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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Networking
Solutions
Review Questions
1.
What resources do networks not enable workstations to share?
Answer: B.
2.
A server-based network can:
Answer: A.
3.
What is the simplest form of a network still in use today?
Answer: D.
4.
Servers usually possess the same amount of memory and hard disk capacity as
workstations. True or False?
Answer: False. Servers usually possess greater processing capabilities, more hard disk
space, and more memory than workstations
5.
What is the primary function of a file server on a network?
Answer: D.
6.
What is the primary difference between LANs and WANs?
Answer: A. the distance they span
7.
Any two computers can use the same network interface card to connect to the
network. True or False?
Answer: False. You cannot assume that two different computers can use the same network
interface card to connect to the network, because they may have different specifications,
different internal architecture or different kinds of connections to the network.
8.
Why is it important to make sure that each workstation on a network has a unique
network address?
Answer: B.
9.
A shared HP LaserJet 6P could be considered a network node. True or False?
Answer: True. A node can be a workstation, printer, fax machine, server or any other kind of
device connected to the network
10.
Which of the following is not a network topology?
Answer: C.
11.
Which of the following is not true about peer-to-peer networks?
Answer: A.
12.
In addition to message storage and transfer, what additional function might a mail
server provide?
Answer: C.
13.
Which of the following could not be considered a network management service?
Answer: D.
14.
Security is a concern when using communications servers on a network because:
Answer: A.
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15.
Which of the following services does not belong to the Internet services group of
networked functions?
Answer: D.
16.
One function that network protocol serves is to ensure that data are delivered in the
correct sequence. True or False?
Answer: True
17.
Name three specialties within the networking field that are in high demand.
Answer: The following specialties are currently in high demand:

Network security

Internet and intranet design

Network management

Voice/data integration

Remote and mobile computing

Data integrity and fault tolerance

In-depth knowledge of Microsoft, networking products

In-depth knowledge of Microsoft, NetWare networking products

In-depth knowledge of router configuration and management
18. Soft skills are probably not necessary in which of the following on-the-job scenarios?
Answer: B.
19. Which of the following is probably not a benefit of pursuing professional certification?
Answer: C
20. To find the best possible job in networking, what sources would you investigate?
Answer: To find the best possible job in networking you should investigate the classified ads
in the local newspaper, searchable job databases on the Web, your college career center,
other colleagues, and career fairs
Chapter 2: Networking Standards and the OSI Model
Solutions
Review Questions
1.
Which international standards organization is part of the United Nations?
Answer: B. The International Telecommunications Union (ITU)
2.
What does “ISO” stand for?
Answer: C. International Organization for Standardization
3.
Which organization represents the United States in ISO?
Answer: A. ANSI (American National Standards Institute)
4.
Which technology is standardized in the IEEE 802.5 specification?
Answer: B. IEEE 802.5 standardizes the Token Ring LAN technology.
5.
Which technology is standardized in the IEEE 802.3 specification?
Answer: D. IEEE 802.3 standardizes the Ethernet technology used on most Ethernet networks today.
6.
Which layer of the OSI Model provides file transfer services?
Answer: A. Application layer
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7.
Netscape is an example of a program that runs in the Application layer. True or False?
Answer: False. Netscape is an application whose requests get picked up by the Application layer and
passed to the Session layer.
8.
Which layer of the OSI Model establishes the rules of communication between two nodes?
Answer: B. The Session layer establishes the rules of communication between two nodes.
9.
In which layer of the OSI Model do switches and bridges belong?
Answer: A. Bridges and switches belong in the Data Link Layer.
10.
In which layer of the OSI Model do routers belong?
Answer: C. Routers belong in the Network Layer.
11.
In which two layers of the OSI Model do NICs belong?
Answer: D. NICs operate in the Physical and Data Link Layers.
12.
What standards organization developed the OSI Model?
Answer: D. ISO (International Organization for Standardization)
13.
Under what circumstances would the Network layer use segmentation?
Answer: C. The Network layer would need to segment data into smaller blocks if it detected that the
destination node could not accept the size of the data blocks transmitted by the source node.
14.
Generating and detecting voltage so as to transmit and receive signals carrying data is the
responsibility of which OSI Model layer?
Answer: D. The Physical layer
15.
Flow control is the process of making sure data frames are received in the correct order. True or
False?
Answer: False. Flow control is the method of gauging and accommodating the rate of data
transmission that the destination node requires
16.
What is the purpose of a token in a token passing network?
Answer: A. A token is special control frame that indicates to the rest of the network that one node has
the right to transmit data.
17.
If you use a password to log into your Microsoft Exchange program, what layer of the OSI Model
would decode your password?
Answer: C. The Presentation layer, as it is responsible for encoding and decoding data.
18.
Which layer of the OSI Model handles error checking and retransmission of bad data?
Answer: A. The Transport layer
19.
What are the differences between MAC addresses and Network layer addresses?
Answer: MAC addresses are hardwired into the networking device by the manufacturer and do not
have any logical significance to a particular network. Network layer addresses are assigned to nodes
through the operating system software and are hierarchical, which means they contain sequentially
limiting information. This characteristic makes network layer addresses usable by routers.
20.
One frame type will not interact with another frame type on the network. True or False?
Answer: True. Only like frame types can interact on a network (although multiple frame types may
simultaneously be present on the network).
21.
Which of the following types of addresses follow a hierarchical format?
Answer: C. Network layer (or logical) addresses follow a hierarchical format.
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22.
Which of the following is not a field found in an Ethernet 802.3 data frame:
Answer: A.
23.
Token Ring technology was originally developed by what company?
Answer: B. IBM
24.
Which of the following is not a field found in a Token Ring data frame?
Answer: D.
25.
A single frame type can support only one kind of protocol. True or False?
Answer: False. Several kinds of protocols can be used over a single frame type.
26.
What are the sublayers of the Data Link layer as defined in the IEEE 802 standards?
Answer: A. The Logical Link Control sublayer and the Media Access Control sublayer.
27.
Describe the functions of the two Data Link layer sublayers.
Answer: The Logical Link Control sublayer is the upper part of the Data Link Layer and its function is
to create a common interface and supply reliability and flow control services. The Media Access
Control sublayer is the lower part of the Data Link layer and its most significant function is to append
the data’s destination address to the frame.
28.
What is the purpose of a router?
Answer: A router connects two similar or dissimilar network segments. It is capable of interpreting
frames and using the information in the frame, such as addressing and handling fields, to intelligently
direct the data.
29.
What part of the MAC Address is unique to each vendor?
Answer: B. The Block ID
30.
IEEE has standardized four different Ethernet frame types. True or False?
Answer: True.
Chapter 3: Network Protocols
Solutions
Review Questions
1.
What characteristics make a protocol routable?
Answer: B.
2.
Which layer in the TCP/IP Model of network communications roughly corresponds to the
Physical and Data Link layers of the OSI Model?
Answer: A.
3.
To which layer of the TCP/IP Model does the IP protocol belong?
Answer: B.
4.
To which layer of the TCP/IP Model does the TCP protocol belong?
Answer: C.
5.
What is the function of ARP?
Answer: D.
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6.
Which TCP/IP utility might you use to connect to a UNIX host from your PC over the
network?
Answer: C.
7.
What does SMTP stand for?
Answer: A.
8.
Which version of IP are most TCP/IP networks currently using?
Answer: B.
9.
Why might an application be better served by UDP than TCP?
Answer: Because UDP doesn’t provide any guarantees for data reliability, it is a very fast protocol. It
may be useful in cases where data streams are time-dependent, such as with audio or video
applications sent over the Internet. In such a situation, TCP’s data checking mechanisms would slow
the traffic down and make transmission unintelligible.
10.
An IP address consists of 4 bytes. True or False?
Answer: True
11.
Which technique is used to break large TCP/IP-based networks into smaller logical segments?
Answer: A.
12.
On which Class network is the workstation that uses the following IP address: 193.12.176.55?
Answer: C.
13.
Which of the following is the loopback address?
Answer: D.
14.
Which of the following is an alternative to configuring each workstation on a network with its
own IP address?
Answer: A.
15.
What kind of network operating system requires IPX/SPX?
Answer: C.
16.
Which IPX/SPX core protocol provides data reliability services?
Answer: B.
17.
The node address portion of an IPX/SPX address is equivalent to what other address?
Answer: A.
18.
What function is performed by the time to live (in IP) and the transport control (in IPX)
fields?
Answer: Time to Live, in IP and Transport Control, in IPX measure how many routers a packet has
passed through and control when a packet is discarded.
19.
Which of the following is not a valid network address for a NetWare server?
Answer: C, because it contains the letter K
20.
Why wouldn’t you want to use NetBEUI for Internet connections (pick two reasons)?
Answer: A and B.
21.
Why are hosts on a TCP/IP network assigned host names?
Answer: TCP/IP hosts are assigned hostnames primarily so that humans can contact those hosts
without having to know their IP address.
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22.
IPX/SPX is not a routable protocol. True or False?
Answer: False. IPX/SPX is routable.
23.
Macintosh computers can be integrated with Microsoft-based networks. True or False?
Answer: True
24.
On a Windows 2000 workstation, how would you find your computer’s NetBIOS name?
Answer: D.
25.
Which AppleTalk protocol ensures reliable data delivery?
Answer: D.
26.
What is a logically defined group of workstations called on an AppleTalk network?
Answer: A.
27.
On a Windows 2000 workstation, after you install the NWLink (IPX/SPX) protocol, you need
not configure it in order to use it. True or False?
Answer: True
28.
On a Windows 98 workstation, what is the default setting for the IP Address in the TCP/IP
protocol properties?
Answer: A.
29.
What information does the WINIPCFG command (run from a Windows 98 workstation) give
you?
Answer: The WINIPCFG command, when run on a Windows 98 workstation, will provide you with
your MAC address, IP Address, subnet mask and default gateway. If you click the More Info button,
you can also view your hostname and DHCP information, among other TCP/IP parameters.
30.
How many protocols can you install on a single Windows 98 workstation?
Answer: D.
Chapter 4: Transmission Basics and Networking Media
Solutions
Review Questions
1. When they become faint, analog signals are regenerated while digital signals are
amplified. True or False?
Answer: False. Analog signals are amplified while digital signals are regenerated.
2. Which two of the following technologies cannot achieve full-duplex transmission?
Answer: D and E.
3. What is the origin of the word “modem?”
Answer: B. modulator/demodulator
4. How does noise affect a digital signal?
Answer: D. Noise distorts the signal.
5. Which two of the following transmission techniques can increase the potential
throughput of a network?
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Answer: B and C.
6. Which of the following would not be a source of EMI?
Answer: C. A loud gong.
7. When determining the cost of a cabling system, what – besides the cost of the
wire, must you bear in mind?
Answer: In addition to the cost of the physical medium, you should bear in mind the
cost of installation, cost of new vs. reusing existing infrastructure, cost of
maintenance and support, cost of a lower transmission rate affecting productivity and
the cost of obsolescence.
8. What is the term that refers to the outer covering of a cable?
Answer: D. Sheath
9. What type of coaxial cable would you use to connect network nodes on a Thinnet
network?
Answer: B. RG-58A/U
10. What are two advantages of using twisted pair cabling over coaxial cabling on a
network?
Answer: B and E.
11. In which of the following network types would you use a cable with AUI
connectors?
Answer: A. 10Base5
12. Describe the differences between baseband and broadband transmission.
Answer: Baseband is a form of transmission in which digital signals are sent through
direct current pulses applied to the wire. This direct current reserves exclusive use of
the wire’s capacity. Therefore, baseband systems can only transmit one signal, or
one channel, at a time. Broadband, on the other hand, uses modulated analog
frequencies to transmit multiple signals over the same wire.
13. What type of terminator is required at both ends of a Thinnet or Thicknet cable?
Answer: C. 50 ohms.
14. Which two of the following network types require a bus topology?
Answer: A and B.
15. Crosstalk does not present a problem for UTP cable. True or False?
Answer: False.
16. What is the maximum throughput currently supported by CAT5 wiring?
Answer: B. 100Mbps (Currently, CAT5 wiring is rated for 100 Mbps, though signaling
and physical advances may allow it to support 1 Gbps in the future.)
17. How many wire pairs are in a typical CAT5 cable?
Answer: C. 4
18. What type of fiber optic cable is more frequently found on LANs?
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Answer: E. Multi-mode fiber (because the cost of single-mode fiber is prohibitive.)
19. Which two of the following are drawbacks to using fiber-optic cable for LANs?
Answer: A and D.
20. What is the maximum allowable distance for a horizontal wiring subsystem?
Answer: C. 100 m
21. What is the maximum segment length on a 100BaseT network?
Answer: B. 100 m
22. What is the maximum segment length on a Thicknet network?
Answer: D. 500 m
23. In what subsystem of a structured cabling design are patch cables used?
Answer: B. in the work area
24. What part of the TIA/EIA structured cabling recommendations provides
connectivity to a telecommunications service provider?
Answer: D. Entrance facilities
25. On what type of network would you use BNC connectors?
Answer: B. 10Base2
26. On a 100BaseTX Ethernet network, where will you most likely find the
transceivers?
Answer: C. in the NICs
27. In general, what type of cabling can sustain the most bending without impairing
transmission?
Answer: D. UTP
28. What is the maximum amount of insulation you should strip from copper wires
before inserting them into connectors?
Answer: C. 1 inch
29. What is the maximum amount you should untwist twisted-pair wires before
inserting them into connectors?
Answer: B. ½ inch
30. On a 10BaseT network, which of the following best describes how the wires of a
UTP cable are used to transmit and receive information?
Answer: A. One wire pair handles data transmission, while another wire pair handles
data reception.
31. If you wanted to allow two workstations to transmit and receive data between
their NICs without using a connectivity device, which of the following would you
need?
Answer: A. crossover cable
32. What are the two main types of infrared transmission, and how do they differ?
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Answer: The two types of infrared transmission are direct and indirect. Direct infrared
relies on an unobstructed “line of sight” path between the sender and receiver.
Indirect infrared signals bounce off obstacles in their path.
33. Radiofrequency transmissions can be easily intercepted. True or False?
Answer: B. True. One type of RF transmission, narrowband, is particularly susceptible to tapping.
34. What kind of transmission media would you recommend for videoconferencing
between two buildings that are across the street from each other?
Answer: B. Fiber-optic cable
35. Which government agency in the United States allocated radio frequencies?
Answer: E. FCC
Chapter 5: Physical and Logical Topologies
Solutions
Review Questions
1.
Under what circumstance might you use a simple bus topology?
Answer: C. When you have few users on a LAN
2.
What kind of topology is susceptible to signal bounce?
Answer: B. Bus
3.
What are the primary advantages of using a star topology over a ring or bus
topology?
Answer: A star topology is more reliable, because it connects each node or device to
the network with a separate connection. It is also more scalable, because additional
devices can be added cheaply and without impacting the performance of the
network.
4.
Most modern networks with more than a few nodes use a hybrid topology. True
or False?
Answer: True
5.
Why might you want to use a hierarchical topology?
Answer: A. To differentiate levels of connectivity devices and workstation groups.
6.
What logical topology, or network transport model, relies most often on a starwired bus topology?
Answer: A. Ethernet
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7.
How do workstations in a ring topology negotiate their data transmissions?
Answer: D. by using tokens
8.
Which of the following is a potential problem with daisy-chaining hubs?
Answer: A. exceeding maximum segment length
9.
What type of network backbone is the most reliable?
Answer: C. Parallel
10.
The Internet is an example of what kind of WAN topology?
Answer: C. Mesh
11.
Why is packet switching more efficient than circuit switching?
Answer: B. In packet switching packets can take the quickest route between nodes and arrive
independent of when other packets in their data stream arrive.
12.
Describe the steps a workstation takes when it participates in CSMA/CD.
Answer: A node checks the network to determine whether another node is
transmitting. If it is, it will wait a specified amount of time before it retries. If two
nodes have detected a free circuit and begun to transmit simultaneously, a collision
will occur. In this event the Collision Detection routine is performed. If a station’s NIC
determines that its data has been involved in a collision, it will propagate the collision
throughout the network so no other stations attempt to transmit, then the station will
remain silent for a period of time. After waiting, the node will retransmit its data once
it again determines that the line is available.
13.
On a 100BaseT (Fast Ethernet) network, what is the maximum number of hubs
that can be connected along the bus of a star-wired bus topology?
Answer: B. 3
14.
What is the maximum number of addressable stations on a 10BaseT Ethernet
network?
Answer: E. 1024
15.
Which two of the following might cause excessive data collisions on an Ethernet
network?
Answer: B and E.
16.
What type of media is best suited to 1 Gigabit Ethernet networks?
Answer: A. fiber-optic
17.
In order to use demand priority on a network (for example, when running
100BaseVG), what type of hub is necessary?
Answer: D. intelligent
18.
What fields do all Ethernet frame types have in common?
Answer: preamble, source address, destination address, padding, data, and frame
check sequence
19.
At what layer of the OSI Model does framing occur?
Answer: B. Data Link layer
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20.
What is the purpose of the pad field in an Ethernet frame?
Answer: E. to ensure that the data portion of the frame totals at least 46 bytes
21.
What is the purpose of a Frame Check Sequence field in an Ethernet frame?
Answer: A. To ensure that data is received without errors at the destination node.
22.
NIC device drivers come with what feature that reduces the need for you to worry
about frame types?
Answer: C. autosense
23.
What are the minimum and maximum sizes for an Ethernet frame?
Answer: C. 64 and 1518 Bytes
24.
What type of TCP/IP protocol does LocalTalk use?
Answer: B. MacTCP
25.
What is the name of a hub used on a Token Ring network?
Answer: A. Multistation Access Unit
26.
Which two of the following are disadvantages to using Token Ring networks
rather than Ethernet networks?
Answer: B and C.
27.
Modern token ring networks may transmit data at 4, 16, 32 or 64 Mbps. True or
False?
Answer: False.
28.
If you were working on a Token Ring network that used cables with DB-9
connectors and needed to connect a NIC that contained an RJ-45 receptor,
which of the following would help you accomplish your goal?
Answer: D. media filter
29.
Which of the following IEEE standards describes Token Ring networks?
Answer: D. IEEE 802.5
30.
Which of the following logical topologies is capable of the fastest throughput?
Answer: E. ATM
31.
What type of Physical layer is required for FDDI?
Answer: B. a dual ring of single mode or multimode fiber
32.
Besides their ring-based topologies, what else do FDDI and Token Ring
networks have in common?
Answer: C. Both use token passing to mediate data transmission.
33.
You have been asked to serve on a technical committee planning an upgrade
from your university’s FDDI network to a Gigabit Ethernet network. The rest of
the committee asserts this will be a relatively simple transition. What concern
should you raise that contradicts their assertion?
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Answer: B. The maximum allowable distance for a FDDI network is longer than that
of an Ethernet network, so the existing FDDI network will need to be divided into
smaller subnetworks.
34.
What type of switching do ATM networks use?
Answer: A. circuit switching
35.
Which two of the following might explain why network administrators prefer
Gigabit Ethernet over ATM?
Answer: A and B.
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