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1. Platyhelminthes are more advanced than cnidaria because:
a. Platyhelminthes have a coelom.
b. They have radial symmetry, cnidarians are bilateral.
c. They have a complete digestive system, cnidarians don't.
d. Platyhelminthes are cephalized and have eye spots.
e. Actually cnidarians are more complex.
2. The following are all lophotrochozoans except:
a. Rotifera
b. Echinodermata
c. Ectoprocta
d. Nematoda
e. More than one of the above
3. In members of which of the following classes could you find an incomplete digestive
system?
a. Gastropoda
b. Turbellaria
c. Cnidaria
d. More than one, but not all of the above
e. All of the above
4. Which of the following classes are composed primarily of parasites?
a. Cestodia
b. Hirudinea
c. Trematoda
d. A & C only
e. All of the above
5. What is a major characteristic of parasitic life cycles?
a. A body with a scolex
b. High reproductive out put
c. Consuming a large amount of its host’s nutrients
d. Causing the death of the host
e. More than one of the above
6.
A new species of terrestrial animal is discovered with the following
characteristics: exoskeleton; tracheal system for gas exchange; modified
segmentation. A knowledgeable zoologist would predict that as an adult it
probably also would have:
a. wings
b. a post anal tail
c. a water vascular system
d. a sessile life style
e. a mantle cavity
7.
Which of the following phyla are characterized by a complete digestive system
(mouth and anus)?
a. Porifera
b. Cnideria
c. Platyhelminthes
d. Rotifera
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e. Choices c and d are both correct
9. What structure is characteristic of all mollusks?
a. tentacles
b. shell
c. multiple (more than two) eyes
d. gastrovascular cavity
e. mantle cavity
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10. Nudibranchs (mollusk) are sometimes known to display cnidocytes on their
surface for protection. These cnidocytes are obtained from their food. What
might they have been eating?
a. starfish
b. jellyfish
c. leaches
d. crustaceans
e. flatworms
11. In which of the following phyla do the animals exhibit segmentation?
a. Nematoda
b. Arthropoda
c. Annelida
d. Platyhelmenthes
e. Choices b and c are both correct
12. Annelids are characterized by which of the following characteristics?
a. Blood vessels; b. Both mouth and anus; c. hermaphroditic;
d. answers b and c are correct; e. answers a, b, and c are all correct.
15. Bird embryology is most similar to the embryology of what other vertebrate
class?
a. Agnatha
b. Amphibia c. Reptilia
d. Mammalia
e. Osteichthyes
16. In which group of vertebrates did the lung first evolve?
a. Cartilaginous fishes
b. Bony fishes
c. Amphibians
d. Reptiles
e. Mammals
17. Reptiles are fully adapted to life on land. Which of the following features is one
of the adaptations which make life away from water easier for this group than for the
amphibians?
a.less permeable skin
b. limbs with digits
c. teeth
d. sense of smell
e. endothermy
18. Why are the Echinoderms considered to be more closely related to the Chordates
than to the Arthropods?
a. Because of the lack of segmentation
b. Because of their highly developed sensory systems
c. Because of similar body plans
d. Because of similarities in early development
e. Because most have limbs.
19. Which of the following animals exhibits five-fold symmetry as an adult but
bilateral symmetry as an embryo?
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a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
sea urchin
roundworm
hydra
clam
turtle
20. What basic structure forms in the early embryos of most animals and resembles
the sponge larval stage and some multicellular protists?
a. zygote
b. blastula
c. gastrula
d. protostome e.
coelom
22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of all mammals?
a. live birth of the young
b. hair
c. metabolic regulation of body temperature (endothermy)
d. secretory glands in skin
e. nourishment of the young with milk.
23. What is the most likely reason that Australia had no placental mammals (except
bats) prior to colonization by humans?
a. Marsupials were better adapted to the environment and caused the placental
mammals to go extinct.
b. Long ago, Australia rose out of the sea and was only colonized by
marsupials.
c. Australia separated from Africa and the other continents after the
appearance of the marsupials but before the appearance of the placental
mammals.
d. Marsupials evolved on the southern super continent (Gondwana) while
placental mammals evolved on the northern super continent (Laurasia).
e. Australia is mostly desert and marsupials and monotremes are better adapted
to desert conditions.
26. When characterizing the life cycles of organisms in the various eukaryotic
kingdoms, which of the following statements would apply best to the animals?
a. the haploid portion of the life cycle has been minimized
b. the diploid portion of the life cycle has been minimized
c. the haploid and diploid portions of the life cycle are about equal
d. the life cycles of different animal species are so different that statements
about the life cycles of all the animals are not possible.
e. only the animals include a dikaryotic phase of the life cycle.
27. The endoderm arises during which animal developmental stage?
a. Zygote; b. Cleavage; c. Blastula; d. Gastrula; e. Larva
28. Modern systematics indicates that the animal kingdom evolved from what other
kingdom?
a. Monera; b. Protista; c. Fungi; d. Plantae;
e. The animal kingdom arrose as the result of a symbiosis between a member of
the Protista and a member of the Fungi
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29. Which of the following is descriptive of deuterostome development?
a. The fate of the cleavage stage cells is indeterminate, and the coelom forms
from a solid mass of mesoderm.
b. The fate of the cleavage stage cells is determinant, and the coelom forms
from the blastocoel.
c. Early cleavage is spiral and determinant, and the blastopore becomes the
mouth.
d. Early cleavage is radial and indeterminate, and the blastopore becomes
the anus.
e. Early cleavage is radial and determinant, and the coelom forms from
outpockets of the archenteron (endoderm).
30. Which two phyla contain organisms which have eyes with a focusable lens?
a. Molusca and Arthropoda
b. Annelida and Chordata
c. Cnideria and Arthropoda
d. Echinodermata and Chordata
e. Molusca and Chordata
31. Imagine that you are a biologist who has discovered a previously unknown
creature living on the bottom of the sea. Fertilized eggs from this organism readily
develop into embryos in the laboratory. The early embryos have a notochord, and
older embryos have a vertebral column and dorsal nerve cord and a muscular
postanal tail. From the information given, how would you classify the organism?
a. Animal Kingdom
b. Chordate
c. Vertebrate
d. Choices a and b are both correct, but c may not be correct.
e. Choices a, b, and c are all correct.
3. Which of the following phylogenetic groups within the animal kingdom encompasses
all the others in the list?
A. rotifera
B. deuterostomes
C. bilateria
D. arthropoda
E. protostomes
4. Bilateral symmetry in the animal kingdom is best correlated with:
A. an ability to sense equally in all directions
B. an ability to capture food from a sessile position
C. symbiotic relationships
D. ventral and dorsal differentiation
E. motility and active predation and escape
5. Different lineages of the Class Reptilia are believed to have given rise to which of the
following animal groups?
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A. Birds
D. Mammals
B. Amphibians
E. Both (A) and (D)
6. Medusa and polyp body plans are typical of which group:
A. Parazoa
B. Cnidaria
D. Platyhelminthes
E. Porifera
C. Bony fishes
C. Echinoderms
7. Which of the following is radially symmetrical?
A. a donut
B. an automobile
C. a spoon
D. a dog
E. a submarine sandwich (a.k.a. hoagie, sub, grinder, etc.)
8. Unlike other animals, sponges:
A. are unicellular.
B. possess cell walls.
C. lack true tissues.
D. exhibit bilateral symmetry.
E. are prokaryotic.
9. Octopi are most closely related to which of the following organisms?
A. clams
B. jellyfish
C. starfish
D. earthworms
E. crabs
10. There are three major groups of mammals, categorized on the basis of their
A. size.
B. habitat.
C. method of locomotion.
D. the presence or absence of hair.
E. method of reproduction.
11. The innovation that freed vertebrates from being tied to water for reproduction and
allowed them to radiate into diverse terrestrial environments was the development of
A. ecdysis.
B. the placenta.
C. lateral line system.
D. bony appendages.
E. amniotic egg.
12. Which of the following classifications would not apply to both dogs and humans?
A. Sub-phylum Vertebrata B. Kingdom Animalia
C. Phylum Chordata
D. Order Primates
E. Class Mammalia
13. A child brought home a strange animal it found outside under a rock. It had moist
skin, a complete digestive tract, a ventral nerve cord, and had gone through torsion. It
must be:
A. a lancelet.
B. a crustacean.
C. a mollusk.
D. a roundworm.
E. an annelid.
14. You are eumetazoan, bilateral, and a protostome. What other clade must you belong
to in order to be a rotifera?
A. radiata
B. cnidaria
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C. mollusca
E. ecdysozoa
15. Tetrapods include:
A.humans
C. birds
E. all of the above
D. lophotrochozoa
B. snakes
D. salamanders
18. Based on our current understanding of the evolutionary relationships among
organisms, humans are most closely related to:
A. ray-finned fish
B. amphibians
C. osteichthyes
D. reptiles
E. echinodermata
19. Insects are typically characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Three pairs of legs
B. chelicerata
C. wings
D. A head, thorax, and abdomen
E. Bilateral symmetry
20. Unlike placental mammals, both monotremes and marsupials:
A. are found in Australia and Africa
B. lack nipples
C. include only insectivores and herbivores D. lay eggs
E. have some embryonic development outside the mother's uterus
22. The Chelicerata:
A. have malpighian tubules
B. have three body regions: head, thorax,
abdomen
C. have anterior appendages modified as pincers or fangs
D. undergo complete metamorphosis during their life cycles
E. have all of the above (A-D) features
23. The greatest number of described species is found in which of the following groups
of organisms?
A. Kingdom Plantae
B. Subphylum Vertebrata
C. Kingdom
Fungi
D. Class Insecta
E. Kingdom Animalia
8.) In Protostome development:
a.) the mouth develops from the blastopore
c.) the anus develops first
b.) the mouth develops second
d.) the mouth and the anus are the
same opening
9.) The Mesoderm gives rise to
a.) the outer covering and the central nervous system
b.) the digesntive tube lining
c.) the lungs and the liver
d.) the muscles and most organs
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10.) Ecdysozoans are characterized by
a.) having wings
b.) a process of shedding their exoskeleton
c.) a unique feeding structure d.) a trochophore larval stage
11.) Phylum Porifera contains organisms that:
a.) lack true tissues
b.) live on land
c.) are motile most of their lives
d.) None of the above
12.) Animals in Phylum Cnidarian:
a.) can have two body forms
b.) contain cnidocytes to help capture prey
c.) include jelly fish, corals and hydras
d.) all of the above.
14.) All mollusks:
a.) have three main body parts
c.) contain a mantle
b.) are soft bodied
d.) all of the above
15.) Nematodes have a tough outer coat called a:
a.) saprobe
b.) cuticle
c.) proglotids
d.) exockeleton
16.) Echinoderms contain
a.) a water vascular system b.) a true head
c.) cnidocytes
d.) chitin
17.) Which is not a characteristic of all chordates?
a.) dorsal, hallow nerve cord
b.) notochord
c.) paired appendages
d.) muscular post-anal tail
18.) The unique cells to craniates are called:
a.) epithelial cells
b.) neural crest cells
c.) radial crest cells d.) none of the above
19.) Lobe-finned fish
a.) contain a swim bladder b.) are from order anura
c.) are amniotes
d.) none of the above
20.) Derived human characteristics include
a.) upright posture
b.) bipedal stance
c.) larger brains
d.) all of the above
3. Sharks and rays _______.
a. have skeletons made of cartilage
b. are gnathostomes
c. have true jaws
d. all of the above
4. A water vascular system can be found in _______.
a. millipede
b. grass hopper
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c. crab
d. starfish
e. Roundworm
6. What gave vertebrates an advantage to colonizing land?
a. being warm-blooded
b. the amniotic egg
c. development of gills
d. indeterminant cleavage
7. ______, ______, and ______ all lack true heads.
a. tunicates, lancelets, craniates
b. tunicates, lancelets, rotifers
c. craniates, tunicates, rotifers
d. rotifers, craniates, lancelets
8. Protosomes undergo _______ and ______ cleavage.
a. radial and indeterminant
b. radial and determinant
c. spiral and indeterminant
d. spiral and determinant
10. Chitin can be found in _______.
a. cell walls of fungi
b. exoskeleton of arthropods
c. cell walls of nematodes
d. both a and b
11. Humans are _______ animals.
a. exothermic
b. endothermic
c. isothermic
d. mesothermic
12. Reptiles, birds, amphibians, and humans are all amniotes.
a. true
b. false
13. A tracheal system is a system used for _______.
a. respiration
b. excretion
c. digestion
d. none of the above
14. The Cambrian explosion occurred during the _______ Era.
a. Cenozoic
b. Mesozoic
c. Paleozoic
d. Neoproterozoic
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15. The body regions of an insect are _______.
a. head, body, wings
b. head, abdomen
c. thorax, abdomen, wings
d. head, thorax, abdomen
2. The difference between millipedes and centipedes is that ______.
a. millipedes live one million years and centipedes only live one hundred years
b. millipedes have one million legs and centipedes only have one hundred legs
c. millipedes have two pairs of legs per segment and centipedes have only one
pair
d. millipedes have one pair of legs per segment and centipedes have two
3. Viviparous development occurs with ______.
a. all mammals
b. reptiles
c. amphibians
d. eutherians
4. Humans evolved from apes.
a. true
b. false
6. Ecdysis is the process of _____.
a. growing back a lost limb
b. the molting of an exoskeleton
c. changing from one stage to another in metamorphosis
d. an insect slowly dehydrating itself in preparation for winter
9. An example of a filter feeder would be a(n) _______.
a. amphibians
b. snail
c. earthworm
d. sponge
10. Humans are ______.
a. Mammals
b. Eutherians
c. Homo sapiens
d. Hominoids
e. all of the above
11. Having moist skin and lungs allowed ______ to live on land.
a. amphibians
b. reptiles
c. slugs
d. plankton
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13. Birds are _____.
a. always able to fly
b. descended from reptiles
c. sometimes flightless
d. both b and c
e. both a and b
24. Which of the following is false regarding mitosis and meiosis?
a. Mitosis produces daughter cells with the same ploidy level whereas meiosis
produces daughter cells with half the ploidy level.
b. Mitosis provides heritability but not variability whereas meiosis provides both
heritability and variability.
c. Mitosis is present in all somatic cells and germ cells whereas meiosis is present
only in germ cells.
d. none of the above
e. all of the above
25. A cell has 250 chromosomes. After the cell undergoes meiosis, how many daughter
cells are formed and how many chromosomes does each cell have?
A. 2, 250
B. 4, 125
C. 4, 250
D. 2, 125
E. 2, 500
26. Which of the following is not a phase of mitotic phase of cell cycle?
A. Prophase B. Interphase C. Prometaphase
D. Telophase E. Anaphase
27. The chromosome is attached to the spindle fiber at the following structure
A. centrosome
B. centromere
C. Kinetochore
microtubule
28. Which of the following is not one of the check points in cell cycle?
A. G1 checkpoint
B. S checkpoint
C. M checkpoint
checkpoint
D.
D. G2
29. Which of the following doesn’t occur during mitosis?
A. condensation of the chromosomes
B. replication of DNA
C. spindle formation
D. separation of the spindle poles
30. One difference between cancer cells and normal cells is that cancer cells
A. are unable to synthesize DNA
B. are arrested at the S phase of the cell cycle
C. continue to divide even when they are tightly packed together
D. are always in the M phase of the cell cycle
31. A particular cell has half as much DNA as some other cells in a mitotically active
tissue. The cell in question is most likely in
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A. G1
prophase
B. G2
C. metaphase
D. Anaphase
40. Trichinosis is a disease caused by a/an
A. Rotifera
B. Platyhelminthes C. Nematoda
E. Annelida
32. Among the characteristics unique to animals is
a. gastrulation.
b. multicellularity.
c. sexual reproduction.
d. flagellated sperm.
e. heterotrophic nutrition.
33. Acoelomates are characterized by
a. the absence of a brain.
b. the absence of mesoderm.
c. deuterostome development.
d. a coelom that is not completely lined with mesoderm.
e. a solid body without a cavity surrounding internal organs.
E.
D. Fungus
34. Ectoderm can give rise to _____; mesoderm can give rise to _____; endoderm can
give rise to _____.
a. muscle ... the outer covering of the animal ... the central nervous system
b. the lining of the digestive tract ... muscle ... the outer covering of the animal
c. the central nervous system ... the outer covering of the animal ... the lining of the
digestive tube
d. muscle ... the outer covering of the animal ... the lining of the digestive tube
e. the central nervous system ... muscle ... the lining of the digestive tube
35. A pseudocoelomate animal is one in which the body cavity is _____.
a. bounded completely by mesoderm
b. filled by a solid mass of mesoderm
c. bounded completely by endoderm
d. bounded partly by ectoderm
e. bounded partly by mesoderm
36. Which of the following are related only to Prophase I in meiosis?
i. synapsis
ii. crossing over
iii. kinetochore
iv. chiasmata
v. Tetrad
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
i, ii and iii
i, ii and iv
i, ii and iv
i, ii, iii and iv
i, ii, iii and v
All of the above
37. Which of the following is true about Anaphase I of meiosis?
a. The sister chromatids separate
b. The nuclear envelope forms back
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c. The homologous chromosomes separate
d. The spindle fibers contracts
e. more than one of the above
f. none of the above
1.
Which of the following statements about the relationship between DNA molecules
and chromatids is correct?
a. Each chromatid contains a single linear DNA molecule.
b. Each chromatid contains a large number of circular DNA molecules.
c. The number of DNA molecules per chromatid varies between one and two
depending on the time in the cell cycle.
d. The number of DNA molecules per chromatid is described by the term ploidy.
Thus, diploid cells contain two, tetraploid four, etc.
e. Each gene is a DNA molecule, and chromosomes contain many genes, therefore
each chromatid contains a large number of linear DNA molecules.
2. Which of the following terms refers to structures with similar, but not identical, DNA
molecules?
a. diploids
b. homologous chromosomes
c. sister chromatids
d. homologs
e. choices b and d are both correct
3. How many chromosomes and how many chromatids are present in a haploid cell
during metaphase if a diploid cell from the organism has 48 chromosomes during G1?
a) 24 and 24;
b) 24 and 48;
c) 48 and 48;
d) 48 and 96;
e) 96 and 96.
4. Which of the following statements about meiosis is correct?
a. One purpose of meiosis is to assure that sexual reproduction does not double the
amount of DNA per cell each generation.
b. One purpose of meiosis is to assure that daughter cells are essentially identical.
c. One purpose of meiosis is to provide a large amount of variation within a
population.
d. Choices a and c are both correct.
e. Choices a, b, and c are all correct.
5. What is a major difference between Prophase of Meiosis I and Prophase of Meiosis
II?
a. DNA synthesis occurs in Prophase I, but not in Prophase II.
b. Recombination occurs in Prophase I, but not in Prophase II.
c. The spindle forms in Prophase II, but not Prophase I.
d. Chromosomes line up in the center of the cell in Prophase I. Chromosomes do not
line up in Prophase II.
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e. Choices b and c are both correct.
6. A diploid brain cell from a female mouse has 22 chromosomes in Metaphase. How
many chromosomes and how many chromatids are present in prophase of meiosis II
in this mouse?
a. 11 chromosomes and 11 chromatids
b. 11 chromosomes and 22 chromatids
c. 22 chromosomes and 11 chromatids
d. 22 chromosomes and 22 chromatids
e. 22 chromosomes and 44 chromatids
7. A Drosophila melanogaster sperm cell has four chromosomes. How many DNA
molecules, how many chromatids, and how many chromosomes are present in a
Drosophila cell nucleus during metaphase of Meiosis I?
a. 4 DNA Molecules, 4 chromatids, and 4 chromosomes
b. 8 DNA Molecules, 8 chromatids, and 4 chromosomes
c. 8 DNA Molecules, 8 chromatids, and 8 chromosomes
d. 16 DNA Molecules, 8 chromatids, and 8 chromosomes
e. 16 DNA Molecules, 16 chromatids, and 8 chromosomes
8. A tetraploid marigold cell has 48 chromosomes in its nucleus during the G1 portion
of the mitotic cell cycle. How many chromosomes are present in a cell from the
same plant which is in the metaphase of meiosis II?
a. 96
b. 48
c. 24
d. 12
e. 6
9. The transmission of traits from one generation to another is called:
a.) genetic recombination.
b.) meiosis.
c.) gene transmission.
d.) inheritance.
10. Chromosomes in a pair that have the same length, staining pattern, and centromere
position are known as_________________.
a.) homolougues.
b.) sister chromatids
c.) somatic chromosomes.
d.) none of the above.
11. Gametes are produced by ____________ which takes place in the _____________ part of
the life cycle.
a.) mitosis, haploid.
b.) mitosis, diploid.
c.) meiosis, diploid.
d.) meiosis, haploid.
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