increase Q-wave in the third chest position
D. Displacement of interval S-T
E. Narrow negative T-wave
ANSWER: E
54. What is not typical radiological sign of pulmonary artery embolism?
A. Increased pulmonary vascular network on the side of lesion
B. Dilatation of right heart
C. Elevation dome of diaphragm on the side of lesion
D. Depleted pulmonary vascular network on the side of lesion
E. Triangular shadow in the lung
ANSWER: A
55. Which of these drugs effectively reduces intracranial pressure?
A. Furosemide
B. Spironolactone
C. Hipothiazyd
D. Mannitol
E. Acid etakryn
ANSWER: D
56. Which of these diuretics is refers as potassium sparing?
A. Hipotiazyd
B. Diakarb
C. Mannitol
D. Spironolactone
E. Furosemide
ANSWER: D
57. Which of these symptoms is not specific for spinal cord compression?
A. Pain
B. Paraplegia
C. Vestibular ataxia
D. Quadriplegia
E. Paresthesia
ANSWER: C
58. Which of these methods is effective in specific treatment of spinal cord
compression caused by metastatic vertebral destruction?
A. Photodynamic therapy
B. Radiation therapy
C. Cytostatic therapy
D. Hormonal therapy
E. Symptomatic treatment (narcotic analgesics, corticosteroids,
bisphosphonates)
ANSWER: B
59. Identify complications of bone metastases.
A. Pain
B. Dysfunction of adjacent joints
C. Presence of tumor in the area of bone destruction
D. Change of the bone structure of beams
E. Fever
ANSWER: B
60. Which of the pathological processes is not a complication of bone metastases?
A. Pain
B. Dysfunction of adjacent joints
C. Intoxication
D. Hypercalcemia
E. Pathological fracture
ANSWER: A
61. What is origin of the Shnitsler’s metastasis?
A. Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Implantation
D. Contact
E. Retrograde
ANSWER: C
62. What is origin of the Sorgius metastasis?
A. Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Implantation
D. Contact
E. Retrograde
ANSWER: B
63. What mechanism of action of bisphosphonates is not typical?
A. Cytostatic effect
B. Inhibition of osteoclast activity
C. Prevention of pathological fractures
D. Stabilization of calcium content in blood
E. Inhibition of osteoblast’s resorption
ANSWER: A
64 What is Karnofsky index (quality of life) in patient who stays in bed more than 50
% of daily time?
A. 90-100 %
B. 70-80 %
C. 50-60 %
D. 30-40 %
E. 10-20 %
ANSWER: C
65. What is Karnofsky index (quality of life) in patient who stays in bed less than 50
% of daily time?
A. 90-100 %
B. 70-80 %
C. 50-60 %
D. 30-40 %
E. 10-20 %
ANSWER: B
66. Which metastatic way is more often for the follicular thyroid cancer?
A. Lymphogenous
B. Hematogenous
C. Implantation
D. Retrograde
E. Perineural
ANSWER: B
67. Which metastatic way is more often for the papillary thyroid cancer?
A. Lymphogenous
B. Hematogenous
C. Implantation
D. Retrograde
E. Perineural
ANSWER: A
68. What is the basic metastatic way of endometrial cancer?
A. Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Implantation
D. Dissemination to peritoneum
E. Retrograde
ANSWER: B
69. What is the primary metastatic way of the gastric cancer?
A. Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Implantation
D. Dissemination to peritoneum
E. Retrograde
ANSWER: B
70. What is the primary metastatic way of oesophageal cancer?
A. Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Implantation
D. Dissemination of pleura
E. Retrograde
ANSWER: B
71. What is the primary metastatic way of colon cancer?
A. Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Implantation
D. Dissemination to peritoneum
E. Retrograde
ANSWER: B
72. What is the primary metastatic way of colorectal cancer?
A. Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Implantation
D. Dissemination to peritoneum
E. Retrograde
ANSWER: B
73. What is the primary metastatic way of rectal cancer?
A. Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Implantation
D. Dissemination to peritoneum
E. Retrograde
ANSWER: B
74. Which way is most metastasizing ovarian cancer?
A. Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Dissemination within peritoneum
D. Implantation
E. Retrograde
ANSWER: C
75. What is the preferred metastatic way of chorionepithelioma?
A. Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Contact
D. Implantation
E. Perineural
ANSWER: A
76. What is the preferred metastatic way of soft tissue sarcoma?
A. Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Perineural
D. Implantation
E. Retrograde
ANSWER: A
77. What is the preferred metastatic way of osteogenic sarcoma?
A. Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Perineural
D. Implantation
E. Retrograde
ANSWER: A
78. What is the preferred metastatic way of Ewing's sarcoma?
A. Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Perineural
D. Implantation
E. Retrograde
ANSWER: A
79. What is the preferred metastatic way of laryngeal cancer?
A. Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Perineural
D. Implantation
E. Retrograde
ANSWER: B
80. Cancer of what part of larynx has a highest metastatic rate?
A. Supraglottis
B. Glottis
C. Subglottis
D. Anterior commissure
E. Posterior commissure
ANSWER: A
81. Cancer of what part of larynx has a lowest metastatic rate?
A. Supraglottis
B. Glottis
C. Subglottis
D. Ventricular bands
E. Infrahyoid epiglottis
ANSWER: B
82. Satellite metastasis is:
A. Metastasis in adjacent organs
B. Metastasis within 2 cm of the primary tumour
C. Metastasis in symmetrical areas of the body
D. Regional lymph node metastasis
E. Metastases which locate more than 2 cm from the primary tumour
ANSWER: B
83. What is the preferable method of treatment of neck lymph node metastases?
A. Surgical
B. Radiation therapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Immunotherapy
E. Photodynamic therapy
ANSWER: A
84. What operation is used in case when metastatic lymph nodes on the neck
extending beyond the fascial sheath or invades the internal jugular vein?
A. Radical neck dissection (Crile operation)
B. Supraomohyoid selective neck dissection
C. Modified radical neck dissection
D. Lateral selective neck dissection
E. Sentinel lymph node biopsy
ANSWER: A
85. What operation is used in case when metastatic lymph nodes on the neck not
extending beyond the fascial sheaths?
A. Radical neck dissection (Crile operation)
B. Supraomohyoid selective neck dissection
C. Modified radical neck dissection
D. Lateral selective neck dissection
E. Sentinel lymph node biopsy
ANSWER: C
86. What operation is used when melanoma metastases present in inguinal lymph
nodes?
A. Superficial groin dissection
B. Radical ilioinguinal dissection
C. Crile operation
D. Axillary dissection
E. Sentinel lymph node biopsy
ANSWER: B
87. What is the name by author the submandibular lymphadenectomy?
A. Madden operation
B. Crile operation
C. Vanakh operation
D. Billroth operation
E. Halstead operation
ANSWER: C
88. What anatomical structures are subject to removal at radical neck dissection
(Crile operation)?
A. Lymph nodes and neck fatty tissue within the fascial space
B. Lymph nodes, fatty tissue, sternocleidomastoid muscle, internal jugular
vein, and accessory nerve
C. Lymph nodes, ligation of external carotid artery and resection of hyoid
bone
D. Lymph nodes and resection of lower lip
E. Cervical lymphadenectomy and resection of thyroid gland
ANSWER: B
89. What is localization of the Sorgius metastasis?
A. Left supraclavicular area
B. Navel
C. Ovaries
D. Lymph node at the lateral border of pectoralis major
E. Douglas space
ANSWER: D
90. What is localization of Sister Joseph’s metastasis?
A. Left supraclavicular area
B. Umbilicus
C. Ovaries
D. Interpectoral spaces
E. Douglas space
ANSWER: B
91. What is localization of the Rotter’s metastasis?
A. Left supraclavicular area
B. Umbilicus
C. Ovaries
D. Interpectoral spaces
E. Douglas space
ANSWER: D
92. Where is most often location of colon cancer’s hematogenous metastases?
A. In pelvic bone
B. In brain
C. In liver
D. In regional lymph nodes
E. In lung
ANSWER: C
93. Where is most often location of hematogenous metastases of rectal cancer (lower
third of rectum)?
A. In pelvic bone
B. In brain
C. In liver
D. In the regional lymph nodes
E. In lung
ANSWER: E
94. Where is most often hematogenous metastatic way of the rectal cancer of upper
rectum?
A. In pelvic bone
B. In brain
C. In liver
D. In the regional lymph nodes
E. In lung
ANSWER: C
95. What is name by author the metastatic ovarian cancer?
A. Krukenberg metastasis
B. Sorgius metastasis
C. Shnitsler metastasis
D. Virchov metastasis
E. Sister Joseph metastasis
ANSWER: A
96. Where most developing chorionepithelioma metastases?
A. Bones
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Cerebrum
E. Regional lymph nodes
ANSWER: B
97. Where most developing hematogenous metastasis of prostate cancer?
A. Bones
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Cerebrum
E. Regional lymph nodes
ANSWER: A
98. Where most developing lymphogenous metastasis of prostate cancer?
A. Bones
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Cerebrum
E. Regional lymph nodes
ANSWER: E
99. Where most metastasizing cancer of the cervix?
A. Bones
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Cerebrum
E. Regional lymph nodes
ANSWER: E
100. What is the origin of Virchov’s metastasis?
A. Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Implantation
D. Contact
E. Retrograde
ANSWER: B