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Module 1. Principles of cytology, general embryology and general histology 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 Text test questions What are main chemical components of biologic membrane? A. Acids, proteins, polysaccharides B. Phospholipids, acids, proteins C. Phospholipids, polysaccharides, cholesterol D. Polysaccharides, acids, cholesterol E. *Phospholipids, proteins, cholesterol How many layers are there in cell membrane? A. 1 B. 2 C. * 3 D. 4 E. 5 Which layer of plasmalemma is responsible for the cell exo- and endocytosis? A. Lipoprotein layer B. Supramembranous C. Integral layer D. Glycocalix E. *Cortical layer Which cell compound has phospholipid bilayer? A. Nuclear pore B. Chromosome C. Nuclear envelope D. Ribosome E. *Biologic membrane Which modern theory describes the structure of cell membrane? A. *Fluid mosaic model B. Bilaminar model C. Multilayered model D. Complex model E. Functional model Specify the process of useful material effusion of the cell. A. Recreation B. Excretion C. Transcytosis D. Clasmatosis E. *Secretion Specify the process of some structural components effusion of cell. A. Secretion B. Recreation C. Excretion D. Transcytosis E. *Clasmatosis Specify the process of some hard material capture by cell. 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 A. Pinocytosis B. Endocytosis C. Exocytosis D. Cytopempsis E. *Phagocytosis Sample of intercellular adherent junction: A. Nexus B. Compound C. Tight D. Synapse E. *Interdigital Sample of intercellular adherent junction: A. Compound B. Tight C. Nexus D. Synapse E. *Desmosome Sample of intercellular adherent junction: A. Compound B. Tight C. Nexus D. Synapse E. *Hemidesmosome Which type of cell junctions does the tight junction belong to? A. Desmosomal B. Synapse C. Communicative D. Adhesive E. *Isolative Which types of communicative junctions do You know? A. Tight and loose B. Desmosome and hemidesmosome C. Simple and compound D. Interdigital and adherent E. *Nexus, synapse What are main cell components: A. Hyaloplasm, organelles, inclusions, plasmalemma B. Plasmalemma, organelles, nucleus C. Nucleus, organelles, inclusions, hyaloplasm D. Plasmalemma, cytoplasm, organelles, inclusions E. *Plasmalemma, cytoplasm, nucleus Plasmalemma components: A. Biologic membrane, glycocalix B. Glycocalix, structural proteins, lipids C. Lipids, protein complexes, carbohydrates D. Phospholipid bilayer, cortical layer E. *Biologic membrane, glycocalix, cortical layer 16 Innermost layer of cell membrane: A. Biologic membrane B. Glycocalix C. Lipids D. Phospholipid bilayer E. *Cortical layer 17 What does glycocalix mainly consist of? A. Biologic membrane B. Proteins C. Lipids D. Phospholipid bilayer E. *Carbohydrates 18 Main cell components: A. Hyaloplasm, organelles, inclusions, plasmalemma B. Plasmalemma, organelles, cytoplasm, nucleus C. Nucleus, hyaloplasm, organelles, inclusions D. Plasmalemma, cytoplasm, nucleus, organelles, inclusions E. *Plasmalemma, cytoplasm, nucleus 19 Which types of noncellular structures do You know? A. Filaments B. Cytoplasm C. Organelles D. Plasmalemma E. *Intercellular substance 20 Which types of noncellular structures do You know? A. Organelles B. Filaments C. Cytoplasm D. Plasmalemma E. *Syncitium 21 Outermost layer of cell membrane: A. Biologic membrane B. Cortical layer C. Lipids D. Phospholipid bilayer E. *Glycocalix 22 Which types of noncellular structures do You know? A. Organelles B. Filaments C. Cytoplasm D. Plasmalemma E. *Symplast 23 Symplast belongs to: A. Intercellular substance B. Nuclearless noncellular structures C. Organelles D. Cell junctions 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 E. *Nuclear noncellular structures Sycitium belongs to: A. Intercellular substance B. Nuclearless noncellular structures C. Organelles D. Cell junctions E. *Nuclear noncellular structures Intercellular substance belongs to: A. Cells B. Nuclear noncellular structures C. Organelles D. Cell junctions E. *Nuclearless noncellular structures Specify the process of toxic material effusion of cell. A. Secretion B. Recreation C. Transcytosis D. Clasmatosis E. *Excretion Specify the process of some material transport into the cell. A. Phagocytosis B. Pinocytosis C. Exocytosis D. Cytopempsis E. *Endocytosis Specify the process of some fluid material capture by the cell. A. Phagocytosis B. Endocytosis C. Exocytosis D. Cytopempsis E. *Pinocytosis Which type of cell junctions does the interdigital junction belong to? A. Desmosomal B. Isolative C. Synapse D. Communicative E. *Adherent Specify the isolative junction of cells. A. Desmosome B. Synapse C. Nexus D. Interdigital E. *Tight Specify the epithelial cells junction with basement membrane. A. Tight B. Desmosome C. Nexus 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 D. Interdigital E. *Hemidesmosome Which proteins are responsible for adhesive cell junction? A. Desmoplacins, desmogleins B. Adenilatcyclase C. Globulins D. Albumins E. *Lectins, cadherins Which layer of plasmalemma is responsible for the cell shape support? A. Glycocalix B. Bilipid layer C. Hydrophobic layer D. Tonofibrilles E. *Cortical layer What does cell shape mainly depend on? A. On nucleus and cytoplasm structure B. On cell functions C. On disposition and size of the cell D. On conditions of cell existence E. *On organelles and inclusions presence Eukaryotic cell components: A. Hyaloplasm, organelles, inclusions, plasmalemma B. Plasmalemma, nucleus C. Nucleus, organelles, inclusions, hyaloplasm D. Plasmalemma, inclusions E. *Plasmalemma, cytoplasm, nucleus Multinuclear structure, which is surrounded by cell membrane, is seen in histological specimen. What is this structure? A. Cell B. Group of cells C. Intercellular substance D. Ground substance E. *Symplast Specify the process of unchanged material transport through the cell. A. Secretion B. Recreation C. Excretion D. Clasmatosis E. *Transcytosis Specify the process of some material effusion of cell. A. Phagocytosis B. Cytopempsis C. Pinocytosis D. Endocytosis E. *Exocytosis General types of intercellular junctions: A. Desmosomal and hemidesmosomal 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 B. Isolative and communicative C. Synapse and nexus D. Communicative E. *Adherent, isolative and communicative Eosin belongs to: A. * Cytoplasmic dyes B. Nuclear dyes C. Specific dyes D. Histochemical dyes E. Neutral dyes Which method is used for detection of specific chemical groups in tissues? A. General investigations B. Ligt microscopy C. Research of smear D. Electronmicroscopy E. Histochemical investigations What does eosin stain in the cell? A. Cell membrane B. Glycogen inclusions C. Lipid inclusions D. * Cytoplasm E. Nucleus Which method is used for ultrastructural investigations? A. General investigations B. Ligt microscopy C. Research of smear D. * Electronmicroscopy E. Histochemical investigations Acidophilic structures could be stained with: A. Sudan B. * Eosin C. Hematoxylin D. Orcein E. Hematoxylin and eosin What does orcein stain? A. * Elastic fibers B. Glycogen inclusions C. Lipid inclusions D. Cytoplasm E. Nucleus Basophilic structures could be stained with: A. Sudan B. Eosin C. * Hematoxylin D. Orcein E. Hematoxylin and eosin What does sudan stain in the cell? 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 A. Cell membrane B. Glycogen inclusions C. * Lipid inclusions D. Cytoplasm E. Nucleus Elastic fibers could be stained with: A. Sudan B. Eosin C. Hematoxylin D. * Orcein E. Iron hematoxylin Neutrophilic structures could be stained with: A. Sudan B. Eosin C. Hematoxylin D. Orcein E. * Hematoxylin and eosin Cell cytoplasm could be stained with: A. Sudan B. * Eosin C. Hematoxylin D. Orcein E. Iron hematoxylin Cell nucleus could be stained with: A. Sudan B. Eosin C. * Hematoxylin D. Orcein E. Iron hematoxylin Lipid inclusions could be stained with: A. * Sudan B. Eosin C. Hematoxylin D. Orcein E. Iron hematoxylin Glycogen inclusions could be stained with: A. Sudan B. Eosin C. Hematoxylin D. Orcein E. * Schiff-reaction Silver impregnation is used for the staiment of: A. Nucleus B. Cytoplasm C. Lipid inclusions D. Elastic fibers E. * Neurofibrills 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 Iron hematoxylin is used for the staiment of: A. Nucleus B. Cytoplasm C. Lipid inclusions D. Elastic fibers E. * Proteins Hematoxylin and eosin are used for: A. * General investigations B. Special investigations C. Research of smear D. Electronmicroscopy E. Histochemical investigations Sudan is used for: A. General investigations B. * Special investigations C. Research of smear D. Electronmicroscopy E. Histochemical investigations Orcein is used for: A. General investigations B. * *pecial investigations C. Research of smear D. Electronmicroscopy E. Histochemical investigations Histochemistry is used for: A. General investigations B. Special investigations C. Research of smear D. Electronmicroscopy E. * Detection of specific chemical groups in tissues Electronmicroscopy is used for: A. General investigations B. Ligt microscopy C. Research of smear D. * Ultrastructural investigations E. Histochemical investigations Which method is used for detection of specific chemical groups in tissues? A. General investigations B. Ligt microscopy C. Research of smear D. Electronmicroscopy E. Histochemical investigations Which method is used for ultrastructural investigations? A. General investigations B. Ligt microscopy C. Research of smear D. * Electronmicroscopy 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 E. Histochemical investigations Which type of cell junctions does the nexus belong to? A. Desmosomal B. Isolative C. Synapse D. Adhesive E. *Communicative Specify the type of nerve cells junction A. Tight B. Desmosome C. Nexus D. Interdigital E. *Synapse What are the desmosomal proteins? A. Lectins, cadherins B. Adenilatcyclase C. Globulins D. Albumins E. *Desmoplacins, desmogleins What does hematoxylin stain in cell? A. Cell membrane B. Glycogen inclusions C. Lipid inclusions D. Cytoplasm E. *Nucleus What does eosin stain in cell? A. Cell membrane B. Glycogen inclusions C. Lipid inclusions D. Nucleus E. *Cytoplasm What does orcein stain? A. Glycogen inclusions B. Lipid inclusions C. Cytoplasm D. Nucleus E. *Elastic fibers What does sudan stain in cell? A. Cell membrane B. Glycogen inclusions C. Cytoplasm D. Nucleus E. *Lipid inclusions Elastic fibers could be stained with: A. Sudan B. Eosin C. Hematoxylin 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 D. Iron hematoxylin E. *Orcein What does cristae mean? A. Matrix of mitochondrion B. Inner content of mitochondrion C. Outer membrane of mitochondrion D. Mitochondrial DNA E. *Folds of inner membrane Cell cytoplasm could be stained with: A. Sudan B. Hematoxylin C. Orcein D. Iron hematoxylin E. *Eosin Cell nucleus could be stained with: A. Sudan B. Eosin C. Orcein D. Carmine E. *Hematoxylin Lipid inclusions could be stained with: A. Eosin B. Hematoxylin C. Orcein D. Iron hematoxylin E. *Sudan What main components of cell cytoplasm do You know? A. Cytoplasm, nucleus B. Cell membrane, organelles, inclusions C. Nucleus, hyaloplasm, organelles D. Hyaloplasm, organelles, nucleus E. *Hyaloplasm, organelles, inclusions What is main function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum? A. Intracellular digestion B. Detoxication C. Synthesis of energy D. Proteins production E. *Carbohydrates and lipids synthesis What types of lysosomes do You know? A. Smooth, rough B. Trans-, medial-, cisC. Mitochondrial, nuclear D. Caveolial, vesical E. *Primary, secondary, residual body What is main function of lysosomes? A. Detoxication B. Synthesis of energy 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 C. Proteins synthesis D. Carbohydrates and lipids synthesis E. *Intracellular digestion What does lysosome contain? A. Carbohydrates B. Energy C. Proteins D. Lipids E. *Enzymes What does mitochondrion consist of? A. Two subunits B. Microfilaments C. Microtubules D. One membrane E. *Two membranes What does mitochondrion contain? A. Carbohydrates B. Energy C. Proteins D. Lipids E. *Matrix Which organell contains cristae? A. Peroxisome B. Lysosome C. Golgi body D. Endoplasmic reticulum E. *Mitochondrion Which organelles does intermembranous space have? A. Lysosome B. Centriole C. Golgi apparatus D. Peroxisome E. *Mitochondria General organelle? A. Myofibril B. Neurofibril C. Cilium D. Flagella E. *Golgi body General organelle? A. Myofibril B. Neurofibril C. * Mitochondrion D. Cilium E. Flagella Microscopic organelle is: A. Lysosome 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. * Golgi body D. Ribosome E. Peroxisome Microscopic organelle is: A. Lysosome B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Ribosome D. * Cell center E. Peroxisome Microscopic organelle is: A. Ribosome B. Peroxisome C. Lysosome D. Endoplasmic reticulum E. * Mitochondrion Membrane-bound organelle is: A. Myofibril B. Neurofibril C. * Golgi body D. Cell center E. Ribosome Membrane-bound organelle is: A. Myofibril B. Neurofibril C. * Mitochondrion D. Cell center E. Ribosome Membrane-bound organelle is: A. Myofibril B. Neurofibril C. Ribosome D. Cell center E. * Rough endoplasmic reticulum Membrane-bound organelle is: A. Myofibril B. Neurofibril C. Cell center D. * Smooth endoplasmic reticulum E. Ribosome Membrane-bound organelle is: A. * Lysosome B. Myofibril C. Neurofibril D. Cell center E. Ribosome Membrane-bound organelle is: 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 A. Myofibril B. Neurofibril C. Cell center D. Ribosome E. * Peroxisome What components does the nuclear envelope have? A. Nuclear membrane, nuclear pores B. Double nuclear membrane, perinuclear space C. Nuclear membrane, chromosome D. Double nuclear membrane, chromosome E. vNuclear lamina, nuclear pores, perinuclear space How many granules does the nuclear pore have? A. 8x3+0 B. 8x3+2 C. 9x3+0 D. 9x3+2 E. *8x3+1 Mitochondrial cristae mean: A. Matrix of mitochondrion B. Inner content of mitochondrion C. * Folds of inner membrane D. Outer membrane of mitochondrion E. Mitochondrial DNA Which organelle is of general meaning? A. Myofibril B. Neurofibril C. Cilium D. Flagella E. *Lysosome Which organelle is of general meaning? A. Myofibril B. Cilium C. Neurofibril D. Flagella E. *Rough endoplasmic reticulum Which organelle is of general meaning? A. Flagella B. Myofibril C. Neurofibril D. Cilium E. *Smooth endoplasmic reticulum Which organelle is of general meaning? A. Myofibril B. Neurofibril C. Cilium D. Flagella E. *Ribosome 102 Which organelle is of general meaning? A. Myofibril B. Neurofibril C. Cilium D. Flagella E. *Cell center 103 Which organelle is of general meaning? A. Myofibril B. Neurofibril C. Cilium D. Flagella E. *Proteasome 104 Which organelle is of general meaning? A. Myofibril B. Neurofibril C. Cilium D. Flagella E. *Mitochondrion 105 Which organelle is membrane-bound? A. Myofibril B. Neurofibril C. Cell center D. Ribosome E. *Golgi body 106 Which organelle is membrane-bound? A. Myofibril B. Neurofibril C. Cell center D. Ribosome E. *Mitochondrion 107 Which organelle is membrane-bound? A. Myofibril B. Neurofibril C. Ribosome D. Cell center E. *Rough endoplasmic reticulum 108 Which organelle is membrane-bound? A. Myofibril B. Neurofibril C. Cell center D. Ribosome E. *Smooth endoplasmic reticulum 109 Which organelle is membrane-bound? A. Myofibril B. Neurofibril C. Cell center D. Ribosome 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 E. *Lysosome Which organelle is membrane-bound? A. Myofibril B. Neurofibril C. Cell center D. Ribosome E. *Peroxisome Which organelle is microscopic? A. Lysosome B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Ribosome D. Peroxisome E. *Golgi body Which organelle is microscopic? A. Lysosome B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Ribosome D. Peroxisome E. *Cell center Which organelle is microscopic? A. Ribosome B. Peroxisome C. Lysosome D. Endoplasmic reticulum E. *Mitochondrion Chemical composition of ribosome: A. Structural proteins B. Lipids C. M-RNA D. T-RNA E. *R-RNA Types of ribosomes in cell: A. Simple and compound B. Cis- and transC. Juvenile and old D. Active and inactive E. *Free and fixed Location of free ribosomes: A. Over endoplasmic reticulum B. In nucleolus C. In nucleus D. In mitochondrion E. *In cytoplasm Location of fixed ribosomes: A. In nucleolus B. In nucleus C. In mitochondrion 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 D. In cytoplasm E. *Over endoplasmic reticulum What does polisome mean: A. Ribosomes in nucleolus B. Ribosomes in nucleus C. Ribosomes in mitochondrion D. Ribosomes precursors E. *Group of free ribosomes What are the main structural components of nucleus? A. Karyolemma, chromatin, nucleoli, chromosomes B. Karyolemma, heterochromatin, euchromatin, nucleoli. C. Karyolemma, nucleoli, heterochromatin, karyoplasms. D. Karyolemma, chromosomes, euchromatin, karyoplasms. E. *Karyolemma, karyoplasm, chromatin, nucleoli. Which structures of somatic cells can give information about the sex? A. Peripheral chromatin B. Euchromatin C. Decondensed chromatin D. Optional chtomatin E. *Barr's body (sex chromatin) One segment of neutrophil’s nucleus in the peripheral blood looks like a drumstick. What is the name of this structure? A. Lyon’s body B. Decondensed chromatin C. Euchromatin D. Paccinian corpuscle E. *Barr's body What is lyonization? A. Formation of euchromatin B. Destruction of nucleus C. Pyknosis of nucleus. D. Condition of paranecrosis E. *Inactivation and condensation of one of female X-chromosome in embryogenesis What structural elements of cell are providing proteins synthesis? A. Nucleus, agranular endoplasmic reticulum, polyribosomes B. Golgi complex, polyribosomes C. Nucleus, Golgi complex, polyribosomes D. Nucleus, granular endoplasmic reticulum, peroxisome E. *Nucleus, granular endoplasmic reticulum, polyribosomes What is peroxisome function? A. Intracellular digestion B. Synthesis of energy C. Proteins synthesis D. Carbohydrates and lipids synthesis E. *Detoxication Which organelle contains cristae? 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Centriole C. Golgi apparatus D. Peroxisome E. *Mitochondrion What main components does nucleus have? A. Pars granulosa, pars fibrosa, pars amorpha B. Double nuclear membrane, chromosome C. Nucleolus, organelles, chromatin D. Euchromatin, heterochromatin E. *Karyolemma, karyoplasm, chromatin, nucleolus Which special organelle do You know? A. Lysosome B. Golgi body C. Ribosome D. Mitochondrion E. *Myofibril Which special organelle do You know? A. Lysosome B. Golgi body C. Ribosome D. Mitochondrion E. *Tonofibril Which special organelle do You know? A. Lysosome B. Golgi body C. Ribosome D. Mitochondrion E. *Neurofibril Which special organelle do You know? A. Lysosome B. Golgi body C. Ribosome D. Mitochondrion E. *Flagella What does centriole consist of? A. Two membranes B. Two subunits C. Microfilaments D. One membrane E. *Microtubules What type of endoplasmic reticulum do You know? A. Trans, medial, cis B. Mitochondrial, nuclear C. Caveolial, vesical D. Primary, secondary, residual body E. *Smooth, rough 133 Which organelle is of general meaning? A. Cilium B. Flagella C. Neurofibril D. Tonofibril E. *Mitochondrion 134 What is main function of rough endoplasmic reticulum? A. Intracellular digestion B. Detoxication C. Synthesis of energy D. Carbohydrates and lipids synthesis E. *Proteins synthesis 135 Main function of lysosomes A. * Intracellular digestion B. Detoxication C. Synthesis of energy D. Proteins synthesis E. Carbohydrates and lipids synthesis 136 What does lysosome contain? A. * Enzymes B. Carbohydrates C. Energy D. Proteins E. Lipids 137 Main function of peroxisome A. Intracellular digestion B. * Detoxication C. Synthesis of energy D. Proteins synthesis E. Carbohydrates and lipids synthesis 138 Cell cytoskeleton consists of: A. * Microfilaments, microtubules B. Microfilaments C. Two centrioles D. Ribosomes E. Lysosomes, peroxisomes 139 Special organelle is the next: A. Lysosome B. Golgi body C. Ribosome D. Mitochondrion E. * Myofibril 140 Special organelle is the next: A. Lysosome B. Golgi body C. Ribosome D. Mitochondrion 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 E. * Tonofibril Special organelle is the next: A. Lysosome B. Golgi body C. Ribosome D. * Neurofibril E. Mitochondrion Special organelle is the next: A. Lysosome B. Golgi body C. Ribosome D. Mitochondrion E. * Flagella Mitochondria prove next function? A. Intracellular digestion B. Detoxication C. * Synthesis of energy D. Proteins synthesis E. Carbohydrates and lipids synthesis How many microtubules does the centriole have? A. 8x3+0 B. 8x3+1 C. 8x3+2 D. * 9x3+0 E. 9x3+2 What is main function of ribosomes? A. Intracellular digestion B. Detoxication C. Synthesis of energy D. * Proteins synthesis E. Synthesis of carbohydrates and lipids Which organelles does cytoskeleton include? A. Microfilaments, mitochondria B. Two centrioles C. Ribosomes, rough ER D. Lysosomes, peroxisomes E. *Microfilaments, microtubules What is male chromosomal set? A. 46 autosomes B. 44 autosomes C. 46 autosomes and XY gonosomes D. 46 gonosomes E. *44 autosomes and XY gonosomes What is inactive chromatin name? A. Euchromatin B. Fixed chromatin C. Optional chromatin 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 D. Marginal chromatin E. *Heterochromatin Chemical composition of chromosomes: A. DNA, proteins-histones, carbohydrates B. Proteins, lipids, RNA C. RNA, proteins, carbohydrates D. RNA, carbohydrates, DNA. E. *DNA, proteins-histones, RNA What is function of nucleolus? A. Synthesis of messenger RNA and ribosome precursors B. Synthesis of transfer RNA and ribosome precursors C. Place of DNA formation and ribosome precursors D. Place of all types RNA formation, formation of ribosome E. *Place of ribosomal RNA and ribosoms formation What are main cytoplasm components? A. Hyaloplasm, inclusions B. Hydrophilic, hydrophobic C. Integral, peripheral D. Endocytosis, exocytosis E. *Hyaloplasm, organelles, inclusions What does ribosome consist of? A. Two membranes B. Microfilaments C. Microtubules D. One membrane E. *Two subunits What type of Golgi apparatus cisternae do You know? A. Smooth, rough B. Mitochondrial, nuclear C. Caveolial, vesical D. Primary, secondary, residual body E. *Trans, medial, cis What does Golgi apparatus consist of? A. Two membranes B. RNA molecules C. Membrane, enzymes D. Glycolipids, lipid bilayer E. *Flat cisternae, vesicles What is main function of mitochondria? A. Intracellular digestion B. Intoxication C. Proteins synthesis D. Carbohydrates and lipids synthesis E. *Synthesis of energy How many microtubules does the centriole have? A. 8x3+0 B. 8x3+1 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 C. 8x3+2 D. 9x3+2 E. *9x3+0 What is human somatic cell chromosomal set? A. 23 B. 44 C. 48 D. 24 E. *46 What is function of ribosomes? A. Intracellular digestion B. Intoxication C. Synthesis of energy D. Production of carbohydrates and lipids E. *Proteins synthesis Which organelle does usually tubuli have? A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Golgi apparatus C. Mitochondria D. Peroxisome E. *Centriole Which organelle does canaliculi have? A. Centriole B. Golgi apparatus C. Mitochondria D. Peroxysome E. *Endoplasmic reticulum What components does the nucleolus have? A. Double nuclear membrane, chromosome B. Nucleolus, organelles, chromatin C. Karyolemma, karyoplasm, chromatin, nucleolus D. Euchromatine, heterochromatine E. *Pars granulosa, pars fibrosa, pars amorpha A nuclear membrane is formed by: A. Perinuclear space B. Cytolemma C. Internal membrane D. External membrane E. *Karyolemma What does sex chromatin appear from in the period of cell division? A. From autosome B. From a nuclear chromosome C. From Х-male chromosome D. From Y-heterochromosome E. *From Х-female heterochromosome Significance of nucleus in the vital functions of cell: A. Adjusting centre, synthesis of lipids 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 B. Synthesis and usage of energy C. Synthesis of proteins and lipids D. Synthesis of membranes components and enzymes E. *Storage of the heredity information Structural components of nuclear pore complex? A. Areas of external and internal karyolemma membranes fusion B. Globular lipids structures C. Polysaccharide structures D. Fibrillar proteins and lipids structures E. *Globular and fibrillar proteins structures Chemical composition of chromatin: A. DNA, proteins-histons, carbohydrates B. Histons, lipids, RNA C. RNA, histones, carbohydrates D. RNA, carbohydrates, DNA. E. *DNA, proteins-histons, RNA In the culture of tissue a nuclear irradiation had damage the nucleoli of nucleus. Which organelles will regenerate with problem? A. Endoplasmic reticulum. B. Microtubule C. Golgi complex D. Lysosome E. *Ribosome The synthesis of histone proteins have been artificially blocking in the cell. What structure of cell will be damaged? A. Nucleoli B. Golgi complex C. Cell membrane D. Nuclear membrane E. *Nuclear chromatin What are the main structural components of cell nucleus? A. Karyolemma, chromatin, nucleoli, chromosomes B. Karyolemma, heterochromatin, euchromatin, nucleoli. C. Karyolemma, nucleoli, heterochromatin, karyoplasms. D. Karyolemma, chromosomes, euchromatin, karyoplasms. E. *Karyolemma, karyoplasm , chromatin, nucleoli. In cell dying such changes of nucleus are distinguished morphologically: A. Karyopyknosis, karyolysis, paranecrosis B. Karyorrhexis, paranecrosis, Karyopyknosis C. Karyorrhexsis, paranecrosis, karyolysis D. Karyopyknosis, karyorrhexis, paranecrosis E. *Karyopyknosis, karyorrhexis, karyolysis For determination of sex, sometimes it is necessary to do research of somatic cells. What their structures can give information about the sex? A. Peripheral chromatin B. Euchromatin C. Decondensed chromatin 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 D. Optional chtomatin E. *Barr's body (granule of sex chromatin) On the surface of neutrophil, in the peripheral blood, during the forensic medical examination the chromatin comes forward as a drumstick. What is the name of this structure? A. Layon’s body B. Decondensed chromatin C. Euchromatin D. Paccinian corpuscle E. *Barr's body What does process of lyonization result in? A. Formation of euchromatin B. Destruction of nucleus C. Piknosis of nuclei. D. Paranecrosis E. *Inactivation and condensation of one X-chromosome in embryogenesis Which cell components are producing proteins? A. Nucleus, agranular endoplasmic reticulum, polyribosomes B. Golgi complex, polyribosomes C. Nucleus, Golgi complex, polyribosomes D. Nucleus, granular endoplasmic reticulum, peroxisomes E. *Nucleus, granular endoplasmic reticulum, polyribosomes What does determine specificity of proteins, which are synthesized in cell? A. Molecules of transfer RNA and messenger RNA B. Molecules of ribosomal RNA and DNA C. Molecule of DNA and transfer RNA D. Molecule of ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA E. *Molecule of DNA and messenger RNA How many granules does the nuclear pore have? A. 8x3+0 B. * 8x3+1 C. 8x3+2 D. 9x3+0 E. 9x3+2 What will happen to fragments of cell after dividing into two portions: with nucleus and without it? A. Both fragments will die B. Both fragments will live C. The nuclear-free will divide D. Part with nucleus will divide E. *The nuclear-free will dye, and with nucleus will survive Main function of nucleus in: A. Synthesis of lipids B. Synthesis and usage of energy C. Synthesis of proteins and lipids D. * Storage of the heredity information E. Synthesis of membranes components and enzymes 179 At cell dying first changes of nucleus will be the next: A. Karyorrhexis B. Karyolysis C. Paranecrosis D. Karyokinesis E. *Karyopyknosis 180 A nuclear envelope is formed by: A. External membrane B. Cytolemma C. Internal membrane D. Perinuclear space E. Karyolemma 181 Main structural components of nucleus: A. Chromatin, karyolemma, nucleoli, chromosomes B. Kariolemma, heterochromatin, euchromatin, nucleoli. C. Kariolemma, nucleoli, heterochromatin, karyoplasms. D. Kariolemma, chromosomes, euchromatin, karyoplasms. E. * Kariolemma, karyoplasm , chromatin, nucleoli. 182 What does chromosome consist of? A. DNA, proteins-histons, carbohydrates B. Proteins-histons, lipids, RNA C. RNA, proteins-histons, carbohydrates D. RNA, carbohydrates, DNA E. *DNA, proteins-histons, RNA 183 What does nucleolus do? A. Synthesis of massanger RNA and ribosome precursors B. Synthesis of transfer RNA and ribosome precursors C. DNA formation and ribosome precursors D. All types RNA formation, formation of ribosomes E. *Produces ribosomal RNA and ribosomes 184 Cell nucleus main function is: A. Adjusting centre, synthesis of protein B. Synthesis and piling up of energy C. Synthesis of proteins and lipids D. Synthesis of membranes components and enzymes E. *Storage of the heredity information 185 What chromosome does sexual chromatin appear from in the period of cell division? A. From autosome B. From Y-heterochromosome C. From a nuclear chromosome D. From Х-male chromosome E. *From Х-female heterochromosome 186 What is the euchromatin: A. Decondensed, functionally inactive B. Condensed, functionally inactive C. Condensed, functionally active 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 D. Spiralized, functionally active. E. *Decondensed, functionally active Structural components of the nuclear pore complex: A. Areas of external and internal karyolemma membranes fusion B. Globular lipids structures C. Polysaccharide structures D. Fibrillar proteins and lipids structures E. *Globular and fibrillar proteins The external membrane of karyolemma is connected with: A. Myofibrils B. Lysosome C. Golgi complex D. * Endoplasmic reticulum E. Ribosomes Karyolemma main functions: A. Structural B. Storage of the heredity information C. Synthesis of ribosome RNA D. Synthesis of transfer RNA E. *Restrictive and transport The internal membrane of karyolemma is connected with: A. With ribosomes B. With nucleolus organizers C. With microfibrils D. With nucleus E. * With chromosomes Which structural components of cytoplasm are connected with the external membrane of karyolemma? A. Myofibrils B. Lysosome C. Golgi complex D. *Ribosomes E. Endoplasmic reticulum What elements does the internal membrane of karyolemma contact with? A. With ribosomes B. With nucleolus organizer C. With microfibrils D. With nucleus E. *With chromosomes or heterocromatine What are the functions of chromosomes? A. Storage of the inherited information, synthesis of RNA and ATP B. Storage of the inherited information, synthesis of DNA and ATP C. Storage of the inherited information, synthesis of DNA and АDP D. Storage of the inherited information, synthesis of RNA and АDP E. *Storage of the inherited information, synthesis of RNA та DNA What areas of chromosomes are named heterochromatine? A. Ring-shaped in dividing nucleus 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 B. Despiralized in dividing nucleus C. Separated in nondividing cell D. Ring-shaped in a nondividing cell E. *Condensed What is the light chromatin name? A. Heterochromatin B. Fixed chromatin C. Optional chromatin D. Marginal chromatin E. *Euchromatin What is the dark chromatin name? A. Euchromatin B. Fixed chromatin C. Optional chromatin D. Marginal chromatin E. *Heterochromatin What is the active chromatin name? A. Heterochromatin B. Fixed chromatin C. Optional chromatin D. Marginal chromatin E. *Euchromatin What is the non-active chromatin name? A. Euchromatin B. Fixed chromatin C. Optional chromatin D. Marginal chromatin E. *Heterochromatin What does chromosome consist of? A. DNA, proteins-histones, carbohydrates B. Proteins, lipids, RNA C. RNA, proteins-histones, carbohydrates D. RNA, carbohydrates, DNA. E. *DNA, proteins-histones, RNA What does nucleolus do? A. Synthesis of massage RNA and develop predecessors of ribosome B. In Synthesis of transfer RNA and develop predecessors of ribosome C. Place of DNA formation and develop predecessors of ribosome D. Place of all RNA types formation, formation of ribosome E. *Ribosomal RNA formation and ribosomes Cell cycle includes: A. G1 and G2 phases B. G1 and S phases C. G2 and S phases D. Mitosis and S phases E. *Interphase and mitosis Main processes in mitosis: 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 A. Mitotic spindle proteins synthesis B. Duplication of DNA C. Cell center duplication D. Cell growth E. *Cytokinesis and karyokinesis Cytokinesis means: A. cell membrane division B. division of nuclear envelope C. nucleus division D. organelles division E. *division of cell body Karyokinesis means: A. division of cell body B. organelles division C. cell membrane division D. division of nuclear envelope E. *nucleus division Somatic cells division usually is: A. amitosis B. meiosis C. endomitosis D. irregular E. *mitosis Germ cells division usually is: A. mitosis B. amitosis C. endomitosis D. irregular E. *meiosis Main aim of mitosis: A. germ cells reproduction B. production of especially active cells C. fast production of a lot of cells D. production of different cells E. *reproduction of two cells absolutely adequate to maternal one Main aim of amitosis: A. germ cells reproduction B. production of especially active cells C. reproduction of two cells absolutely adequate to maternal one D. production of different cells E. *fast production of a lot of cells Main aim of meiosis: A. reproduction of two cells absolutely adequate to maternal one B. production of especially active cells C. fast production of a lot of cells D. production of different cells E. *germ cells reproduction 210 Main aim of endomitosis: A. germ cells reproduction B. reproduction of two cells absolutely adequate to maternal one C. fast production of a lot of cells D. production of different cells E. *production of especially active cells 211 Cell cycle lasts: A. from prophase to telophase B. from methaphase to S-phase C. from telophase to G2 -phase D. from G1 to G2 -phase E. *from previous cell division to the next one 212 Cell cycle lasts: A. from prophase till telophase B. from methaphase till S-phase C. from telophase till G2-phase D. from G1 till G2-phase E. *from the “birth” of cell till the death 213 Main process in G1-phase of cell cycle: A. DNA duplication B. mitotic spindle proteins synthesis C. separation of chromosomes D. cell body division E. *enlargement of cell body 214 Main process in G2-phase of cell cycle: A. DNA duplication B. enlargement of cell body C. separation of chromosomes D. cell body division E. *mitotic spindle proteins synthesis 215 Main process in S-phase of cell cycle: A. enlargement of the cell body B. mitotic spindle proteins synthesis C. separation of chromosomes D. cell body division E. *DNA duplication 216 Interphase of cell cycle includes: A. G1 and G2 phases B. G1 to S phases C. S and G2 phases D. mitosis E. *G1, S and G2 phases 217 In which phase of cell cycle cell is performing its functions? A. G1 B. S C. G2 D. mitosis 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 E. *G0 In which phase of cell cycle cell is “resting”? A. G1 B. S C. G2 D. mitosis E. *G0 In which phase of cell cycle cell is dividing? A. G0 B. G1 C. S D. G2 E. *mitosis Which cells occupy G0-phase of cell cycle? A. dividing somatic cells B. dividing germ cells C. abnormal cells D. none of above mentioned E. *stem cells and active functioning cells In which phase of cell cycle cell enlarges itself? A. G0 B. S C. G2 D. mitosis E. G1 In which phase of cell cycle duplication of DNA occurs? A. G0 B. G1 C. G2 D. mitosis E. *S In which phase of cell cycle cell synthesizes proteins of mitotic spindle? A. G0 B. G1 C. S D. mitosis E. *G2 In which phase of cell cycle cell performs its typical functions? A. G1 B. S C. G2 D. mitosis E. *G0 Phases of mitosis (in order): A. metaphase, anaphase, telophase, prophase B. anaphase, telophase, prophase, metaphase C. telophase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 D. prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase E. *prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase Nuclear envelope in interphase of cell cycle: A. is absent B. is enlarged C. is fragmented D. irregular E. *is of usual structure Nuclear envelope in prophase of cell cycle: A. is absent B. is enlarged C. is coiled D. is of usual structure E. *is fragmented Nuclear envelope in methaphase of cell cycle: A. is of usual structure B. is enlarged C. is fragmented D. irregular E. *is absent Nuclear envelope in anaphase of cell cycle: A. is of usual structure B. is enlarged C. is fragmented D. irregular E. *is absent Nuclear envelope in early telophase of cell cycle: A. is of usual structure B. is enlarged C. is fragmented D. is absent E. *is renewing Nuclear envelope in late telophase of cell cycle: A. is of usual structure B. is enlarged C. is fragmented D. is absent E. *reappears Nucleolus in the interphase of cell cycle: A. is renewing B. is enlarged C. is fragmented D. is absent E. *is of usual structure Nucleolus in the prophase of cell cycle: A. is of usual structure B. is enlarged 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 C. is fragmented D. is absent E. *disappears Nucleolus in the metaphase of cell cycle: A. is of usual structure B. is renewing C. is enlarged D. is fragmented E. *is absent Nucleolus in the anaphase of cell cycle: A. is of usual structure B. is smaller C. is enlarged D. is fragmented E. *is absent When does nucleolus disappear in cell? A. in G0 phase B. in G1 phase C. in S phase D. in G2 phase E. *in prophase of mitosis In which phase of cell cycle DNA is duplicating? A. in prophase of mitosis B. in G0 phase C. in G1 phase D. in G2 phase E. *in S phase In which phase of cell cycle cell synthesizes proteins of mitotic spindle? A. in prophase of mitosis B. in G0 phase C. in G1 phase D. in S phase E. *in G2 phase In which phase of cell cycle cell is enlarging? A. in prophase of mitosis B. in G0 phase C. in S phase D. in G2 phase E. *in G1 phase In which phase of cell cycle cell center is duplicating? A. in prophase of mitosis B. in G0 phase C. in G1 phase D. in S phase E. *in G2 phase Chromosomal set of normal somatic cell in interphase: A. 23-s chromosomes 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 B. 44-s chromosomes C. 23-d chromosomes D. 44-d chromosomes E. *46-s chromosomes Chromosomal set of normal germ cell: A. 46 chromosomes B. 44-s chromosomes C. 23-d chromosomes D. 44-d chromosomes E. *23-s chromosomes How many chromosomes are there in normal somatic cell in G1-phase? A. 23-s chromosomes B. 44-s chromosomes C. 23-d chromosomes D. 44-d chromosomes E. *46-s chromosomes How many chromosomes are there in normal somatic cell in G0-phase? A. 23-s chromosomes B. 44-s chromosomes C. 23-d chromosomes D. 44-d chromosomes E. *46-s chromosomes How many chromosomes are there in normal somatic cell in G2-phase? A. 23-s chromosomes B. 44-s chromosomes C. 23-d chromosomes D. 44-d chromosomes E. *46-d chromosomes How many chromosomes are there in normal somatic cell in S-phase? A. 23-s chromosomes B. 44-s chromosomes C. 23-d chromosomes D. 44-d chromosomes E. *46-d chromosomes How many chromosomes are there in normal somatic cell in prophase of mitosis? A. 23-s chromosomes B. 44-s chromosomes C. 23-d chromosomes D. 44-d chromosomes E. *46-d chromosomes How many chromosomes are there in normal somatic cell in metaphase of mitosis? A. 23-s chromosomes B. 44-s chromosomes C. 23-d chromosomes D. 44-d chromosomes 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 E. *46-d chromosomes How many chromosomes are there in normal somatic cell in anaphase of mitosis? A. 23-s chromosomes B. 44-s chromosomes C. 23-d chromosomes D. 44-d chromosomes E. *46-s chromosomes x2 How many chromosomes are there in normal somatic cell in telophase of mitosis? A. 23-s chromosomes B. 23-d chromosomes C. 44-s chromosomes D. 44-d chromosomes E. *46-s chromosomes x2 Which chromosomes are present in normal somatic cell in G1-phase? A. doubled chromosomes B. decondensed chromosomes C. active chromosomes D. abnormal chromosomes E. *single chromosomes Which chromosomes are present in normal somatic cell in G2-phase? A. single chromosomes B. decondensed chromosomes C. active chromosomes D. abnormal chromosomes E. *doubled chromosomes Which chromosomes appear in normal somatic cell in S-phase? A. single chromosomes B. decondensed chromosomes C. active chromosomes D. abnormal chromosomes E. *doubled chromosomes Which chromosomes are present in normal somatic cell in prophase? A. 23-s chromosomes B. 46-s chromosomes C. 23-d chromosomes D. 44-d chromosomes E. *46-d chromosomes Which chromosomes are present in normal somatic cell in metaphase? A. 23-s chromosomes B. 46-s chromosomes C. 23-d chromosomes D. 44-d chromosomes E. *46-d chromosomes Which chromosomes are present in normal somatic cell in anaphase? A. 23-s chromosomes 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 B. 44-s chromosomes C. 23-d chromosomes D. 46-d chromosomes E. *46-s chromosomes x2 Which chromosomes are present in normal somatic cell in G1-phase? A. 23-s chromosomes B. 44-s chromosomes C. 23-d chromosomes D. 46-s chromosomes x2 E. *46-s chromosomes Which chromosomes are present in normal somatic cell in G0-phase? A. 23-s chromosomes B. 44-s chromosomes C. 23-d chromosomes D. 44-d chromosomes E. *46-s chromosomes Cell center components in G0-phase of cell cycle: A. 2 centrioles B. centrosphere C. mitotic spindle filaments D. 2 diplosomes and 2 centrospheres E. *1 diplosoma and 1 centrosphere Cell center components in G1-phase of cell cycle: A. 2 centrioles B. centrosphere C. mitotic spindle filaments D. 2 diplosomes and 2centrospheres E. *1 diplosoma and 1 centrosphere Main processes in G1 -phase of cell cycle: A. DNA duplication B. *enlargement of the cell body C. mitotic spindle proteins synthesis D. separation of chromosomes E. cell body division Main processes in G2 -phase of cell cycle: A. DNA duplication B. enlargement of the cell body C. * mitotic spindle proteins synthesis D. separation of chromosomes E. cell body division Main processes in S -phase of cell cycle: A. * DNA duplication B. enlargement of the cell body C. mitotic spindle proteins synthesis D. separation of chromosomes E. cell body division Cell center components in S-phase of cell cycle: 265 266 267 268 269 270 271 A. 2 centrioles B. centrosphere C. mitotic spindle filaments D. 2 diplosomes and 2centrospheres E. *1 diplosoma and 1 centrosphere Cell center components in G2-phase of cell cycle: A. 2 centrioles B. centrosphere C. mitotic spindle filaments D. 1 diplosoma and centrosphere E. *2 diplosomes and 2 centrospheres How many cell centers are there in mitotically dividing cell? A. one B. 3 C. 4 D. half E. *2 What is main sign of nuclear envelope in prophase of mitosis: A. is irregular B. is enlarged C. decreases in size D. well prominent E. *is fragmented Main sign of nucleolus in prophase of mitosis: A. is irregular B. is enlarged C. decreases in size D. well prominent E. *it disappears In which phase of cell cycle the cell is performing its functions? A. * G0 B. G1 C. S D. G2 E. mitosis In which phase of cell cycle the cell is “resting”? A. * G0 B. G1 C. S D. G2 E. mitosis Cell center in prophase: A. disappears B. is irregular C. includes microtubules D. lies in equatorial plate E. *diplosomes migrate to opposite poles 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 In which phase of cell cycle the cell is dividing”? A. G0 B. G1 C. S D. G2 E. * mitosis Which cells occupy G0-phase of cell cycle? A. * stem cells and active functioning cells B. dividing somatic cells C. dividing germ cells D. abnormal cells E. none of above mentioned Main sign of cell in metaphase: A. 2 daughter stars in poles B. separation of daughter cells C. nucleus well prominent D. nucleolus disappears E. *chromosomes lie in metaphase plate Main sign of cell in anaphase: A. separation of daughter cells B. nucleus well prominent C. nucleolus disappears D. chromosomes in metaphase plate E. *2 daughter stars in poles Main sign of cell in telophase: A. 2 daughter stars in poles B. nucleus well prominent C. nucleolus disappears D. chromosomes in metaphase plate E. *separation of daughter cells Mitotic spindle of cell includes: A. interpolar microtubules B. kinetochore microtubules C. microfilaments D. central and peripheral microtubules E. *interpolar, kinetochore and astral microtubules Interpolar microtubules of mitotic spindle connect: A. kinetochore and pole B. two kinetochores C. two centrioles in one pole D. kinetochore and diplosoma E. *diplosomes of opposite poles Kinetochore microtubules of mitotic spindle connect: A. diplosomes in opposite poles B. two kinetochores C. two centrioles in one pole D. kinetochore and diplosoma 280 281 282 283 284 285 286 287 E. *kinetochores and pole Metaphase plate lies: A. in opposite poles B. in one pole C. irregularly D. under cell membrane E. *in equatorial plate of cell Chemical composition of mitotic spindle: A. carbohydrates B. phospholipids C. actin filaments D. myosin filaments E. *tubulins Shape of mitotic spindle: A. round B. triangular C. rectangular D. irregular E. *fusiform Main event of anaphase: A. cell growth B. DNA duplication C. separation of daughter cells D. karyokinesis E. *separation of sister chromatids Main event of telophase: A. cell growth B. DNA duplication C. separation of sister chromatids D. karyokinesis E. *cytokinesis How many chromatids are there in cell in prophase? A. 23 B. 46 C. 69 D. 23 pairs E. *92 How many chromatids are there in cell in metaphase? A. 23 B. 46 C. 69 D. 23 pairs E. *92 How many chromatids are there in the cell in anaphase? A. 23 B. 46 C. 92 288 289 290 291 292 293 294 295 D. 69 E. no one How many chromatids are there in the cell in telophase? A. 23 B. 46 C. 92 D. 69 E. *no one Maternal star could be seen in cell: A. in interphase B. in prophase C. in anaphase D. in telophase E. *in metaphase Daughter stars could be seen in cell: A. in metaphase B. in telophase C. in interphase D. in prophase E. *in anaphase Nuclear envelope reappears in: A. prophase B. metaphase C. anaphase D. interphase E. *telophase What does mitotic spindle of cell consist of? A. interpolar microtubules B. kinetochore microtubules C. microfilaments D. * interpolar and kinetochore microtubules E. central and peripheral microtubules Interpolar microtubules of mitotic spindle connect: A. kinetochore and pole B. * diplosomes in opposite poles C. two kinetochores D. two centrioles in one pole E. kinetochore and diplosoma Kinetochore microtubules of mitotic spindle connect: A. * kinetochore and pole B. diplosomes in opposite poles C. two kinetochores D. two centrioles in one pole E. kinetochore and diplosoma Metaphase plate lies: A. in opposite poles B. in one pole 296 297 298 299 300 301 302 303 C. irregularly D. * in equatorial plate E. under cell membrane Chemical composition of mitotic spindle: A. carbohydrates B. phospholipids C. * tubulins D. actin filaments E. myosin filaments Shape of mitotic spindle: A. round B. triangular C. * fusiform D. rectangular E. irregular Cleavage furrow in mitosis means: A. separation of diplosomes B. separation of chromosomes C. karyokinesis D. spindle of division E. *constriction of cell body in telophase Midbody in mitosis means: A. cell membrane of dividing cell B. maternal star of chromosomes C. daughter star in anaphase D. remnant of nucleus E. *bundle of spindle microtubules connecting daughter cells in telophase Karyokinesis is completed in: A. early prophase B. metaphase C. telophase D. late prophase E. *anaphase Cytokinesis is completed in: A. early prophase B. metaphase C. anaphase D. late prophase E. *telophase Nucleus in early prophase looks like: A. maternal star B. daughter star C. two stars in poles D. normal one E. *dense nodule of fibers Nucleus in late prophase looks like: A. maternal star 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311 B. daughter star C. two stars in poles D. normal one E. loose nodule of fibers DNA in mitosis is: A. duplicating 2 times B. not duplicating C. multiplying D. duplicating a lot of times E. *duplicating 1 time DNA in meiosis is: A. duplicating 2 times B. not duplicating C. multiplying D. duplicating a lot of times E. *duplicating 1 time Meiosis includes: A. 1 division B. 3 divisions C. 4 divisions D. no division E. *2 divisions Mitosis includes: A. 2 divisions B. 3 divisions C. 4 divisions D. no division E. *1 division When does DNA duplication occur in meiosis? A. in 2nd division B. in 3rd division C. in 4th division D. never E. *in 1st division st 1 division of meiosis is: A. subequal B. reductive C. abnormal D. full E. *equal nd 2 division of meiosis is: A. equal B. subequal C. abnormal D. full E. *reducive Midbody in mitosis means: 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 A. * bundle of spindle microtubules connecting daughter cells in telophase B. cell membrane of dividing cell C. maternal star of chromosomes D. daughter star in anaphase E. remnant of nucleus Cell cycle lasts: A. from telophase to G2 -phase B. from G1 to G2 -phase C. from prophase to telophase D. from methaphase to S-phase E. * from previous cell division to the next one Cell cycle lasts: A. from telophase to G2 -phase B. from G1 to G2 -phase C. from prophase to telophase D. from methaphase to S-phase E. * from previous cell division to the next one Cytokinesis is completed in: A. early prophase B. metaphase C. anaphase D. * telophase E. late prophase Meiosis includes: A. 1 division B. * 2 divisions C. 3 divisions D. 4 divisions E. no division Mitosis includes: A. * 1 division B. 2 divisions C. 3 divisions D. 4 divisions E. no division Endomitosis main feature is: A. cytokinesis B. cytokynesis and karyokynesis C. decrease of cell size D. chromosomes condensation E. *karyokynesis without cytokynesis Endomitosis results in appearance of: A. two cells B. a lot of cells C. inactive cell D. resting cell E. *cell with multiplying chromosomal set 319 Cell, which originates as a result of endomitosis usually is: A. inactive cell B. resting cell C. stem cell D. dying cell E. *very active cell 320 Amitosis means: A. indirect division of the cell with DNA duplication B. division of germ cells C. normal somatic cell division D. chromosomes duplication without cell division E. *direct division of the cell without DNA duplication 321 Amitosis usually occurs: A. everywhere B. in heart C. in muscles D. in epithelia E. *in healing wounds 322 Amitosis under control of macrophages results in: A. development of neoplasm B. connective tissue development C. development of scar D. multinucleated cells appearance E. *in fast production of a lot of cells 323 Noncontroled amitosis results in: A. connective tissue development B. development of scar C. multinucleated cells appearance D. in fast production of a lot of cells E. *development of neoplasm 324 Total chromosomal set of daughter cells in amitosis comprises: A. 23 B. 92 C. 44 D. 48 E. *chromosomal set of maternal cell (46) 325 Normally daughter cells after amitosis undergo: A. further development B. next division C. return to normal cell cycle D. increase of activity E. *destruction by macrophages 326 Endomitosis promotes: A. decrease of cell activity B. death of the cell C. next cell division D. anabiosis 327 328 329 330 331 332 333 334 E. increase of cell activity Types of cell dying: A. paranecrosis and necrosis B. anabiosis and parabiosis C. genetically programmed death of the cell D. probiosis and necrosis E. *necrosis and apoptosis Stages of nucleus changes in necrosis: A. karyorhexis, karyolisis, karyopicnosis B. karyolisis, karyopicnosis, karyorhexis C. karyorhexis, karyopicnosis, karyolisis D. karyolisis, karyorhexis, karyopicnosis E. *karyopicnosis, karyorhexis, karyolisis Paranecrosis means: A. special cell division B. genetically programmed death of the cell C. cell death under some influence D. anabiosis of cell E. *reversible changes of cell Endomitosis result in:: A. germ cells reproduction B. reproduction of two cells absolutely adequate to maternal one C. * production of especially active cells D. fast production of a lot of cells E. production of different cells Apoptosis is: A. necrosis of cell B. paranecrosis of cell C. cell death under some influence D. irreversible changes of cell E. genetically programmed death of cell Reversible changes of cell: A. necrosis B. genetically programmed death of the cell C. cell death under some influence D. probiosos E. *paranecrosis Necrosis is: A. reversible changes of cell B. paranecrosis of cell C. genetically programmed death of the cell D. irreversible changes of cell E. *cell death under some influence Usual type of somatic cells division: A. amitosis B. * mitosis C. meiosis 335 336 337 338 339 340 341 342 D. endomitosis E. irregular Cell synthesizes proteins of mitotic spindle in the next phase of cell cycle: A. G1 B. S C. * G2 D. mitosis E. G0 Cell performs its typical functions in the next phase of cell cycle: A. G1 B. S C. G2 D. mitosis E. * G0 Main processes in mitosis: A. mitotic spindle proteins synthesis B. duplication of DNA C. cell center duplication D. * cytokinesis and karyokinesis E. cell growth Cytokinesis means: A. cell membrane division B. division of nuclear envelope C. nucleus division D. organelles division E. * division of cell body Karyokinesis means: A. division of cell body B. organelles division C. * nucleus division D. cell membrane division E. division of nuclear envelope Nucleolus in the interphase of cell cycle: A. * is of usual structure B. is renewing C. is enlarged D. is fragmented E. is absent Nucleolus in the prophase of cell cycle: A. is of usual structure B. is enlarged C. is fragmented D. * disappears E. is absent Nucleolus in the metaphase of cell cycle: A. is of usual structure B. is renewing C. is enlarged D. is fragmented E. * is absent 343 Nucleolus in the anaphase of cell cycle: A. is of usual structure B. is smaller C. is enlarged D. is fragmented E. * is absent 344 When does nucleolus disappear in cell? A. * in prophase of mitosis B. in G0 phase C. in G1 phase D. in S phase E. in G2 phase 345 37. In which phase of cell cycle DNA is duplicating? A. in prophase of mitosis B. in G0 phase C. in G1 phase D. * in S phase E. in G2 phase 346 When does cell synthesize proteins of mitotic spindle? A. in prophase of mitosis B. in G0 phase C. in G1 phase D. in S phase E. * in G2 phase 347 In which phase of cell cycle the cell is enlarging? A. in prophase of mitosis B. in G0 phase C. * in G1 phase D. in S phase E. in G2 phase 348 Mitosis means: A. germ cells reproduction B. * reproduction of two cells absolutely adequate to maternal one C. production of especially active cells D. fast production of a lot of cells E. production of different cells 349 In which phase of cell cycle cell center is duplicating? A. in prophase of mitosis B. in G0 phase C. in G1 phase D. in S phase E. * in G2 phase 350 How many chromosomes does androspermium have? A. 22 autosomes + 1 X + 1 Y sex chromosome B. 22 autosomes + 1 X sex chromosome C. 22 autosomes + 1 X or Y sex chromosome D. 22 pairs autosomes+ 1 pair sex chromosome. E. *22 autosomes + 1 Y sex chromosome 351 Which structure lies at the top of spermatozoon head? A. proximal centriole B. microtubules C. distant centriole D. axial fibers E. *acrosome 352 Axonema of spermatozoon consists of: A. acrosome B. microfilaments C. proximal centriole D. changed Golgi apparatus E. *specially changed distant centriole 353 Which structure promotes motility of spermatozoon? A. head B. neck C. acrosome D. centriole E. *tail 354 What is the type of human oocyte? A. polilecithal, oligolecithal, II type B. alecithal, izolecithal, I type C. polilecithal, alecithal, II type D. izolecithal, polilecithal, I type E. *olygolecithal, izolecithal, II type 355 Which tunics does oocyte have? A. Theca externa, theca interna, oolema B. Theca externa, theca interna, follicular antrum C. Corona radiata, tunica of fertilization, oolema D. Corona radiata, zona pelucida, cortical granules E. *Corona radiata, zona pelucida, oolema 356 Which inclusions are mainly present in oocyte? A. protein B. lipids C. glycogen D. pigmental E. *yolk 357 Which structures are disposed in the cortical layer of oocyte? A. yolk inclusions B. dictiosomes of Golgi body C. mitochondria D. axial fibers E. *cortical granules 358 What does not spermatozoon do in fertilization? 359 360 361 362 363 364 365 A. Adds half chromosome B. Determines sex C. Stimulates cleavage D. Adds centriole E. *Adds acrosome. What is capacitation? A. rheotaxis B. stygmotaxis C. chemotaxis D. adhesion of spermatozoa E. *special activation of spermatozoa What is fertilization? A. cortical reaction of oocyte B. spermatozoa movement toward C. oocyte nutrition D. none of above mentioned E. *fusion of germ cells Contact stage of fertilization begins with: A. rheotaxis B. stygmotaxis C. chemotaxis D. capacitation E. *denudation What is the function of acrosomal reaction? A. denudation of corona radiata B. penetration of corona radiata C. penetration of zona pelucida D. penetration of oolema E. *penetration of oocyte tunics Specify the stages of fertilization. A. early and late B. uterine and tubal C. adhesion and invasion D. capacitation and stygmotaxis E. *distant and contact Where is periviteline space disposed? A. between oolema and corona radiata B. between trophoblast and embryoblast C. between trophoblast and tunica of fertilization D. between two uterine glands E. *between oolema and zona pelucida What is synkarion? A. zygote B. multicellular organism C. group of cells D. spermatozoon, which penetrates the ovum E. *cell with two pronuclei 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373 Name the unicellular organism with two pronuclei, which appear in fertilization. A. oocyte B. zygote C. morula D. blastocyst E. *synkarion What is male pronucleus? A. synkarion nucleus B. oocyte nucleus C. zygote nucleus D. polar body nucleus E. *nucleus of spermatozoon What does fertilization result in? A. cortical reaction B. acrosomal reaction C. denudation D. penetration E. *zygote formation Which structure appear as a result of cortical reaction? A. female pronucleus B. male pronucleus C. zygote D. cell center E. *tunic of fertilization When does two-cell stage of cleavage begin? A. immediately after fertilization B. 3 hours after fertilization C. 3 days after fertilization D. immediately after implantation E. *30 hours after fertilization What does morula mean? A. unicellular organism B. vesicle C. trophoblast and embryoblast D. blastocoel E. *multicellular blastula without space What does blastocyst consist of? A. trophoblast B. embryoblast C. blastoderm D. blastocyst cavity E. *trophoblast and embryoblast How many chromosomes does gynicospermium have? A. autosomes + 1 X or Y sex chromosome B. 22 autosomes + 1 Y sex chromosome C. 22 autosomes + 1 X + 1 Y sex chromosome 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 D. 22 pairs autosomes+ 1 pair sex chromosome E. *22 autosomes + 1 X sex chromosome What does neck of spermatozoon consist of? A. acrosomes B. microtubules C. distant centriole D. axial fibers E. *proximal centriole What does not spermatozoon do in fertilization? A. gives chromosomes B. determines sex C. stimulates cleavage D. givess centriole E. *adds tail Where does mitochondrial sheath of spermatozoon lie? A. in the head B. in the neck C. at the top of acrosome D. in the centriole E. *in the tail Flagella of spermatozoon is: A. general organelle B. cell inclusion C. temporary structure D. cell membrane evagination E. *special organelle What does sex of embryo depend on? A. chromosomes of oocyte B. autosomes of oocyte C. autosomes of spermatozoon D. gonosome of oocyte E. *gonosome of spermatozoon What organelle does not oocyte have? A. mitochondria B. granules C. inclusions D. nucleus E. *centrosome When does periviteline space appear in embryogenesis? A. after ovulation B. during oocyte maturation C. after cleavage D. after implantation E. *in fertilization What is the function of cortical reaction? A. provides polyspermy B. provides penetration 382 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 C. provides denudation D. provides second meiotic division E. *provides monospermy What are oocyte functions? A. adds centriole B. adds acrosome C. determines sex D. movement E. *adds chromosomes, nutrition and protection Location of nucleus in human oocyte: A. at the centre B. right under cell membrane C. at the animal pole D. at the vegetative pole E. *eccentrically Which organelle produces yolk inclusions in oocyte? A. acrosome B. rough endoplasmic reticulum C. free ribosomes D. fixed ribosomes E. *smooth endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi body Where does fertilization usually occur? A. in Graafian follicle B. in peritoneal cavity C. in uterus D. in vagina E. *in uterine tube Which process the distant stage of fertilization begins with? A. stygmotaxis B. capacitation C. chemotaxis D. denudation E. *rheotaxis What does cortical reaction result in? A. denudation B. capacitation C. penetration D. twins E. *tunic of fertilization appearance Which special process promotes the monospermy? A. acrosomal reaction B. denudation C. penetration D. chemotaxis E. *cortical reaction Name the unicellular organism, which appear in fertilization after two pronuclei fusion? 390 391. 392. 393. 394. 395. 396. A. synkarion B. oocyte C. morula D. blastocyst E. *zygote What is female pronucleus? A. nucleus of spermatozoon B. synkarion nucleus C. zygote nucleus D. polar body nucleus E. *oocyte nucleus Which layers of 14-17 days germ disk do you know? A. Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast B. Embryoblast and trophoblast C. Ectoderm and entoderm D. Synkaryon and zygote E. *Ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm What does acrosome mean? A. Special granules B. Mitochondria C. Inclusions D. Part of nucleus. E. *Changed Golgi apparatus Specify life span of human zygote A. 2 days B. 3-4 hours C. 7 days D. 10 hours E. *30 hours When does cleavage occur? A. 1 – 3 hours after fertilization B. 1 – 30 hours after fertilization C. 1 – 5th days after fertilization D. 1 –7th days after fertilization E. *30 h - till 7th day after fertilization What is the type of human cleavage? A. full, synchronic, subequal B. partlial synchronic, subequal C. partial, asynchronic, subequal D. full, synchronic, equal E. *full, asynchronic, subequal What stages of implantation do you know? A. primary and secondary B. early and late C. cleavage and gastrulation D. growth and maturation E. *adhesion and invasion 397. 398. 399. 400. 401. 402. 403. 404. Normal site of implantation A. uterine tube ampullar part B. uterine tube isthmic part C. uterine cervix D. vagina E. *uterine body or fundus What does “free blastocyst” mean? A. morula in uterine cavity B. blastula in uterine tube C. blastula without space inside D. implanting blasocyst E. *blastocyst at the 5th -7th days How many chromosomes does oocyte have? A. 22 autosomes + 1 X or Y sex chromosome B. 22 autosomes + 1 Y sex chromosome C. 22 autosomes + 1 X + 1 Y sex chromosome D. 22 pairs autosomes+ 1 pair sex chromosome E. *22 autosomes + 1 X sex chromosome Which cells are motile? A. oocytes B. spermatogonies C. spermatocytes D. spermatids E. *spermatozoa Which structures lie in the head of spermatozoon? A. microtubules and nucleus B. acrosome and proximal centriole C. distant centriole and nucleus D. acrosome and axial fibers E. *acrosome and nucleus How many microtubules does axial fiber of spermatozoon have? A. 9+0 B. 9x2+0 C. 9x3+0 D. 9x3+2 E. *9x2+2 Types of oocytes A. multilecithal, alecithal B. centrolecithal, multilecithal C. centrolecithal, alecithal D. oligolecithal, multilecithal E. *alecithal, oligolecithal, polilecithal Location of inclusions in oocyte: A. in large granules B. in the pole of cell C. under the ovolemma D. around nucleus 405. 406. 407. 408. 409. 410. 411. 412. E. *dispersed Which types of amniotic epithelium do you know? A. Supportive, secretory B. Squamous, cuboidal C. Endocrine, exocrine D. Simple, stratified E. *Cuboidal, columnar Female oocyte is nourished by: A. surrounding tissues B. mucous C. glycogen inclusions D. cortical granules E. *yolk inclusions What are the components of spermatozoon tail? A. nucleus, mitochondria, distant centriole B. axial fibers, nucleus, mitochondria C. acrosome, mitochondria, centrosome D. axial fiber, mitochondria, centrosome E. *axial fiber, mitochondria, distant centriole Where is periviteline space? A. between oolema and corona radiata B. between trophoblast and embryoblast C. between trophoblast and tunica of fertilization D. between two uterine glands E. *between oolema and zona pelucida Usual place of fertilization: A. in ovary B. in uterine C. In uterine gland D. in uterine mucosa E. *in uterine tube Main result of fertilization is: A. protection of zygote B. nourishment of zygote C. movement of zygote D. renewing of haploid chromosomal set E. *renewing of diploid chromosomal set What does cortical reaction mean? A. disappearance of granulosa cells B. solution of oolemma C. second meiotic division of oocyte D. fusion of germ cells E. *releasing of cortical granules into the perivitelline space When is perivitelline space formed? A. after ovulation B. during oocyte maturation C. after cleavage D. after implantation. E. *during fertilization 413. Name the unicellular organism with two pronuclei, which appear in fertilization. A. zygote B. oocyte C. morula D. blastocyst E. *synkarion 414. What is zygote? A. unicellular organism with male and female pronuclei B. double cellular organism with diploid chromosomal set C. unicellular organism with haploid chromosomal set D. double cellular organism with haploid chromosomal set E. *unicellular organism with diploid chromosomal set 415. Type of human embryo cleavage is: A. full, synchronic, subequal B. partial, synchronic, subequal C. partial, asynchronic, subequal D. full, synchronic, equal E. *full, asynchronic, subequal 416. Which structure is bigger? A. oocyte B. synkarion C. zygote D. morula E. *all are equal 417. How many blastomers does morula have? A. 1-8 B. 2-8 C. 64-99 D. 64-107 E. *16-32 418. When does implantation begin? A. During the 1st day after fertilization B. During 3rd day after fertilization C. During 12th day after fertilization D. During 14th day after fertilization E. *During 6th day after fertilization 419. Human embryo cleavage lasts: A. 1 – 3 hours after fertilization B. 1 – 30 hours after fertilization C. 1 – 5th days after fertilization D. 1 –7th days after fertilization E. *30 h - till 7th day after fertilization 420. Most typical abnormal site of implantation: A. vagina B. C. D. E. 421. 422. 423. 424. 425. 426. 427. 428. uterine fundus uterine cervix uterine body *uterine tube What is the type of human blastula? A. celoblastula B. periblastula C. amphyblastula D. discoblastula E. *blastocyst What does fertilization result in? A. cortical reaction B. acrosome reaction C. denudation D. penetration E. *zygote formation Which stages of gastrulation do you know? A. Primary and secondary B. Cleavage and gastrulation C. Adhesion and invasion D. Growth and maturation E. *Early and late When does early gastrulation begin? A. During 3rd day after fertilization B. During 1st day after fertilization C. During 14th day after fertilization D. During 27th day after fertilization E. *During 7th day after fertilization When does late gastrulation begin? A. During 3rd day after fertilization B. During 7th day after fertilization C. During 1st day after fertilization D. During 27th day after fertilization E. *During 14th day after fertilization Which types of cells in blastocyst do you know? A. Syncarion and zygote B. Oocyte and spermatozoa C. Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast D. Morula and blastula E. *Embryoblast and trophoblast Which layers of 7-14 days germ disk do you know? A. Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast B. Embryoblast and trophoblast C. Syncarion and zygote D. Ectoderm, mesoderm and entoderm E. *Epiblast and hypoblast When does amnion originate? 2nd week 1st week 4th week 5th week *3rd week What does chorion with villi term? A. chorion degenerative B. chorion leave C. stem chorion D. nonbranched chorion E. *chorion frondosum What does chorion without villi term? A. chorion frondosum B. chorion degenerative C. stem chorion D. branched chorion E. *chorion leave (smooth) Which types of villi do you know? A. frondosum and laeve B. chorionic and amniotic C. basalis, parietalis, capsularis D. maternal and fetal E. *primary, secondary, tertiary Which types of chorion do you know? A. maternal and fetal B. chorionic and amniotic C. basalis, parietalis, capsularis D. primary, secondary, tertiary E. *frondosum and laeve What is the origin of umbilical cord? A. trophoblast B. chorion C. embryoblast D. yolk sac E. *amniotic stalk Which vessels does umbilical cord have? A. one artery and two veins B. one artery and one vein C. two arteries and two veins D. no one E. *two arteries and one vein What does umbilical cord is filled with? A. allantois B. vessels C. amniotic cavity D. yolk sac E. *jelly of Wharton A. B. C. D. E. 429. 430. 431. 432. 433. 434. 435. 436. 437. 438. 439. 440. 441. 442. 443. When does yolk sac appear? A. 2nd week B. 1st week C. 4th week D. 5th week E. *3rd week When does allantois begin its development? A. 1st week B. 2nd week C. 4th week D. 5th week E. *3rd week Which decidual layers of uterus do you know? A. frondosum and laeve B. chorionic and amniotic C. maternal and fetal D. primary, secondary, tertiary E. *basalis, parietalis, capsularis What is the structural unit of placenta? A. amnion B. allantois C. decidual plate D. umbilical cord E. *cotyledon What is the origin of stomach? A. ectoderm B. mesoderm C. neural tube D. notochord E. *endoderm What is the origin of skeletal muscles? A. ectoderm B. mesoderm C. dermatome D. sclerotome E. *myotome What is the origin of connective tissue? A. mesoderm B. endoderm C. ectoderm D. sclerotome E. *mesenchyme What is the origin of nervous system? A. mesoderm B. dermatome C. myotome D. sclerotome 444. 445. 446. 447. 448. 449. 450. 451. E. *ectoderm What is the origin of myocardium? A. mesoderm B. ectoderm C. myotome D. sclerotome E. *myoepicardial plate What is the origin of epidermis? A. mesoderm B. dermatome C. myotome D. sclerotome E. *ectoderm What is the origin of blood cells? A. mesoderm B. dermatome C. myotome D. sclerotome E. *mesenchyme What is the origin of smooth muscles? A. mesoderm B. dermatome C. myotome D. sclerotome E. *mesenchyme What is the origin of bones? A. mesoderm B. dermatome C. myotome D. ectoderm E. *sclerotome What is the origin of derma? A. mesoderm B. ectoderm C. myotome D. sclerotome E. *dermatome What is the origin of kidney? A. ectoderm B. dermatome C. myotome D. sclerotome E. *ephrogonotome Choose the special tissues A. epithelium and muscular B. connective tissues C. blood and lymph 452. 453. 454. 455. 456. 457. 458. 459. D. tissues of inner environment E. *muscular and nerve Choose the general tissues. A. epithelium and muscular B. muscular and nervous C. connective tissues and muscular D. blood and lymph E. *epithelia and tissues of inner environment Epithelia belong to: A. special tissues B. connective tissues C. contractile tissues D. specific tissues E. *general tissues Morphofunctional classification of epithelial tissues is based on: A. polarity of epitheliocytes B. special junctions of epitheliocytes C. blood and lymph supply D. special organelles of epitheliocytes E. *epitheliocytes attitude to basement membrane Morphofunctional types of epithelial tissues: A. dry and mucous B. simple and stratified C. cuboidal and columnar D. special and general E. *lining and glandular epithelia Morphofunctional types of lining epithelial tissues: A. squamous and columnar B. cuboidal and columnar C. dry and mucous D. special and general E. *simple and stratified What epithelium is named simple (unilayered)? A. keratinized B. in which not all cells lie on a basement membrane C. in which cells do not lie on a basement membrane D. urothelium E. *in which all cells lie on a basement membrane Choose the simple epithelium. A. nonkeratinized B. secretory C. keratinized D. transitional E. *squamous Choose the simple epithelium. A. nonkeratinized B. secretory 460. 461. 462. 463. 464. 465. 466. 467. C. keratinized D. transitional E. *cuboidal Choose the simple epithelium. A. nonkeratinized B. secretory C. keratinized D. transitional E. *columnar Which type of simple epithelium is named isomorphic? A. columnar B. nonkeratinized C. keratinized D. transitional E. *which consists of similar cells Which type of simple epithelium is named unisomorphic? A. columnar B. nonkeratinized C. keratinized D. transitional E. *which consists of different cells Which type of simple epithelium belongs to unisomorphic? A. squamous B. cuboidal C. mesothelium D. transitional E. *columnar Which type of epithelium is named pseudostratified? A. nonkeratinized B. secretory C. keratinized D. transitional E. *columnar Choose special organelles of epitheliocytes. A. neurofibrilles B. myofibrilles C. microvilli D. tonofilaments E. *tonofibrilles Choose special organelles of epitheliocytes. A. neurofibrilles B. myofibrilles C. microvilli D. tonofilaments E. *cilia Typical feature of epithelium: A. has a lot of intercellular substance B. C. D. E. 468. 469. 470. 471. 472. 473. 474. 475. regeneration is slow has no nerve endings has blood vessels *consists mainly of epitheliocytes Typical feature of epithelium: A. regeneration is slow B. has no nerve endings C. has blood vessels D. has fibers E. *has no intercellular substance Typical feature of epithelium: A. has blood vessels B. regeneration is slow C. has no nerve endings D. has a lot of intercellular substance E. *is underlined by basement membrane Typical feature of epithelium: A. has no nerve endings B. regeneration is slow C. has blood vessels D. has a lot of intercellular substance E. *polarity (apical and basal poles) Typical feature of epithelium: A. regeneration is slow B. has fibers C. has blood vessels D. has a lot of intercellular substance E. *has a lot of nerve endings Typical feature of epithelium: A. has no nerve endings B. has fibers C. has blood vessels D. has a lot of intercellular substance E. *has active regeneration Epithelium is nourished by: A. blood vessels B. lymphatics C. by intercellular substance D. by nerve endings E. *diffusion from underlying connective tissue Main function of lining epithelia: A. nutritive B. structural C. supportive D. contractile E. *protective Specify the poles of epitheliocytes. A. B. C. D. E. 476. 477. 478. 479. 480. 481. 482. ecto- and endoplasm nuclear and perinuclear perinuclear and peripheral nuclear and organelles *basal and apical What structure underlies an epithelium? A. cytolemma B. amorphic substance C. elastic membrane D. collagen fibers E. *basement membrane What structure is located between an epithelium and connective tissue? A. collagen fibers B. elastic membrane C. cytolemma D. amorphic substance E. *basement membrane Which poles are distinguished in epitheliocyte? A. ecto- and endoplasm B. nuclear and perinuclear zone C. perinuclear and organelles D. nuclear and organelles E. *basal and apical What epithelium is named stratified (multilayered)? A. in which all cells lie on a basement membrane B. in which cells do not lie on a basement membrane C. cuboidal D. squamous E. *in which not all cells lie on a basement membrane Choose stratified epithelium. A. squamous B. cuboidal C. columnar D. pseudostratified E. *keratinized Choose stratified epithelium. A. squamous B. cuboidal C. columnar D. pseudostratified E. *nonkeratinized Choose stratified epithelium. A. squamous B. cuboidal C. columnar D. pseudostratified E. *transitional 483. 484. 485. 486. 487. 488. 489. 490. How many layers are there in stratified nonkeratinized epithelium? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 E. *3 Specify the layers of stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium A. spinosum, squamous, granular, lucidum B. basement, spinosum, squamous, granular, lucidum C. basement, spinosum, squamous, granular D. basement, squamous, granular, lucidum E. *basal, spinosum, squamous How many layers are there in stratified keratinized epithelium? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. *5 1st layer of stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium A. squamous plates B. lucidum C. spinosum D. granular E. *basal 2nd layer of stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium A. squamous plates B. lucidum C. *spinosum D. granular E. basal 3rd layer of stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium A. squamous plates B. lucidum C. spinosum D. *granular E. basal Specify the layers of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium A. basal, squamous, granular, lucidum B. basement, spinosum, squamous, granular, lucidum C. spinosum, squamous, granular, lucidum D. basement, spinosum, squamous, granular E. *basal, spinosum, granular, lucidum, corneum 1st layer of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium A. squamous plates B. lucidum C. spinosum D. granular 491. 492. 493. 494. 495. 496. 497. 498. E. *basal 2nd layer of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium A. squamous plates B. lucidum C. *spinosum D. granular E. basal 3rd layer of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium A. squamous plates B. lucidum C. spinosum D. *granular E. basal 4th layer of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium A. squamous plates B. *lucidum C. spinosum D. granular E. basal 5th layer of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium A. *squamous plates B. lucidum C. spinosum D. granular E. basal How many layers are there in transitional epithelium? A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. *2 Specify the layers of transitional epithelium A. basal, squamous, granular, lucidum B. basement, spinosum, squamous, granular, lucidum C. spinosum, squamous, granular, lucidum D. basement, spinosum, squamous, granular E. *basal and superficial Location of simple squamous epithelium: A. intestinal epithelium B. renal tubuli C. skin D. oral cavity, cornea E. *mesothelium of peritoneum, pleura and pericardium Specify the location of simple cuboidal epithelium: A. oral cavity, cornea B. mesothelium of peritoneum, pleura and pericardium C. intestinal epithelium 499. 500. 501. 502. 503. 504. 505. 506. D. skin E. *renal tubuli Specify the location of simple columnar epithelium: A. mesothelium of peritoneum, pleura and pericardium B. serous glands C. skin D. oral cavity, cornea E. *intestinal epithelium Specify the location of ciliated epithelium: A. renal tubuli B. intestinal epithelium C. skin D. oral cavity, cornea E. *respiratory mucosa Specify the location of stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium: A. skin B. mesothelium of peritoneum, pleura and pericardium C. renal tubuli D. intestinal epithelium E. *oral cavity, cornea Specify the location of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium: A. mesothelium of peritoneum, pleura and pericardium B. renal tubuli C. intestinal epithelium D. oral cavity, cornea E. *skin Specify the location of transitional epithelium: A. intestinal epithelium B. mesothelium of peritoneum, pleura and pericardium C. renal tubuli D. oral cavity, cornea E. *ureter, urinary bladder Transitional epithelium is known as: A. intestinal epithelium B. simple squamous epithelium C. simple cuboidal epithelium D. stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium E. *urothelium Glands are mainly classified in: A. simple and compound B. active and resting C. major and minor D. permanent and temporary E. *exocrine and endocrine General classification of glands depends on: A. type of secretory products B. mode of secretion 507. 508. 509. 510. 511. 512. 513. 514. C. stage of secretory process D. type of cells E. *excretory ducts presence Classification of exocrine glands mainly depends on: A. type of blood supply B. cells arrangement C. surrounding structures D. capsule E. *excretory ducts structure Classification of endocrine glands depends on: A. mode of secretion B. type of cells C. type of secretory products D. stage of secretory process E. *arrangement of parenchymal cells What is the main structural feature of endocrine glands? A. synthesized substances belong to proteins B. synthesized substances are discharged outside C. have excretory ducts D. have excretory ducts and secretory portions E. *have no excretory ducts What is the main structural feature of exocrine glands? A. synthesized substances enter the blood B. synthesized substances belong to proteins C. have no excretory ducts D. consist of glandulocytes E. *have excretory ducts Simple exocrine gland has: A. 1 type of cells B. 1 type of secretory products C. exact mode of secretion D. 1 stage of secretory process E. *simple nonbranched excretory duct Main peculiarity of branched exocrine gland: A. has 1 type of cells B. produces 1 type of secretory products C. has alveolar secretory portions D. has tubular secretory portions E. *excretory duct has few secretory portions Nonbranched exocrine gland has: A. few types of cells B. few types of secretory products C. alveolar secretory portions D. tubular secretory portions E. *one excretory duct has one secretory portion Alveolar exocrine gland has: A. one excretory duct has few secretory portions B. C. D. E. 515. 516. 517. 518. 519. 520. 521. 522. few types of cells few types of secretory products tubular secretory portions *alveolar secretory portions Tubular exocrine gland has: A. few types of secretory products B. one excretory duct collects has few secretory portions C. few types of cells D. alveolar secretory portions E. *has tubular secretory portions Mixed exocrine gland has: A. has tubular secretory portions B. few types of cells C. 1 type of secretory product D. alveolar secretory portions E. *alveolar and tubular secretory portions What does “merocrine mode of secretion” mean? A. secret is discharged with complete destruction of glandulocytes B. secret is discharged with destruction of microvilli of glandulocytes C. secret is discharged with destruction of apical pole of glandulocytes D. secret is discharged to the blood E. *secret is discharged without destruction of glandulocytes What does “macroaporocrine mode of secretion” mean? A. secret is discharged without destruction of glandulocytes B. secret is discharged with complete destruction of glandulocytes C. secret is discharged with destruction of microvilli of glandulocytes D. secret is discharged to the blood E. *secret is discharged with destruction of apical pole of glandulocytes What does it mean “microaporocrine mode of secretion”? A. secret is discharged without destruction of glandulocytes B. secret is discharged with complete destruction of glandulocytes C. secret is discharged with destruction of apical pole of glandulocytes D. secret is discharged to the blood E. *secret is discharged with destruction of microvilli of glandulocytes What does it mean “holocrine mode of secretion”? A. secret is discharged without destruction of glandulocytes B. secret is discharged with destruction of microvilli of glandulocytes C. secret is discharged with destruction of apical pole of glandulocytes D. secret is discharged to the blood E. *secret is discharged with complete destruction of glandulocytes Exocrine gland portions are the next: A. secretory and terminal B. upper and lower C. secretory and beginning D. upper and terminal E. *secretory portion and excretory duct Compound glands always are: A. B. C. D. E. nonbranched simple endocrine exocrine *branched 523. What is the shape of alveolar (acinar) secretory portion of exocrine gland? A. tubular B. flat C. irregular D. lobulated E. *round 524. What does alveolar secretory portion of exocrine gland consist of? A. squamous cells B. mucocytes C. myoepithelial cells D. endocrine cells E. *serocytes 525. What secretory product does alveolar secretory portion of exocrine gland produce? A. water B. mucus C. hormones D. ions E. *proteins 526. Which organelles are well developed in serocytes of exocrine gland? A. smooth endoplasmic reticulum B. mitochondria C. lisosomes D. peroxysomes E. *rough endoplasmic reticulum 527. Serocytes of exocrine gland could be stained with: A. acidic dye B. neutral dye C. orcein D. sudan E. *alkaline dye 528. What is the shape of tubular secretory portion of exocrine gland? A. round B. flat C. irregular D. lobulated E. *tubular 529. What does tubular secretory portion of exocrine gland consist of? A. serocytes B. squamous cells C. myoepithelial cellse 530. 531. 532. 533. 534. 535. 536. 537. D. endocrine cells E. *mucocytes What does acinar exocrine gland produce? A. mucus B. hormones C. water D. ions E. *proteins Which organelles are well developed in mucocytes of exocrine gland? A. rough endoplasmic reticulum B. mitochondria C. lisosomes D. peroxysomes E. *smooth endoplasmic reticulum Mucocytes of exocrine gland could be stained with: A. alkaline dye B. acidic dye C. orcein D. sudan E. *special dye Stages of secretory process: A. accumulation of precursors and synthesis B. synthesis and renewal C. synthesis and secretion D. accumulation of precursors and renewal E. *accumulation of precursors, synthesis, secretion and renewal Large excretory ducts of exocrine glands are covered with: A. simple squamous epithelium B. cuboidal epithelium C. keratinized epithelium D. urothelium E. *pseudostratified epithelium Which organelle of glandulocytes is responsible for protein synthesis? A. smooth endoplasmic reticulum B. mitochondria C. lisosomes D. cell center E. *rough endoplasmic reticulum Which organelle of mucocytes is responsible for mucus synthesis? A. rough endoplasmic reticulum B. mitochondria C. lisosomes D. cell center E. *smooth endoplasmic reticulum What does secretory portion of exocrine gland consist of? A. endocrine glandulocytes B. excretory cells 538. 539. 540. 541. 542. 543. 544. 545. C. secretory cells D. lining cells E. *exocrine glandulocytes What does endocrine gland consist of? A. exocrine glandulocytes B. excretory cells C. secretory cells D. lining cells E. *endocrine glandulocytes Hemogram (blood picture) means: A. Registration of blood components in human body B. Registration of different leucocytes in % C. Circulating blood volume D. Blood clotting E. *Registration of blood components per 1 liter Leucogram (differentiated leucocytes count) means: A. Blood clotting B. Registration of blood components in human body C. Registration of blood components per 1 liter D. Circulating blood volume E. *Registration of different types of leucocytes in % What does hematocrit mean? A. Registration of blood components in human body B. Registration of blood components per 1 liter C. Circulating blood volume D. Registration of different types of leucocytes in % E. *Ratio of blood formed elements and plasma Hematocrit of human blood: A. 35:65% B. 30:70% C. 20:80% D. 10:90% E. *45:55% Plasma constitutes in peripheral blood: A. 45% B. 60% C. 80% D. 70% E. *55 % Blood formed elements constitute in peripheral blood: A. 55% B. 60% C. 80% D. 70% E. *45 % What are the blood formed elements? A. erythrocytes and macrophages B. C. D. E. 546. 547. 548. 549. 550. 551. 552. 553. microphages and macrophages histiocytes and macrophages leucocytes and platelets *erythrocytes, leucocytes, platelets Increase of erythrocytes amount in peripheral blood A. Anemia B. Anisocytosis C. Erythropenia D. Poikylocytosis E. *Erythrocytosis Specify the erythrocytes amount in men. A. 3,7-4,7 x 10`12 l B. 2,8-3,5 x 10`12 l C. 4,5-6,0 x 10`12 l D. 3,0-4,0 x 10`12 l E. *4,0-5,1 x 10`12 l Specify the erythrocytes amount in women. A. 2,8-3,5 x 10`12 l B. 4,0-5,1 x 10`12 l C. 4,5-6,0 x 10`12 l D. 3,0-4,0 x 10`12 l E. *3,7-4,7 x 10`12 l Specify the name of young erythrocyte. A. Acidophil B. Neutrophil C. Monocyte D. Basophil E. *Reticulocyte What is the structural peculiarity of reticulocyte? A. Golgi body presence B. Mitochondria presence C. Hb presence D. Nucleus presence E. *Presence of RER remnant What is the Main erythrocytes function? A. Phagocytosis B. Protective C. Immune D. Blood clotting E. *Gases transport What is the most typical shape of erythrocytes? A. Flat B. Round C. Polygonal D. Oval E. *Discoid What is the shape of blood planocyte? A. B. C. D. E. 554. 555. 556. 557. 558. 559. 560. Discoid Round Polygonal Oval *Flat What is the shape of blood spherocyte? A. Flat B. Discoid C. Polygonal D. Oval E. *Round What is the shape of blood discocyte? A. Flat disc B. Round C. Polygonal D. Oval disc E. *Biconcave disc What is the shape of echinocyte? A. Discoid B. Flat C. Round D. Oval E. *With spines What is the most typical shape of aging erythrocytes? A. Biconcave disc B. Spherocyte C. Polygonal D. Oval E. *With spines What is the name of old erythrocyte with spines? A. Discocyte B. Spherocyte C. Planocyte D. Spinocyte E. *Echinocyte What is color of erythrocytes in native blood: A. Yellow B. Blue C. Green D. Violet E. *Red Which blood formed element makes it red? A. Platelets B. Monocytes C. Leucocytes D. Lymphocytes E. *Erythrocytes 561. 562. 563. 564. 565. 566. 567. 568. Which pigmental inclusion is present in erythrocyte? A. Myoglobin B. Lipids C. Glycogen D. Mucus E. *Hemoglobin Which type of inclusions does hemoglobin belong to? A. Lipids B. Carbohydrates C. Secretory D. Nutritive E. *Pigmental protein Which types of hemoglobin do you know? A. A and B B. A and C C. F and D D. B and C E. *A and F Hemoglobin A is typical for: A. newborn B. child C. 3 years D. 14 years E. *adult Hemoglobin F is typical for? A. newborn B. child C. 3 years D. 14 years E. *fetus What is hemoglobin A? A. Fetal hemoglobin B. Hb connected with oxygen C. Hb connected with carbon monoxide D. Hb connected with carbon dioxide E. *Hemoglobin of blood of adult person What is hemoglobin F? A. Hemoglobin of blood of adult person B. Hb connected with oxygen C. Hb connected with carbon monoxide D. Hb connected with carbon dioxide E. *Fetal hemoglobin What is oxyhemoglobin? A. Hb connected with carbon monoxide B. Hb connected with carbon dioxide C. Free Hb D. Hb connected with cell membrane 569. 570. 571. 572. 573. 574. 575. 576. E. *Hb connected with oxygen What is methemoglobin ? A. Hb connected with oxygen B. Hb connected with carbon dioxide C. Free Hb D. Hb connected with cell membrane E. *Hb connected with carbon monoxide Gases transport by erythrocytes is performed by: A. cell membrane B. ribosomes C. cell sceleton D. nucleus E. *hemoglobin Antigens transport by erythrocytes is performed by: A. hemoglobin B. ribosomes C. cell sceleton D. nucleus E. *cell membrane Drugs and nutrients transport by erythrocytes is performed by: A. hemoglobin B. ribosomes C. cell sceleton D. nucleus E. *cell membrane Special shape of erythrocytes is mainly supported by: A. hemoglobin B. ribosomes C. tonofilaments D. nucleus E. *spectrins and ankerins Life-span of erythrocyte is: A. 30 days B. 40 days C. 60 days D. Few hours E. *120 days Blood smear usually is stained with: A. Hematoxylin and eosin B. Orcein C. Silver impregnation D. Iron hematoxylin E. *Romanovsky-Himsa stain Specify the leucocytes amount in peripheral blood. A. 3,9-5,5 x 109/l B. 200-300x10 x 109/l C. 10,0-30,0 x 109/l 577. 578. 579. 580. 581. 582. 583. 584. D. 6,0-8,0 x 109/l E. *4,0-9,0 x 109/l Leucocytes in peripheral blood are classifying: A. Due to motility B. Due to the shape C. Due to the nucleus shape D. Due to the inclusions E. *Due to specific granules presence Which blood formed elements belong to agranulocytes? A. Erythrocytes and platelets B. Platelets and lymphocytes C. Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils D. Lymphocytes and platelets E. *Monocytes and lymphocytes Which blood formed elements belong to granulocytes? A. Monocytes and lymphocytes B. Erythrocytes and platelets C. Platelets and lymphocytes D. Lymphocytes and platelets E. *Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils Specify the lymphocytes amount in blood. A. 0-1,0% B. 0,5-5% C. 3-11% D. 47-72% E. *18-37% Main function of lymphocytes. A. Phagocytosis B. Protective C. Gases transport D. Blood clotting E. *Immune Lymphocytes of peripheral blood are: A. Acidophilic B. Neutral C. Polichromatophilic D. Metachromatophilic E. *Basophilic Next lymphocytes could be identifying in light microscope: A. B and T lymphocytes B. Active and passive C. Fixed and motile D. Juvenile and mature E. *Small, middle-sized and large Next lymphocytes could be identifying histochemically: A. Small, middle-sized and large B. Active and passive C. Fixed and motile D. Juvenile and mature E. *B and T lymphocytes 585. Large lymphocytes are known as: A. T lymphocytes B. Passive lymphocytes C. Motile lymphocytes D. Juvenile lymphocytes E. *B-plasma cells 586. Which blood formed elements fulfill their maturation outside of red bone marrow? A. Platelets B. Erythrocytes C. Neutrophils D. Eosinophils E. *Monocytes and lymphocytes 587. Specify the monocytes amount in blood. A. 0-1,0% B. 0,5-5% C. 18-37% D. 47-72% E. *3-11% 588. What is the Main function of monocyte? A. Protective B. Gases transport C. Immune D. Blood clotting E. *Phagocytosis 589. Which organelle is well developed in monocyte? A. Mitochopndria B. Ribosomes C. Cell center D. Microtubuli E. *Golgi body 590. What is the shape of monocyte nucleus? A. Round B. Segmented C. Elongated D. Irregular E. *Bean-like 591. What is the size of monocyte in peripheral blood smear? A. 15-20 mkm B. 10-15 mkm C. 5-10 mkm D. Over 50 mkm E. *20-25 mkm 592. Neutrophils amount in peripheral blood. A. B. C. D. E. 593. 594. 595. 596. 597. 598. 599. 0-1,0% 0,5-5% 18-37% 3-11% *47-72% Main structural feature of neutrophil: A. Nucleus presence B. Metachromatophilic granules in cytoplasm C. Polichromatophilic granules in cytoplasm D. Ortochromatophilic granules in cytoplasm E. *Presence of small azurophilic and special granules in cytoplasm Staiment of primary granules of neutrophil: A. Neutral B. Metachromatic C. Polichromatic D. Ortochromatic E. *Azurophilic What are primary granules of neutrophil: A. Mitochondria B. Ribosomes C. Golgi body D. Inclusions E. *Lysosomes Nucleus shape of mature neutrophil: A. Round B. Oval C. Horse shoos-like D. Absent E. *Segmented Nucleus shape of juvenile neutrophil: A. Round B. Segmented C. Horse shoos-like D. Absent E. *Oval Nucleus shape of band neutrophil: A. Round B. Oval C. Segmented D. Absent E. *Horse shoos-like Main function of neutrophils. A. Take part in allergic reactions B. Gases transport C. Immune D. Blood clotting E. *Microphagocytosis 600. 601. 602. 603. 604. 605. 606. 607. Which types of neutrophils are present in peripheral blood? A. Motile and fixed B. Juvenile and segmented C. Band and segmented D. Dividing and nondividing E. *Juvenile, band and segmented Amount of basophils in blood. A. 18-37% B. 3-11% C. 0,5-5% D. 47-72% E. *0-1,0% Main function of basophils. A. Immune B. Gases transport C. Phagocytosis D. Blood clotting E. *Prevent blood clotting Main structural feature of basophil: A. Presence of small azurophilic and special granules in cytoplasm B. Presence of large eosinophilic granules in cytoplasm C. Polichromatophilic granules in cytoplasm D. Ortochromatophilic granules in cytoplasm E. *Presence of large basophilic (metachromatic) granules in cytoplasm Which matters are present in granules of basophils. A. Lisozyme B. Hb C. Arginin D. Tromboplastin E. *Histamine, heparin Special features of basophil’s granules: A. Small round B. Small elongated C. Have dense core inside D. Have arginin E. *Large membrane-bound Amount of eosinophils in blood. A. 0-1,0% B. 3-11% C. 18-37% D. 47-72% E. *0,5-5% Main structural feature of eosinophil: A. Presence of small azurophilic and special granules in cytoplasm B. Nucleus presence C. Metachromatophilic granules in cytoplasm D. Polichromatophilic granules in cytoplasm 608. 609. 610. 611. 612. 613. 614. 615. E. *Large oxiphilic granules in cytoplasm Which matters are present in granules of eosinophils? A. Lisozyme B. Hb C. Histamine, heparin D. Tromboplastin E. *Arginin Special features of eosinophils granules: A. Small round B. Small elongated C. Large membranebounded D. Small membranebounded E. *Have dense core inside Main function of eosinophils. A. Phagocytosis B. Gases transport C. Immune D. Blood clotting E. *Take part in allergic reactions Specify the amount of platelets in blood. A. 3,9-5,5 x 10 9/l B. 10,0-30,0 x 10 9/l C. 4,0-9,0 x 10 9/l D. 6,0-8,0 x 10 9/l E. *200-300 x 10 9/l What is the Main function of platelets? A. Protective B. Gases transport C. Immune D. Phagocytosis E. *Blood clotting Shape of blood platelet: A. Round B. Oval C. Segmented D. With pseudopodies E. *Flat with small spines Which zones are present in platelet: A. Body and spines B. Inner and superficial C. Active and passive D. Membranebounded and membraneless E. *Granulomere and hyalomere Which matters are present in granules of platelet? A. Lisozyme B. Hb C. Histamine, heparin D. Arginin E. *Tromboplastin, protrombin 616. Why does blood has fluid consistency? A. Has a lot of plasma B. Plasma contains salts C. Has different cells D. Is actively renewing E. *It has no fibers 617. Increase of abnormal-shaped erythrocytes amount in peripheral blood over 20% A. Erythropenia B. Anemia C. Anisocytosis D. Erythrocytosis E. *Poikylocytosis 618. Anisocytosis of peripheral blood means: A. Increase of abnormal-shaped erythrocytes amount over 20% B. Increase of erythrocytes amount in peripheral blood C. Decrease of erythrocytes amount in peripheral blood D. Hb amount increase E. *Increase of abnormal-sized erythrocytes in peripheral blood over 25% 619. Increase of abnormal-sized erythrocytes amount in peripheral blood over 25% A. Erythrocytosis B. Erythropenia C. Anemia D. Poikylocytosis E. *Anisocytosis 620. Poikylocytosis of peripheral blood means: A. Increase of erythrocytes amount in peripheral blood B. Decrease of erythrocytes amount in peripheral blood C. Increase of abnormal-sized erythrocytes in peripheral blood over 25% D. Hb amount increase E. *Increase of abnormal-shaped erythrocytes amount over 20% 621. What is normal size of erythrocyte in peripheral blood? A. 6-7 mkm B. 7-9 mkm C. 8-9 mkm D. 8,1-8,9 mkm E. *7,1-7,9 mkm 622. Decrease of erythrocytes amount in peripheral blood A. Anemia B. Anisocytosis C. Poikylocytosis D. Erythrocytosis E. *Erythropenia 623. What is the name of normal-sized erythrocyte in peripheral blood? A. B. C. D. E. Microcyte Macrocyte Planocyte Echinocyte *Normocyte 624. What is the name of large erythrocyte in peripheral blood (over 8 mkm)? A. Microcyte B. Normocyte C. Planocyte D. Echinocyte E. *Macrocyte 625. What is the name of small erythrocyte in peripheral blood (less than 7 mkm)? A. Normocyte B. Macrocyte C. Planocyte D. Echinocyte E. *Microcyte 626. Normal-sized erythrocytes constitute in peripheral blood A. 80 % B. 60% C. 55% D. 90% E. *75% 627. Normal-shaped erythrocytes constitute in peripheral blood A. 75 % B. 90% C. 45% D. 60% E. *80% 628. Speed of male blood sedimentation: A. 1-2 mm/hour B. 7-10 mm/hour C. 10-20 mm/hour D. 2-12 mm/hour E. *2-7 mm/hour 629. Speed of female blood sedimentation: A. 7-10 mm/hour B. 10-20 mm/hour C. 2-7 mm/hour D. 1-2 mm/hour E. *2-12 mm/hour 630. What does speed of blood sedimentation depend on? A. Platelets amount B. Basophils amount C. Erythrocytes amount D. Leucocytes amount 631. 632. 633. 634. 635. 636. 637. 638. E. *Viscosity of plasma Increase of leucocytes in peripheral blood: A. Leucopenia B. Eosinophilia C. Basophilia D. Erythrocytosis E. *Leucocytosis Decrease of leucocytes in peripheral blood: A. Leucocytosis B. Eosinophilia C. Basophilia D. Erythrocytosis E. *Leucopenia Increase of monocytes in peripheral blood: A. Leucocytosis B. Leucopenia C. Eosinophilia D. Basophilia E. *Monocytosis Decrease of monocytes in peripheral blood: A. Leucopenia B. Lymphopenia C. Eosinophilia D. Basophilia E. *Monocytopenia Increase of lymphocytes in peripheral blood: A. Leucocytosis B. Eosinophilia C. Basophilia D. Erythrocytosis E. *Lymphocytosis Decrease of lymphocytes in peripheral blood: A. Leucopenia B. Eosinophilia C. Basophilia D. Erythropenia E. *Lymphopenia Increase of neutrophils in peripheral blood: A. Leucopenia B. Eosinophilia C. Basophilia D. Erythrocytosis E. *Neutrophilia Decrease of neutrophils in peripheral blood: A. Leucocytosis B. Eosinophilia C. Basophilia 639. 640. 641. 642. 643. 644. 645. 646. D. Erythrocytosis E. *Neutropenia Increase of juvenile and band neutrophils in peripheral blood: A. Leucopenia B. Eosinophilia C. Basophilia D. Leucocytosis E. *Left-shift of leucogram Prominent increase of segmented neutrophils in peripheral blood: A. Leucopenia B. Leucocytosis C. Eosinophilia D. Basophilia E. *Right-shift of leucogram Increase of basophils in peripheral blood: A. Leucocytosis B. Leucopenia C. Eosinophilia D. Erythrocytosis E. *Basophilia Increase of eosinophils in peripheral blood: A. Leucocytosis B. Leucopenia C. Basophilia D. Erythrocytosis E. *Eosinophilia Increase of platelets in peripheral blood: A. Leucocytosis B. Eosinophilia C. Basophilia D. Erythrocytosis E. *Trombocytosis Decrease of platelets in peripheral blood: A. Leucopenia B. Leucocytosis C. Eosinophilia D. Basophilia E. *Trombopenia Embryonic hematopoiesis is: A. Physiologic regeneration of blood B. Reparative regeneration of blood C. Blood coagulation D. Blood sedimentation E. *Histogenesis of blood Postembryonic hematopoiesis is: A. Histogenesis of blood B. Reparative regeneration of blood 647. 648. 649. 650. 651. 652. 653. 654. C. Blood coagulation D. Blood sedimentation E. *Physiologic regeneration of blood Primary hematocytoblast originate: A. In ectoderm B. In endoderm C. In mesoderm D. In notochord E. *In the wall of yolk sac Name the process of erythrocytes development. A. Granulocytopoiesis B. Agranulocytopoiesis C. Lymphocytopoiesis D. Trombocytopoiesis E. *Erythrocytopoiesis Name the process of leucocytes development. A. Trombocytopoiesis B. Granulocytopoiesis C. Agranulocytopoiesis D. Lymphocytopoiesis E. *Leucocytopoiesis Name the process of platelets development. A. Granulocytopoiesis B. Agranulocytopoiesis C. Lymphocytopoiesis D. Erythrocytopoiesis E. *Trombocytopoiesis Embryonic source of blood development: A. Ectoderm B. Endoderm C. Mesoderm D. Notochord E. *Mesenchyme Which cell gives rise to different blood cells? A. Unipotential colony forming cell B. Blast cell C. Differentiating cell D. Mesenchymal cell E. *Hemopoietic stem cell How many classes does differon of blood include? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. *6 Which cells constitute II class of blood differon? A. Blasts B. C. D. E. 655. 656. 657. 658. 659. 660. 661. 662. Colony forming unipotential cells Maturing cells Mature cells *Hemistem cells Which cells constitute III class of blood differon? A. Hemistem cells B. Blasts C. Maturing cells D. Mature cells E. *Colony forming unipotential cells Which cells constitute IV class of blood differon? A. Hemistem cells B. Colony forming unipotential cells C. Maturing cells D. Mature cells E. *Blasts Which cells constitute V class of blood differon? A. Blasts B. Colony forming unipotential cells C. Hemistem cells D. Mature cells E. *Maturing cells Which cells constitute VI class of blood differon? A. Blasts B. Colony forming unipotential cells C. Maturing cells D. Hemistem cells E. *Mature blood cells How does blood stem cell look-like? A. As erythroblast B. As monocyte C. As platelet D. As neutrophil E. *As small lymphocyte Connective tissues belongs to: A. special tissues B. lining tissues C. contractile tissues D. specific tissues E. *general tissues Origin of connective tissues: A. Ectoderm B. Endoderm C. Mesoderm D. Notochord E. *Mesenchyme Main types of connective tissues: A. B. C. D. E. 663. 664. 665. 666. 667. 668. 669. Fibrous and special Loose and dense Chondroid and bony Reticular and adipose *Proper and skeletal Types of fibrous connective tissues: A. Proper and skeletal B. Fibrous and special C. Chondroid and bony D. Reticular and adipose E. *Loose and dense Connective tissues with special properties: A. Proper and skeletal B. Fibrous and special C. Loose and dense D. Chondroid and bony E. *Reticular and adipose Connective tissues with special properties: A. Proper and skeletal B. Fibrous and special C. Loose and dense D. Chondroid and bony E. *Mucous and pigmental Differon of connective tissue includes: A. Plasma cell, fibroblast and fibrocyte B. Histiocyte, fibroblast and fibrocyte C. Must cell, fibroblast and fibrocyte D. Stem cell, hemistem cell, must cell E. *Stem cell, hemistem cell, fibroblast and fibrocyte Main cells of connective tissue: A. Must cells B. Pigmental cells C. Histiocytes D. Plasma cells E. *Fibroblast, fibrocyte Migrating cells of connective tissue: A. Pigmental cells B. Fibroblasts C. Fibrocytes D. Hemistem cells E. *Histiocytes Migrating cells of connective tissue: A. Pigmental cells B. Fibroblasts C. Fibrocytes D. Hemistem cells E. *Must cells 670. 671. 672. 673. 674. 675. 676. 677. Migrating cells of connective tissue: A. Fibroblast B. Fibrocyte C. Histiocyte D. Pigmental E. *Plasma cells Fibrocytes main function is: A. Antibodies synthesis B. Thermoregulation C. Phagocytosis D. Histamine synthesis E. *Structural Fibroblasts main function is: A. Phagocytosis B. Antibodies synthesis C. Thermoregulation D. Histamine synthesis E. *Synthesis of intercellular substance compounds Fibroblasts cytoplasm particularly has: A. a lot of lysosomes B. basophilic granules C. well developed smooth endoplasmic reticulum D. well developed mytochondria E. *well developed rough endoplasmic reticulum What does intercellular substance of connective tissue consist of? A. Elastic fibers B. Collagen fibers C. Capillaries D. Reticular fibers E. *Ground substance and fibers Intercellular substance of connective tissue includes: A. Reticular fibers B. Collagen fibers C. Bandles of fibers D. Mesh of fibers E. *Ground substance and fibers Which cells of connective tissue are producing collagen fibers? A. Plasma cells B. Melanocytes C. Reticular cells D. Macrophages E. *Fibroblasts Which cells of connective tissue are producing elastic fibers? A. Plasma cells B. Melanocytes C. Reticular cells D. Macrophages E. *Fibroblasts 678. Which connective tissue cells are mainly producing intercellular substance components? A. Plasma cells B. Melanocytes C. Reticular cells D. Macrophages E. *Fibroblasts 679. Plasma cell structural peculiarity: A. Presence of numerous mitochondria B. Well developed agranular endoplasmic reticulum C. Few mitochondria in cytoplasm D. A lot of lysosomes and inclusions E. *Well developed granular endoplasmic reticulum 680. Plasma cells main function is: A. Phagocytosis B. Thermoregulation C. Synthesis of intercellular substance compounds D. Histamine synthesis E. *Antibodies synthesis 681. Which connective tissue cell produces antibodies (gamma-globulins)? A. Reticular cell B. Fibrocyte C. Fibroblast D. Macrophage E. *Plasma cell 682. Which cells of connective tissue take part in immune reactions? A. Reticular cells B. Fibrocytes C. Fibroblasts D. Pigmental cells E. *Plasma cells 683. What is the shape of plasma cell in connective tissue? A. Round B. Elongated C. Stellate D. Pyramidal E. *Oval 684. Staiment of plasma cell is: A. Metachromatic B. Oxyphilic C. Neutrophilic D. Polichromatophilic E. *Basophilic 685. Must cells main function is: A. Antibodies synthesis B. Thermoregulation 686. 687. 688. 689. 690. 691. 692. 693. C. Synthesis of intercellular substance compounds D. Phagocytosis E. *Heparin and histamine synthesis Which connective tissue cells contain histamine and heparin? A. Plasma cells B. Reticular cells C. Histiocytes D. Fibroblasts E. *Must cells Must cell cytoplasm has: A. Well developed smooth endoplasmic reticulum B. Well developed mytochondria C. A lot of lisosomes D. Well developed rough endoplasmic reticulum E. *Basophilic granules Must cell structural peculiarity: A. Presence of numerous mitochondria B. Well developed granular endoplasmic reticulum C. Well developed agranular endoplasmic reticulum D. A lot of lysosomes and inclusions E. *Presence of basophilic granules in cytoplasm What is the origin of must cells of connective tissue? A. Lymphocytes B. Plasma cells C. Fibroblasts D. Macrophages E. *Basophils of blood What is the origin of histiocytes (macrophages) of connective tissue? A. Endodermal B. From plasma cells C. Ectodermal D. Mesodermal E. *Mesenchymal Histiocytes main function is: A. Antibodies synthesis B. Thermoregulation C. Synthesis of intercellular substance compounds D. Histamine synthesis E. *Phagocytosis Which connective tissue cells have of a lot of lysosomes? A. Plasma cells B. Reticular cells C. Fibrocytes D. Fibroblasts E. *Histiocytes Histiocyte structural peculiarity: A. Presence of numerous mitochondria B. C. D. E. 694. 695. 696. 697. 698. 699. 700. 701. Well developed agranular endoplasmic reticulum Few mitochondria in cytoplasm Well developed granular endoplasmic reticulum *Well developed Golgi complex and a lot of lysosomes A lot of lysosomes are present in the next cells of connective tissue: A. Plasma cells B. Fibrocytes C. Fibroblasts D. Reticular cells E. *Macrophages Which connective tissue cells belong to macrophages? A. Fibrocytes B. Fibroblasts C. Plasma cells D. Reticular cells E. *Histiocytes Sertify the Main cells of adipose tissue. A. Plasma cells B. Melanocytes C. Fibroblasts D. Macrophages E. *Adipocytes Types of adipose tissue. A. Loose and dense B. Pigmental and reticular C. Regular and irregular D. Simple and compound E. *White and brown Lipid inclusions in white adipose tissue: A. Lie around nucleus B. Have yellowish color C. Are arranged in small granules D. Have irregular shape E. *Are arranged in large vacuole Lipid inclusions in brown adipose tissue: A. Are arranged in large vacuole B. Have irregular shape C. Lie around nucleus D. Have yellowish color E. *Are arranged in small granules Main function of white adipose tissue: A. Surrounding B. Thermoregulation C. Supportive D. Lining E. *Protective Main function of brown adipose tissue: A. B. C. D. E. 702. 703. 704. 705. 706. 707. 708. Surrounding Protective Supportive Lining *thermoregulation Special feature of adipocytes of brown adipose tissue. A. Large lipid vacuole B. Lipid inclusions C. Irregular shape D. Nucleus presence E. *Mitochondria have cytochroms Sertify main cell of reticular tissue. A. Plasma cells B. Adipocytes C. Fibroblasts D. Macrophages E. *Reticular cell Sertify the main cell of pigmental tissue. A. Adipocyte B. Fibroblast C. Macrophage D. Plasma cell E. *Melanocyte Which pigment is produced by melanocytes: A. hemoglobin B. myoglobin C. cytochrom D. chlorophyll E. *melanin Melanin belongs to next type of cell inclusions: A. secretory B. excretory C. nutritive D. incretory E. *pigmental Which cells of connective tissue are producing melanin? A. fibroblasts B. must cells C. histiocytes D. adipocytes E. *melanocytes Which cells of connective tissue contain lipid inclusions? A. melanocytes B. fibroblasts C. must cells D. histiocytes E. *adipocytes 709. Which cells of connective tissue contain large vacuole of lipid inclusions? A. melanocytes B. fibroblasts C. must cells D. brown adipocytes E. *white adipocytes 710. Which cells of connective tissue contain small vacuoles of lipid inclusions? A. melanocytes B. fibroblasts C. white adipocytes D. histiocytes E. *brown adipocytes 711. Dense connective tissue mainly has next fibers: A. Coiled B. Irregular C. Elastic D. Reticular E. *Collagen 712. Reticular tissue mainly has next fibers: A. Collagen B. Elastic C. Coiled D. Irregular E. *Reticular 713. Main characteristic feature of collagen fiber: A. Delicate B. Thin and branched C. Thick and branched D. Thin and coiled E. *Thick and strong 714. Main characteristic feature of elastic fiber: A. Delicate B. Thick and strong C. Thick and branched D. Thin and coiled E. *Thin and branched 715. Main characteristic feature of reticular fiber: A. Delicate B. Thick and strong C. Thick and branched D. Thin and branched E. *Thin branched and strong 716. Embryonic source of chondroid tissue formation: A. ectoderm B. mesoderm 717. 718. 719. 720. 721. 722. 723. 724. C. entoderm D. somit E. *mesenchyme Chondroid tissue is classified due to: A. place in organism B. cell structure C. cells location D. ground substance E. *peculiarities of intercellular substance Which cells belong to the chondroid tissue? A. osteocytes, odontocytes B. osteocytes, chondrocytes C. chondroclasts, fibroblasts D. osteocytes, osteoclasts, chondroblasts E. *chondroblasts, chondrocytes Which tissue has no blood vessels? A. Sceletal muscular B. Smooth muscular C. Nervous D. Bony tissue E. *Chondroid Most specific feature of chondroid tissue: A. has ground substance B. has fibers C. has blood vessels D. has a lot of salts E. *has no blood vessels Differon of chondroid tissue includes: A. osteocytes, odontocytes B. osteocytes, chondrocytes C. chondroclasts, fibroblasts D. osteocytes, osteoclasts, chondroblasts E. *stem cell, hemistem cells, chondroblasts, chondrocytes Cartillage is nourished by: A. proper vessels B. vessels of bones C. its own cells D. lymphatics E. *by diffusion Main cells of chondroid tissue: A. adipocytes B. monocytes C. osteocytes D. fibroblasts E. *chondrocytes Structural compounds of chondroid tissue A. fibroblasts B. C. D. E. chondroblasts, chondromucoid osteocytes chondrine fibers collagen, elastic fibers and chondromucoid *chondrocytes, chondroblasts, intercellular substance 725. Intercellular substance of chondroid tissue has: A. fibroblasts, and chondromucoid B. chondrocytes and fibers C. chondroblasts, chondromucoid D. reticular fibers and chondromucoid E. *chondromucoid and chondrine fibers 726. Surface of joints is covered with: A. bony tissue B. proper connective tissue C. epithelial tissue D. elastic cartilage E. *hyaline cartilage 727. Chondrocytes in cartilage are arranged in: A. cords B. lie alone C. in islets D. follicles E. *isogenous groups 728. Chondroblasts of perychondrium functions are the next: A. protective B. trophic C. glycogen deposition D. resorption of cartilage E. *appositional growth 729. Elasticity of chondroid tissue depends on: A. perichondrium B. cells location C. peculiarities of chondromucoid D. collagen presence E. *elastic fibers 730. Chondroblasts function in cartilage: A. protective B. trophic C. glycogen deposition D. resorption of cartilage E. *intercellular substance production 731. Cells of chondroid tissue have well developed rough endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi body. What is their function? A. protective B. trophic C. glycogen deposition D. resorption of cartilage E. *intercellular substance production 732. Layers of perichondrium: A. cellular and noncellular B. amorphic and cellular C. fibrous and amorphic D. noncellular and fibrous E. *fibrous and cellular 733. Main function of young cells in perychondrium: A. protective B. nutritive C. glycogen deposition D. resorption of cartilage E. *appositional growth 734. Hyalin cartilage mainly has: A. elastic fibers B. reticular fibers C. brounched fibers D. thin fibers E. *collagen fibers 735. In histolocic specimen tissue with isogenous groups of cells in the intercellular substance and invisible fibers is seen . What is this tissue? A. elastic cartilage B. fibrocartilage C. epithelial tissue D. bony tissue E. *hyaline cartilage 736. In histolocic specimen tissue with isogenous groups of cells and thick bandles of fibers in the intercellular substance is seen. What is this tissue? A. hyaline cartilage B. elastic cartilage C. epithelial tissue D. bony tissue E. *fibrocartilage 737. Histolocic specimen is stained with orcein. Tissue with isogenous groups of cells and brownish fibers in the intercellular substance is seen. What is this tissue? A. hyaline cartilage B. fibrocartilage C. epithelial tissue D. bony tissue E. *elastic cartilage 738. Hyaline cartilage location: A. auricle B. intervertebral disc C. small bronchi D. bronchioles E. *trachea 739. Special feature of hyaline cartilage over joint surface: A. B. C. D. E. blood vessels isogenous groups of cells no intercellular substance absence of periostium *absence of perichondrium 740. Age changes of hyaline cartilage: A. increase of cells amount B. increase of chondromucoid hydrophily C. appearance of hemocapillaries D. intercellular substance distruction E. *deposition of Са salts in intercellular substance 741. Which skeletal tissue may depose Ca salts? A. elastic cartilage fibers B. fibrous cartilage C. loose connective tissue D. dense connective tissue E. *hyaline cartilage 742. What is main difference between hyaline and elastic cartilage? A. elastic one has collagen fibers B. elastic one has perichondrium C. cells are arranged in groups. D. well prominent ground substance E. *elastic one has elastic fibers 743. Elastic cartilage is stained with orcein, hyaline one – with hematoxylin and eosin. How to distinguish them? A. by isogenous groups of cells B. by perichondrium C. by ground substance D. by metaepyphiseal plate E. *by elastic fibers 744. Elastic cartilage mainly has: A. collagen fibers B. reticular fibers C. brounched fibers D. thin fibers E. *elastic fibers 745. Elastic cartilage location: A. trachea B. intervertebral disc C. small bronchi D. bronchioles E. *auricle 746. Chondrocytes in elastic cartilage are arranged in: A. cords B. lie alone C. in islets D. follicles E. *isogenous groups 747. Fibro-cartilage is located in: A. In vertebra B. In trachea C. In joints D. Between tendons E. *Intervertebral discs 748. Which fibers predominate in fibro-cartilage? A. oxythalan B. elaynin C. elastic D. reticular E. *collagen 749. Which type of chondroid tissue growth takes place in regeneration of joints? A. interstitial B. owergrowth C. appositional and interstitial D. slow growth E. *appositional 750. Regeneration of chondroid tissue mainly occurs by: A. cells of young cartilage B. outer layer of perichondrium C. cells of isogenous groups D. cells from blood E. *cells of inner layer of perichondrium 751. Restriction of movements in joints is connected with such changes of cartilage: A. increase of isogenous groups B. increase of cells amount C. perichondrium thickening D. increase of ground substance hydrophily E. *Ca salts deposition 752. Cartilage is nourished by: A. blood vessels in cartilage B. vessels of underlying bones C. cells activity D. lymph vessels in cartilage E. *diffusion from vessels of perichondrium 753. Elastic cartilage Main feature: A. blood vessels in cartilage B. solidity C. strength D. transparency E. *elasticity 754. Fibro-cartilage Main feature: A. blood vessels in cartilage B. C. D. E. 755. 756. 757. 758. 759. 760. 761. 762. elasticity strength transparency *solidity Main types of bony tissue: A. compact and circular B. compact and spongy C. trabecular and spongy D. fibrous and lattice E. *fibrous and lamellar Structural unit of lamellar tubular bone: A. bony lamella B. osteoclasts C. osteoblasts D. osteocytes E. *osteon Which changes may occur in bone in notable destruction of periosteum? A. innervation disorders B. calcinations disorders C. distruction of proteins D. no changes E. *disorders of nourishment Metaepiphysial plate function: A. periosteum production B. hemopoiesis C. osteoblasts development D. fibroblasts development E. *growth and regeneration of bone Changes of bony tissue in the case of periosteum destruction: A. regeneration disorders B. calcination disorders C. innervation disorders D. no changes E. *disorders of nourishment Which cells of bony tissue are calcitonin-sensitive? A. osteocytes B. osteoclasts C. fibroblasts D. chondroblasts E. *osteoblasts Bones growth in length depends on: A. osteoblasts B. osteoclasts C. chondrocytes D. osteocytes E. *chondroblasts of metaepiphiseal plate Reparative regeneration of bones is promoted by: A. B. C. D. E. 763. 764. 765. 766. 767. 768. 769. epiphysis diaphysis outer layer of general lamellas inner layer of general lamellas *periosteum Which cells of bony tissue have a lot of lysosomes? A. osteocytes B. osteoblasts C. fibroblasts D. chondroblasts E. *osteoclasts Which cells of bony tissue are responsible for osteoporosis? A. osteocytes B. osteoblasts C. fibroblasts D. chondroblasts E. *osteoclasts Which cells of bony tissue have a lot of nuclei? A. osteocytes B. osteoblasts C. fibroblasts D. chondroblasts E. *osteoclasts Main types of bony tissue: A. Trabecular and spongy B. Compact and circular C. Compact and trabecular D. Fibrous and spongy E. *Lamellar and fibrous Main differences between lamellar and fibrous bony tissue: A. different cells B. source of origin C. chemical composition of intercellular substance D. cells disposition E. *intercellular substance structural organisation Embryonic source of bony tissue formation A. ectoderm B. coelomic mesoderm C. entoderm D. nephrogonotom E. *sclerotome Bony tissue is classified due to: A. place in organism B. cell structure C. cells location D. ground substance E. *peculiarities of intercellular substance 770. 771. 772. 773. 774. 775. 776. 777. Which cells belong to the bony tissue? A. osteocytes, odontocytes B. osteocytes, chondrocytes C. chondroblasts, chondrocytes D. chondroclasts, fibroblasts E. *osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts Differon of bony tissue includes: A. osteocytes, chondrocytes B. chondroblasts, chondrocytes C. osteocytes, fibroblasts D. osteocytes, osteoclasts E. *stem cell, hemistem cells, osteocytes, osteoblasts Bony tissue is nutrited by: A. ground substance B. by diffusion C. own cells D. lymphatics E. *vessels of bones Main cells of bony tissue: A. adipocytes B. chondrocytes C. monocytes D. fibroblasts E. *osteocytes Structural compounds of bony tissue A. fibroblasts, osteocytes B. osteoblasts, osteocytes, chondromucoid C. chondrine fibers D. collagen, elastic fibers and osteomucoid E. *osteoblasts, osteocytes, intercellular substance Intercellular substance of bony tissue has: A. osteoblasts and osteomucoid B. osteocytes and fibers C. chondroblasts, chondromucoid D. reticular fibers and osteomucoid E. *osteomucoid and ossein fibers Solidity of bony tissue depends on: A. periosteum B. cells location C. fibers location D. collagen presence E. *Ca salts presence Osteoblasts function in bony tissue: A. protective B. trophic C. glycogen deposition D. resorption of cartilage 778. 779. 780. 781. 782. 783. 784. 785. E. *intercellular substance production Osteoclasts function in bony tissue: A. protective B. trophic C. intercellular substance production D. glycogen deposition E. *resorption of bony tissue Criterion of lamellar bony tissue division in compact and spongy: A. intercellular substance compounds correlations B. cells and intercellular substance correlations C. salts amount in the intercellular substance D. intercellular substance compounds disposition E. *bony lamellas disposition Fibrous bony tissue disposition: A. in sceleton B. bones of hands and feet C. in ribs D. in breast bone E. *tendons junction with bones Thickness of tubular bone depends on: A. diaphysis B. epiphysis C. endosteum D. metaepiphysial plate E. *periosteum Length of tubular bone depends on: A. diaphysis B. periosteum C. epiphysis D. endosteum E. *metaepiphysial plate Osteoclasts originate from: A. osteoblasts B. osteocytes C. fibroblasts D. chondroblasts E. *monocytes Structural compounds of bony tissue osteoid: A. bony matrix without fibers B. matrix around osteoblast C. hydroxiappatites connected with collagen fibers D. groups of cells E. *noncalcified bony matrix Lamellar bones mainly consist of: A. collagen fibers, osteoblasts B. hydroxiappatites connected with collagen fibers C. osteoblasts, osteoclasts, ossein 786. 787. 788. 789. 790. 791. 792. 793. D. octeons, periosteum E. *bony lamellas, osteocytes Bony lamellas in spongy bone are arranged: A. Parallely B. In cords C. In follicles D. In groups E. *Irregularly Morphofunctional unit of compact bone: A. osteocyte B. osteoblast C. osteoclast D. bony lamella E. *osteon Lamellar bony tissue structural compounds: A. collagen fibers, osteoblasts, osteocytes B. osteoblasts, osteoclasts, ossein fibers C. osteons D. osteocytes ,osteoclasts E. *osteocytes, bony lamellas Which tissue promotes regeneration of bone after the fracture? A. loose connective tissue B. reticular tissue C. lamellar bony tissue D. dense regular tissue E. *fibrous bony tissue What does bone growth in length depend on? A. periosteum B. bony lamella C. osteon D. inner layer of general lamellas E. *metaepiphysial plate What does bone thickness depend on? A. bony lamella B. osteon C. metaepiphysial plate D. inner layer of general lamellas E. *periosteum What is bony lamela? A. Bandle of irregular arranged fibers B. Osteocyte with nearest fibers C. Group of osteoblasts D. Cell of Haversial canal E. *Plate of parallely arranged fibers impregnated with Ca salts Which salts are mainly present in bony tissue? A. Na B. К 794. 795. 796. 797. 798. 799. 800. 801. C. Fe D. F E. *Ca Functional peculiarity of muscular tissues: A. Phagocytosis B. Presence of reticular fibers C. Energy production D. Protein synthesis E. *Ability to contractions Main structural peculiarity of muscular tissues: A. Macrophages B. Presence of reticular fibers C. Myoglobin D. Glycogen E. *Myofibrils Morphological types of muscular tissues: A. Smooth and skeletal B. Contractile and noncontractile C. Skeletal and cardiac D. Smooth and cardiac E. *Smooth, striated skeletal and cardiac Embryonic source of smooth muscular tissue A. ectoderm B. entoderm C. nerve tissue D. epithelial tissue E. *mesenchyme Structural unit of smooth muscular tissue A. Satellite cell B. Striated myocyte C. Myofiber D. Cardiomyocyte E. *Smooth myocyte Structural unit of skeletal muscular tissue: A. Smooth myocyte B. Satellite cell C. Striated myocyte D. Cardiomyocyte E. *Myofiber Embryonic source of cardiac muscular tissue A. ectoderm B. entoderm C. myotom of somit D. epithelial tissue E. *myoepicardial plate Structural unit of cardiac muscular tissue: A. Smooth myocyte B. C. D. E. 802. 803. 804. 805. 806. 807. 808. 809. Satellite cell Striated myocyte Myofiber *Cardiomyocyte Special organelles of myofiber: A. Cilia B. Flagella C. Neurofibrils D. Tonofibrils E. *Myofibrils Special organelles of smooth myocyte: A. Neurofibrils B. Tonofibrils C. Cilia D. Flagella E. *Myofibrils Special organelles of cardiomyocyte: A. Neurofibrils B. Tonofibrils C. Cilia D. Flagella E. *Myofibrils Cell membrane of myofiber provides: A. Reception B. Contractions C. Actin synthesis D. Myosin synthesis E. *Nerve impulse passage Physiologic regeneration of cardiac muscular tissue: A. By smooth myocytes division B. By satellite cells division C. By actin and myosin D. By connective tissue E. *Intracellular regeneration Myofiber of myocardium consists of: A. Skeletal myofibers B. Smooth myocytes C. Satellite cells D. Fibroblasts E. *Cardiac myocytes What does intercalated disc connect? A. Two myofibers B. Two smooth myocytes C. Myocyte and nerve fiber D. Myofiber and nerve fiber E. *Two nearest cardiomyocytes What does anastomosis connect in myocardium? A. B. C. D. E. 810. 811. 812. 813. 814. 815. 816. Two nearest cardiomyocytes Two smooth myocytes Myocyte and nerve fiber Myofiber and nerve fiber *Two myofibers Morphological types of muscular tissue: A. One B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. *2 Endomisium consists of: A. elastic fibers B. endoplasmic reticulum C. collagen fibers D. endotendinium E. *collagen and reticular fibers Physiologic regeneration of smooth muscular tissue: A. By satellite cells division B. Intracellular regeneration C. By actin and myosin D. By connective tissue E. *By smooth myocytes division Physiologic regeneration of skeletal muscular tissue: A. By actin and myosin B. By connective tissue C. By smooth myocytes division D. Intracellular regeneration E. *By satellite cells division Which proteins does myofibril mainly consist of? A. actin and filagrin B. keratin and elastin C. collagen and elastin D. myosin and elastin E. *actin and myosin What is intercalated disc? A. sarcomeres junction B. two myofibers junction C. telophragm D. mesophragm E. *junction of two cardiomyocytes Contractile apparatus of cardiac muscular tissue consists of: A. thin filaments B. smooth myofibrilles C. thock filaments D. cardiomyocytes E. *striated myofibrils 817. Main functional peculiarity of muscular tissues: A. mechanical solidity B. elasticity C. rigidity D. ability for amortization E. *ability for contractions 818. Structural unit of striated myofibril: A. A disc B. I disc C. myofilament D. telophragm E. *sarcomere 819. Myosin filaments are damaged in experiment. Which structure of sarcomere will change most of all? A. disc І B. H line C. mesophragm D. telophragm E. *A disc 820. Smooth muscular tissue contractions are: A. voluntary B. fast C. rapid D. regular E. *involuntary 821. Sceletal muscular tissue contractions are: A. tonic B. slow C. irregular D. regular E. *voluntary 822. Myofibril consists of: A. Collagen B. Ellastin C. Reticulin D. Tropocollagen E. *Actin and myosin 823. Nerve tissue belongs to: A. general tissues B. skeletal tissues C. lining tissues D. contractile tissues E. *special tissues 824. Main morphofunctional component of nerve tissue: A. nerve fiber B. glial cell C. macrophages 825. 826. 827. 828. 829. 830. 831. 832. D. ganglion E. *nerve cell Embryonic source of nerve tissue: A. endoderm B. mesoderm C. mesenchyme D. somit E. *ectoderm Neural tube layers: A. ependymal and mantial B. mantial and marginal C. mesenchymal, and mantial D. ependymal and mesenchymal, E. *ependymal, mantial and marginal Multipolar nerve cells originate from: A. neural tube ependymal layer B. spongioblasts of neural tube mantial layer C. neural tube marginal layer D. microglial cells E. *neuroblasts of neural tube mantial layer Ependymal cells originate from: A. neuroblasts of neural tube mantial layer B. spongioblasts of neural tube mantial layer C. neural tube marginal layer D. microglial cells E. *neural tube ependymal layer Astrocytes originate from: A. neural tube ependymal layer B. neuroblasts of neural tube mantial layer C. neural tube marginal layer D. microglial cells E. *spongioblasts of neural tube mantial layer Microglial cells originate from: A. neural tube ependymal layer B. neuroblasts of neural tube mantial layer C. spongioblasts of neural tube mantial layer D. neural tube marginal layer E. *monocytes Nerve tissue consists of: A. nerve cells B. glial cells C. nerve fibers D. macrophages E. *nerve and glial cells Perikaryon of nerve cell means: A. long nerve process B. short nerve process 833. 834. 835. 836. 837. 838. 839. 840. C. branched nerve process D. nonbranched nerve process E. *nerve cell body Axon of nerve cell means: A. long nerve process B. short nerve process C. branched nerve process D. nerve cell body E. *nonbranched nerve process Dendrite of nerve cell means: A. long nerve process B. short nerve process C. nerve cell body D. nonbranched nerve process E. *branched nerve process Nerve cell has next processes: A. axons B. dendrites C. short nerve process D. long nerve process E. *axon and dendrites Location of ependymoblasts in neural tube: A. neural tube mantial layer B. neural tube marginal layer C. neural tube superficial layer D. neural tube middle layer E. *neural tube ependymal layer Location of neurooblasts in neural tube: A. neural tube ependymal layer B. neural tube marginal layer C. neural tube superficial layer D. neural tube inner layer E. *neural tube mantial layer Location of spongioblasts in neural tube: A. neural tube ependymal layer B. neural tube marginal layer C. neural tube superficial layer D. neural tube inner layer E. *neural tube mantial layer Predominant location of fibers in neural tube: A. neural tube ependymal layer B. neural tube mantial layer C. neural tube superficial layer D. neural tube middle layer E. *neural tube marginal layer How many processes are there in unipolar neurons? A. Two B. C. D. E. 841. 842. 843. 844. 845. 846. 847. 848. Many No one Two closely disposed *One How many processes are there in multipolar neurons? A. One B. Two C. None D. Two closely disposed E. *Many How many processes are there in pseudounipolar neurons? A. One B. Two C. Many D. No one E. *Two closely disposed Main feature of axon. A. Branched B. Two C. Ramifying D. Irregular-shaped E. *Nonbranched How many axons are there in multipolar neurons? A. Two B. Many C. None D. Two closely disposed E. *One How many axons are there in bipolar neurons? A. Two B. Many C. No one D. Two closely disposed E. *One How many axons are there in unipolar neurons? A. Two B. Many C. None D. Two closely disposed E. *One How many axons are there in pseudounipolar neurons? A. Two B. Many C. None D. Two closely disposed E. *One Main feature of dendrite A. B. C. D. E. 849. 850. 851. 852. 853. 854. 855. One Nonbranched Thin Irregular-shaped *Branched Morphological classification of nerve cells is based on: A. nuclei size B. perikaryon shape C. RER localization D. shape of axon E. *processes amount Chromatophilic substance of nerve cell is: A. agranular endoplasmic reticulum B. lysosomes C. Golgy body D. phagosomes E. *granular endoplasmic reticulum Chromatophilic substance in nerve cells is disposed: A. in perikaryon B. in processes C. in axons D. in dendrites E. *in perikaryon and dendrites Neurofibrilles in nerve cells are disposed: A. in axons and perikaryon B. in dendrites and perikaryon C. in perikaryon D. in axons E. *in perikaryon and processes Ultrastructural difference of axon and dendrite: A. Mitochondria B. Ribosomes C. Lysosomes D. Cell membrane E. *Presence of chromatophilic substance Which general organell is absent in nerve cell? A. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum B. Granular endoplasmic reticulum C. Lysosome D. Golgy body E. *Cell center Most numerous type of nerve cells in human body: A. Unipolar B. Bipolar C. Pseudounipolar D. Trepolar E. *Multipolar 856. Most typical shape of nerve cells in human body: A. Oval B. Triangular C. Round D. Rectangular E. *Irregular with processes 857. Special organelles of nerve cell: A. Tonofibrilles B. Myofibrilles C. Cilia D. Flagella E. *Neurofibrils 858. Special structure of nerve cell: A. Tonofibrils B. Myofibrils C. Mitochondria D. Lysosomes E. Nissle substance 859. Which structure of neuron conducts the impulse? A. Nissle’s bodies B. Golgy body C. Mitochondria D. Neurofibrilles E. *Plasmalemma 860. Which organelles promote some matters transport in processes of nerve cells? A. neurolemma B. Golgi body C. tonofibrils D. microvesicles E. *neurofibrils and neurotubuli 861. Which nerve cell contains secretory granules? A. bipolar B. multipolar C. pseudounipolar D. efferent E. *neurosecretory 862. Types of astrocytes: A. large and small B. stellate and fusiform C. active and passive D. central and peripheral E. *fibrous and protoplasmic 863. Protoplasmic astrocytes are mainly disposed in: A. white matter of brain and spinal cord B. nerve endings C. nerve fibers 864. 865. 866. 867. 868. 869. 870. 871. D. nerve ganglia E. *grey matter of brain and spinal cord Fibrous astrocytes are mainly disposed in: A. grey matter of brain and spinal cord B. nerve endings C. nerve fibers D. nerve ganglia E. *white matter of brain and spinal cord Ependymal cells are disposed in: A. nerve endings B. nerve fibers C. nerve ganglia D. white matter of brain and spinal cord E. *brain ventricles and spinal channel Mantial cells are disposed in: A. grey matter of brain and spinal cord B. white matter of brain and spinal cord C. nerve endings D. nerve fibers E. *dorsal root ganglia Ependymal cell belongs to: A. Glial macrophages B. Multipolar nerve cells C. Unipolar nerve cells D. Bipolar nerve cells E. *Macroglial cells Protoplasmic astrocytes belong to: A. Glial macrophages B. Multipolar nerve cells C. Unipolar nerve cells D. Bipolar nerve cells E. *Macroglial cells Fibrous astrocytes belong to: A. Glial macrophages B. Multipolar nerve cells C. Unipolar nerve cells D. Bipolar nerve cells E. *Macroglial cells Schwann cell belongs to: A. Multipolar nerve cells B. Unipolar nerve cells C. Bipolar nerve cells D. Glial macrophages E. *Oligodedrocytes Schwann cells are disposed in: A. brain ventricles and spinal channel B. white matter of brain and spinal cord 872. 873. 874. 875. 876. 877. 878. 879. C. nerve endings D. nerve ganglia E. *nerve fibers Mantial satellite cells are disposed in: A. brain ventricles and spinal channel B. white matter of brain and spinal cord C. nerve endings D. nerve fibers E. *dorsal root ganglia Mantial cells belong to: A. Multipolar nerve cells B. Unipolar nerve cells C. Bipolar nerve cells D. Macroglial cells E. *Oligodendrocytes Microglial cells belong to: A. Macroglial cells B. Multipolar nerve cells C. Unipolar nerve cells D. Bipolar nerve cells E. *Glial macrophages Nerve cells are interconnecting by: A. Interdigital junctions B. Desmosomes C. Nexuses D. Intercalated discs E. *Synapses Type of nerve tissue physiologic regeneration: A. By nerve cell division B. By glial cell division C. By connective tissue D. By macroglial cells E. *Intracellular Nerve fiber mainly consists of: A. Multipolar nerve cells B. Nerve cell process and glial macrophages C. Nerve cell process and astrocytes D. Astrocytes and glial macrophages E. *Nerve cell process and Schwann cells Axis of nerve fiber consists of: A. nerve cell perikaryon B. neurofibrilles C. Schwann cells D. microglial cells E. *axon or dendrite Histological types of nerve fibers: A. Branched and nonbranched B. C. D. E. 880. 881. 882. 883. 884. 885. 886. 887. Long and short Bipolar and multipolar Unipolar and multipolar Myelinated and nonmyelinated Speed of nerve impulse in unmyelinated fiber: A. 5-120 m/sec B. 5-10 m/sec C. 10-20 m/sec D. 20-200 m/sec E. *1-2 m/sec Speed of nerve impulse in myelinated fiber: A. 1-5 m/sec B. 5-10 m/sec C. 10-20 m/sec D. 20-200 m/sec E. *5-120 m/sec Myelin of nerve fibers mainly consists of: A. proteins B. carbohydrates C. salts D. water E. *lipids Myelin of nerve fibers is produced by: A. nerve cells B. glial macrophages C. astrocytes D. ependymal cells E. *Schwann cells Myelin structure: A. basement membrane of nerve fiber B. glial macrophages C. extension of cell membrane of myelin-forming cell D. bare areas of axon between myelin sheaths E. *spiral of membrane wrapped around an axon Node of Ranvier means: A. basement membrane of nerve fiber B. glial macrophages C. spiral of membrane wrapped around an axon D. extension of cell membrane of myelin-forming cell E. *bare areas of axon devoid of myelin Node of Ranvier function: A. protective B. isolative C. trophic D. source of regeneration E. *promotes rapid conduction of impulse Nerve fiber consists of few axial fibers in one neurolemmocyte. Type of it. A. B. C. D. E. collagen myelinated component simple *nonmyelinated 888. Place of two lemmocytes junction in nerve fiber: A. Schmidt-Lantermann incisure. B. Mesaxon folds C. Myelin sheath D. Deep fold of neurolemma E. *Ranvier node 889. What does axial fiber of nerve fiber consist of? A. Schwann cell B. Mesaxon C. Perineurium D. Axolemma E. *Nerve cell process 890. General types of nerve endings: A. simple and component B. excitatory and inhibiting C. isolative and protective D. myelinated and unmyelinated E. *sensory, motor and synapses 891. Axial fiber of nerve fiber has corpuscles of rough endoplasmic reticulum. What is this process? A. axon B. long C. short D. coiled E. *dendrite 892. Principle component of sensory ending: A. axon B. synaptic cleft C. glial sheath D. capsule E. *dendrite 893. Principle component of motor ending: A. dendrite B. synaptic cleft C. glial sheath D. capsule E. *axon 894. Nerve synapse consists of: A. presynaptic pole and postsynaptic pole B. postsynaptic pole and synaptic cleft C. presynaptic pole and synaptic cleft 895. 896. 897. 898. 899. 900. 901. 902. D. synaptic cleft E. *presynaptic pole, synaptic cleft and postsynaptic pole Functional types of nerve synapses: A. Active and inactive B. Presynaptic and postsynaptic C. Simple and compound D. Alkaline and acidic E. *Excitatory and inhibiting Typical feature of presynaptic pole of synapse: A. Mitochondria B. Receptors C. Vesicles D. Ca E. *Presence of transmitter Typical feature of postsynaptic pole of synapse: A. Transmitter B. Mitochondria C. Vesicles D. Ca E. *Presence of receptors Simple (free) sensory ending consists of: A. axon B. dendrite and glial sheath C. axon and glial sheath D. dendrite, glial sheath and capsule E. *dendrite Nonfree sensory ending consists of: A. axon B. dendrite C. axon and glial sheath D. dendrite, glial sheath and capsule E. *dendrite and glial sheath Encapsulated sensory ending consists of: A. axon B. dendrite C. dendrite and glial sheath D. axon and glial sheath E. *dendrite, glial sheath and capsule Capsule of sensory ending consists of: A. glial sheath B. epithelial tissue C. dendrites D. axon E. *connective tissue Pacinian corpuscle belongs to: A. free sensory endings B. dendrites 903. 904. 905. 906. 907. 908. 909. 910. C. motor endings D. secretory endings E. *encapsulated sensory endings Meissner’s corpuscle belongs to: A. free sensory endings B. dendrites C. motor endings D. secretory endings E. *encapsulated sensory endings Bulb of Krause belongs to: A. free sensory endings B. dendrites C. motor endings D. secretory endings E. *encapsulated sensory endings Pacinian corpuscle detects: A. touch B. pain C. temperature D. taste E. *pressure Meissner’s corpuscle detects: A. pain B. temperature C. pressure D. taste E. *touch Bulb of Krause detects: A. touch B. pain C. pressure D. taste E. *temperature Free nerve ending detects: A. touch B. temperature C. pressure D. taste E. *pain Effector nerve endings include: A. receptors of pain B. temperature receptors C. receptors of pressure D. taste receptors E. *motor and secretory endings Motor nerve ending mainly consists of: A. dendrite and capsule B. C. D. E. 911. 912. 913. 914. 915. 916. 917. dendrite and glial sheath axon and glial sheath dendrite, glial sheath and capsule *axon Motor nerve ending usually is connected with: A. glands B. skin C. connective tissue D. inner organs E. *muscular tissue Types of nerve cells due to their location in reflex arc A. efferent, afferent, associative B. efferent, associative, afferent C. associative, afferent, efferent D. associative, efferent, afferent E. *afferent, associative, efferent Encapsulated nerve ending of skin is of 2 mm in size. Name it. A. Mercel’s corpuscle B. Bulb of Krause C. Meisner’s corpuscle D. Ruffini corpuscle E. *Pacinian corpuscle. Which nerve ending detects cold: A. Meisner’s corpuscle B. Pacinian corpuscle C. Ruffini corpuscle D. Mercel’s corpuscle E. *Bulb of Krause Which nerve ending detects delicate touch? A. Bulb of Krause B. Pacinian corpuscle C. Ruffini corpuscle D. Mercel’s corpuscle E. *Meisner’s corpuscle Mesaxon of nerve fiber means: A. Basement membrane of nerve fiber B. Glial macrophages C. Spiral of membrane wrapped around an axon D. Bare areas of axon between myelin sheaths E. *Extension of cell membrane of myelin-forming cell Schmidt-Lantermann incisures are located: A. In unmyelinated nerve fiber B. In nerve ganglion C. In nerve ending D. In nerve cell E. *In myelinated nerve fibers Real-life situation tasks 1. A chemical factor acted on the cytolemma of the cell. As a result the cell changed its shape. What layer of cytolemma is responsible for this? A. Glycocalyx B. Trilaminar C. Hydrophilic D. Hydrophobic E. *Cortical 2. Cells that are lining digestive tube have microvilli. Some diseases may destroy them. What function of sells will be violated most of all? A. Excretion B. Receptor C. Demarcation D. Division E. *Endocytosis 3. . In an electronic microscope you can see numerous invaginations of the cell's cytolemma and dense structures in the cytoplasm. What process is it? A. Excretion B. Pinocytosis C. Intermembranous digestion D. Clasmatosis E. *Phagocytosis 4. In a histological specimen you can see the nuclei which are stained with haematoxyline (violet coloured). What property of the nuclei does it depend on? A. Oxyphilia B. Eosinophilia C. Metachromasy D. Osmiophilia E. *Basofily 5. In a histological specimen you can see the cytoplasm which is stained with eosine (pink coloured). What property of the cytoplasm does it depend on? A. Eosinophilia B. Metachromasy C. Osmiophilia D. Basophilia E. *Oxyphilia 6. In an electrone micrograph you can see invaginations of the cytolemma and dense structures in the cytoplasm. What process is it? A. Exocytosis B. Pinocytosis C. Cytopempsis D. Clasmatosis E. *Phagocytosis 7. The smear of blood, stained with azur and eosine, contains basofilic leucocytes with violet granules. What property of granules is it? A. Oxyphilia B. Eosinophilia C. Metachromasy D. Osmiophilia E. *Neutrophilia 8. The smear of blood, stained with azur and eosine, contains eosinofilic leucocytes with pink granules. What property of granules is it? A. Neutrophilia B. Metachromasy C. Osmiophilia D. Basofily E. *Oxyphilia 9. The smear of blood, stained with azur and eosine, contains neutrophilic leucocytes with pink and violet granules. What property of granules such staiment provides? A. Oxyphilia B. Basophilia C. Sudanophilia D. Polychromatophilia E. *Neutrophilia 10. Exocrine pancreatocytes, stained with haematoxyline and eosine, contain pink granules. What property of granules such staiment provides? A. Neutrophilia B. Metachromasy C. Osmiophilia D. Basophilia E. *Oxyphilia 11. In exocrine pankreatocytes, stained with haematoxyline and eosine, a homogeneous area is stained in a violet color. What property of this structure such staiment provides? A. Oxyphilia B. Sudanophilia C. Metachromasia D. Osmiophylia E. *Basophilia 12. Harmful ecological factors resulted in the fast falling of endocytosis and exocytosis in the cells of liver and blood. What layer of cytolemma is destroying first of all? A. Lipoproteins B. Outer membrane C. Bilipid layer D. Glycocalyx E. *Cortical layer 13. A histological structure is seen in the specimen. It is limited by a cell membrane and contains a lot of cytoplasm and numerous nuclei. What is this? A. Cell B. Group of the cells C. Intercellular substance D. Amorphous component E. *Symplast 14. A histological structure is seen in the specimen. It consists of cells which are connected by cytoplasmic bridges. What is this? A. Group of the cells B. Symplast C. Intercellular substance D. Amorphous component E. *Syncytium 15. What is the minimal distance between two points in histological specimen, which is distinguishable in a light microscope like two separate points which are not fused? A. Ultramicroscopic unit B. Morphometric unit C. Artefact D. Angstrom unit E. *Microscope's resolution 16. Cells in heart specimen are connected by intercellular junction. What type of junction promotes exchanges of small molecules between neighboring cells? A. Desmosome B. Hemidesmosome C. Synaps D. Adhezive junction E. *Nexus 17. Artificial formation appeared in the histological specimen during its preparation. It may cause wrong results of research. What is the name of this structure? A. Antibody B. Angstrom unit C. Fold D. Nexus E. *Artefact 18. In an electronic microscope you can see the numerous small outgrowthes of cell cytolemma and light vesicles in the cytoplasm. What process is it typical for? A. Excretion B. Phagocytosis C. Intermembranous digestion D. Clasmatosis E. *Pinocytosis 19. The specific proteins or polysaccharides are located on the outer surface of plasmalemma of the cell. What is their typical function? A. Phagocytosis B. Pinocytosis C. Excretion D. Clasmatosis E. *Receptor 20. In histological specimen the vesicles of air and particles of dye are seen, which are not typical for this specimen. What is it? A. Angstrom unit B. Exocytosis C. Clasmatosis D. Invasion E. *Artefact 21.As a result of ionizing radiation influence on organism cells structural components are destroying . Which cell organell will utilize these remnants? A. B. C. D. E. Mitochondria Golgi complex Cytoplasmic reticulum Ribosomes *Lysosomes 22. During the forensic research of blood one segment of neutrophilic granulocytes nuclei is like a drumstick. What is it? A. Body of Layon B. Uncondensed chromatine C. Euchromatine D. Body of Paccini E. *Body of Barr 23. Labeled amino acids alanin and tryptophane were injected to mise for indication of albumen biosyntesis in the cells localization. What organell will accumulate marked amino acid? A. Mitochondria B. Cell center C. Lysosomes D. Smooth endoplasmatic reticulum E. *Ribosomes 24. You know that Golgi complex displays different substances from the cell after fusion of cell membrane and cyst of Golgi apparatus. What is the name of this process? A. Endocytosis B. No correct answer C. Active transport D. Facilitated diffusion E. *Exocytosis 25. A doctor did the byopsy of liver of 42-years old man. During the research of this tissue evident basophilia of cytoplasm was found. What does it mean? A. Deposition of lipids B. Active transport of substances C. Active breaking up of substances D. Process of mitotical division E. *Active synthesis of albumens (proteins) 26. In the electrone micrograph in cell cytoplasm you can see nonmembranous organelles that consist of two subunits. What is the name of this organoids? A. Golgi complex B. Lysosomes C. Mitochondria D. Cytoplasmic reticulum E. *Ribosomes 27. In the electrone micrograph in cell cytoplasm you can see nonmembranous organelles that look like thin thread. What is the name of this organoids? A. Golgi complex B. Lysosomes C. Proteasomes D. Ribosomes E. *Microfilaments 28. The epithelium of patient airways lost ability to move mucus to the surface. Disfunction of which organelles of epitheliocytes of bronchial tubes is it due to? A. Mitochondria B. Cytoplasmic reticulum C. Golgi complex D. Lysosomes E. *Cilia 29. The nucleolus of the cell was affacted by radiation. Renewal of which organelles will be violated in such case? A. Lysosomes B. Cytoplasmic reticulum C. Microtubes D. Golgi complex E. *Ribosomes 30. The main morphological manifestation of mushrooms poison impact on liver is destruction of lysosomes membranes of hepatocytes. What may happen to cells at destruction of membranes of majority of lysosomes? A. Stop of albumines synthesis B. Stop of secretory products synthesis C. Active atomic oxygen utilization will be violated D. Piling up of energy will be violated E. *Autolisis of the cell will result in death 31. In an experiment the synthesis of gistone albumens is artificially blocked in the cell. What structure of the cell will be damaged most of all? A. Nuclear matrix B. Golgi complex C. Cell membrane D. Nuclear envelope E. *Nuclear chromatine 32. In electon microscopic research of the cell a lot of doublemembranous organelles with cristae were found in a cytoplasm . What are they? A. Golgi complex B. Lysosomes C. Cytoplasmatic reticulum D. Proteasomes E. *Mitochondria 33. In electon microscopic research of the cell a lot of doublemembranous organelles with cristae were found in a cytoplasm. What is the function of these organelles? A. Deposition of secrets, lysosomes production B. Synthesis of proteins and intracellular transport C. Destruction of peroxides D. Intracellular digestion E. *Energy production and accumulation in ATP 34. In electon microscopic research of the cell near a nucleus complex of flat closely packed cysternae is found. What is the function of these organelle? A. Synthesis of proteins and intracellular transport B. Destruction of peroxides C. Intracellular digestion D. Energy production and accumulation in ATP E. *Deposition and package of secrets, lysosomes production 35. In electon microscopic research of the cell complex of flat closely packed cysternae, vacuoles and vesicles is found near a nucleus. What is this organell? A. Lysosome B. Mitochondria C. Cytoplasmatic reticulum D. Proteasome E. *Golgi complex 36. In the area of burn wound of patient there are plenty of cells which contain primary and secondary lysosomes. What is the function of these organelles? A. Synthesis of proteins and intracellular transport B. Destruction of peroxides C. Energy production and accumulation in ATP D. Deposition and package of secrets, lysosomes production E. *Intracellular digestion 37.The temperature of body of a patient rises to 38 per Celsium. Which cell organell is responsible for this? A. Cytoplasmatic reticulum B. Lysosomes C. Ribosomes D. Peroxisomes E. *Mitochondria 38.. Researcher made a smear of oral cavity mucosa and stained it with methylene blue. Hemispherical corpuscles of heterochromatine were found near the internal membrane of epitheliocytes nucleiwe. What are these structures? A. Spots of Fordeys B. Body of Bish C. Y-chromosome D. Ribosomes E. *Sex chromatine 39. In the culture of tissue a nuclear irradiation had damaged the nucleoli of nucleus. Which organelles will regenerate with problem? A. Endoplasmic reticulum. B. Microtubule C. Golgi complex D. Lysosome E. *Ribosome 40. One segment of neutrophil’s nucleus in the peripheral blood looks like a drumstick. What is the name of this structure? A. Lyon’s body B. Decondensed chromatin C. Euchromatin D. Paccinian corpuscle E. *Barr's body 41.During forensic research of the blood smear in some neutrophils chromatin was seen on the surface of one segment of the nucleus that looks like a drumstick. What is the name if this structural formation? A. B. C. D. E. Lyon’s body Dispersed chromatin Euchromatin Paccinian body *Sex chromatin (Barr’s body) 42.During morphological research of cell mitotic chromosomes the secondary constriction was revealed. It separates the end area of the chromosome shoulder. What is the name of this part of the chromosome? A. Nuclear matrix protein B. Microtubule of mitotic spindle C. Kinetochore D. Primary constriction of chromosome E. *Chromosome's satellite 43.During the morphological research of cell mitotic chromosomes it was revealed that chromosome's centromere divides it into two similar shoulders. What is the name of this chromosome? A. Akrocentric B. Submetacentric C. Noncentric D. Polycentric E. *Metacentric 44.During the morphological research of the cell's mitotic chromosomes it was revealed that chromosome centromere divides it into the two different shoulders. One shoulder is shorter, and another is longer. What is the name of this chromosome? A. Akrocentric B. Noncentric C. Metacentric D. Polycentric E. *Submetacentric 45.During the morphological research of cells, chromosomes are found at the stage of prophase of the mitotic division. Arround which proteins DNA molecule locates for the formation of chromosomes? A. Integrins B. Cadherins C. Albumins D. Globulins E. *Histones 46.During the morphological research of the epithelial cells of the oral cavity the rounded bodies appear on the inner surface of some nuclei. It means that cells was taken from the woman's mouth. How this formation of chromatin usually is called? A. Decondenced chromatin B. Herring’s body C. Euchromatin D. Paccinian body E. *Barr’s body 47. Somatic cells morphological research is necessary for identification of human karyotype. What are the structures that can give us the information about the sex of a person? A. Heterochromatin B. Decondensed chromatin C. Euchromatin D. Peripheral chromatin E. *Barr’s body 48. Histoproteins synthesis in cells was artificially blocked in the experiment. What cell structure is mainly damaged? A. Nuclear matrix B. Golgi complex C. Cell membrane D. Nuclear envelope E. *Nuclear chromatin 49.The cell in the electron micrograph containes the nucleus with barely visible nucleolus. What phase of the cell cycle is seen in the micrograph? A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Metaphase D. Telophase E. *Interphase 50.The cell which has no distinct nuclear membrane and visible nucleolus is seen in the electron micrograph. Chromosomes are freely placed in cytoplasm, centrioles migrate to the poles. What phase of the cell cycle is seen in the micrograph? A. Anaphase B. Metaphase C. Telophase D. Interphase E. *Prophase 51. The cell which has no distinct nuclear membrane and visible nucleolus is seen in the electron micrograph. Chromosomes are located at the center of the cell, forming the metaphase plate, centrioles locate at the opposite poles and forme the spindle of division. What phase of the cell cycle is seen in the micrograph? A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Telophase D. Interphase E. *Metaphase 52. The cell which has no distinct nuclear membrane and visible nucleolus is seen in the electron micrograph. Chromosomes move to the opposite poles. What phase of the cell cycle is seen in the cell? A. Prophase B. Metaphase C. Telophase D. Interphase E. *Anaphase 53. The cell which has no distinct nuclear membrane and visible nucleolus is seen in the electron micrograph. Chromosomes are placed at the opposite poles. The cytokinesis process is seen in the cell. What phase of the cell cycle is seen in the cell? A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Metaphase D. Interphase E. *Telophase 54. The method of the differential staining of the mitotic chromosomes allowes to study their morphology and size, and divides them into the groups. How many groups of the chromosomes do you know? A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 8 E. *7 55. The nucleoli were damaged in tissue culture with a nuclear radiation. What organelles formation in the cytoplasm of the cells becomes problematic? A. Lysosomes B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Microtubules D. Golgi complex E. *Ribosomes 56. The picture of nodule of the most tightly coiled chromosomes is seen in the cell. What stage of cell division is interrupted at this time: A. Metaphase B. Early telophase C. Interphase D. Late telophase E. *Prophaze 57. The smear was made from the mucosa of the cheek and it was stained with methylene blue. At the inner membrane of epithelial cells nuclei heterochromatin is seen as hemispherical corpuscle in microscope. What is this structure? A. Fordeys spots B. Bish lipid body C. Y-chromosome D. Ribosomes E. *Sex chromatin 58. Cell nucleus was infiltrated with a fluid which damages the histones-proteins. What structure of the nucleolus will be damaged first of all? A. Nuclear matrix B. Nuclear envelope C. DNA D. RNA E. *Chromatin 59. Cell nucleus was infiltrated with a fluid which damages the nonhistones-proteins in it. What structure of the nocleolus will be damaged first of all? A. Nuclear pores B. Chromatin C. DNA D. RNA E. *Nuclear matrix 60. 67 year old woman has a tumour of the uterus. During histological research of specimen a multipolar mitosis was found in the tumor cells - picture with the few poles. Which oragannelle disorder caused the multipolar mitosis? A. Secondary lysosomes B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum D. Peroxisomes E. *Centrioles 61. A lot of spermatozoa with spherical head were revealed in histological research of spermatozoa smear. What may it cause? A. B. C. D. E. Increase of motility Spermatozoa dying Loss of flagellae Genetical disorders *Violation of purposeful movement 62. After spermatozoon head introduction into oocyte content of cortical granules of oocyte is released outside. What is the name of this process? A. Capacitation B. Acrosomal reaction C. Spermatozoon penetration of oolemma D. Oocyte completes meiosis E. *Cortical reaction 63. At distant stage of fertilization spermatozoa move against fluid flow toward oocyte. What is the name of this addressed movement? A. Thermotaxis B. Chemotaxis C. Capacitation D. Acrosomal reaction E. *Rheotaxis 64. At some stage of embryogenesis human embryo looks like vesicle with space. Its wall consists of light small blastomeres and larger dark ones at one pole. What is the name of embryo at this stage? A. Morula B. Zygote C. Gastrula D. Embryonic disc E. *Blastocyst 65. Cleavage of zygote result in blastula formation. Which type of blastula is typical for human embryogenesis? A. Morula. B. Celoblastula C. Discoblastula D. Amphyblastula E. *Blastocyst 66. Due to expression of cell genome components embryonic cells obtain characteristic morphological, biochemical and fuctional peculiarities. Name this process. A. Capacitation B. Reception C. Determination D. Adhesion E. *Differentiation 67. Histological specimens are stained with hematoxylin and eosin. They have different oocytes. Which one is human oocyte? A. Polilecital B. Moderate telolecital C. Prominent telolecital D. Alecital E. *Oligolecital, secondary isolecital 68.In endoscopy of uterine space embryo was revealed. It was not attached to endometrium. What is this stage of embryogenesis? A. Zygote B. Morula C. Gastrula D. Neurula E. *“Free blastocyst” 69.In experiment in vivo it is fixed a moment in which spermatozoa surround oocyte and corona radiate disappears. What is the name of this process? A. Penetration B. Acrosomal reaction C. Cortical reaction D. Chemotaxis E. *Denudation 70. In first crucial period of embryogenesis (5th -6th day) tunic of fertilization suddenly disappear. Embryo at this time was placed in uterine tube. What may it result in? A. Embryo dying B. Invagination of blastocyst wall C. Blastocyst return to uterine tube ampule D. Appearance of two blastocysts E. *Implantation in uterine tube 71. In histological research of spermatozoa smear dense structures are revealed at the top of heads. What are these structures? A. Centrioles B. Mitochondria C. Glycocalix D. Cortical layer E. *Acrosomes 72. In histological specimen it is seen oocyte at moment of fertilization by spermatozoon. What is main result of this process? A. Acrosomal reaction B. Oocyte completes meiosis C. Penetration of oolemma D. Cortical reaction E. *Zygote formation 73. In histological specimen it is seen oocyte at moment of fertilization by spermatozoon. What is usual place of fertilization? A. Abdominal cavity B. At the surface of ovary C. In uterus D. In isthmic part of uterus E. *Ampullar portion of uterine tube 74. Inner sex organs of woman were excised in surgical operation. Embryo which consists of two cells was found in histological research of these organs. What is usual localization of such embryo in normal condition? A. Uterine wall B. Space of uterus C. Abdominal cavity D. Ovary E. *Uterine tube near ampullar portion 75. Inner sex organs of woman were excised in surgical operation. Embryo which consists of 16 tightly packed blastomeres was found in histological research of these organs. What is the name of this embryo? A. Celoblastula B. Periblastula C. Blastocyst D. Amphyblastula E. *Morula 76.Inner sex organs of woman were excised in surgical operation. Embryo which consists of 16 tightly packed blastomeres was found in histological research of these organs. It is cowered with special tunica. What is the name of this tunica? A. Corona radiata B. Zona pellucida C. Plasmalemma D. Oolemma E. *Tunica of fertilization 77. Multiple penetrations of spermatozoa into one oocyte are impossible. Why? What is it due to? A. Acrosomal reaction B. Oocyte completes meiosis C. Spermatozoon penetration of oolemma D. Cortical reaction E. *Appearance of tunic of fertilization 78. Process of embryo implantation into uterine mucosa consists of two stages. What is morphological evidence of first stage? A. Destruction of endometrial connective tissue B. Destruction of endometrial epitheliocytes C. Increase of uterine gland secretion D. Decrease of uterine gland secretion E. *Blastocyst attachment to endometrium surface 79. Process of spermatozoon head penetration into oocyte is seen in histologic specimen. What is the name of this process? A. Denudation B. Acrosomal reaction C. Cortical reaction D. Chemotaxis с E. *Penetration 80. When spermatozoa are placed in vagina after ovulation they begin to move faster. What is the name of this process (special activation of spermatozoa)? A. Acrosomal reaction B. Denudation C. Penetration D. Cortical reaction E. *Capacitation 81. A lot of spermatozoa with spherical head were revealed in histological research of spermatozoa smear. What may it cause? A. B. C. D. E. Increase of motility Spermatozoa dying Loss of flagellae Genetical disorders *Violation of purposeful movement 82. After spermatozoon head introduction into oocyte content of cortical granules of oocyte is released outside. What is the name of this process? A. Capacitation B. Acrosomal reaction C. Spermatozoon penetration of oolemma D. Oocyte completes meiosis E. *Cortical reaction 83. At distant stage of fertilization spermatozoa move against fluid flow toward oocyte. What is the name of this addressed movement? A. Thermotaxis B. Chemotaxis C. Capacitation D. Acrosomal reaction E. *Rheotaxis 84. At some stage of embryogenesis human embryo looks like vesicle with space. Its wall consists of light small blastomeres and larger dark ones at one pole. What is the name of embryo at this stage? A. Morula B. Zygote C. Gastrula D. Embryonic disc E. *Blastocyst 85. Cleavage of zygote result in blastula formation. Which type of blastula is typical for human embryogenesis? A. Morula. B. Celoblastula C. Discoblastula D. Amphyblastula E. *Blastocyst 86. Due to expression of cell genome components embryonic cells obtain characteristic morphological, biochemical and fuctional peculiarities. Name this process. A. Capacitation B. Reception C. Determination D. Adhesion E. *Differentiation 87. Histological specimens are stained with hematoxylin and eosin. They have different oocytes. Which one is human oocyte? A. Polilecital B. Moderate telolecital C. Prominent telolecital D. Alecital E. Oligolecital, secondary isolecital 88.In endoscopy of uterine space embryo was revealed. It was not attached to endometrium. What is this stage of embryogenesis? A. Zygote B. Morula C. Gastrula D. Neurula E. *“Free blastocyst” 89.In experiment in vivo it is fixed a moment in which spermatozoa surround oocyte and corona radiate disappears. What is the name of this process? A. Penetration B. Acrosomal reaction C. Cortical reaction D. Chemotaxis E. *Denudation 90. In first crucial period of embryogenesis (5th -6th day) tunic of fertilization suddenly disappear. Embryo at this time was placed in uterine tube. What may it result in? A. Embryo dying B. Invagination of blastocyst wall C. Blastocyst return to uterine tube ampule D. Appearance of two blastocysts E. *Implantation in uterine tube 91. In histological research of spermatozoa smear dense structures are revealed at the top of heads. What are these structures? A. Centrioles B. Mitochondria C. Glycocalix D. Cortical layer E. *Acrosomes 92. In histological specimen it is seen oocyte at moment of fertilization by spermatozoon. What is main result of this process? A. Acrosomal reaction B. Oocyte completes meiosis C. Penetration of oolemma D. Cortical reaction E. *Zygote formation 93. In histological specimen it is seen oocyte at moment of fertilization by spermatozoon. What is usual place of fertilization? A. Abdominal cavity B. At the surface of ovary C. In uterus D. In isthmic part of uterus E. *Ampullar portion of uterine tube 94. Inner sex organs of woman were excised in surgical operation. Embryo which consists of two cells was found in histological research of these organs. What is usual localization of such embryo in normal condition? A. Uterine wall B. Space of uterus C. Abdominal cavity D. Ovary E. *Uterine tube near ampullar portion 95. Inner sex organs of woman were excised in surgical operation. Embryo which consists of 16 tightly packed blastomeres was found in histological research of these organs. What is the name of this embryo? A. Celoblastula B. Periblastula C. Blastocyst D. Amphyblastula E. *Morula 96.Inner sex organs of woman were excised in surgical operation. Embryo which consists of 16 tightly packed blastomeres was found in histological research of these organs. It is cowered with special tunica. What is the name of this tunica? A. Corona radiata B. Zona pellucida C. Plasmalemma D. Oolemma E. *Tunica of fertilization 97. Multiple penetrations of spermatozoa into one oocyte are impossible. Why? What is it due to? A. Acrosomal reaction B. Oocyte completes meiosis C. Spermatozoon penetration of oolemma D. Cortical reaction E. *Appearance of tunic of fertilization 98. Process of embryo implantation into uterine mucosa consists of two stages. What is morphological evidence of first stage? A. Destruction of endometrial connective tissue B. Destruction of endometrial epitheliocytes C. Increase of uterine gland secretion D. Decrease of uterine gland secretion E. *Blastocyst attachment to endometrium surface 99. Process of spermatozoon head penetration into oocyte is seen in histologic specimen. What is the name of this process? A. Denudation B. Acrosomal reaction C. Cortical reaction D. Chemotaxis с E. *Penetration 100. When spermatozoa are placed in vagina after ovulation they begin to move faster. What is the name of this process (special activation of spermatozoa)? A. Acrosomal reaction B. Denudation C. Penetration D. Cortical reaction E. *Capacitation 101. A lot of spermatozoa with spherical head were revealed in histological research of spermatozoa smear. What may it cause? A. Increase of motility B. Spermatozoa dying C. Loss of flagellae D. Genetical disorders E. *Violation of purposeful movement 102. After spermatozoon head introduction into oocyte content of cortical granules of oocyte is released outside. What is the name of this process? A. Capacitation B. Acrosomal reaction C. Spermatozoon penetration of oolemma D. Oocyte completes meiosis E. *Cortical reaction 103. At distant stage of fertilization spermatozoa move against fluid flow toward oocyte. What is the name of this addressed movement? A. Thermotaxis B. Chemotaxis C. Capacitation D. Acrosomal reaction E. *Rheotaxis 104. At some stage of embryogenesis human embryo looks like vesicle with space. Its wall consists of light small blastomeres and larger dark ones at one pole. What is the name of embryo at this stage? A. Morula B. Zygote C. Gastrula D. Embryonic disc E. *Blastocyst 105. Cleavage of zygote result in blastula formation. Which type of blastula is typical for human embryogenesis? A. Morula. B. Celoblastula C. Discoblastula D. Amphyblastula E. *Blastocyst 106. Due to expression of cell genome components embryonic cells obtain characteristic morphological, biochemical and fuctional peculiarities. Name this process. A. Capacitation B. Reception C. Determination D. Adhesion E. *Differentiation 107. Histological specimens are stained with hematoxylin and eosin. They have different oocytes. Which one is human oocyte? A. Polilecital B. Moderate telolecital C. Prominent telolecital D. Alecital E. *Oligolecital, secondary isolecital 108. In endoscopy of uterine space embryo was revealed. It was not attached to endometrium. What is this stage of embryogenesis? A. Zygote B. Morula C. Gastrula D. Neurula E. *“Free blastocyst” 109. In experiment in vivo it is fixed a moment in which spermatozoa surround oocyte and corona radiate disappears. What is the name of this process? A. Penetration B. Acrosomal reaction C. Cortical reaction D. Chemotaxis E. *Denudation 110. In first crucial period of embryogenesis (5th -6th day) tunic of fertilization suddenly disappear. Embryo at this time was placed in uterine tube. What may it result in? A. Embryo dying B. Invagination of blastocyst wall C. Blastocyst return to uterine tube ampule D. Appearance of two blastocysts E. *Implantation in uterine tube 111. In histological research of spermatozoa smear dense structures are revealed at the top of heads. What are these structures? A. Centrioles B. Mitochondria C. Glycocalix D. Cortical layer E. *Acrosomes 112. In histological specimen it is seen oocyte at moment of fertilization by spermatozoon. What is main result of this process? A. Acrosomal reaction B. Oocyte completes meiosis C. Penetration of oolemma D. Cortical reaction E. *Zygote formation 113. In histological specimen it is seen oocyte at moment of fertilization by spermatozoon. What is usual place of fertilization? A. Abdominal cavity B. At the surface of ovary C. In uterus D. In isthmic part of uterus E. *Ampullar portion of uterine tube 114. Inner sex organs of woman were excised in surgical operation. Embryo which consists of two cells was found in histological research of these organs. What is usual localization of such embryo in normal condition? A. Uterine wall B. Space of uterus C. Abdominal cavity D. Ovary E. *Uterine tube near ampullar portion 115. Inner sex organs of woman were excised in surgical operation. Embryo which consists of 16 tightly packed blastomeres was found in histological research of these organs. What is the name of this embryo? A. Celoblastula B. Periblastula C. Blastocyst D. Amphyblastula E. *Morula 116. Inner sex organs of woman were excised in surgical operation. Embryo which consists of 16 tightly packed blastomeres was found in histological research of these organs. It is cowered with special tunica. What is the name of this tunica? A. Corona radiata B. Zona pellucida C. Plasmalemma D. Oolemma E. *Tunica of fertilization 117. Multiple penetrations of spermatozoa into one oocyte are impossible. Why? What is it due to? A. Acrosomal reaction B. Oocyte completes meiosis C. Spermatozoon penetration of oolemma D. Cortical reaction E. *Appearance of tunic of fertilization 118. Process of embryo implantation into uterine mucosa consists of two stages. What is morphological evidence of first stage? A. Destruction of endometrial connective tissue B. Destruction of endometrial epitheliocytes C. Increase of uterine gland secretion D. Decrease of uterine gland secretion E. *Blastocyst attachment to endometrium surface 119. Process of spermatozoon head penetration into oocyte is seen in histologic specimen. What is the name of this process? A. Denudation B. Acrosomal reaction C. Cortical reaction D. Chemotaxis с E. *Penetration 120. When spermatozoa are placed in vagina after ovulation they begin to move faster. What is the name of this process (special activation of spermatozoa)? A. Acrosomal reaction B. Denudation C. Penetration D. Cortical reaction E. *Capacitation 121. 53 years old patient was diagnosed with malignant epithelial tumor of pericardium. Epithelium of which type does it originate from? A. Pseudostratified ciliated B. Transitional C. Stratified squamous keratinized D. Stratified squamous nonkeratinized E. *Simple squamous 122. 60 years old patient is treated on chronicle gastritis. Prominent changes of gastric mucosa were revealed in endoscopy. Which type of epithelium is involved in process? A. Simple cuboidal B. Stratified squamous keratinized C. Stratified squamous nonkeratinized D. Simple squamous E. *Simple columnar glandular 123. 66 years old patient was diagnosed with malignant epithelial tumor which originate from medium sized bronchus. Which type of epithelium is involved in process? A. Simple squamous B. Stratified transitional C. Stratified squamous keratinized D. Simple transitional E. *Pseudostratified ciliated 124. After long term inflammation of nasal cavity mucosa epithelial cells of patient are changed. Which type of epithelium is involved in process? A. Stratified squamous B. Simple squamous C. Stratified cuboidal D. Stratified columnar E. *Pseudostratified 125. Chromosomes of ectoderm cells are labeled with Н3-thymidine. Epithelium of which organs will contain this label? A. Kidneys B. Lungs C. In liver D. Uterus E. *Skin 126. Chromosomes of endoderm cells are labeled with Н3-thymidine. Epithelium of which organs will contain this label? A. Kidneys B. Vessels C. Skin D. Uterus E. *Intestine 127. Chromosomes of ventral mesoderm cells are labeled with Н3-thymidine. Epithelium of which type will contain this label? A. Simple brushed B. Pseudostratified ciliated C. Stratified keratinized D. Stratified nonkeratinized E. *Mesothelium 128. Chronicle rhinitis is accompanied with damage of mucosal epithelium of nasal cavity respiratory portion. Epithelium of which type is damaged in such case? A. Simple cuboidal B. Stratified squamous nonkeratinized C. Stratified squamous keratinized D. Simple squamous E. *Pseudostratified ciliated 129. Cylindrical secretory cells are seen in histological specimen of gland. Their apical portions have secretory granules and protrude into the lumen, some of them are damaged. What is this mode of secretion? A. Merocrine B. Microapocrine C. Holocrine D. Meroholocrine E. *Macroapocrine 130. Epithelium of respiratory system conducting portion has ciliated, Goblet, basal and endocrine cells. All of them rest on the basement membrane. What is the type of this epithelium? A. Stratified columnar B. Stratified squamous C. Simple columnar D. Simple squamous E. *Simple pseudostratified ciliated 131. In electron micrograph secretory cells have different organelles, well developed Golgi apparatus among them with numerous vacuoles and small vesicles. Cell membrane is not damaged. What is this mode of secretion? A. Macroapocrine B. Microapocrine C. Holocrine D. Cryptocrine E. *Merocrine 132. In electron micrograph secretory cells have microvilli with secretory granules inside. Some microvilli are damaged. What is this mode of secretion? A. Merocrine B. Macroapocrine C. Holocrine D. Meroholocrine E. *Microapocrine 133. Layers of epidermis are damaged at a shot distance. How does regeneration will occur? A. By blood stem cells B. By basement membrane C. By cells of connective tissue D. Epidermis will not regenerate E. *By cells of hair follicles and cells of skin glands ducts 134. Patient has dry pleurisy. Pleural murmur is auscultated. Which type of epithelium is involved in process? A. Simple cuboidal B. Simple columnar C. Transitional D. Stratified E. *Simple squamous 135. Patient has mycosis. Skin is hyperemic, superficial cells are splitting from the surface. Boundaries of affected areas are well distinct, painless. Which type of epithelium is involved in process? A. Transitional B. Stratified cuboidal C. Stratified squamous nonkeratinized D. Stratified columnar ciliated E. *Stratified squamous keratinized 136. Protein producing cells are seen in specimen of exocrine gland. How could you explain basophilic coloring of cytoplasm? A. Some DNA go out in cytoplasm through nuclear pores B. Increase of acidic proteins C. Increase of biologic membranes permeability D. This is artefact E. *Cytoplasm contains a lot of RNA 137. Stratum corneum, lucidum and granulosum of epidermis are dissected at surgical treatment of wound. Which type of regeneration will occur? A. Physiological regeneration B. Pathological regeneration C. Regeneration will not happen D. Malignent transformation will occur E. *Reparative regeneration 138. Stratum corneum, lucidum and granulosum of epidermis are damaged. How does regeneration will occur? A. By cells of stratum spinosum B. By cells of skin glands C. By cells of connective tissue D. Epidermis will not regenerate E. *By basal cells and cells of stratum spinosum 139. Tumor was revealed in rectoromanoscopy of some patient. It arises from mucosa of anal portion of rectum. Which epithelium does it originate from? A. Simple columnar glandular B. Simple columnar brushed C. Simple cuboidal D. Transitional E. *Stratified squamous nonkeratinized 140. Wall of urinary bladder is lined with epithelium whose cells may change their shape due to the functional condition of bladder. What is the type of this epithelium? A. Simple columnar glandular B. Simple columnar brushed C. Simple cuboidal D. Stratified squamous nonkeratinized E. *Transitional 141. Blood of 26 year old man contains 18% of red blood cells of spherical, flattened spherical shape and with spines. Other red blood cells are biconcaved . What is the name of this blood picture? A. B. C. D. E. Erythrocytosis Abnormal anizocytosis Physiological anizocytosis Abnormal poykilocytosis *Physiological poykilocytosis 142. 12.5% of erythrocytes of the patient blood have a diameter over 8mkm, 12.5%less than 6 mkm, the other red blood cells have a diameter of 7.1-7.9 microns. What is the name of this blood picture? A. Abnormal anizotsytosis B. Physiological poykilotsytosis C. Abnormal poykilotsytosis D. Erythrocytosis E. *Physiological anizotsytosis 143. Man lived long time in high mountains. What changes in the blood system will appear ? A. Increase of leukocytes number B. Reduction of leukocytes number C. Increase of blood vessels diameter D. The deceleration pulse E. *Hemoglobin increase 144. In adult blood smear next cellular components were revealed: red blood cells, reticulocytes, segmented neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, neutrophilic metamyelocytes and myelocytes. Which of these elements can not be found in normal blood? A. Reticulocytes B. Metamielocytes neutrophilic C. Lymphocytes D. Myelocytes neutrophilic E. *All are found in the blood 145. Aspirin violates function of platelets: even with normal amount they can not participate adequately in homeostasis. What changes of platelets are observed? A. Reduction, re-formed B. Reduction of mitochondria in them C. Reduction of period of their life D. Increase of old and defective forms number E. *Violation of aggregation 146. 38 years old woman has uterine bleeding. What changes of blood picture will occur in such case? A. Leukocytosis B. Leukopenia C. Polycythemia D. Thrombocytosis E. *Erytropeniya 147. Blood picture of patient with lymphogranulomatosis shows 10% of young, 15% band and 40% segmented neutrophils. What is this condition? A. The right shift of leukocytes B. Neytrophilocytosis C. Neutrophilopenia D. Norm E. *The left shift of leukocytes 148. People with low culture often have tattoos (picture on skin). Which blood cells may leave vessels and absorb the dye corpuscles which were introduced under the skin? A. Lymphocytes B. Plasma cells C. Neutrophils D. Eosinophils E. *Macrophages 149. Chronic malnutrition causes decrease of human blood osmotic pressure thus resulting protein-free edema. Decrease of which blood proteins is it due to? A. Albumin B. Globulins C. Fibrinogen D. Protrombin E. *All these 150. A constant osmotic pressure of plasma depends on certain concentration of electrolytes in it. What is percent of salts in the norm which allows to use saline in the clinic? A. 0.09% B. 9% C. 0.5% D. 0.05% E. *0.9% 151. Mostly human red blood cells contain an antigen named the Rh factor. In some people it is absent (Rh-negative blood). What effector immune cells are activated by transfusion of Rh-positive blood to Rh-negative recipient most of all? A. T lymphocytes supressors B. T-lymphocytes killers C. T-lymphocyte helpers D. T-lymphocytes memory E. *B-lymphocytes 152. In the specimen of human red bone marrow clusters of giant cells are defined in close contact with sinusoidal capillaries. What blood formed elements are they producing? A. Lymphocytes B. Erythrocytes C. Leukocytes D. Monocytes E. *Platelets 153. Histological research of 35 year old patient red bone marrow puncture was made. Significant reduction in megakaryocytes number was found. What changes will be revealed in peripheral blood? A. Reduction of leukocytes number B. Increase of erythrocytes number C. Increase of platelets number D. Reduction of granulocytes number E. *Reduction of platelets number 154. Student has two specimens (smears). The first one contains mature erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets, the second – blood formed elements of varying degrees of maturity. What are these smears? A. The blood of the frog and human blood B. Blood and lymph C. Blood and yellow bone marrow smear D. Yellow and red bone marrow smears E. *Blood and red bone marrow 155. In the red bone marrow blood cells are arranged in islets. Some of them are associated with macrophages. What blood formed elements are developing in these islets? A. Basphilic granulocytes. B. T-and B-lymphocytes predecessors C. Monocytes. D. Platelets. E. *Erythrocytes. 156. 46 year old patient of hematology ward has disorders of granulocytopoesis and trombocytopoesis. Which of the above mentioned organs is affected with pathological process? A. Lymph node B. Thymus C. Spleen D. Liver E. Red bone marrow 157. Parenchyma of red bone marrow consists of hematopoietic cells of different classes. Which class of cell differon is regulated by hemopoetins most of all? A. Class V-maturing cells B. Class II-polipotentnyh partially determined progenitor cell C. I class-polipotent blood stem cells D. Class VI-mature cells E. *Class III-unipotent progenitor cell 158. Punctate of myeloid tissue of 6 year old child contains cells whose differentiation includes piknosis and expel of nucleus. What kind of hematopoiesis is characterized by such morphological changes? A. Trombocytopoesis B. Granulcytopoesis C. Lymphocytopoesis D. Monocytopoesis E. *Erythropoiesis 159. Significant number of red bone marrow stem cells were destroyed in experiment. Renewal of which cells within loose connective tissue will be broken? A. Pigment cells B. Fibroblasts C. Lipocytes D. Pericytes E. *Macrophages 160. In morphologic research of human blood smear in the case of inflammatory process you can see numerous rounded cells with segmented nuclei (three or more segments) and small pink-purple granules in cytoplasm. What are cells? A. Erythrocytes B. Eosinophilic granulocytes C. Basophilic granulocytes D. Lymphocytes E. *Neutrophilic granulocytes 161. After irradiation blood stem cells of patient are damaged. Regeneration of which cells of connective tissue will suffer most of all? A. B. C. D. E. Adipocytes Fibrocytes Adventitial cells Reticular cells *Macrophages 162. Live vaccine is introduced in human body. Which cells of connective tissue will be involved in immune process most of all? A. Eosinophils B. Basophils C. Adipocytes D. Monocytes E. *Lymphocytes 163. At cerebrospinal puncture doctor-neurologist make a puncture of dura mater. What kind of tissue does it consist of? A. Loose connective B. Adipose C. Pigmental D. Reticular E. *Dense regular 164. At physical training sportsmen had damaged his foot. Doctor made a diagnosis of tendon rupture. What kind of tissue does tendon consist of? A. Dense irregular B. Adipose C. Loose connective D. Reticular E. *Dense regular 165. At research of wound content of patient with acute inflammatory process of foot it was revealed a lot of cells of irregular elongated shape with dense nuclei and numerous lysosomes, phagosomes and vacuoles in basophilic cytoplasm. What are these cells? A. Adipocytes B. Fibrocytes C. Endotheliocytes D. Basophils E. *Macrophages 166. At surgical operation there is the risk of thrombus formation. Which cells of loose connective tissue are synthesizing heparin for the prevention of such complication? A. Adipocytes B. Fibroblasts C. Macrophages D. Plasma cells E. *Basophils 167. At the place of foreign corpuscle introduction into human body inflammation begins with participation of blood and connective tissue cells. Which cells of blood and connective tissue mainly will be revealed at the centre of inflammation? A. Macrophages, fibroblasts, adipocytes B. Macrophages, neutrophils, adipocytes C. Macrophages, fibroblasts D. Macrophages, basophils E. *Macrophages, neutrophils 168. At trichinellosis calcified connective tissue capsule originate around trichinellae in muscles. Which connective tissue cells activity is it due to? A. Adipocytes B. Basophils C. Macrophages D. Reticular cells E. *Fibroblasts 169. Blood analysis of patient with flu shows very few specific antibodies. Function of which cells of connective tissue is suppressed? A. Adipocytes B. Fibroblasts C. Basophils D. Macrophages E. *Plasma cells 170. Clinical syndrome of Ehlers-Danlos is characterized by abnormally extensible skin, fragile blood vessels and joint laxity. What kinds of fibers are damaged most of all? A. Reticular B. Oxytalan C. Elaunin D. Elastic E. *Collagen 171. During pregnancy uterine total weight may increase very much. A lot of large cells with processes and smooth myofibrilles and rough endoplasmic reticulum could be revealed in myometrium. What are these cells? A. Fibroblasts B. Smooth myocytes C. Chondrocytes D. Basophils E. *Myofibroblasts 172. Histamine is main clinical manifestation of allergy in connective tissue. Which cells are producing histamine? A. Fibroblasts B. Erythrocytes C. Platelets D. Reticular cells E. *Basophils 173. In aging human skin undergoes changes which are accompanied by decrease of its elasticity. Which components of connective tissue are responsible for this? A. Cells of epidermis B. Ground substance C. Cells of connective tissue D. Reticular fibers E. *Collagen and elastic fibers 174. In histological specimen large cells with basophilic metachromatic granules are seen in loose connective tissue. Heparin and histamine are revealed histochemically. Which cells are present in this specimen? A. Adipocytes B. Fibrocytes C. Endotheliocytes D. Reticular cells E. *Basophils 175. Local constriction of esophagus had appearing after chemical burn as a result of scar development. Which cells of connective tissue are responsible for scars production? A. Young non specialized fibroblasts B. Fibrocytes C. Myofibroblasts D. Reticular cells E. *Mature specialized fibroblasts 176. Numerous basophils are revealed in histological examination of connective tissue. What is the function of these cells after they enter connective tissue from blood? A. Supporting B. Trophic C. Phagocytosis of microbes D. Immune E. *Blood vessels widening 177. One of the general laws of surgery is – to make incisures along so called lines of Langer (lines of skin strains). Which tissue produces reticular layer for this purpose? A. Dense regular B. Adipose C. Loose connective D. R eticular E. *Dense irregular 178. Platelets are known to participate in blood coagulation. Which cells of connective tissue may prevent this? A. Fibroblasts B. Myofibroblasts C. Smooth myocytes D. Chondrocytes E. *Basophils 179. Tendon ruptures often appear as a result of trauma. Is regeneration possible and thanks to which cells? A. Fibrocytes of endotendinium B. Myofibroblasts of endotendinium C. Plasma cells of endotendinium D. Adipocytes of endotendinium E. *Fibroblasts of endotendinium 180. Thin exhausted patients with severe chronicle processes usually have endocrine problem. Which function of adipose tissue disorders is it due to? A. Protective B. Mechanical C. Blood deposition D. Storage of lipids E. *Deposition of fat soluble hormones 181. In histological research of specimen it was revealed tissue, in which cells are placed both separately and in some isogenic groups, fibrous structures of extracellular matrix are not visible. Which tissue is this? A. Smooth muscular tissue B. Epithelial tissue C. Fibrous cartilage D. Bony tissue E. *Hyaline cartilage tissue 182. Problem of old age woman movement was medically diagnosed, because of age changes in hyaline cartilage. What age changes resulted in movement disorders of this person joints? A. Increase of the amount of isogenic groups B. Increase of the amount of cartilage tissue C. Thickening of the perichondrium D. Increase of the hydrophilic matters of the ground substance E. *Precipitation of calcium salts in the extracellular matrix 183. There are two histological specimens: elastic cartilage (stained with orsein) and hyaline cartilage (stained with hematoxylin and eosin). What are their most distinguishable features? A. Presence of the isogenous groups B. Presence of the area of the new cartilage C. Presence of the perichondrium D. Presence of the metaepiphysial plate E. *Presence of the elastic fibrers 184. Patient with arthritis has disorders of sliding function of joints surface . Which tissue is damaged in this case? A. Loose сonnective tissue B. Bony tissue C. Fibrous cartilage tissue D. Reticular tissue E. *Hyaline cartilage 185. In histological examination of the long bone at the place of fracture some features of regeneration were discovered. What tissue forms this structure? A. Loose сonnective tissue B. Reticular tissue C. Epithelium tissue D. Special bony tissue E. *Fibrous bony tissue 186. In histological examination of facial muscles the myosymplasts were found. What type of contractile tissue is this? A. Muscular epithelial tissue B. Smooth muscular tissue C. Visceral muscular tissue D. Cardiac muscle tissue E. *Striated muscular tissue 187. In histological examination of specimen one can see a tissue, the main structural unit of which is (fiber) consists of symplasts and satelitocytes which are covered by basement membrane. What tissue is this structure typical for? A. A. Cardiac muscle tissue B. Smooth muscular tissue C. Loose connective tissue D. Reticular tissue E. *Skeletal striated muscular tissue 188. Striated muscle fiber was researched after the influence of the hydrolytic enzymes. At that time there was a destruction of the thin miofilaments. What structures were mostly damaged? A. Tonofibrils B. T-systems C. Reticulum sarcoplasmatic D. Myosin miofilaments E. *Actin miofilaments 189. In embryogenesis of muscular tissue the process of myoblastes transformation into myosymplasts was broken. The development of what tissue will be damaged? A. Muscle tissue of the neural origin B. Muscle tissue of the epidermic origin C. Smooth muscular tissue of the mesenchymal origin D. Cardiac muscle tissue E. *Skeletal muscular tissue 190. After heart attack patient myocardium is damaged. What cells elements will provide the regeneration of defect after the myocardial infarction (cardiac cells dying)? A. Cardiomyocytes B. Myosatelitocytes C. Epitheliocytes D. Smooth myocytes E. *Fibroblasts 191. What cellular elements are responsible for healing of produced defect after the myocardial infarction? A. Cardiomyocyts B. Miosatelitocytes C. Epitheliocytes D. Smooth myocytes E. *Fibroblasts 192. In the specimen of striated muscle fiber, after mechanical trauma, destruction of thick miofilaments is observed. What supporting structures, connected with myosin filaments, can be also damaged? A. Myosin miofilaments B. Tonofibrils C. Tropocollagen complexes D. Nucleoprotein complexes E. *Actin miofilaments 193. The patient has damaged muscles of feet. Which cells will provide reparative regeneration of muscular fibers and renewal of muscle function? A. Myoblastus B. Myosin myofilaments C. Tonofibrils D. Nucleoprotein’s complex E. *Myosatelitocytes 194. The patient, with complex trauma of upper extremities has violation of bony tissue regeneration because of cartilage differon cambial cells damage. Which cells were damaged? A. Cells of the outer layer of perychondrium B. Cells of isogenic group C. Cells cartilage D. Cells that come from blood vessels E. *Cells of the inner layer of perychondrium 195. New-born boy (10 days) has numerous defects of the growth of skeleton. What embryonic source does this pathology depend on? A. Myotome B. Dermatome C. Ectoderm D. Entoderm E. *Mesenchyme 196. In examination of histological specimen of cross-striated fiber after mechanical trauma destruction of thick myofilaments is observed. What is the localition of pathological changes in fibers in polarized light using? A. In disk I. B. In half of a disk A. C. In half of the disk A and I D. In half of a disk I E. *In disk A 197. In experiment on animal some muscle was dissected. It was whiped and mass was placed in channel of muscle. After 3-4 weeks muscle was reformed. What is the source of this skeletal muscle reparative regeneration? A. Myosatelitocytes B. Actin myofilaments C. Myosin myofilaments D. Sarcomeres E. *T-system of muscular fibers 198. The chemical factory worker has fast tiredness, sleepiness, atony and adynamia. Such changes were caused by the locking of some ions admission to sarcoplasm. What are these ions? A. K B. Na C. Mg D. P E. *Ca 199. In experiment on animal development of the mesenchymal cells were totally inhibited. Development of what type of muscular tissue is impossible? A. Muscular tissue of the heart B. Skeletal muscular tissue C. Muscular tissue of neural origin D. Muscular tissue of epidermal origin E. *Smooth muscular tissue 200. In experiment on animal process of myoblasts merge in symplasts were totally inhibited. Development of what type of muscular tissue is impossible? A. Muscular tissue of the heart B. Muscular tissue of neural origin C. Muscular tissue of epidermal origin D. Smooth muscular tissue E. *Skeletal muscular tissue 201. In examination of histological specimen of cross-striated fiber after mechanical trauma destruction of thick myofilaments is observed. What structure is well connected with these filaments and is damaged too? A. Mesophgragm and telophragm B. Telophragm C. Cytolemma D. Cytolemma and telophragm E. *Mesophgragm 202. Axial fiber with granular endoplasmic reticulum is detected in electronmicrograph. Which process of nerve cell this cylinder forms ? A. Axon B. Long C. Short D. Wavy E. *Dendrite 203. Central nervous system mainly consist of multipolar nerve cells. What are main characteristic features of them? A. The size of neurocyte perikaryon B. Length of axons and dendrites C. Localisation of neurocyte D. Neurocyte function E. *The number of processes 204. Experimentally substance that blocks the neurotransmitter synthesis in sensitive neurons was injected. What ultrastructural changes can be seen in reflex arch? A. Decrease of synaptic vesicles number in axon endings B. Increasing the number of synaptic vesicles in axon endings C. A few number of synaptic vesicles in axon endings D. A lot of synaptic vesicles in axon endings E. *Disappearance of synaptic vesicles in axon endings 205. In experiment nerve fiber was sected and two weeks later substance which inhibits the reproduction of neurolemmocytes was injected. How does it affect the process of regeneration of the fiber? A. Myelination does not change. B. Myelination will be fragmented. C. Myelination held only at the axial cylinder. D. Myelination held on the periphery of fibers. E. *Myelination process of fiber will be violated 206. In functional depletion of neuron tigrolysis is observed – neuroplasm enlightenment, due to the collapse of basophilic substance. Changes of which organell is it due to? A. Lysosomes. B. Golgi apparatus C. Mitochondria. D. Neurofibriles E. *Granular endoplasmic reticulum 207. In nervous tissue perikaryons and processes of nerve cells are surrounded by small cells. What is the name of these cells? A. Astrocytes. B. Ependymocytes. C. Microgliocytes D. Neurolemmocytes E. *Oligodendrocytes. 208. In severe burns of the skin lack of response to pain stimulation is observed. Which nerve endings are damaged in such case? A. Meisner’s corpuscle B. Paccinian corpuscle C. Bulb of Кrause D. Ruffini corpuscle E. *Free nerve endings. 209. In the neural tube of human embryo there are three zones. What is the location of neuroblasts? A. Ependymal zone B. Marginal zone C. White matter. D. Grey matter E. *Mantial zone 210. In the specimen of spinal cord cross section spinal canal is surrounded by a layer of cells. What are cells? A. Neurogliocytes B. Astrocytes. C. Oligodendrocytes. D. Neurolemmocytes E. *Ependymocytes. 211. Nerve ending is seen in the connective tissue it has a slight thickening of the axial cylinder - internal bulb and concentric layers of collagen fibers - a thick outer bulb. What is this nerve ending? A. Mercel’s corpuscle B. Bulb of Кrause C. Meisner’s corpuscle D. Ruffini corpuscle. E. *Paccinian corpuscle 212. Nerve fiber in histological specimen has axial cylinder inside. What does it consist of? A. Schwann cell. B. Mesaxon. C. Perineurium. D. Axolema. E. *Process of nerve cell 213. Nerve fiber is present in microspecimen, it has several axial cylinders surrounded by cytoplasm of one neurolemmocytes. Name this fiber. A. Collagen. B. Myelinated C. Compound D. Simple E. *Unmyolinated 214. Neurocyte overactivity is accompanied with neuroplasm enlightenment due to the damage of basophilic substance. Changes of which organell is it due to? A. Neurofibril. B. Lysosomes. C. Golgi apparatus D. Mitochondria. E. *Granular endoplasmic reticulum 215. After frostbite patient has no response for cold stimulation. Damage of which nerve endings is it due to? A. Meisner’s corpuscle B. Paccinian corpuscle C. Ruffini corpuscle. D. Mercel’s corpuscle E. *Bulb of Кrause 216. Speed of nerve transmission was determined in unmyolinated fibers in experiment. What is the speed of nerve impulse passage in unmyolinated nerve fibers? A. 50-100 m / sec. B. 100-250 m / sec. C. 200-300 m / sec. D. 5-120 m / sec. E. *1-2 m / sec. 217. Synapse function is transmission of nerve impulses in one direction. Which special feature of synapse structural organization proves this? A. Synaptic cleft B. Postsynaptic membrane C. Postsynaptic pole D. Receptor proteins on the postsynaptic membrane E. *The presence of synaptic vesicles in presynaptic pole 218. Tendons are damaged in knee injury. Tendon integrity was restored, but the motions - no. Damage of which nerve endings is it due to? A. Paccinian corpuscle B. Meisner’s corpuscle C. Bulb of Кrause D. Ruffini corpuscle. E. *Golgi tendon organs. 219. Thick connective tissue scar appeared in patient with mechanical injury at place of nerve fiber section. How does it affect the process of regeneration of nerve fiber? A. Regeneration will take part. B. Full regeneration. C. Physiological regeneration. D. Regeneration is very slow. E. *Regeneration will not happen 220. With electron microscopic study of myelinated fibers it was found that the myelin membrane has a folded structure. What does it consist of? A. Ranvier node B. Neurolemma C. Schmidt- Lantermann incisure D. Endoneurium E. *Mesaxon 221. With electron microscopic study synaptic vesicles were revealed in synaps. Name the structure of the object. A. Perikaryon B. End dendrit C. Synaptic cleft D. Postsynaptic pole E. *Presynaptic pole Test questions for figures 1. Which structural component of cell is labeled No 2 at Fig.51? A. Nucleus B. *Nucleolus C. Lysosome D. Mitochondrion E. Golgi apparatus 2. Which cell organelle is labeled No13 at Fig.51? A. Nucleus B. Nucleolus C. *Lysosome D. Mitochondrion E. Golgi apparatus 3. Which cell organelle is labeled No7 at Fig.51? A. Nucleus B. Nucleolus C. Lysosome D. *Mitochondrion E. Golgi apparatus 4. Which cell organelle is labeled No11 at Fig.51? A. Nucleus B. Nucleolus C. Lysosome D. *Ribosome E. Golgi apparatus 5. Which cell organelle is labeled No10 at Fig.51? A. Nucleus B. Nucleolus C. Lysosome D. Mitochondrion E. *Golgi apparatus 6. Which cell organelle is labeled No8 at Fig.51? A. *Granular endoplasmic reticulum B. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum C. Cytoplasm D. Mitochondrion E. Cell membrane 7. Which cell organelle is labeled No9 at Fig.51? A. Granular endoplasmic reticulum B. *Agranular endoplasmic reticulum C. Cytoplasm D. Mitochondrion E. Cell membrane 8. Which cell organelle is labeled No4 at Fig.52? A. *Granular endoplasmic reticulum B. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum C. Ribosome D. Mitochondrion E. Lysosome 9. Which cell organelle is labeled No10 at Fig.52? A. Golgi apparatus B. Microfilaments C. *Ribosome D. Mitochondrion E. Microtubules 10.Which cell organelle is labeled No3 at Fig.52? A. Granular endoplasmic reticulum B. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum C. Ribosome D. *Mitochondrion E. Lysosome 11.Which cell organelle is labeled No1 at Fig.52? A. Granular endoplasmic reticulum B. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum C. Microfilaments D. Mitochondrion E. *Lysosome 12.Which cell organelle is labeled No11 at Fig.52? A. *Golgi apparatus B. Microfilaments C. Centrosome D. Mitochondrion E. Proteasome 13. Which cell organelle is labeled No4 at Fig.52? A. Golgi apparatus B. *Endoplasmic reticulum C. Centrosome D. Mitochondrion E. Proteasome 13.Which cell organelle is labeled No12 at Fig.52? A. Golgi apparatus B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. *Centrosome D. Mitochondrion E. Proteasome 14.Which cell component is labeled No9 at Fig.52? A. Nucleus B. *Nucleolus C. Karyoplasm D. Karyolemma E. Nuclear pore 15.Which cell component is labeled No8 at Fig.52? A. Nucleus B. Nucleolus C. *Keryoplasm D. Karyolemma E. Nuclear pore 16.Which cell component is labeled No14 at Fig.52? A. Nucleus B. Nucleolus C. Keryoplasm D. *Karyolemma E. Nuclear pore 17.Which cell component is labeled No7 at Fig.52? A. Nucleus B. Nucleolus C. Keryoplasm D. Karyolemma E. *Nuclear pore 18.Which cell organelle do you see at Fig53? A. Mitochondrion B. *Golgi apparatus C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Centrosome E. Lysosome 19.Which component of Golgi apparatus is labeled No1 at Fig.53? A. *Cis- face (forming) B. Trans-face (maturing) C. Cisternae of Golgi apparatus D. Secretory granules E. Transport vesicles of RER 20.Which component of Golgi apparatus is labeled No2 at Fig.53? A. Cis- face (forming) B. *Trans-face (maturing) C. Cisternae of Golgi apparatus D. Secretory granules E. Transport vesicles of RER 21.Which component of Golgi apparatus is labeled No6 at Fig.53? A. Cis- face (forming) B. Trans-face (maturing) C. *Cisternae of Golgi apparatus D. Secretory granules E. Transport vesicles of RER 22.Which component of Golgi apparatus is labeled No5 at Fig.53? A. Cis- face (forming) B. Trans-face (maturing) C. Cisternae of Golgi apparatus D. *Secretory granules E. Dictyosoma 23.Which component of Golgi apparatus is labeled No3 at Fig.53? A. Cis- face (forming) B. Trans-face (maturing) C. Cisternae of Golgi apparatus D. Dictyosoma E. *Transport vesicles of RER 24.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No1 at Fig.83? A. Hydrophilic chain of phospholipid B. Hydrophobic chain of phospholipid C. *Cholesterol molecule D. Carbohydrates of glycoprotein E. Carbohydrates of glycolipids 25.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No2 at Fig.83? A. *Hydrophilic chain of phospholipid B. Hydrophobic chain of phospholipid C. Cholesterol molecule D. Carbohydrates of glycoprotein E. Carbohydrates of glycolipids 26.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No3 at Fig.83? A. Hydrophilic chain of phospholipid B. *Hydrophobic chain of phospholipid C. Cholesterol molecule D. Carbohydrates of glycoprotein E. Carbohydrates of glycolipids 27.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No8 at Fig.83? A. Hydrophilic chain of phospholipid B. Hydrophobic chain of phospholipid C. Cholesterol molecule D. Peripheral proteins E. *Integral proteins 28.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No7 at Fig.83? A. Hydrophilic chain of phospholipid B. Hydrophobic chain of phospholipid C. Cholesterol molecule D. *Oligosaccharides chains E. Peripheral proteins 29.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No4 at Fig.83? A. Hydrophilic chain of phospholipid B. Hydrophobic chain of phospholipid C. Cholesterol molecule D. *Peripheral proteins E. Integral proteins 30.Which organelle do you see at Fig.84? A. Golgi apparatus B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Centrosome D. *Mitochondrion E. Proteasome 31.Which component of mitochondrion is labeled No2 at Fig.84? A. *External membrane B. Internal membrane C. Crista D. Intermembrane space E. Matrix 32.Which component of mitochondrion is labeled No1 at Fig.84? A. External membrane B. *Internal membrane C. Crista D. Intermembrane space E. Matrix 33.Which component of mitochondrion is labeled No5 at Fig.84? A. External membrane B. Internal membrane C. *Crista D. Intermembrane space E. Matrix 34.Which component of mitochondrion is labeled No3 at Fig.84? A. External membrane B. Internal membrane C. Crista D. *Intermembrane space E. Matrix 35.Which component of mitochondrion is labeled No4 at Fig.84? A. External membrane B. Internal membrane C. Crista D. Intermembrane space E. *Matrix 36.Which cell organelle is labeled No2 at Fig.85? A. *Centrosome B. Golgi apparatus C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Ribosome E. Mitochondrion 37.Which structure of cell center is labeled No3 at Fig.85? A. *Centriole B. Centrosphere C. Microfilaments D. Triplet of microtubules E. Dynein linking protein 38.Which structure of cell center is labeled No4 at Fig.85? A. Centriole B. *Centrosphere C. Microfilaments D. Triplet of microtubules E. Dynein linking protein 39.Which structure of cell center is labeled No1 at Fig.85? A. Centriole B. Centrosphere C. Microfilaments D. *Triplet of microtubules E. Dynein linking protein 40.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No 3 at Fig.86? A. Oligosaccharides chains B. Cholesterol molecule C. Phospholipid molecules D. *Integral proteins E. Peripheral proteins 41.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No2 at Fig.86? A. Oligosaccharides chains B. Cholesterol molecule C. Phospholipid molecules D. Integral proteins E. *Peripheral proteins 42.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No1 at Fig.86? A. Oligosaccharides chains of proteins B. Oligosaccharides chains of lipids C. *Phospholipid molecules D. Integral proteins E. Peripheral proteins 43.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No4 at Fig.86? A. Oligosaccharides chains of proteins B. *Oligosaccharides chains of lipids C. Phospholipid molecules D. Integral proteins 44.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No6 at Fig.86? A. *Oligosaccharides chains of proteins B. Oligosaccharides chains of lipids C. Phospholipid molecules D. Integral proteins E. Peripheral proteins 45.Which stage of mitosis is labeled No 1 at Fig.87? A. Interphase B. *Prophase C. Metaphase D. Anaphase E. Telophase 46.Which stage of mitosis is labeled No2 at Fig.87? A. Interphase B. Prophase C. *Metaphase D. Anaphase E. Telophase 47.Which stage of mitosis is labeled No3 at Fig.87? A. Interphase B. Prophase C. Metaphase D. *Anaphase E. Telophase 48.Which stage of mitosis is labeled No4 at Fig.87? A. Interphase B. Prophase C. Metaphase D. Anaphase E. *Telophase 49.Which stage of mitosis is labeled No4 at Fig.88? A. Interphase B. *Anaphase C. Metaphase D. Prophase E. Telophase 50.Which stage of mitosis is labeled No3 at Fig.88? A. Interphase B. Anaphase C. *Metaphase D. Prophase E. Telophase 51.Which stage of mitosis is labeled No2 at Fig.88? A. Interphase B. Anaphase C. Metaphase D. *Prophase E. Telophase 52.Which stage of mitosis is labeled No5 at Fig.88? A. Interphase B. Anaphase C. Metaphase D. Prophase E. *Telophase 53.Which stage of mitosis is labeled No 1 at Fig.88? A. *Interphase B. Anaphase C. Metaphase D. Prophase E. Telophase 54.Which process of cell cycle do you see at Fig.88? A. Meiosis B. *Mitosis C. Amitosis D. Endomitosis E. Crossing-over 55.Which structure of spematozoon is labeled No6 at Fig.4? A. Nucleus B. Nucleolus C. *Nuclear vacuoles D. Acrosome E. Cell center 56.Which structure of spematozoon is labeled No7 at Fig.54? A. Nucleus B. Axonemal complex C. Abundant nuclear membrane D. *Acrosome E. Karyolemma 57.Which structure of spematozoon is labeled No5 at Fig.54? A. *Nucleus B. Axonemal complex C. Abundant nuclear membrane D. Acrosome E. Karyolemma 58.Which structure of spematozoon is labeled No9 at Fig.54? A. *Axonemal complex B. Cell membrane C. Abundant nuclear membrane D. Acrosome E. Cytolemma 59.Which structure of spematozoon is labeled No11 at Fig.54? A. External dense fibers B. Internal dense fibers C. Axial fiber D. Segmented columns E. *Mitochondrial sheath 60.Which structure of spematozoon is labeled No3 at Fig.54? A. Neck B. Connecting piece C. Midpiece of tail D. *Principal piece of tail E. Endpiece of tail 61.Which structure of spematozoon is labeled No4 at Fig.54? A. Neck B. Connecting piece C. Midpiece of tail D. Principal piece of tail E. *Endpiece of tail 62.Which structure of spematozoon is labeled No1 at Fig.54? A. Neck B. *Head C. Midpiece of tail D. Principal piece of tail E. Endpiece of tail 63.Which structure of spematozoon is labeled No2 at Fig.54? A. Neck B. Head C. *Midpiece of tail D. Principal piece of tail E. Endpiece of tail 64.Which structure of oocyte is labeled No1 at Fig.55? A. *Nucleus B. Ooplasm C. Oolemma D. Cortical granules E. Yolk inclusions 65.Which structure of ooplasm is labeled No4 at Fig.55? A. Nucleus B. Nucleolus C. Oolemma D. Cell center E. *Yolk inclusions 66.Which structure of oocyte is labeled No2 at Fig.55? A. Nucleus B. *Oolemma C. Ooplasm D. Zona pellucida E. Corona radiata 67.Which structure of oocyte is labeled No4 at Fig.55? A. Nucleus B. Oolemma C. *Ooplasm D. Zona pellucida E. Corona radiata 68.Which structure of oocyte is labeled No5 at Fig.55? A. Nucleus B. Oolemma C. Ooplasm D. Zona pellucida E. *Corona radiata 69.Which structure of oocyte is labeled No3 at Fig.55? A. Nucleus B. Oolemma C. Ooplasm D. *Zona pellucida E. Corona radiata 70.Which embryonic structure do you see at Fig.57? A. Morula B. Sygote C. *Blasocyst D. Amphiblastula E. Celoblastula 71.Which structure of blastula is labeled No1 at Fig.57? A. Trophoblast B. *Embryoblast C. Blastocele D. Blasocyst E. Blastopore 72.Which structure of blastula is labeled No2 at Fig.57? A. Trophoblast B. Embryoblast C. *Blastocele D. Blasocyst E. Blastopore 73.Which structure of blastula is labeled No3 at Fig.57? A. *Trophoblast B. Embryoblast C. Blastocele D. Blasocyst E. Blastopore 74.Epithelium of which type do you see at Fig.58? A. *Simple B. Stratified C. Epidermis D. Transitional E. Pseudostratified ciliated 75.Exocrine gland of which type is labeled No1 at Fig.56? A. *Simple tubular nonbranched B. Simple tubular branched C. Simple alveolar nonbranched D. Simple alveolar branched E. Endoepithelial 76.Exocrine gland of which type is labeled No2 at Fig.56? A. *Simple tubular nonbranched B. Simple tubular branched C. Simple alveolar nonbranched D. Simple alveolar branched E. Endoepithelial 77.Exocrine gland of which type is labeled No3 at Fig.56? A. Simple tubular nonbranched B. *Simple tubular branched C. Simple alveolar nonbranched D. Simple alveolar branched E. Compound tubular branched 78.Exocrine gland of which type is labeled No4 at Fig.56? A. Simple tubular nonbranched B. Simple tubular branched C. Simple alveolar nonbranched D. *Simple alveolar branched E. Compound alveolar branched 79.Exocrine gland of which type is labeled No5 at Fig.56? A. Simple tubular branched B. Simple tubular-alveolar branched C. Compoundальвеолярна nonbranched D. *Compound tubular-alveolar branched E. Compound tubular nonbranched 80.Exocrine gland of which type is labeled No6 at Fig.56? A. Simple tubular branched B. Simple alveolar branched C. Compoundальвеолярна nonbranched D. Compound alveolar branched E. *Compound tubular branched 81.Exocrine gland of which type is labeled No7 at Fig.56? A. Simple tubular branched B. Simple alveolar branched C. Compoundальвеолярна nonbranched D. Compound tubular nonbranched E. *Compound alveolar branched 82.Connective tissue of which type do you see at Fig.89? A. Dense regular B. Dense irregular C. Adipose D. *Loose connective E. Reticular 83.Adipose tissue of which type do you see at Fig.90? A. Dense regular B. Dense irregular C. *White adipose D. Brown adipose E. Reticular 84.Which structural component of white adipose tissue cell is labeled No 3 at Fig.90? A. Nucleus B. *Lipid drop C. Mitochondria D. Cytoplasm E. Granular endoplasmic reticulum 85.Which structural component of white adipose tissue cell is labeled No 1 at Fig.90? A. *Nucleus B. Lipid drop C. Mitochondria D. Cytoplasm E. Granular endoplasmic reticulum 86.Connective tissue of which type do you see at Fig.91? A. Dense regular B. Dense irregular C. *Adipose D. Loose connective E. Reticular 87.Which cells of connective tissue do you see at Fig.93? A. *Adipocytes B. Fibrocytes C. Endothelial cells D. Mast cells E. Reticular cells 88.Connective tissue of which type do you see at Fig.94? A. *Dense regular B. Dense irregular C. Adipose D. Loose connective E. Reticular 89.Which structural components of dense regular connective tissue are labeled No2 at Fig.94? A. Reticular fibers B. *Collagen fibers C. Fibrilla D. Elastic fibers E 90.Which cells of dense regular connective tissue are labeled No1 at Fig.94? A. Adipocytes B. *Fibrocytes C. Endothelial cells D. Mast cells E. Reticular cells 91.Which type of muscular fiber is labeled No2 at Fig. No95? A. *Smooth B. Cardiac C. Striated D. Unmyelinated E. No correct answer 92.Which type of muscular fiber is labeled No3 at Fig. No95? A. Smooth B. *Cardiac C. Striated D. Unmyelinated E. No correct answer 93.Which type of muscular fiber is labeled No1 at Fig. No95? A. Smooth B. Cardiac C. *Striated D. Unmyelinated E. No correct answer ANSWER: СWhich component of chondroid tissue is labeled No2 at Fig.81? A. Isogenous groops of cells B. *Elastic fibers C. Ground substance D. Intercellular substance E. Calcified matrix 94.Which component of chondroid tissue is labeled No3 at Fig.81? A. Isogenous groops of cells B. Elastic fibers C. Collagen fibers D. *Intercellular substance E. Calcified matrix 95.What is elastic fiber number at Fig.No81? A. 1 B. *2 C. 3 D. 4 E. Not labeled 96.Which component of bony tissue is labeled No1 at Fig.100? A. Osteon B. Central channel of osteon C. Intercalated lamella D. *Bony lamella E. Osteocytes 97.Which component of bony tissue is labeled No2 at Fig.100? A. Osteoblasts B. *Central channel of osteon C. Intercalated lamella D. Bony lamella E. Osteocytes 98.Which component of bony tissue is labeled No3 at Fig.100? A. Osteon B. Central channel of osteon C. *Intercalated lamella D. Bony lamella E. Osteocytes What is bony lamella No at Fig.100? A. *1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 99.Which component of muscular tissue do you see at Fig.96? A. Myofibrilles B. Myofilaments C. *Muscular fiber D. Smooth myocyte E. Osteocyte 100. Which tissue do you see at Fig.99? A. *Hyaline cartilage B. Elastic cartilage C. Fibrocartilage D. Connective tissue E. Muscular tissue 101. Which tissue do you see at Fig.98? A. Hyaline cartilage B. Elastic cartilage C. *Fibrocartilage D. Connective tissue E. Muscular tissue 102. Which component of hyaline cartilage is labeled No1 at Fig.99? A. *Perichondrium B. Periosteum C. Proper cartilage D. Intercellular substance E. Young chondroblasts 103. Which component of hyaline cartilage is labeled No4 at Fig.99? A. Perichondrium B. Periosteum C. Proper cartilage D. *Intercellular substance E. Young chondroblasts 104. Which structure of nerve fiber is labeled No1 at Fig.71? A. Axial fiber B. Neurolemma C. Axolemma D. *Myelin sheath E. Connective tissue 105. Which structural type of nerve cell do you see at Fig.73? A. Neurosecretory B. Pseudounipolar C. Multipolar D. Bipolar E. *Unipolar 106. Which structural type of nerve cell do you see at Fig.74? A. Bipolar B. Multipolar C. Unipolar D. Neurosecretory E. *Pseudounipolar 107. Which structure of nerve tissue is labeled No3 at Fig.75? A. Dendrite B. *Axon C. Myelinated nerve fiber D. Unmyelinated nerve fiber E. Nerve 108. Which structure of nerve tissue do you see at cross section at Fig.77? A. Unmyelinated nerve fiber B. *Myelinated nerve fiber C. Nerve D. Blood vessel E. Tendon 109. Which structural type of nerve cell is labeled 1 at Fig. 78? A. Multipolar nerve cell B. Bipolar nerve cell C. *Pseudounipolar nerve cell D. Unipolar nerve cell E. Gliocyte 110. Which structural type of nerve cell do you see at Fig.79? A. Multipolar nerve cell B. Bipolar C. *Pseudounipolar D. Unipolar E. Neurosecretory 111. Which structure of nerve tissue do you see at Fig. 80 (longitudinal section)? A. *Myelinated nerve fiber B. Unmyelinated nerve fiber C. Nerve D. Blood vessel E. Tendon 112. Which structure of nerve tissue do you see at Fig. 82? A. Pseudounipolar nerve cell B. Bipolar nerve cell C. *Multipolar nerve cell D. Oligodendrocyte E. Astrocyte 113. Which blood cell is labeled No1 at Fig. 59? A. *erythrocyte-echinocyte B. erythrocyte-diskocyte C. erythrocyte-planocyte D. erythrocyte-spherocyte E. platelet 114. Which blood formed element do you see at Fig. 60? А. neutrophil В. platelet С. monocyte D. lymphocyte Е. *erythrocyte 115. Which blood cell do you see at Fig. 61? A. erythrocyte-echinocyte B. erythrocyte-spherocyte C. erythrocyte-planocyte D. *erythrocyte-diskocyte E. platelet 116. Which structure of neutrophil is labeled No1 at Fig.62? А. *nucleus В. mitochondria С. Golgi apparatus D. specific granules Е. nonspecific granules 117. Which blood cell is labeled No1 at Fig. 64? А. erythrocyte В. *basophil С. band neutrophil D. segmented neutrophil Е. juvenile neutrophil 118. Which blood formed element is labeled No1 at Fig. 65? А. platelet В. erythrocyte С. *lymphocyte D. monocyte Е. neutrophil 119. Which blood cell is labeled No1 at Fig. 66? А. lymphocyte В. *monocyte С. erythrocyte D. juvenile neutrophil Е. segmented neutrophil 120. Which blood cell do you see in electron micrograph at Fig.67? А. erythrocyte В. lymphocyte С. *monocyte D. segmented neutrophil Е. juvenile neutrophil 121. Which blood cell do you see at Fig. 68? А. platelet В. lymphocyte С. monocyte D. *erythrocyte Е. juvenile neutrophil 122. Which blood cell is labeled No1 at Fig. 92? А. basophil В. eosinophilic granulocyte С. *segmented neutrophil D. band neutrophil Е. monocyte 123. Which blood component is labeled No1 at Fig.70 in test-tube after centrifugation?? A. plasma B. lymphocytes C. monocytes D. *erythrocytes E. granulocytes