Download Final exam Fall

Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________
ID: A
AP Final Exam First Semester
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. Complete the following sentence. A theory is
A. a tentative explanation for a set of observations that can be tested by further
experimentation.
B. a statement describing a relationship between phenomena that is always the same
under the same conditions.
C. a unifying principle that explains a body of facts and relations.
D. a model used to visualize the invisible.
____
____
____
____
____
____
2. Which one of the following is an example of a physical property?
A. dynamite explodes
B. meat rots if it is not refrigerated
C. gasoline burns
D. ice floats on top of liquid water
3. All of the following are properties of sodium. Which one is a physical property of sodium?
A. It's surface turns black when first exposed to air.
B. It is a solid at 25°C and changes to a liquid when heated to 98°C.
C. When placed in water it sizzles and a gas is formed.
D. When placed in contact with chlorine it forms a compound that melts at 801°C.
4. The SI prefixes mega and deci represent, respectively:
A. 103 and 10–2.
B. 106 and 10–1.
C. 10–3 and 10–2.
D. 10–6 and 102.
5. A centimeter corresponds to:
A. 10–2 meters.
B. 10–3 meters.
C. 10–6 meters.
D. 10–9 meters.
6. Liquid nitrogen boils at –195.8°C. Express the boiling point of liquid nitrogen in kelvin.
A. –469.0 K
B. –77.4 K
C. all temperatures are 0 K on the Kelvin scale
D. 77.4 K
7. The number 1.050  109 has how many significant figures?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 9
1
Name: ________________________
____
____
ID: A
8. Give the correct number of significant figures to the problem below.
9.
____ 10.
____ 11.
____ 12.
____ 13.
____ 14.
____ 15.
5.80  10-1 – 3.4  10-2 =
A. 5.5  10-1
B. 5.46  10-1
C. 2.4  10-3
D. 2.4  102
1 barrel of oil contains 42.0 gallons. How many liters is this? (1L = 1.06 qt)
A. 9.9 L
B. 11 L
C. 142 L
D. 158 L
The Hope diamond weighs 44.0 carats. Determine the volume occupied by the diamond, given that
its density is 3.5 g/cm3 at 20°C, and that 1 carat = 0.200 g.
A. 2.5 cm3
B. 0.40 cm3
C. 0.016 cm3
D. 63 cm3
Which of the following speeds is the greatest? (1 mile = 1609 m)
A. 40 mi/h
B. 2.0  105 mm/min
C. 40 km/h
D. 0.74 km/min
Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below.
5.46 m3/ 2.01 m2 =
A. 2.72 m5
B. 2.72 m3
C. 2.72 m2
D. 2.72 m
In a cathode ray tube
A. electrons pass from the anode to the cathode.
B. electrons pass from the cathode to the anode.
C. protons pass from the anode to the cathode.
D. protons pass from the cathode to the anode.
Which of the following scientists developed the nuclear model of the atom?
A. John Dalton
B. Ernest Rutherford
C. J. J. Thomson
D. Henry Moseley
Rutherford's experiment with alpha particle scattering by gold foil established that
A. protons are not evenly distributed throughout an atom.
B. electrons have a negative charge.
C. electrons have a positive charge.
D. atoms are made of protons, neutrons, and electrons.
2
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 16. The elements in a column of the periodic table are known as
A. metalloids.
B. a period.
C. noble gases.
D. a group.
____ 17. Which of the following elements is most likely to be a good conductor of electricity?
A. N
B. S
C. Fe
D. Cl
____ 18. Which of the following elements is chemically similar to oxygen?
A. sulfur
B. calcium
C. iron
D. nickel
____ 19. Which one of the following elements is most likely to form a 2– ion?
A. scandium
B. selenium
C. silicon
D. strontium
____ 20. A magnesium ion, Mg2+, has
A. 12 protons and 13 electrons.
B. 24 protons and 26 electrons.
C. 12 protons and 10 electrons.
D. 24 protons and 22 electrons.
____ 21. An iron(II) ion has:
A. 24 electrons and a charge of 2+
B. 24 electrons and a charge of 2–
C. 26 electrons and a charge of 2+
D. 28 electrons and a charge of 2+
____ 22. How many protons and electrons are present in one Br– ion?
A. 35 p, 35 e
B. 80 p, 81 e
C. 35 p, 34 e
D. 35 p, 36 e
____ 23. What are the two different ions present in the compound Li3N?
A. Li+, N3B. Li3+, NC. Li33+, N3D. Li+, N-
3
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 24. What are the two different ions present in the compound FeCl3?
A. Fe2+, Cl3B. Fe3+, Cl3C. Fe+, ClD. Fe3+, Cl____ 25. Which of the following is an example of an empirical formula?
A. C9H12
B. C9H18Cl2
C. C6H6
D. N2O4
____ 26. What is the formula for the ionic compound containing calcium ions and nitrate ions?
A. Ca3N2
B. Ca(NO3)2
C. Ca2NO3
D. Ca2NO2
____ 27. What is the formula for the ionic compound containing sodium ions and nitride ions?
A. NaN
B. Na2N
C. NNa2
D. Na3N
____ 28. What is the formula for the ionic compound containing barium ions and sulfate ions?
A. BaSO4
B. Ba2SO4
C. BaS
D. Ba(SO4)2
____ 29. What are the two different ions present in the compound NH4NO3?
A. NH4-, NO3+
B. NH4+, NO3C. N3-, H+, O2D. NH43+, NO4____ 30. Which is the correct formula for iron(II) phosphate?
A. Fe2PO4
B. Fe3(PO4)2
C. Fe2PO3
D. Fe(PO4)2
____ 31. The formula for calcium phosphate is
A. CaPO4.
B. Ca3(PO4)2.
C. Ca2(PO4)3.
D. Ca3P2.
4
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 32. The name for KHCO3 is
A. calcium bicarbonate.
B. potassium hydrogen carbonate .
C. potassium carbonate.
D. calcium hydrogen carbon trioxide.
____ 33. Name the compound Co(NO3)2
A. Cobalt (I) nitrate
B. Cobalt (II) nitrate
C. Cobalt (I) nitride
D. Cobalt nitrite
____ 34. Name the compound Al2O3
A. Aluminum oxide
B. Aluminum (II) oxide
C. Dialuminum trioxide
D. Aluminum trioxide
____ 35. Which is the formula for lead(IV) chloride?
A. Pb4Cl
B. PbCl2
C. PbCl3
D. PbCl4
____ 36. What type of compound is Mg(NO3)2?
A. Ionic
B. Molecular
C. Acid
D. Base
____ 37. What type of compound is NH4NO3
A. Ionic
B. Molecular
C. Acid
D. Base
____ 38. What type of compound is IF5?
A. Ionic
B. Molecular
C. Acid
D. Base
____ 39. What type of compound is NaOH?
A. Binary
B. Molecular
C. Acid
D. Base
5
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 40. Name the acid H3PO4 (dissolved in water).
A. Phosphoric acid
B. Phosphorous acid
C. Hydrogen phosphate acid
D. Hydrophosphate acid
____ 41. Name the compound CrO3.
A. chromium oxide
B. chromium(II) oxide
C. chromium(III) trioxide
D. chromium(VI) oxide
____ 42. Name the compounds SO3.
A. sulfur trioxide
B. sulfate
C. sulfite
D. sulfur trioxygen
____ 43. What is the mass of 4.50  1022 Cu atoms?
A. 7.47  10-2 g
B. 7.47  10-2 amu
C. 4.75 g
D. 63.55 amu
____ 44. If 0.274 moles of a substance weighs 62.5 g, what is the molar mass of the substance, in units of
g/mol?
A. 2.28  102 g/mol
B. 1.71  101 g/mol
C. 4.38  10–3 g/mol
D. 2.17  102 g/mol
____ 45. Which one of the following does not represent 1.000 mol of the indicated substance?
A. 6.022  1023 C atoms
B. 26.00 g Fe
C. 12.01 g C
D. 65.39 g Zn
____ 46. A gold wire has a diameter of 1.00 mm. What length of this wire contains exactly 1.00 mol of gold?
(density of Au = 17.0 g/cm3)
A. 2630 m
B. 3.69 m
C. 251 m
D. 14.8 m
____ 47. A silver wire has a diameter of 0.500 mm. What length of this wire contains exactly 1.00 mol of
silver? (density of Ag = 10.5 g/cm3)
A. 52.3 m
B. 222 m
C. 13.1 m
D. 2.01 m
6
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 48. How many moles of NH3 are there in 77.5 g of NH3?
A. 0.220 mol
B. 4.55 mol
C. 14.0 mol
D. 1.31  103 mol
____ 49. Calculate the number of moles of cesium in 50.0 g of cesium.
A. 0.376 mol
B. 0.357 mol
C. 2.66 mol
D. 2.80 mol
____ 50. Which of the following CO2 samples contains the greatest number of moles of CO2?
A. 3.5 moles CO2
B. 3.21  1023 CO2 molecules
C. 4.50  1022 CO2 molecules
D. 5.60 g CO2
____ 51. Calculate the molar mass of Ba(NO3)2.
A. 199.3 g/mol
B. 323.3 g/mol
C. 247.3 g/mol
D. 261.3 g/mol
____ 52. Calculate the molecular mass of menthol, C10H20O.
A. 156.26 amu
B. 140.26 amu
C. 29.02 amu
D. 48.17 amu
____ 53. How many moles of O are in 2.45 moles of H2CO3?
A. 2.45 moles O
B. 39.2 moles O
C. 118 moles O
D. 7.35 moles O
____ 54. Calculate the mass of C in 5.46 g of C2H4?
A. 0.455 g C
B. 4.68 g C
C. 65.6 g C
D. 13.1 g C
____ 55. Calculate the mass of N in 2.34 g of N2H4?
A. 4.68 g N
B. 65.6 g N
C. 28.02 g N
D. 2.05 g N
7
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 56. How many grams of nitrogen are there in 7.5 g of Ca(NO3)2?
A. 0.64 g
B. 1.3 g
C. 0.15 g
D. 1.2 g
____ 57. What is the mass of 0.55 mole of C6H6?
A. 78.11 g
B. 78.11 amu
C. 42.96 g
D. 42.96 amu
____ 58. A mass spectrometer works by ionizing atoms or molecules, and then accelerating them through
oppositely charged plates. The mass is obtained by
A. measuring the force of impact on a detecting screen, and then calculating the mass
using force = mass  acceleration.
B. suspending the ions in an applied electric field, and then calculating mass by the
setting the downward gravitational force equal to the upward electrostatic force.
C. measuring the magnitude of deflection as the ions pass through a magnetic field to
obtain the charge-to-mass ratio, and then calculating the mass from that ratio.
D. measuring the time it takes for the ions to hit the detector at a known distance to
calculate the acceleration, and then calculating mass from force = mass 
acceleration.
____ 59. A compound with an empirical formula of C2H2Br3 has a molar mass of 531.47 g/mol. What is the
molecular formula?
A. C2H2Br3
B. C4H4Br6
C. CHBr
D. C4H4Br3
____ 60. An unknown compound with a molar mass of 223.94 g/mol consists of 32.18% C, 4.50% H, and
63.32% Cl. Find the molecular formula for the compound.
A. CHCl
B. C6H10Cl4
C. C3H5Cl2
D. C9H15Cl6
____ 61. The empirical formula of a compound of uranium and fluorine that is composed of 67.6% uranium
and 32.4% fluorine is
A. U2F
B. U3F4
C. UF4
D. UF6
8
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 62. A compound was discovered whose composition by mass is 85.6% C and 14.4% H. Which of the
____ 63.
____ 64.
____ 65.
____ 66.
____ 67.
following could be the molecular formula of this compound?
A. CH4
B. C2H4
C. C3H4
D. C2H6
When balanced the coefficient of O2 in the following equation is
__ C2H4 + __ O2  __ CO2 + __ H2O
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
What is the coefficient for O2 when the following combustion reaction of a hydrocarbon is balanced?
___ C7H14 + ___ O2  ___ CO2 + ___ H2O
A. 42
B. 21
C. 11
D. 10
What is the coefficient for O2 when the following combustion reaction of a fatty acid is properly
balanced?
__ C18H36O2 + __ O2  __ CO2 + __ H2O
A. 1
B. 8
C. 9
D. 26
Balance the following equation and list the coefficients in order from left to right.
__ SF4 + __ H2O  __ H2SO3 + __ HF
A. 1, 1, 1, 4
B. 2, 6, 2, 8
C. 1, 2, 1, 4
D. 1, 3, 1, 4
Ammonia reacts with hydrochloric acid to produce ammonium chloride. Identify the balanced
reaction that describes this process.
A. NH4+ + HCl  NH4Cl + H
B. NH3 + HCl  NH4Cl
C. NH3 + 2HCl  NH4Cl + H
D. NH4+ + 2HCl  NH4Cl2
9
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 68. Ammonia reacts with oxygen to form nitric oxide and water vapor:
____ 69.
____ 70.
____ 71.
____ 72.
____ 73.
4NH3 + 5O2  4NO + 6H2O
When 40.0 g NH3 and 50.0 g O2 are allowed to react, which is the limiting reagent?
A. NH3
B. O2
C. NO
D. H2O
When 22.0 g NaCl and 21.0 g H2SO4 are mixed and react according to the equation below, which is
the limiting reagent?
2NaCl + H2SO4  Na2SO4 + 2HCl
A. NaCl
B. H2SO4
C. Na2SO4
D. HCl.
Chlorine gas reacts with phosphorus to produce phosphorus pentachloride. How many grams of PCl5
are produced from 3.5 g of Cl2 and excess P?
5Cl2(g) + 2P(s)  2PCl5(s)
A. 1.4 g
B. 4.1 g
C. 8.2 g
D. 0.020 g
Hydrogen chloride gas can be prepared by the following reaction:
2NaCl(s) + H2SO4(aq)  2HCl(g) + Na2SO4(s)
How many grams of HCl can be prepared from 2.00 mol H2SO4 and 2.56 mol NaCl?
A. 7.30 g
B. 93.3 g
C. 146 g
D. 150 g
What is the theoretical yield of chromium that can be produced by the reaction of 40.0 g of Cr2O3
with 8.00 g of aluminum according to the chemical equation below?
2Al + Cr2O3  Al2O3 + 2Cr
A. 7.7 g
B. 15.4 g
C. 27.3 g
D. 30.8 g
Calculate the mass of excess reagent remaining at the end of the reaction in which 90.0 g of SO 2 are
mixed with 100.0 g of O2.
2SO2 + O2  2SO3
A. 11.5 g
B. 22.5 g
C. 67.5 g
D. 77.5 g
10
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 74. What is the theoretical yield of ammonia that can be obtained from the reaction of 10.0 g of H2 and
excess N2?
N2 + 3H2  2NH3
28.4 g
48.6 g
56.3 g
90.0 g
____ 75. Ammonia reacts with oxygen to form nitric oxide and water vapor:
4NH3 + 5O2  4NO + 6H2O
What is the theoretical yield of water, in moles, when 40.0 g NH3 and 50.0 g O2 are mixed and
allowed to react?
A. 1.30 mol
B. 1.57 mol
C. 1.87 mol
D. 3.53 mol
____ 76. Which of the following compounds is a weak electrolyte?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. HNO3
B. NaNO3
C. HNO2
D. NaNO2
____ 77. Which of the following compounds is a strong electrolyte?
A. H2O
B. N2
C. CH3COOH (acetic acid)
D. KOH
____ 78. Based on the solubility rules, which one of the following compounds should be insoluble in water?
A. NaCl
B. MgBr2
C. FeCl2
D. AgBr
11
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 79. Based on the solubility rules, which of the following compounds should be insoluble in water?
A. Na2SO4
B. BaSO4
C. CuSO4
D. MgSO4
____ 80. Based on the solubility rules, which of the following should be soluble in water?
A. CaSO4
B. BaSO4
C. PbSO4
D. KK2SO4
____ 81. Which of the following will occur when a solution of Pb(NO3)2(aq) is mixed with a solution of
KI(aq) ?
A. A precipitate of KNO3 will form; Pb2+ and I– are spectator ions.
B. No precipitate will form.
C. A precipitate of Pb(NO3)2 will form; K+ and I– are spectator ions.
D. A precipitate of PbI2 will form; K+ and NO3– are spectator ions.
____ 82. Identify the precipitate(s) formed when solutions of NH4Cl(aq), AgClO3(aq), and NaCl(aq) are
mixed.
A. AgCl
B. AgCl and NH4ClO3
C. NH4Cl and NaClO3
D. NH4ClO3
12
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 83. Identify the precipitate(s) formed when solutions of Ca(ClO4)2(aq), K2CO3(aq), and NaNO3(aq) are
mixed.
A. CaCO3
B. Na2CO3
C. Ca(NO3)2 and NaClO4
D. CaCO3 and Na2CO3
____ 84. Identify the correct net ionic equation for the reaction that occurs when solutions of Pb(NO3)2 and
NH4Cl are mixed.
A. Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2NH4Cl(aq)  NH4NO3(aq) + PbCl2(s)
B. Pb2+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq)  PbCl2(s)
C. Pb2+(aq) + 2NO3– (aq) + 2NH (aq) + 2Cl–(aq)  2NH (aq) + 2NO3– (aq) +
PbCl2(s)
D. NH4+(aq)+ NO3– (aq)  2NH4NO3(s)
____ 85. Identify the correct net ionic equation for the reaction that occurs when solutions of AgNO3 and
NH4Cl are mixed.
A. AgNO3(aq) + NH4Cl(aq)  AgCl(s) + NH4Cl(aq)
B. NH4+(aq) + NO3-(aq)  NH4NO3(s)
C. AgNO3(aq) + NH4Cl(aq)  AgCl(s) + NH4Cl(s)
D. Ag+(aq) + Cl-(aq)  AgCl(s)
____ 86. The common constituent in all acid solutions is
A. H2
B. H+
C. OH–
D. H2SO4
13
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 87. Which of the following compounds is a weak acid?
A. HF
B. HCl
C. HBr
D. HI
____ 88. Which of the following compounds is a weak base?
A. KOH
B. Sc(OH)3
C. NH3
D. NH4+
____ 89. Identify the correct net ionic equation for the reaction that occurs when solutions of HNO3 and KOH
are mixed?
A. HNO3(aq) + KOH(aq)  H2O(l) + KNO3(aq)
B. K+(aq) + NO3-(aq)  KNO3(aq)
C. HNO3(aq) + KOH(aq)  2(l) + KNO3(s)
D. H+(aq) + OH-(aq)  H2O(l)
____ 90. The oxidation number of S in K2SO4 is
A. +6
B. +4
C. +2
D. –1
____ 91. The oxidation number of Fe in K3Fe(CN)6 is
A. +3
B. +2
C. +1
D. –3
14
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 92. For which one of the following acids is chlorine in the +5 oxidation state?
A. HCl
B. HClO
C. HClO2
D. HClO3
____ 93. The highest possible oxidation number of carbon is
A. +8
B. +6
C. +4
D. +2
____ 94. Determine the correct oxidation numbers for all three elements in Rb2SO3 in the order that the
elements are shown in the formula.
A. –2, +6, –2
B. –1, +4, –3
C. +2, +4, –2
D. +1, +4, –2
____ 95. Using the redox reaction below determine which element is oxidized and which is reduced.
4NH3 + 3Ca(ClO)2  2N2 + 6H2O + 3CaCl2
A. H is oxidized and N is reduced
B. N is oxidized and Cl is reduced
C. N is oxidized and O is reduced
D. Cl is oxidized and O is reduced
15
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 96. Which one of the following is a redox reaction?
A. 2Al(s) + 3H2SO4(aq)  Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 3H2(g)
B. 2KBr(aq) + Pb(NO3)2(aq)  2KNO3(aq) + PbBr2(s)
C. CaBr2(aq) + H2SO4(aq)  CaSO4(s) + 2HBr(g)
D. H+(aq) + OH– (aq)  H2O(l)
____ 97. Which of the following equations does not represent an oxidation-reduction reaction?
A. 3Al + 6HCl  3H2 + AlCl3
B. 2H2O  2H2 + O2
C. 2NaCl + Pb(NO3)2  PbCl2 + 3NaNO3
D. 2NaI + Br2  2NaBr + I2
____ 98. In the following chemical reaction the oxidizing agent is
5H2O2 + 2MnO4– + 6H+  2Mn2+ + 8H2O + 5O2
A. H2O2
B. MnO4–
C. H+
D. Mn2+
____ 99. Identify the oxidizing agent in the following chemical reaction.
2MnO4– + 5H2SO3  2Mn2+ + 5SO42– + 4H+ + 3H2O
A. MnO4–
B. H2SO3
C. Mn2+
D. SO42–
16
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 100. What element is reduced in the following chemical reaction?
Cu + 2H2SO4  CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O
A. Cu
B. H
C. S
D. O
____ 101. Predict the products of the following single replacement reaction.
Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) 
A. Cu(s) + FeSO4(aq)
B. Fe(s) + Cu(s) + SO4(aq)
C. CuS(s) + Fe2SO4(aq)
D. FeCuSO4(aq)
____ 102. Predict the products of the following single replacement reaction.
Zn(s) + CoCl2(aq) 
A. No reaction occurs
B. Co(s) + ZnCl2(aq)
C. CoCl(aq) + ZnCl(aq)
D. ZnCo(aq) + Cl2(g)
____ 103. Which of the following is an example of a disproportionation reaction?
A. 2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g)  4CO2(g) + 6H2O(l)
B. 2KBr(aq) + Cl2(g)  2KCl(aq) + Br2(l)
C. 2H2O2(aq)  2H2O(l) + O2(g)
D. CaBr2(aq) + H2SO4(aq)  CaSO4(s) + 2HBr(g)
17
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 104. Which of the following represents a precipitation reaction?
A. 2H2(g) + O2(g)  2H2O(l)
B. CaBr2(aq) + H2SO4(aq)  CaSO4(s) + 2HBr(g)
C. 2KNO3(s)  2KNO2(s) + O2(g)
D. 2KBr(aq) + Cl2(g)  2KCl(aq) + Br2(l)
____ 105. Which of the following represents an acid-base neutralization reaction?
A. 2Al(s) + 3H2SO4(aq)  Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 3H2(g)
B. SO2(g) + H2O(l)  H2SO3(g)
C. LiOH(aq) + HNO3(aq)  LiNO3(aq) + H2O(l)
D. 2KBr(aq) + Cl2(g)  2KCl(aq) + Br2(l)
____ 106. Which of the following represents a combustion reaction?
A. 2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g)  4CO2(g) + 6H2O(l)
B. LiOH(aq) + HNO3(aq)  LiNO3(aq) + H2O(l)
C. N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)
D. 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l)  2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
____ 107. What type of reaction is the following?
Ca(OH)2(s) + 2 HNO3(aq)  Ca(NO3)2(aq) + 2 H2O(l)
A. Combination reaction
B. Acid-base neutralization reaction
C. Hydrogen displacement reaction
D. Disproportionation reaction
18
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 108. What mass of C6H12O6 (glucose) is needed to prepare 450. mL of a 0.650 M solution of glucose in
water?
A. 0.293 g
B. 293 g
C. 0.692 g
D. 52.7 g
____ 109. A 50.0 mL sample of 0.436 M NH4NO3 is diluted with water to a total volume of 250.0 mL. What is
the ammonium nitrate concentration in the resulting solution?
A. 21.8 M
B. 0.459 M
C. 2.18  10–2 M
D. 8.72  10–2 M
____ 110. A 4.691 g sample of MgCl2 is dissolved in enough water to give 750. mL of solution. What is the
magnesium ion concentration in this solution?
A. 3.70  10–2 M
B. 1.05  10–2 M
C. 6.57  10–2 M
D. 4.93  10–2 M
19
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 111. What is the pressure of the sample of gas trapped in the open-tube mercury manometer shown below
if atmospheric pressure is 736 mmHg and h = 9.2 cm?
92 mmHg
644 mmHg
736 mmHg
828 mmHg
____ 112. What will happen to the height (h) of the column of mercury in the manometer shown below if the
stopcock is opened?
A.
B.
C.
D.
h will decrease
h will not change
h will increase
not enough information given to answer the question
____ 113. A sample of pure oxygen gas has a pressure of 795 torr. What is the pressure of the oxygen in units
of atmospheres?
A. 0.795 atm
B. 1.05 atm
C. 0.604 atm
D. 0.760 atm
A.
B.
C.
D.
20
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 114. Which of the following describes Dalton's Law?
A. The pressure of a gas is proportional to its volume
B. The total pressure of a gas mixture is the sum of the partial pressures of each gas
in the mixture
C. The temperature of a gas is proportional to its volume
D. Only one variable can be changed from an initial state to a final state for a gas
____ 115. Which of the following statements is consistent with Boyle's Law concerning an ideal gas?
A. At constant temperature and moles, a plot of volume versus pressure is linear.
B. At constant pressure and volume, a plot of temperature versus moles is linear.
C. At constant pressure and moles, a plot of temperature versus volume is linear.
D. At constant temperature and moles, a plot of pressure versus the inverse of
____ 116.
____ 117.
____ 118.
____ 119.
____ 120.
volume is linear.
At constant temperature, the volume of the container that a sample of nitrogen gas is in is doubled.
As a result the pressure of the nitrogen gas is halved. The amount of nitrogen gas is unchanged in
this process. This is an example of:
A. Boyle's Law
B. Charles's Law
C. Avogadro's Law
D. Gay-Lussac's Law
At constant temperature and volume, a sample of oxygen gas is added to a sample of nitrogen gas.
The pressure of the mixture is found by adding the pressures of the two individual gases. This is an
example of:
A. Boyle's Law
B. Charles's Law
C. Gay-Lussac's Law
D. Dalton's Law
A 45 mL sample of nitrogen gas is cooled from 135°C to 15°C in a container that can contract or
expand at constant pressure, what is the new volume of the nitrogen gas?
A. 64 mL
B. 5.0 mL
C. 410 mL
D. 32 mL
A sample of helium gas occupies 355mL at 23°C. If the container the He is in is expanded to 1.50 L
at constant pressure, what is the final temperature for the He at this new volume?
A. 1,250 °C
B. 978 °C
C. 70.1 °C
D. 80.0 °C
0.820 mole of hydrogen gas has a volume of 2.00 L at a certain temperature and pressure. What is
the volume of 0.125 mol of this gas at the same temperature and pressure?
A. 0.0512 L
B. 0.250 L
C. 0.305 L
D. 4.01 L
21
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 121. At what temperature will a sample of nitrogen gas with a volume of 328 mL at 15°C and 748 mmHg
____ 122.
____ 123.
____ 124.
____ 125.
____ 126.
____ 127.
occupy at a volume of 0.898 L and a pressure of 642 mm Hg? Assume the amount of the nitrogen
gas does not change.
A. 676°C
B. 404°C
C. 396°C
D. 274°C
Calculate the grams of SO2 gas present at STP in a 5.9 L container.
A. 0.24 g
B. 0.26 g
C. 15 g
D. 17 g
Calculate the volume occupied by 25.2 g of CO2 at 0.84 atm and 25°C. R = 0.08206 Latm/Kmol.
A. 0.060 L
B. 1.34 L
C. 16.7 L
D. 24.2 L
A gas evolved during the fermentation of sugar was collected. After purification its volume was
found to be 25.0 L at 22.5°C and 702 mmHg. How many moles of gas were collected?
A. 0.95 mol
B. 1.05 mol
C. 12.5 mol
D. 22.4 mol
Calculate the mass, in grams, of 2.74 L of CO gas measured at 33°C and 945 mmHg.
A. 0.263 g
B. 2.46 g
C. 3.80 g
D. 35.2 g
A 250 mL flask contains 3.4 g of neon gas at 45°C. Calculate the pressure of the neon gas inside the
flask.
A. 0.050 atm
B. 0.46 atm
C. 18 atm
D. 38 atm
Calculate the density of CO2(g) at 120°C and 790 mmHg pressure.
A. 0.032 g/L
B. 1.4 g/L
C. 1.8 g/L
D. 3.4 g/L
22
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 128. What volume of O2(g) at 810. mmHg pressure is required to react completely with a 4.50g sample of
C(s) at 48°C?
2 C(s) + O2(g)  2 CO(g)
1.22 L
3.47 L
4.63 L
9.26 L
____ 129. Which statement is false?
A. The average kinetic energies of molecules from samples of different "ideal" gases
is the same at the same temperature.
B. The molecules of an ideal gas are relatively far apart.
C. All molecules of an ideal gas have the same kinetic energy at constant
temperature.
D. Molecules of a gas undergo many collisions with each other and the container
walls.
____ 130. Determine the pressure of the gas trapped in the apparatus shown below when the atmospheric
pressure is 695 mmHg.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
45 mmHg
650 mmHg
695 mmHg
740 mmHg
23
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 131. In the following diagram of a wave
(a) is amplitude and (b) is wavelength
(a) is frequency and (b) is amplitude
(a) is wavelength and (b) is frequency
(a) is wavelength and (b) is amplitude
____ 132. Using the figure below, categorize electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 1.0  10-3 m.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gamma rays
X rays
Ultraviolet
Microwave
____ 133. Using the figure below, categorize electromagnetic radiation with an energy of 6.6  10-16 J/photon.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gamma rays
X rays
Ultraviolet
Infrared
24
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 134. Calculate the frequency of visible light having a wavelength of 486 nm.
A. 2.06  1014 /s
B. 2.06  106 /s
C. 1.20  10–15 /s
D. 6.17  1014 /s
____ 135. Calculate the frequency of visible light having a wavelength of 686 nm.
A. 4.37  1014 /s
B. 4.37  105 /s
C. 2.29  10–15 /s
D. 6.17  1014 /s
____ 136. What is the energy in joules of a mole of photons associated with visible light of wavelength 486
____ 137.
____ 138.
____ 139.
____ 140.
nm?
A. 6.46  10–25 J
B. 6.46  10–16 J
C. 2.46  10–4 J
D. 246 kJ
Calculate the energy, in joules, required to excite a hydrogen atom by causing an electronic
transition from the n = 1 to the n = 4 principal energy level. Recall that the energy levels of the H
atom are given by
En = –2.18  10–18 J(1/n2)
A. 2.07  10–29 J
B. 2.25  10–18 J
C. 2.04  10–18 J
D. 3.27  10–17 J
Calculate the frequency of the light emitted by a hydrogen atom during a transition of its electron
from the n = 6 to the n = 3 principal energy level. Recall that for hydrogen E n = –2.18  10–18
J(1/n2).
A. 1.82  10–19 /s
B. 9.13  1013 /s
C. 2.74  1014/s
D. 3.65  1014 /s
Calculate the wavelength of the light emitted by a hydrogen atom during a transition of its electron
from the n = 4 to the n = 1 principal energy level. Recall that for hydrogen E n = –2.18  10–18
J(1/n2)
A. 6.8  10–18 nm
B. 0.612 nm
C. 82.6 nm
D. 97.2 nm
Which of the following electronic transitions is consistent with an increase in energy?
A. From a 4s subshell to a 3d subshell
B. From a 5p subshell to a 4d subshell
C. From a 4d subshell to a 5s subshell
D. From a 4f subshell to a 6s subshell
25
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 141. What is the maximum number of electrons in an atom that can have the following set of quantum
numbers?
n=3
l=2
ml = –2
18
10
5
2
____ 142. The orbital diagram for a ground state carbon atom is
A.
B.
C.
D.
A
B
C
D
____ 143. Which ground-state atom has an electron configuration described by the following orbital diagram?
A.
B.
C.
D.
phosphorus
germanium
selenium
tellurium
____ 144. Which ground-state atom has an electron configuration described by the following orbital diagram?
A.
B.
C.
D.
phosphorus
nitrogen
arsenic
vanadium
____ 145. Transition metal elements have atoms or ions with partially filled
A. s subshells.
B. p subshells.
C. d subshells.
D. f subshells.
A.
B.
C.
D.
26
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 146. Lanthanide (or rare earth elements) have atoms or ions with partially filled
A. s subshells.
B. p subshells.
C. d subshells.
D. f subshells.
____ 147. Which choice lists two elements with ground-state electron configurations that are well known
____ 148.
____ 149.
____ 150.
____ 151.
____ 152.
____ 153.
exceptions to the Aufbau principle?
A. Cu and C
B. Cr and Cu
C. Cs and Cl
D. Rb and Co
Which of the following is the electron configuration of an excited state of an oxygen atom?
A. 1s22s22p4
B. 1s22s22p5
C. 1s22s22p33s1
D. 1s22s22p6
The elements in Group 7A are known by what name?
A. transition metals
B. halogens
C. alkali metals
D. alkaline earth metals
Which one of the following elements is a Lanthanide?
A. U
B. Ce
C. Os
D. Bi
Which of the following elements is found as a monatomic species in its most stable form?
A. sulfur
B. oxygen
C. hydrogen
D. argon
Which of the following elements is found as a monatomic species in its most stable form?
A. nitrogen
B. neon
C. sulfur
D. chlorine
Which of the following elements is found as a diatomic species in its most stable form?
A. bromine
B. neon
C. sulfur
D. xenon
27
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 154. Which of the following is the general electron configuration for the outermost electrons of the
____ 155.
____ 156.
____ 157.
____ 158.
____ 159.
____ 160.
halogens?
A. ns2np6
B. ns2np5
C. ns2np6(n -1)d7
D. ns1
In what row and group of the periodic table would you find the element with the electron
configuration [Kr]5s24d105p2?
A. row 4, group 4A
B. row 4, group 5A
C. row 5, group 4A
D. row 5, group 5A
How many core electrons does a chlorine atom have?
A. 17
B. 7
C. 10
D. 18
How many core electrons does a silicon atom have?
A. 14
B. 10
C. 4
D. 8
Concerning the electron configuration of fluorine, 1s22s22p5 which of the following represents the
core electrons only?
A. 1s2
B. 1s22s2
C. 1s22s22p5
D. 2s22p5
Concerning the electron configuration of sulfur, 1s22s22p63s23p4, which of the following represents
the core electrons only?
A. 1s2
B. 1s22s2
C. 1s22s22p6
D. 1s22s22p63s2
Which two electron configurations represent elements that would have similar chemical properties?
(1) 1s22s22p4
(2) 1s22s22p5
(3) [Ar]4s23d5
(4) [Ar]4s23d104p5
A. (1) and (2)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (3)
D. (2) and (4)
28
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 161. Which of the following make an isoelectronic pair: Cl–, O2–, F, Ca2+, Fe3+?
A. Ca2+ and Fe3+
B. O2– and F
C. F and Cl–
D. Cl– and Ca2+
____ 162. Which one of the following is not isoelectronic with Kr?
A. As3+
B. Se2–
C. Rb+
D. Sr2+
____ 163. Which of the following is the electron configuration for the bromide ion?
A. [Ar]
B. [Ar]4s23d104p7
C. [Kr]
D. [Kr]5s24d105p7
____ 164. Which of the following is the electron configuration of a sulfide ion?
A. [Ne]3s23p4
B. [Ne]
C. [Ne]3s23p1
D. [Ar]
____ 165. Which of the following is the electron configuration of the iron(III) ion?
A. [Ar]3d5
B. [Ar]4s13d5
C. [Ar]4s23d3
D. [Ar]3d6
____ 166. The cobalt(III) ion, Co3+, has how many 3d electrons?
A. 0
B. 7
C. 6
D. 5
____ 167. How many 3d electrons does the manganese(II) ion, Mn2+, have?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
____ 168. Which of the following ground-state ions has the largest number of unpaired electrons?
A. Cr2+
B. Mn2+
C. Ni2+
D. Cu+
29
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 169. Which of the atoms listed below has the smallest radius?
A. Al
B. P
C. As
D. Te
____ 170. Arrange the following ions in order of increasing ionic radius: K +, P3– , S2–, Cl–.
____ 171.
____ 172.
____ 173.
____ 174.
____ 175.
____ 176.
increasing radius 
A. K+ < Cl– < S2– < P3–
B. K+ < P3– < S2– < Cl–
C. P3– < S2– < Cl– < K+
D. Cl– < S2– < P3– < K+
Which of the elements listed below has the smallest first ionization energy?
A. C
B. Ge
C. P
D. O
Which of the following elements has the smallest first ionization energy?
A. Cl
B. Na
C. Be
D. K
Which of the following elements has the greatest electron affinity (largest positive value)?
A. K
B. Br
C. As
D. Ar
What are the products of the following reaction?
2 Li(s) + 2H2O(l) 
A. Li2O2(s) + 2 H2(g)
B. 2Li2O(s) + 2 H2(g)
C. 2 LiOH(aq) + H2(g)
D. 2 Li(s) + 2H2O(l)
Which of the following reactants can be combined to produce hydrogen gas as a product?
A. N2O5(s) + H2O(l) 
B. H2(g) + Cl2(g) 
C. 2 F2(g) + 2H2O(l) 
D. Mg(s) + 2H+(aq) 
Which of the following reactants can be combined to produce a basic oxide as a product?
A. Cl2O7(l) + H2O(l) 
B. P4O10(s) + 6H2O(l) 
C. 4Li(s) + O2(g) 
D. Al2O3(s) + 6HCl(aq) 
30
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 177. Which pair of elements from different groups resemble each other the most in their chemical
____ 178.
____ 179.
____ 180.
____ 181.
____ 182.
____ 183.
____ 184.
properties?
A. Be and B
B. Al and Si
C. Li and Be
D. Al and Be
In a surprisingly large number of their properties, beryllium resembles aluminum and boron
resembles silicon. Such a relationship is called
A. amphoterism.
B. an allotropic relationship.
C. a diagonal relationship.
D. the periodic law.
Which of the following elements has the greatest metallic character?
A. Ca
B. Mg
C. Ba
D. As
Which of the following elements behaves chemically similarly to oxygen?
A. magnesium
B. sodium
C. sulfur
D. chlorine
The second ionization energy of Mg is ________ than its first ionization energy, and is __________
than the second ionization energy of Na.
A. higher, higher
B. lower, higher
C. higher, lower
D. lower, lower
Which one of the following is most likely to be a covalent compound?
A. KF
B. CaCl2
C. SF4
D. Al2O3
Which one of the following compounds utilizes both ionic and covalent bonding?
A. CO32B. Al2(SO4)3
C. CO2
D. C6H12O6
Which one of the following compounds utilizes both ionic and covalent bonding?
A. Na2SO4
B. AlCl3
C. PO43D. NH4+
31
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 185. The Lewis dot symbol for the S 2– ion is
A.
B.
2–
C. S2–
D. — — 2–
____ 186. The Lewis dot symbol for the chloride ion is
A.
–
B.
C.
D.
–
–
____ 187. Which of the following ionic solids would have the largest lattice energy?
A. KF
B. KI
C. LiF
D. LiI
____ 188. Which of the following solids would have the highest melting point?
A. NaF
B. NaCl
C. NaBr
D. NaI
____ 189. Arrange the elements F, P, and Cl in order of increasing electronegativity
A. F < P < Cl
B. P < Cl < F
C. Cl < P < F
D. P < F < Cl
____ 190. Which of the following covalent bonds is the most polar (i.e., highest percent ionic character)?
A. Al — I
B. Si — I
C. Al — Cl
D. Si — Cl
____ 191. The number of lone electron pairs in the N2 molecule is ___.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
32
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 192. The number of lone electron pairs in the NH4+ ion is ___.
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
____ 193. The Lewis structure for CS2 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
____ 194. The formal charge on the sulfur atom in the resonance structure of sulfur dioxide which has one
single bond and one double bond is
A. -2
B. -1
C. 0
D. +1
____ 195. What is the formal charge on the singly bonded oxygens in the Lewis structure for the carbonate
ion?
A. –2
B. –1
C. 0
D. +1
____ 196. What is the formal charge on phosphorus in a Lewis structure for the phosphate ion that satisfies the
octet rule?
A. –2
B. –1
C. 0
D. +1
____ 197. Which one of the following molecules has an atom with an expanded octet?
A. HCl
B. AsCl5
C. ICl
D. NCl3
33
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 198. Estimate the enthalpy change for the reaction 2CO + O2  2CO2 given the following bond energies.
____ 199.
____ 200.
____ 201.
____ 202.
____ 203.
____ 204.
____ 205.
BE(CO) = 1074 kJ/mol
BE(O=O) = 499 kJ/mol
BE(C=O) = 802 kJ/mol
A. +2380 kJ/mol
B. +1949 kJ/mol
C. +744 kJ/mol
D. –561 kJ/mol
Give the number of lone pairs around the central atom and the molecular geometry of CBr4.
A. 0 lone pairs, square planar
B. 0 lone pairs, tetrahedral
C. 1 lone pair, trigonal bipyramidal
D. 1 lone pair, square pyramidal
Give the number of lone pairs around the central atom and the molecular geometry of XeF4.
A. 0 lone pairs, tetrahedral
B. 1 lone pair, distorted tetrahedron (seesaw)
C. 2 lone pairs, square planar
D. 1 lone pair, tetrahedral
Give the number of lone pairs around the central atom and the molecular geometry of IF5.
A. 0 lone pairs, square pyramidal
B. 0 lone pairs, trigonal bipyramidal
C. 1 lone pair, square pyramidal
D. lone pair, octahedral
Give the number of lone pairs around the central atom and the geometry of the ion IBr2–.
A. 0 lone pairs, linear
B. 1 lone pair, bent
C. 3 lone pairs, linear
D. 2 lone pairs, bent
Give the number of lone pairs around the central atom and the geometry of the ion ClO2–.
A. 0 lone pairs, linear
B. 1 lone pair, bent
C. 3 lone pairs, bent
D. 2 lone pairs, bent
The geometry of the ClF3 molecule is best described as:
A. distorted tetrahedron
B. trigonal planar
C. T-shaped
D. tetrahedral
According to the VSEPR theory, the molecular geometry of boron trichloride is
A. linear
B. trigonal planar
C. bent
D. tetrahedral
34
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 206. According to VSEPR theory, which one of the following molecules is trigonal bipyramidal?
A. PF5
B. XeF4
C. NF3
D. SF6
____ 207. Which one of the following molecules has tetrahedral geometry?
A. XeF4
B. BF3
C. AsF5
D. CF4
____ 208. A molecule with 3 single bonds and 1 lone pair of electrons around the central atom is predicted to
have what type of molecular geometry?
A. Tetrahedral
B. Trigonal pyramidal
C. Trigonal bipyramidal
D. Bent
____ 209. A central atom with 4 electron pairs (single bonds and/or lone pairs of electrons) could have which
of the following molecular geometries?
I.
Trigonal bipyramidal
II.
Tetrahedral
III.
Trigonal pyramidal
IV.
Bent
I and II
II and III
II, III, and IV
I and IV
____ 210. A molecule with 4 single bonds (and any number of lone pairs) could have which of the following
molecular geometries?
I.
Tetrahedral
II.
Seesaw
III.
Square Planar
IV.
T-shaped
A.
B.
C.
D.
I only
I and III
II and III
I, II, and III
____ 211. The bond angles in SCl2 are expected to be
A. a little less than 109.5°.
B. 109.5°
C. a little more than 109.5°.
D. 120°.
A.
B.
C.
D.
35
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 212. The bond angle in Cl2O is expected to be approximately
A. 90°
B. 109.5°
C. 120°
D. 145°
____ 213. The F – S – F bond angles in SF6 are
A. 90° and 180°
B. 109.5°
C. 120°
D. 180°
____ 214. Which one of the following molecules is nonpolar?
A. NH3
B. BeCl2
C. CH3Cl
D. H2O
____ 215. Which of the following molecules has polar bonds but is a nonpolar molecule
A. CO
B. CO2
C. CHCl3
D. Cl2
____ 216. Which one of the following molecules has a non-zero dipole moment?
A. BeCl2
B. Br2
C. BF3
D. IBr
____ 217. Which one of the following molecules has a zero dipole moment?
A. CO
B. CH2Cl2
C. SO3
D. SO2
____ 218. Which one of the following molecules is polar?
A. PBr5
B. CCl4
C. BrF5
D. XeF2
36
ID: A
AP Final Exam First Semester
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS:
OBJ:
2. ANS:
OBJ:
3. ANS:
OBJ:
4. ANS:
OBJ:
5. ANS:
OBJ:
6. ANS:
OBJ:
7. ANS:
OBJ:
8. ANS:
OBJ:
9. ANS:
OBJ:
10. ANS:
OBJ:
11. ANS:
OBJ:
12. ANS:
OBJ:
13. ANS:
OBJ:
14. ANS:
OBJ:
15. ANS:
OBJ:
16. ANS:
OBJ:
17. ANS:
OBJ:
18. ANS:
OBJ:
19. ANS:
OBJ:
20. ANS:
OBJ:
21. ANS:
OBJ:
C
EK.1.D.1
D
EK.1.E.1
B
EK.1.E.1
B
EK.1.A.2
A
EK.1.A.2
D
EK.5.A.1
C
EK.1.A.2
B
EK.1.A.2
D
EK.1.A.2
A
EK.1.A.2
A
EK.1.A.2
D
EK.1.A.2
B
EK.1.B.1
B
EK.1.B.1
A
EK.1.B.1
D
EK.1.C.1
C
EK.1.C.1
A
EK.1.C.1
B
EK.1.A.1
C
EK.1.A.1
A
EK.1.A.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 1.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 1.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 1.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 1.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 1.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 1.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 1.8
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 1.8
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 1.9
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 1.9
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 1.9
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 1.9
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 2.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 2.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 2.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 2.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 2.5
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.5
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.5
1
ID: A
22. ANS:
OBJ:
23. ANS:
OBJ:
24. ANS:
OBJ:
25. ANS:
OBJ:
26. ANS:
OBJ:
27. ANS:
OBJ:
28. ANS:
OBJ:
29. ANS:
OBJ:
30. ANS:
OBJ:
31. ANS:
OBJ:
32. ANS:
OBJ:
33. ANS:
OBJ:
34. ANS:
OBJ:
35. ANS:
OBJ:
36. ANS:
OBJ:
37. ANS:
OBJ:
38. ANS:
OBJ:
39. ANS:
OBJ:
40. ANS:
OBJ:
41. ANS:
OBJ:
42. ANS:
OBJ:
43. ANS:
OBJ:
44. ANS:
OBJ:
45. ANS:
OBJ:
D
EK.1.A.1
A
EK.1.A.1
D
EK.1.A.1
B
EK.1.A.1
B
EK.1.C.1
D
EK.1.C.1
A
EK.1.C.1
B
EK.1.C.1
B
EK.1.C.1
B
EK.1.C.1
B
EK.1.C.1
B
EK.1.C.1
A
EK.1.C.1
D
EK.1.C.1
A
EK.1.C.1
A
EK.1.C.1
B
EK.1.C.1
D
EK.1.C.1
A
EK.1.C.1
D
EK.1.C.1
A
EK.1.C.1
C
EK.1.A.3
A
EK.1.A.3
B
EK.1.A.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.5
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 2.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 3.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.2
2
ID: A
46. ANS:
OBJ:
47. ANS:
OBJ:
48. ANS:
OBJ:
49. ANS:
OBJ:
50. ANS:
OBJ:
51. ANS:
OBJ:
52. ANS:
OBJ:
53. ANS:
OBJ:
54. ANS:
OBJ:
55. ANS:
OBJ:
56. ANS:
OBJ:
57. ANS:
OBJ:
58. ANS:
OBJ:
59. ANS:
OBJ:
60. ANS:
OBJ:
61. ANS:
OBJ:
62. ANS:
OBJ:
63. ANS:
OBJ:
64. ANS:
OBJ:
65. ANS:
OBJ:
66. ANS:
OBJ:
67. ANS:
OBJ:
68. ANS:
OBJ:
69. ANS:
OBJ:
D
EK.1.A.3
A
EK.1.A.3
B
EK.1.A.3
A
EK.1.A.3
A
EK.1.A.3
D
EK.1.A.3
A
EK.1.A.3
D
EK.1.A.3
B
EK.1.A.3
D
EK.1.A.3
B
EK.1.A.3
D
EK.1.A.3
C
EK.1.D.2
B
EK.1.A.1
B
EK.1.A.1
D
EK.1.A.1
B
EK.1.A.1
C
EK.1.A.1
B
EK.1.A.1
D
EK.1.A.1
D
EK.1.A.1
B
EK.1.A.1
B
EK.1.A.3
A
EK.1.A.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: Section: 3.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: Section: 3.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 3.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 3.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 3.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 3.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 3.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.9
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.9
3
ID: A
70. ANS:
OBJ:
71. ANS:
OBJ:
72. ANS:
OBJ:
73. ANS:
OBJ:
74. ANS:
OBJ:
75. ANS:
OBJ:
76. ANS:
OBJ:
77. ANS:
OBJ:
78. ANS:
OBJ:
79. ANS:
OBJ:
80. ANS:
OBJ:
81. ANS:
OBJ:
82. ANS:
OBJ:
83. ANS:
OBJ:
84. ANS:
OBJ:
85. ANS:
OBJ:
86. ANS:
OBJ:
87. ANS:
OBJ:
88. ANS:
OBJ:
89. ANS:
OBJ:
90. ANS:
OBJ:
91. ANS:
OBJ:
92. ANS:
OBJ:
93. ANS:
OBJ:
B
EK.1.A.1
B
EK.1.A.3
B
EK.1.A.3
D
EK.1.A.3
C
EK.1.A.3
C
EK.1.A.3
C
EK.2.A.3
D
EK.2.A.3
D
EK.3.C.1
B
EK.3.C.1
D
EK.3.C.1
D
EK.3.C.1
A
EK.3.C.1
A
EK.3.C.1
B
EK.3.A.1
D
EK.3.A.1
B
EK.3.B.2
A
EK.3.B.2
C
EK.3.B.2
D
EK.3.A.1
A
EK.3.B.3
A
EK.3.B.3
D
EK.3.B.3
C
EK.3.B.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.8
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.9
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.10
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.9
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.10
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 3.10
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 4.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 4.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 4.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 4.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 4.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 4.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 4.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 4.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 4.4
4
ID: A
94. ANS:
OBJ:
95. ANS:
OBJ:
96. ANS:
OBJ:
97. ANS:
OBJ:
98. ANS:
OBJ:
99. ANS:
OBJ:
100. ANS:
OBJ:
101. ANS:
OBJ:
102. ANS:
OBJ:
103. ANS:
OBJ:
104. ANS:
OBJ:
105. ANS:
OBJ:
106. ANS:
OBJ:
107. ANS:
OBJ:
108. ANS:
OBJ:
109. ANS:
OBJ:
110. ANS:
OBJ:
111. ANS:
OBJ:
112. ANS:
OBJ:
113. ANS:
OBJ:
114. ANS:
OBJ:
115. ANS:
OBJ:
116. ANS:
OBJ:
117. ANS:
OBJ:
D
EK.3.B.3
B
EK.3.B.3
A
EK.3.B.3
C
EK.3.B.3
B
EK.3.B.3
A
EK.3.B.3
C
EK.3.B.3
A
EK.3.C.1
B
EK.3.C.1
C
EK.3.B.3
B
EK.3.C.1
C
EK.3.B.2
A
EK.3.B.1
B
EK.3.B.2
D
EK.2.A.3
D
EK.2.A.3
C
EK.2.A.3
B
EK.2.A.2
A
EK.2.A.2
B
EK.2.A.2
B
EK.2.A.2
D
EK.1.E.1
A
EK.1.E.1
D
EK.2.A.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 4.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 4.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 4.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.5
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 4.5
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 4.5
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 5.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 5.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 5.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 5.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 5.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 5.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 5.6
5
ID: A
118. ANS:
OBJ:
119. ANS:
OBJ:
120. ANS:
OBJ:
121. ANS:
OBJ:
122. ANS:
OBJ:
123. ANS:
OBJ:
124. ANS:
OBJ:
125. ANS:
OBJ:
126. ANS:
OBJ:
127. ANS:
OBJ:
128. ANS:
OBJ:
129. ANS:
OBJ:
130. ANS:
OBJ:
131. ANS:
OBJ:
132. ANS:
OBJ:
133. ANS:
OBJ:
134. ANS:
OBJ:
135. ANS:
OBJ:
136. ANS:
OBJ:
137. ANS:
OBJ:
138. ANS:
OBJ:
139. ANS:
OBJ:
140. ANS:
OBJ:
141. ANS:
OBJ:
D
EK.1.E.1
B
EK.1.E.1
C
EK.1.E.1
B
EK.2.A.2
D
EK.2.A.2
C
EK.2.A.2
A
EK.2.A.2
C
EK.2.A.2
C
EK.2.A.2
B
EK.2.A.2
C
EK.1.E.2
C
EK.2.A.2
D
EK.2.A.2
D
EK.1.D.3
D
EK.1.D.3
B
EK.1.D.3
D
EK.1.D.3
A
EK.1.D.3
D
EK.1.D.3
C
EK.1.D.3
D
EK.1.D.3
D
EK.1.D.3
A
EK.1.B.2
D
EK.1.B.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 5.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 5.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 5.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 5.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 5.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 5.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 5.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 5.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 5.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 5.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 5.5
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 5.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 5.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 7.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 7.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 7.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 7.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 7.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 7.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 7.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 7.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 7.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 7.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 7.8
6
ID: A
142. ANS:
OBJ:
143. ANS:
OBJ:
144. ANS:
OBJ:
145. ANS:
OBJ:
146. ANS:
OBJ:
147. ANS:
OBJ:
148. ANS:
OBJ:
149. ANS:
OBJ:
150. ANS:
OBJ:
151. ANS:
OBJ:
152. ANS:
OBJ:
153. ANS:
OBJ:
154. ANS:
OBJ:
155. ANS:
OBJ:
156. ANS:
OBJ:
157. ANS:
OBJ:
158. ANS:
OBJ:
159. ANS:
OBJ:
160. ANS:
OBJ:
161. ANS:
OBJ:
162. ANS:
OBJ:
163. ANS:
OBJ:
164. ANS:
OBJ:
165. ANS:
OBJ:
D
EK.1.B.2
C
EK.1.B.2
A
EK.1.B.2
C
EK.1.B.2
D
EK.1.B.2
B
EK.1.B.2
C
EK.1.B.2
B
EK.1.C.1
B
EK.1.C.1
D
EK.1.C.1
B
EK.1.C.1
A
EK.1.C.1
B
EK.1.C.1
C
EK.1.C.1
C
EK.1.C.1
B
EK.1.C.1
A
EK.1.C.1
C
EK.1.C.1
D
EK.1.C.1
D
EK.1.C.1
A
EK.1.C.1
C
EK.1.C.1
D
EK.1.C.1
A
EK.1.C.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 7.8
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 7.9
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 7.9
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 7.9
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 7.9
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 7.9
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 7.9
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 8.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 8.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.2
7
ID: A
166. ANS:
OBJ:
167. ANS:
OBJ:
168. ANS:
OBJ:
169. ANS:
OBJ:
170. ANS:
OBJ:
171. ANS:
OBJ:
172. ANS:
OBJ:
173. ANS:
OBJ:
174. ANS:
OBJ:
175. ANS:
OBJ:
176. ANS:
OBJ:
177. ANS:
OBJ:
178. ANS:
OBJ:
179. ANS:
OBJ:
180. ANS:
OBJ:
181. ANS:
OBJ:
182. ANS:
OBJ:
183. ANS:
OBJ:
184. ANS:
OBJ:
185. ANS:
OBJ:
186. ANS:
OBJ:
187. ANS:
OBJ:
188. ANS:
OBJ:
189. ANS:
OBJ:
C
EK.1.C.1
C
EK.1.C.1
B
EK.1.C.1
B
EK.1.C.1
A
EK.1.C.1
B
EK.1.C.1
D
EK.1.C.1
B
EK.1.C.1
C
EK.1.C.1
D
EK.1.C.1
C
EK.1.C.1
D
EK.1.C.1
C
EK.1.C.1
C
EK.1.C.1
C
EK.1.C.1
C
EK.1.C.1
C
EK.2.C.1
B
EK.2.C.1
A
EK.2.C.1
B
EK.2.C.4
B
EK.2.C.4
C
EK.2.C.2
A
EK.2.C.1
B
EK.2.C.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.5
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 8.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Section: 9.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 9.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 9.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 9.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 9.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 9.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 9.3
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 9.5
8
ID: A
190. ANS:
OBJ:
191. ANS:
OBJ:
192. ANS:
OBJ:
193. ANS:
OBJ:
194. ANS:
OBJ:
195. ANS:
OBJ:
196. ANS:
OBJ:
197. ANS:
OBJ:
198. ANS:
OBJ:
199. ANS:
OBJ:
200. ANS:
OBJ:
201. ANS:
OBJ:
202. ANS:
OBJ:
203. ANS:
OBJ:
204. ANS:
OBJ:
205. ANS:
OBJ:
206. ANS:
OBJ:
207. ANS:
OBJ:
208. ANS:
OBJ:
209. ANS:
OBJ:
210. ANS:
OBJ:
211. ANS:
OBJ:
212. ANS:
OBJ:
213. ANS:
OBJ:
C
EK.2.C.1
B
EK.2.C.4
A
EK.2.C.4
C
EK.2.C.4
D
EK.2.C.4
B
EK.2.C.4
D
EK.2.C.4
B
EK.2.C.4
D
EK.5.C.2
B
EK.2.C.4
C
EK.2.C.4
C
EK.2.C.4
C
EK.2.C.4
D
EK.2.C.4
C
EK.2.C.4
B
EK.2.C.4
A
EK.2.C.4
D
EK.2.C.4
B
EK.2.C.4
C
EK.2.C.4
D
EK.2.C.4
A
EK.2.C.4
B
EK.2.C.4
A
EK.2.C.4
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 9.5
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 9.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 9.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 9.6
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: Section: 9.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: Section: 9.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: Section: 9.7
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 9.9
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: Section: 9.10
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 10.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 10.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 10.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 10.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 10.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 10.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 10.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 10.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 10.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 10.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 10.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 10.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 10.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 10.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 10.1
9
ID: A
214. ANS:
OBJ:
215. ANS:
OBJ:
216. ANS:
OBJ:
217. ANS:
OBJ:
218. ANS:
OBJ:
B
EK.2.C.1
B
EK.2.C.1
D
EK.2.C.1
C
EK.2.C.1
C
EK.2.C.1
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 10.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 10.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 10.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 10.2
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
REF: Section: 10.2
10