Download General mikrobiology

Module 1 General microbiology
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Text test questions
Which of the following vaccines are prepared from live microbes?
A. diphtheria vaccine
B. Solk polio vaccine.
C. Influenza vaccine
D. DPT
E. *BCG and oral polio vaccines
Which part of the immunoglobulin binds with the antigen?
A. Fc fragment
B. H chains
C. L chains
D. constant parts of the H and L chains
E. *variable parts of the H and L chains
Which part of the antibody can binds antigenic determinants of the antigen?
A. H chains
B. Hinge
C. Fc fragment
D. L chains
E. *Fab fragments
Which of the following classes of immunoglobulins can cross the placenta?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM
E. *IgG
What classes of immunoglobilins contain J chain?
A. IgG and IgE
B. IgA and IgG
C. IgG and IgM
D. IgM and IgE
E. *IgM and IgA
Which of the following classes of immunoglobulins can transfer from mother to child?
A. IgM
B. IgE
C. IgD
D. IgA
E. *IgG
Which of the following classes of antibodies does fetus obtain from mother?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM
E. *IgG
Choose among the listed immunoglobulins that contain secretory component:
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG1
D. IgE
E. *sIgA
Choose antibody production cells:
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. T helpers
D. Macrophages
E. *Plasma cells
10. All Antigen-presenting cells contain?
A. IgM
B. TNF
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. Gamma interferon
E. *Class II MHC antigens
11. Which of the following are antigen presenting cells?
A. NK cells and mast cels
B. Th and Tk
C. Plasma cells
D. Cytotoxic cells and nurse cells
E. *Macrophages and B cells
12. Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh
incompatibility?
A. Atopic or anaphylactic
B. Autoimmune
C. Delayed
D. Immune complex
E. *Cytotoxic
13. The role of the macrophage during an antibody response is to:
A. make antibody
B. lyse virus-infected target cells
C. activate cytotoxic T cells.
D. produce interleukins
E. *process antigen and present it
14. Choose secondary immunodeficiency:
A. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
B. Ataxia-telangiectasia
C. Chronic granulomatous disease
D. Burtone disease
E. *AIDS
15. A lymphokine that stimulates the activity of B and T cells is:
A. interleukin-2
B. gamma interferon
C. TNF
D. lymphotoxin
E. *interleukin-1
16. The classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of Cl with:
A. antigen
B. factor B
C. bacterial lipopolysaccharides
D. endotoxin
E. *antigen-IgG complexes
17. Choose of the following T cells which assist in the functions of certain B cells and other T cells are:
A. Sensitized
B. Cytotoxic
C. Natural killer
D. T killer
E. *Helper
18. The classic complement pathway occurs when complement binds with:
A. factor B
B. antigen-IgA complexes
C. bacterial capsula
D. endotoxin
E. *antigen-antibody complex
19. Natural killer cells are:
A. B cells that can kill bacteria without complement
B. cytotoxic T cells
C. increased by immunization
D. able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization
E. *very importent in antiviral and antitumor immunity
20. T cells that activate B cells and other T cells are?
A. Cytotoxic
B. Sensitized
C. T killer
D. T-effector
E. *Helper
21. Cytotoxic cells (NK) are:
A. B cells
B. cytotoxic T cells
C. able to kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells by lymphotoxin production
D. macrophages.
E. *able to kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells without prior sensitization
22. An antigen is:
A. a hapten that combines with an antibody
B. a small molecule that attaches to cells.
C. a carbohydrate
D. a protein that combines with antibodies
E. *a substance that incites an antibody respons and can combine specifically with these antibodies.
23. Which one of the following substances is released by activated helper Th1 cells?
A. Alpha interferon
B. Interleukin-5
C. Interleukin-6
D. bradikidin
E. *Gamma interferon
24. B lymphocytes originate in:
A. adult bone marrow and limph nodes
B. fetal liver
C. thymus
D. lymph nodes
E. *fetal liver and borne marrow
25. Which one of the following substances is released by activated helper Th2 cells?
A. б interferon
B. в interferon
C. TNF
D. serotonin
E. *Interleukin-6
26. Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T cells must express which one of the following on their
surfaces:
A. IgE
B. Gamma interferon
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. IgM
E. *Class II MHC antigens
27. The direct, immediate cause of allergic symptoms is the action of:
A. the allergen directly on smooth muscle
B. the allergen on B lymphocytes
C. lgE on smooth muscle
D. lymphotoxin on mast cells
E. *allergic mediators released from mast cells and basophils
28. Antigen-presenting cells must express on their surfaces:
A. IgM
B. IgE
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. Gamma interferon
E. *Class II MHC antigens
29. The first, direct symptoms of anaphylaxis are associated with action of:
A. the allergen directly on smooth muscle
B. the allergen on B lymphocytes
C. lymphotoxin on mast cells
D. lgE on smooth muscle
E. *allergic mediators released from mast cells and basophils
30. Complement lyses cells by:
A. enzymatic digestion of the cell membrane
B. activation of adenylate cyclase
C. inhibition of elongation factor 2
D. enzymatic digestion of LPS
E. *insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane
31. A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of:
A. autoimmunity
B. eczema
C. acute contact dermatitis
D. immune-complex reaction
E. *delayed-type allergy
32. Complement kills different cells by:
A. activation of adenylate cyclase
B. enzymatic digestion of the cell membrane
C. apoptosis mechanism
D. inhibition of elongation factor 2
E. *insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane
33. Complex of antigen with IgE attached to mast cells and then causes:
A. precipitation
B. complement fixation
C. agglutination
D. lysis
E. *degranulation
34. After formation of IgE-allergen complex on the surface of the mast cells occur:
A. precipitation
B. complement fixation
C. agglutination
D. toxin production.
E. *degranulation
35. Cell wall is lacking in:
A. Actinomyces
B. Corynebacterium
C. Brucella
D. Spirocheates
E. *Mycoplasma
36. A positive tuberculin skin test (a delayed hypersensitivity reaction) indicates that:
A. a humoral immune response has occurred
B. both the T and B cell systems are functional
C. only the B cell system is functional
D. B cells are activated
E. *a cell-mediated immune response has occurred
37. Cell wall is absent in:
A. Actinomyces
B. Brucella
C. Corynebacterium
D. Spirocheates
E. *Mycoplasma
38. A patient with a central nervous system disorder is maintained on the drug methyldopa; Hemolytic
anemia develops, which resolves shortly after the drug is withdrawn. This is MOST probably an
example of:
A. atopic hypersensitivity
B. immune-complex hypersensitivity
C. cell-mediated hypersensitivity
D. delayed-type hypersensitivity
E. *cytotoxic hypersensitivity
39. Hemolytic anemia develops, which resolves shortly after the drug is withdrawn. This is MOST probably
an example of:
A. autoimmune diseases
B. cell-mediated hypersensitivity
C. immune-complex hypersensitivity
D. atopic hypersensitivity
E. *cytotoxic hypersensitivity
40. In the bacteriological method of infection disease diagnosis a serological identification has great
importance. What does mean serological identification? Choose the true answer.
A. Examination of a kind of bacteria on biochemical properties
B. Examination of ability to decompose the curtailed serum
C. Examination of a kind of bacteria on ability to reduce the certain dyes
D. Examination of genome structure of bacteria's nucleoid
E. *Examination of antigenic structure of bacteria
41. What is serological identification?
A. Examination of morphological properties
B. Examination of reducing properties
C. Examination of biochemical properties
D. Examination of tinctorial properties
E. *Examination of antigenic properties
42. Humoral factor of a nonspecific resistance to infection is:
A. NK cells
B. unbroken skin
C. cilia in trachea
D. all of these
E. *lysozyme in saliva
43. Choose among the following humoral factor of a nonspecific resistance to infection:
A. macrophages
B. unbroken skin
C. cilia in intestine
D. Hydrochloric acid of stomach
E. *complement
44. What is the value of a hanging-drop preparation?
A. For study sensitivity to antibiotics
B. For examinate biochemical properties
C. For study morphology of bacteria
D. For study cultural properties of bacteria
E. *For study motility of bacteria
45. Monocytes are leukocytes that develop into:
A. agranular, macrophages
B. agrunular, mast cells
C. granular, T cells
D. granular, B cells
E. *granular, phagocytes
46. Macrophages are leucocytes that develop from:
A. thymocytes
B. mast cells
C. T cells
D. B cells
E. *monocytes
47. Which of the following is the end product of the complement system?
A. properdin
B. membrane attack complex
C. cascade reaction
D. complement factor C1
E. *complement factor C9
48. What does mean the term colonial morphology?
A. Ability of microorganisms to colonize some tissues
B. Structure of bacteria inside the colony
C. Ability of microorganisms grow separatly
D. Characteristics by which bacterial colonies may be distinguished.
E. *A visible aggregate of bacteria
49. Why can a single colony on a plate be used to start a pure culture?
A. because it contains a large number of microbes
B. because colony contains different kinds of bacteria
C. because only colony can grow onto solid nutrients media
D. because colonies of different bacteria are similar
E. *because colony represents the growth of one bacterial species
50. Which of the following is the end product of the activation of the complement system?
A. properdin
B. cascade reaction
C. complement factor C1
D. complement factor C5
E. *membrane attack complex
51. Choose the nutrient medium for obtaining the separate colonies:
A. Meat-pepton broth
B. Sugar broth
C. Kitt-Tarozzi medium
D. Alkaline pepton water
E. *Meat-pepton agar
52. Choose among listed nutrient media for study of proteolytic properties of bacteria:
A. Meat - pepton agar
B. Sugar agar
C. YSA
D. Blood agar
E. *The curtailed serum
53. Which of the following is the first product of the classic pathway of activation of the complement
system?
A. properdin
B. membrane attack complex
C. complement factor C4
D. complement factor C5
E. *C1q, C1r, C1s complex
54. The pure culture of anaerobic microorganisms can be obtained by ____
A. Fortner's method
B. Shukevich's method
C. Paster's method
D. Loeffler's method
E. *Veinberg's method
55. Choose among the following the convertase of classic pathway of activation of the complement system?
A. C4b2a5b
B. membrane attack complex
C. C1q, C1r, C1s complex
D. C3bBb
E. *C4b2a
56. We can obtain pure culture of anaerobic microorganisms by __:
A. Fortner's method
B. Shukevich's method
C. Paster's method
D. Loeffler's method
E. *Veinberg's method
57. Choose among the listed microorganisms obligate aerobes.
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulinum
C. Shigella dysenteriae, Salmonella typhi
D. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella melitensis
E. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Micrococcacae
58. Which of the following is the convertase of alternative pathway of activation of the complement
system?
A. C4b2a5b
B. C1q, C1r, C1s complex
C. C4b2a
D. membrane attack complex
E. *C3bBb
59. Choose among these bacteria obligate aerobes.
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Shigella dysenteriae, Salmonella typhi
C. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella melitensis
D. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulini
E. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Micrococcacae
60. Choose among these bacteria obligate anaerobes.
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Micrococcacae
C. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella melitensis
D. Shigella dysenteriae, Salmonella typhi
E. *Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulini
61. Immunological memory refers to the ability of the immune system to:
A. recognize millions of different antigens
B. migrate from the blood vessels into the tissues
C. react with millions of different antigens
D. activate T cells
E. *recall a previous immune response
62. The second stage of obtaining of pure culture of aerobes will be:
A. Inoculating of a mix (material) on a solid nutrient medium
B. Check of cleanliness of the pure culture and its identification
C. Biochemical and serological identification
D. Microscopic examination of a material
E. *Studying of isolated colonies and inoculating on the slant agar
63. Immunological memory develops after:
A. injection of antibodies
B. activation of NK cells
C. stimulation of macrophages
D. activation of T cells
E. *injection of the antigen
64. The third stage of obtaining of pure culture of aerobes is ____
A. Inoculating of a mix (material) on a solid nutrient medium
B. Biochemical and serological identification
C. Studying of isolated colonies and inoculating on the slant agar
D. Microscopic examination of a material
E. *Check of cleanliness of the pure culture and its identification
65. Т killer cells are important in controlling of ___:
A. allergy
B. autoimmunity
C. production of antibodies
D. all of these
E. *virus infections
66. T killers can kill all infected cells, which contain:
A. MHC II class antigens
B. receptors to Fc fragment of antibody
C. receptors to C3b component of complement
D. all of these
E. *MHC I class antigens
67. What’s next step of staining by Ziehl-Neelsen’s method after using sulphuric acid?
A. Staining by ziehl’s phenol fuchsine
B. Using alcohol
C. Staining by mеthylene blue
D. Using iodine solution
E. *Washing with water
68. Spores are necessary to bacteria for:
A. Survival into human and animal’s organism
B. Reproduction
C. Defence from fagocytosis
D. Defence from acid in stomack
E. *Survival in an external environment
69. Vaccination is synonymous with immunity.
A. natural active
B. artificial passive
C. natural passive
D. antitoxic passive
E. *artificial active
70. Endospores are necessary to bacteria for:
A. Defence from acid in stomack
B. Reproduction
C. Defence from fagocytosis
D. Survival into human and animal’s organism
E. *Survival in an external environment
71. T cells are responsible for which type of allergy?
A. asthma
B. anaphylaxis
C. atopy
D. cytotonic
E. *delay hypersensitivity
72. Endospores of bacillus are necessary to bacteria for:
A. Survival into human and animal’s organism
B. Reproduction
C. Defence from fagocytosis
D. Defence from acid in stomack
E. *Survival in an external environment
73. Anaerobic conditions can be created with using:
A. Zoessler's method
B. Shukevich's method
C. Veinberg's method
D. Paster's method
E. *Fortner's method
74. Antibodies take part in all types of hypersensitivity, except?
A. cytotoxic reactions
B. anaphylaxis
C. immune-complex rection
D. atopy reaction
E. *tuberculin reactions
75. Choose method of creating of anaerobic conditions:
A. Koch’s method
B. Loeffler’s method
C. Shukevich's method
D. Shukevich's method
E. *Fortner's method
76. An example of a type III immune complex disease is:
A. graft rejection
B. contact dermatitis
C. atopy
D. asthma
E. *serum sickness
77. Choose method of obtaining pure culture of anaerobic bacteria:
A. Shukevich's method
B. Koch’s method
C. Fortner's method
D. Paster's method
E. *Zoessler's method
78. Choose the nutrients media on which it is possible to cultivate anaerobic microorganisms:
A. Meat - pepton agar, meat - pepton broth
B. The curtailed serum, meat-pepton gelatin
C. Blood agar, serum agar
D. Endo's and Lewin's media
E. *Zoessler's sugar - blood agar, Kitt-Tarozzi's medium
79. Choose among the following immune-complex disease:
A. asthma
B. atopy
C. contact dermatitis
D. graft rejection
E. *serum sickness
80. Specify the nutrients media on which it is possible to cultivate anaerobic microorganisms:
A. Meat - pepton agar, meat - pepton broth
B. medium Endo's and Lewin's media
C. The curtailed serum, meat- pepton gelatin
D. Blood agar, serum agar
E. *Zoessler's, Kitt-Tarozzi's media
81. Which of the following is immune-complex disease:
A. graft rejection
B. contact dermatitis
C. atopy
D. asthma
E. *serum sickness
82. Peptolytic properties of bacteria we can study by detection in tubes:
A. Carbonic acids and waters
B. Glucose and lactoses
C. Carbonic acids and nitrogen
D. Mannitol and metanol
E. *Indol and hydrogen sulphide
83. For obtaining separated colony of anaerobic microorganisms we use one of next nutrient media:
A. Kitt-Tarozzi's medium
B. Hiss media
C. Endo's medium
D. Ploskirev medium
E. *Sugar - blood Zoessler's agar
84. The third stage of selecting of pure culture of aerobic microorganisms is:
A. Inoculating of a mix (material) on a solid nutrient medium
B. Microscopic examination of a material
C. Microscopy of smear
D. Studying of isolated colonies and Inoculating on the slant agar
E. *Biochemical and serological identification
85. Which of the following nonspecific substances is a normal component of serum?
A. lysozyme
B. interferon
C. collagenase
D. lysosome
E. *complement
86. Resistance of bacteria to acid depends from present in cytoplasm:
A. lipopolysaccharides
B. acetylglucosamine
C. diaminopimelic acid
D. polyphosphates
E. *fatty waxes, fatty acid
87. Which of the following normal component of serum has antiviral activity?
A. complement
B. collagenase
C. lysozyme
D. lysosome
E. *interferon
88. Cell wall of gram-positive bacteria consist of:
A. thin monolayer peptidoglycan
B. lipoproteins
C. lipopolysaccharides
D. outer membrane
E. *polilayer peptidoglycan
89. Cell wall of gram-negative bacteria contains all of following, except:
A. thin monolayer peptidоglycan
B. lipoproteins
C. lipopolysaccharides
D. outer membrane
E. *polilayer peptidoglycan
90. Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an:
A. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus.
B. 0 mother carries an AB fetus
C. AB mother carries an 0 fetus.
D. Two of the above are correct.
E. *Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus
91. Which of the following substances can damage bacterial cell wall :
A. sulphonamides
B. interferone
C. alcohol
D. streptomycin
E. *lysozyme
92. Choose among the listed when hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs:
A. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus.
B. 0 mother carries an AB fetus
C. AB mother an 0 fetus.
D. B mother carries an Rh-positive fetus
E. *Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus.
93. Lysozyme can damage bacteria cell because bacteria contain:
A. outer membrane
B. lipopolysaccharides
C. lipoproteins
D. carbohydrates
E. *peptidoglycan
94. Which property does mycoplasma differ from bacteria:
A. by structure of the nucleoid
B. by intracellular parasite
C. by tinctorial properties
D. by structure of cytoplasmatic membrane
E. *by absence of cell wall
95. Which of the following are reservoirs for human infections.
A. food and water
B. humans
C. animals
D. All of the above are reservoirs for human infections
E. *Only b and c are reservoirs
96. Mycoplasma differ from bacteria:
A. by structure of the nucleoid
B. by toxin production
C. by tinctorial properties
D. by structure of cytoplasmatic membrane
E. *by absence of cell wall
97. Which concentration of ethyl alcohol would is the most effective disinfectant?
A. 100%
B. 60%
C. 50%
D. 30%
E. *70%
98. Plasma cells are:
A. mature T cells.
B. immature macrophages
C. mature macrophages.
D. immature T cells.
E. *antibody-producing cells.
99. At the classic complement pathway Cl must bind with:
A. antigen-IgA complexes
B. hapten
C. red blood cells
D. bacteria
E. *antigen-IgG complexes
100.
Choose among the listed cells plasma cells:
A. immature macrophages.
B. mature T cells.
C. immature T cells.
D. vmature macrophages.
E. *antibody-producing cells
101.
Which one of the following is true regarding the alternative complement pathway?
A. It can be triggered by infectious agents in presence of antibodies
B. It requires C1,C2, or C4
C. C4b2a presents
D. components B and properdin are not necessery
E. *C3bBb presents
102.
Which of the following molecules would be the best antigens?
A. glucose
B. fatty acids
C. sugars
D. lipide
E. *proteins
103.
Choose among the listed substances the antigen:
A. sugars
B. fatty acids
C. glucose
D. lipids
E. *proteins
104.
Which one of the following is NOT true regarding the alternative complement pathway?
A. It can be triggered by infectious agents in absence of antibody
B. It does not require C1,C2, or C4
C. It has the same terminal sequence of events as the classic pathway
D. C3bBb presents
E. *It cannot be initialed unless C3b fragments are already present
105.
Which of the following antibodies can pass through the placenta?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgD
E. *IgG
106.
Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires maternal
antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is:
A. IgA antibody
B. SIgA antibody
C. IgE antibody
D. IgM antibody
E. *IgG antibody
107.
Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid tissue?
A. spleen
B. lymph nodes
C. GALT
D. tonsil gland
E. *thyroid gland
108.
All of the following are organs of immune system, except:
A. GALT
B. spleen
C. lymph nodes
D. tonsil gland
E. *thyroid gland
109.
Choose among the listed central organs of immune system:
A. GALT, spleen
B. lymph nodes, thymus,
C. thyroid gland, tonsil gland
D. bone narrow, spleenbone narrow
E. *thymus, bone marrow
110.
Which type of cells actually secretes antibodies?
A. T cells
B. macrophages
C. monocytes
D. NK cells
E. *plasma cells
111.
The greatest concentration of antibodies is found in the fraction of the serum is:
A. albumin
B. alpha globulin
C. beta globulin
D. crioglobuline
E. *gamma globulin
112.
Antibodies are found in one of next fraction of the serum:
A. crioglobuline
B. beta globulin
C. alpha globulin
D. albumin
113.
114.
in:
E. *gamma globulin
Where active center of antibody is located?
A. in Fc part of antibody
B. in H chains
C. between constant part of the H and L chains
D. in L chains
E. *between variable parts of the H and L chains
If we don’t detect in child B cells, this immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
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B.
C.
D.
E.
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B.
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in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
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B.
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B.
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B.
C.
D.
E.
the thymus
stem cells originating in the bone marrow
T cell-B cell interaction
phagocytosis
*the bursal equivalent
Which of the following classes of immunoglobulins are described as secretory?
IgG
IgM
IgD
IgE
*IgA
Choose among the listed secretory immunoglobulins:
IgM
IgG
IgE
IgD
*IgA
If we don’t detect in child T cells, this immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect
stem cells originating in the bone marrow
T cell-B cell interaction
phagocytosis
the bursal equivalent
*the thymus
The main advantage of passive immunization over active immunization is that:
it can be administered orally
antibody persists for a longer period
it contains primarily IgM
it contains primarily IgG
*it provides antibody more rapidly
Which type of hypersensitivities is T-cell mediated?
type I
type II
type III
type VI
*type IV
Type II hypersensitivities are due to:
IgE reacting with mast cells
IgG-allergen complexes that clog epithelial tissues
activation of cytotoxic T cells
activation of NK
*complement-induced lysis of cells in the presence of antibodies
Endotoxins have such properties:
are found in both Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria.
are part of the Gram-positive cell wall only.
are heat labile.
are proteins.
*all have the same effect,
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C.
D.
E.
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B.
What does Kingdom Prokaryotae include:
protozoa.
fungi
viruses
all of the above.
*bacteria
Choose among listed where peptidoglycan is major constituent of cell wall:
gram-negative bacteria.
fungi
protozoa
none of the above.
*gram-positive bacteria.
Choose among listed where lipopolysaccharide is a major constituent of cell wall:
gram-positive bacteria.
fungi
protozoa
none of the above
*gram-negative bacteria.
Sterols are present in the cytoplasmic membrane of:
Bacillus
Clostridium
Proteus
Ricketsia
*Mycoplasma
What analogous structures of eukaryotes are bacteria mesosomes?
lysosomes
Golgi apparatus
polyribosomes
endosomes
*mitochondria
When flagella are distributed all round the bacterial cell, the arrangement is known as:
monotrichous
lophotrichous
amphitrichous
bitrichous
*peritrichous
Endo medium is an example of:
transport medium.
enrichment medium.
enriched medium.
selective medium
*differential medium.
Levin’s medium (EMB) is an example of:
enrichment medium.
enriched medium.
selective medium
simple medium
*differential medium.
Choose among listed bacteria which produce endospores:
Bacterium
Corynebacterium
Mycobacterium
Micrococcus
*Bacillus
Bacteria whose optimal temperature for growth is 37°C are known as:
psychrophiles.
thermophiles.
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140.
C. heterophiles.
D. none of the above.
E. *mesophiles.
Who was father of microbiology?
A. Robert Koch
B. Antony van Leeuwenhoek.
C. Edward Jenner.
D. John Hunter
E. *LouisPasteur.
Who was father of antiseptic surgery?
A. Ferdinand Cohn.
B. John Needham.
C. Karl Landsteiner.
D. Robert Koch.
E. *Joseph Lister.
Choose among listed bacteria whose optimal temperature for growth is 15°C
A. heterophiles
B. thermophiles
C. mesophiles
D. none of the above
E. *psychrophiles
Who did first discovere of Salvarsan?
A. Karl Landsteiner.
B. Gerhardt Domagk.
C. Howard Florey.
D. Arthur Fleming
E. *Paul Ehrlich.
Who did advance the concept of Contagium vivum?
A. Pollender.
B. Louis Pasteur.
C. Lazzaro Spallanzani.
D. Edward Jenner
E. *Fracastorius.
Who was the founder of scientific microbiology?
A. Robert Koch.
B. Antony van Leeuwenhoek.
C. Edward Jenner.
D. Paul Ehrlich.
E. *Louis Pasteur.
Who did develop rabies vaccine for the first time in 1885?
A. Semple.
B. Edward Jenner
C. Paul Ehrlich.
D. Wasserman.
E. *Louis Pasteur.
Choose among listed bacteria whose optimal temperature for growth is 37°C:
A. heterophiles
B. psychrophiles
C. thermophiles
D. none of the above
E. *mesophiles
Who of the following scientists proposed side chain theory of antibody production in 1898?
A. Elie Metchnikoff.
B. John Hunter.
C. Edward Jenner.
D. Ivanowsky
E. *Paul Ehrlich.
141.
Generation time of Escherichia coli is:
A. 20 seconds
B. 20 hours.
C. 20 days.
D. none of the above.
E. *20 minutes
142.
Generation time of Salmonella typhy is:
A. 20 seconds
B. 20 hours.
C. 20 days.
D. none of the above.
E. *20 minutes
143.
Choose among listed bacteria whose optimal temperature for growth is 15°C:
A. heterophiles
B. thermophiles
C. mesophiles
D. none of the above
E. *psychrophiles
144.
The period between inaculation of bacteria in a culture medium and beginning of multiplication
is known as:
A. log phase.
B. stationary phase.
C. decline phase.
D. maximum phase
E. *lag phase.
145.
All bacteria that inhabit the human body are:
A. autotrophs
B. phototrophs
C. chemolithotrophs
D. photolithotrophs
E. *heterotrophs
146.
Choose among listed the period between inoculation of bacteria in a culture medium and
beginning of multiplication:
A. log phase.
B. stationary phase.
C. decline phase.
D. maximum phase
E. *lag phase
147.
All microorganisms that live in the human body are:
A. autotrophs
B. phototrophs
C. chemolithotrophs
D. photolithotrophs
E. *heterotrophs
148.
Bacteria which cause illnesses at people are:
A. autotrophs
B. phototrophs
C. chemolithotrophs
D. photolithotrophs
E. *heterotrophs
149.
Agar is used for solidifying culture media because:
A. it does not add to the nutritive properties of the medium.
B. it is not affected by the growth of bacteria.
C. the melting and solidifying points of agar solution are not the same.
D. it does not contain toxic substances
E. *all of the above.
150.
Choose among listed the period of microbial growth curve when balance between cell division
and cell death occurs:
A. lag phase.
B. log phase.
C. decline phase.
D. maximum phase
E. *stationary phase.
151.
Exponential phase of growth curve of bacteria is of limited duration because of:
A. exhaustion of nutrients.
B. accumulation of toxic metabolites.
C. rise in cell density.
D. limiting of O2
E. *all of the above.
152.
The process of freeing of an article from living organisms including bacterial and fungal spores
and viruses is known as:
A. disinfection
B. antisepsis
C. asepsis
D. pasteurisation
E. *sterilization
153.
Peptone water and nutrient broth are:
A. enriched media.
B. selective media.
C. enrichment media
D. differential medium.
E. *basal media.
154.
The process of killing all microorganisms and their spores and viruses is known as:
A. antisepsis
B. asepsis
C. disinfection
D. pasteurisation
E. *sterilization
155.
Destruction or inhibition of microorganisms in living tissues is known as:
A. sterilization
B. disinfection
C. asepsis
D. pasteurisation
E. *antisepsis
156.
Killing of microorganisms in living tissues is:
A. pasteurisation
B. asepsis
C. disinfection
D. sterilization
E. *antisepsis
157.
Incineration is an efficient method for:
A. sterilizing points of forceps.
B. sterilizing scalpel blades
C. sterilizing all-glass syringes.
D. sterilizing needles.
E. *destroying contaminated materials.
158.
Heat of flame is used for sterilization of:
A. all-glass syringes.
B. glass slides
C. soiled dressings.
D. scalpel blades
E. *inoculating wires and loops
159.
Heating in a hot air oven at 160°C for one hour is used for sterilization of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
160.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
161.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
162.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
163.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
164.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
165.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
166.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
167.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
168.
A.
B.
C.
all-glass syringes.
oils and jellies.
swab sticks.
petri dishes and pipets
*all of the above.
Choose among listed method of sterilization of all-glass syringes:
autoclaving
gamma rays
boiling
using chemicals
*heating in a hot air oven at 160°C
In holder method of pasteurization, milk and butterare kept at:
72°C for 20 seconds.
63°C for 60 minutes.
72°C for 30 seconds.
90°C for 30 seconds.
*63°C for 30 minutes.
Exposure of material at 60°C for 20 minutes on six consecutive days is known as:
autoclaving.
inspissation.
pasteurization
none of the above
*tyndallization.
Which of the following articles can be sterilized in an autoclave?
Dressing material.
Gloves
Culture media.
Meat-pepton broth
*All of the above
Biological control used in an autoclave is:
Fungy
Ricketsia
E. colli
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
*Spores of bacillus
Which of the following organisms is retained in the fluids filtered by Seitz filter?
Proteus
Staphylococcus
Clostridium
Micrococcus
*None of the above.
Which of the following microbes don’t pass through the Seitz filter?
Proteus
Staphylococcus
Clostridium
Micrococcus
*None of the above
Which class of immunoglobulins activate the complement cascade most effectively?
IgG
IgA
IgE
IgD
*IgM
Which of the following is not a form of hypersensitivity?
immediate
immune complex
cytotoxic
D. delayed
E. *instantaneous
169.
Which of the following is the main preformed mediator released from cytoplasmic granules in
mast cells upon secondary exposure?
A. prostaglandins
B. interferon
C. complement
D. leukotrienes
E. *histamine
170.
Which of the following hypersensitivities is mismatched?
A. immediate--caused by insect allergies
B. cytotoxic--occurs when the wrong blood type is received
C. immune complex--elicited by antigens on vaccine or microorganisms
D. cell-mediated--from exposure to foreign antigen, like tissue transplant
E. *delayed--caused by allergies to pollens
171.
Which of the following is the only treatment intended to cure an allergy?
A. antiinflammatories
B. corticosteroids
C. denatured allergens
D. topical ointments
E. *antihistamines
172.
Which of the following is a major sign of transfusion reactions?
A. fever
B. inflammation
C. anaphylaxis
D. wheal and flare reaction
E. *tissue damage
173.
Which of the following causes immune complex hypersensitivity?
A. Antigen-antibody complex formation
B. phagocytosis of immune complexes
C. formation of antigen-specific antibody
D. destruction of immune complexes
E. *persisting antigen-antibody complexes
174.
Which of the following is not an example of an immune complex disorder?
A. systemic lupus erythematosus
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. serum sickness
D. acute glomerulonephritis
E. *hemolytic disease
175.
Which type(s) of hypersensitivity sometimes develops in health workers who handle drugs?
A. Type II
B. Type III
C. Type I
D. all of the above
E. *Type IV
176.
The "boy in the bubble" suffered from which of the following?
A. DiGeorge syndrome
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. leukemia
D. agammaglobulinemia
E. *severe combined immunodeficiency
177.
If you were assaying serum for the presence of several antigens in the blood, which of the
following methods would you choose?
A. agglutination
B. neutralization reactions
C. precipitin test
D. antibody titer
E. *immunoelectrophoresis
178.
A positive reaction to the tuberculin skin test is a classic example of
A. an anaphylactic reaction
B. degranulation and release of mediators
C. a humoral immune response
D. an IgG-complement mediated reaction
E. *a delayed hypersensitivity reaction
179.
Antigenic mimicry, genetic factors, viral components in cell membranes and other factors may
explain:
A. allergic reactions
B. cytotoxic hypersensitivity
C. symptoms of AIDS
D. tumor formation
E. *the development of autoimmune disease
180.
In allergic reactions, sensitization refers to
A. administering increasing doses of allergen to a patient to produce blocking antibodies
B. the degranulation of mast cells and basophils with release of mediators
C. the capillaries becoming more permeable and undergoing dilation
D. IgG reacting to cell-surface antigens perceived as foreign
E. *the initial recognition of an allergen and production of specific IgE
181.
Which of the following pertains to a patient infected with HIV?
A. the risk of sexual transmission of the virus is eliminated by using a condom
B. decreasing cytokine levels affect macrophage and cytotoxic T cell activity
C. if the patient doesn't have symptoms, the virus cannot be transmitted to others
D. the patient will always have detectable serum antibodies
E. *the progress of the infection depends on the infective dose of the virus and how often the
exposure is repeated
182.
All of the following pertain to "tagged" serological tests except:
A. enzymes, radioactive material, and fluorescent dyes serve as tags
B. these are among the most sensitive immunologic tests
C. the tag allows detection of the antigen-antibody
D. they often detect nanogram quantities of an antibody or antigen
E. *they rely on precipitation or agglutination reactions
183.
An anamnestic response involves a/an:
A. intense response.
B. effector response.
C. high intensity.
D. rapid memory.
E. *All of the above.
184.
Which DOES NOT provide long term immunity?
A. Naturally acquired active immunity
B. Artificially acquired active immunity
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
E. *Artificially acquired passive immunity
185.
An epitope is:
A. a T-cell.
B. a B-cell.
C. an antibody.
D. a hapten.
E. *the antigen determinant site.
186.
An immunoglobulin is a:
A. protein
B. carbohydrate.
C. fatty acid.
D. nucleic acid.
E. *glycoprotein
187.
The Fc region does not mediate all of the below EXCEPT binding to:
A. host tissue.
B. various cells of the immune system.
C. lysosomes
D. antigen.
E. *some phagocytic cells.
188.
Which of the following is the major immunoglobulin in human serum, accounting for 80% of the
immunoglobulin pool?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM
E. *IgG
189.
Which immunoglobulin is the least prevalent?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgG
D. IgM
E. *IgE
190.
The first tenet of clonal selection theory relies SPECIFICALLY on:
A. combinatorial joinings.
B. somatic mutations.
C. variations in the splicing process.
D. T-cell clones.
E. *B-cell clones.
191.
Which of the following is useful to STIMULATE antibody production?
A. A hapten
B. Antiserum
C. Purified antigen
D. Crude antigen
E. *An adjuvant
192.
Compared to the secondary antibody response, the primary response:
A. has a more rapid log phase.
B. persists for a longer plateau period.
C. attains a higher IgG titer.
D. produces antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen.
E. *has a longer lag phase.
193.
Monoclonal antibodies are produced by:
A. lymphocytes
B. myeloma cells.
C. spleen cells.
D. plasma cells.
E. *hybridomas.
194.
Monoclonal antibodies are routinely used in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. the typing of tissue.
B. the identification and epidemiological study of infectious microorganisms.
C. the identification of tumor antigens.
D. the classification of leukemias.
E. *the manipulation of the immune response.
195.
Which of the following DOES NOT play a role in antigen presentation?
A. MHC class I molecules
B. MHC class II molecules
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
E. *MHC class III molecules
196.
B-cells do which of the following?
A. Proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells
B.
C.
D.
E.
Respond to antigens by making antibodies
Act as antigen-processing cells
None of the above
*All of the above
197.
Which of the following is NOT a T-dependent antigen?
A. Bacteria
B. Foreign red blood cells
C. Certain proteins
D. Hapten-carrier combinations
E. *Viruses
198.
Which of the following best describes type I hypersensitivities?
A. The reaction of TDTH cells, cytokines, and macrophages
B. The formation of immune complexes that are deposited on basement membranes
C. Complement-dependent lysis of cells
D. Overreaction of the immune system
E. *The release of physiological mediators from IgE-bound mast cells and basophils
199.
An attenuated vaccine is composed of:
A. killed microorganisms.
B. inactivated bacterial toxins.
C. purified macromolecules.
D. recombinant vectors.
E. *living, weakened microorganisms.
200.
Passive immunization is routinely administered to individuals exposed to certain microbial
pathogens that cause diseases, EXCEPT:
A. Botulism
B. Diphtheria
C. Hepatitis
D. Rabies
E. *Chicken pox
201.
Vaccines are available for all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Tetanus
D. Measles
E. *Hepatitis C
202.
Which is considered the "gold standard" of existing vaccines?
A. Purified proteins
B. DNA-based
C. Inactivated exotoxins
D. Capsular polysaccharides
E. *Whole-organism
203.
In type I hypersensitivity, which of the following DOES NOT happen upon second exposure to
the antigen?
A. Degranulation of sensitized mast cells
B. Histamine release
C. Smooth muscle contraction
D. Vasodilation
E. *IgE binds to Fc receptors of mast cells
204.
Respiratory impairment during systemic anaphylaxis is PRIMARILY due to
A. arteriole dilation.
B. reduced blood pressure.
C. increased capillary permeability.
D. circulatory shock.
E. *smooth muscle contraction in the bronchioles.
205.
Cytokines attract which of the following to the affected tissue?
A. Lymphocytes
B. Macrophages
C. Basophils
D. None of the above
E. *All of the above
206.
Which of the following assays is currently being used for the detection of HIV?
A. Agglutination
B. Complement fixation
C. Immunodiffusion
D. Flow cytometry
E. *Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
207.
Attenuated viral vaccines:
A. are viable.
B. infect cells.
C. produce antigens in the context of MHC I.
D. All of the above.
E. *are nonpathogenic.
208.
The single radial diffusion assay (Mancini technique) quantifies:
A. antibodies
B. immune complexes.
C. cytokines
D. All of the above.
E. *antigen
209.
Cell walls, when they exist, usually contain peptidoglycan in:
A. eucaryotes only.
B. fungi
C. protozoa
D. both procaryotes and eucaryotes.
E. *procaryotes only.
210.
All of the following are true about agar except it:
A. liquefies at 100°C.
B. is a polysaccharide derived from a red alga.
C. Solidifies at approximately 40°C.
D. facilitates obtaining pure cultures.
E. *is metabolized by many bacteria.
211.
Which of the following procedures can be used to isolate a pure culture of a bacteria from a
mixture more frequently?
A. dilution in liquid medium.
B. dilution plating
C. enrichment culture
D. sedementation method.
E. *streak plating
212.
Which of the following uses radiant energy as their energy source?
A. Auxotroph
B. Autotroph
C. Heterotroph
D. Lithotroph
E. *Phototroph
213.
Which of the following obtain energy from the oxidation of organic chemicals?
A. Autotroph
B. Heterotroph
C. Lithotroph
D. Phototroph
E. *Chemotroph
214.
Mutations that arise without exposure to external agents are called:
A. induced mutations
B. analogous mutations
C. specific mutations
D. nonsens mutations
E. *spontaneous mutations
215.
A mutagen is:
A. an enzyme that repairs mutations
B. a molecule which stabilizes DNA thus prevents mutations from occurring
C. a chemical agent which changes strucrure of protein
D. an enzyme which inhibits division of cell
E. *a chemical or physical agent that induces mutations
216.
A mutation that affects only a single nucleotide is called:
A. a regional mutation
B. a site mutation
C. nonsens mutation
D. analogous mutation
E. *a point mutation
217.
The transfer of genetic material between bacteria in direct physical contact is called:
A. transformation
B. transduction
C. reparation
D. recombination
E. *conjugation
218.
The transfer of a naked fragment of DNA between bacteria is called:
A. conjugation
B. transduction
C. general transduction
D. recombinationECT
E. *transformation
219.
The transport of bacterial DNA to other bacteria via bacteriaphages is called:
A. conjugation
B. transformation
C. recombination
D. reparationCT
E. *transduction
220.
F factor plasmids play a major role in what bacterial process?
A. transduction
B. replication
C. transformation
D. reparation
E. *conjugation
221.
This type of plasmid makes the host more pathogenic:
A. metabolic plasmid
B. F factors
C. R factor
D. F plasmid
E. *virulence plasmid
222.
This type of plasmid carries genes encoding enzymes that degrade substances such as aromatic
compounds, pesticides or sugar:
A. virulence plasmid
B. F factors
C. R factor
D. Hly plasmid
E. *metabolic plasmid
223.
Mobile genetic elements that carry the genes required for integration into host chromosomes:
A. plasmids
B. replicon
C. F factors
D. Hly plasmid
E. *transposons
224.
Which of the following are true in regards to F+ x F- cooperation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
DNA is transferred from F- to F+ cells
No DNA is transferred because F- cells are unable to perform conjugation
F+ transmit to F- cells information about toxin production
DNA is transferred from F+ to F- cells only in death phase of growth curve of bacteria
*DNA is transferred from F+ to F- cells
225.
A bacterial cell that is able to take up naked DNA is said to be
A. liable
B. infected
C. sensitive
D. resistent
E. *competent
226.
In which type of transduction does the transducing particle carry only specific portions of the
bacterial genome?
A. general transduction
B. abortive transduction
C. reverse transduction
D. incomplete transduction
E. *specialized transduction
227.
These are bacterial proteins that destroy other bacteria:
A. viruses
B. transposable elements
C. в-lactamaze
D. exotoxin
E. *bacteriocins
228.
Which of the following processes contribute to the appearance of mutations in genes?
A. Chemicals that damage bases.
B. Mistakes made by the DNA polymerase during replication.
C. Movement of transposons around the genome.
D. Formation of deletions in directly repeated DNA sequences.
E. *All of the above.
229.
Which of the following is/are genotypic, not phenotypic, properties?
A. Aerotolerance
B. Spore formation.
C. Cellular staining characteristics in the light microscope.
D. Colony morphology.
E. *Changing of Chromosomal content of bacterial species.
230.
Transformation is important in bacterial pathogenicity because:
A. It kills recipient cells and prevents future cell invasion.
B. It enhances site-specific recombination that turns on virulence factor genes.
C. It causes transpositions to occur at high frequency that can kill virulent bacteria.
D. It activates production of enzymes of resistant to antibiotics
E. *It allows uptake of DNA that can homologously recombine into the bacterial chromosome and
change virulence characteristics.
231.
Which of the following processes allow(s) the transfer of bacterial DNA between different
individual cells:
A. Transformation
B. Conjugation
C. Generalized transduction
D. None of the above
E. *All of the listed answers
232.
Transformation is the genetic process by which:
A. Bacteriophage attach to bacterial cells.
B. Bacterial genes acquire mutations and variants.
C. Bacterial DNA is carried by bacteriophage between different bacteria.
D. None of the above.
E. *Pieces of free DNA or free plasmids are taken up by bacterial cells.
233.
Targeting antibiotic therapy against the peptidoglycan cell wall of bacteria is advantageous
because the wall is:
A. chemically vulnerable
B. mechanically accessible
C. synthetically complex
D. None of the above
E. *unique to the bacterium
234.
Which of the following drug interferes with folic acid synthesis?
A. Aminoglycosides (or tetracyclines, erythromycin, clindamycin)
B. Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin)
C. Rifampin
D. Penicillins
235.
Which antibiotics can damage cell wall ?
A. tetracyclines
B. erythromycins
C. aminoglycosides
D. Polymixins
E. *Penicillins
236.
Bacterial pili are involved in:
A. Motility
B. Resistance to heat
C. Resistance to phagocytosis
D. Endotoxic activity
E. *Adherence to host cells.
237.
Which of the following properties are shared by prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
A. Ribosome size
B. Peptidoglycan layer
C. Mitochondria structure and function
D. Nuclear envelope
E. *Chemical nature of genetic material
238.
Which structure is found in all bacteria?
A. Capsular polysaccharide
B. Flagella
C. Pili
D. Outer membrane
E. *Cytoplasmic membrane
239.
Lysozyme produced by humans and other mammalian hosts:
A. Inhibits the addition of amino acids to NAG.
B. Disrupts the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria.
C. Destroys lipopolysaccharide.
D. Results in a sterile environment in the mouth.
E. *Cleaves peptidoglycan between N-acetyl-glucosamine (NAG) and N-acetyl- muramic acid
(NAM) residues.
240.
The lipopolysaccharide found in Gram-negative bacteria IS NOT composed of:
A. lipid A
B. core polysaccharide
C. O-antigen
D. Any of the above
E. *peptidoglycan
241.
The Gram-positive and Gram-negative cell walls generally differ in that the Gram-positives
exclusively possess:
A. carbohydrates
B. peptides
C. lipid
D. none of the above
E. *teichoic acids
242.
Point the most important feature of all prokaryotes:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
243.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
244.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
245.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
246.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
247.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
248.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
249.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
250.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
251.
A.
B.
C.
produce endospores.
possess ribosomes identical to those of eukaryotes.
have inner and outer membranes.
have cell walls.
*lack mitochondria.
Microorganisms capable of producing endospores include:
Escherichia species
Bacterium species
Leptospirae
Staphylococci
*Clostridium species
Endospore formation is a property of:
Escherichia coli
Staphylococcus aureus
Treponema pallidum
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
*Clostridium botulinum
Resistance to many antibiotics is carried on:
sex pili.
enzymes
chromosomes
Col factor plasmids.
*R factor plasmids.
Thymine dimer formation is the result of exposing DNA to:
base analogs
transposons
X-rays
intercalating agents
*ultraviolet light
An organism which requires a growth factor in order to grow is called a(n):
prototroph
wild type
autotroph
heterotroph
*auxotroph
Which of the following processes does not result in recombination?
transformation
conjugation
transduction
Two of the above are correct.
*replication
Which one of the following agents lacks nucleic acid?
Bacteria
Viruses
Viroids
Protozoa
*Prions
Which one of the following agents simultaneously contains both DNA and RNA?
Viruses
Viroids
Prions
Plasmids
*Bacteria
Which of the following transport mechanisms functions without the requirement for energy?
Binding protein-dependent
Group transiocation
Symport
D. Uniport
E. *Facilitated diffusion
252.
Which of the following components is present in gram-positive bacteria but not in gram-negative
bacteria?
A. Peptidoglycan
B. Capsule
C. Flagella
D. Pili
E. *Teichoic acid
253.
Eubacteria that lack cell walls and do not synthesize the precursors of peptidoglycan are called:
A. Spirochetes
B. Chlamydiae
C. Rickettsiae
D. Bacilli
E. *Mycoplasmas
254.
Most microorganisms pathogenic for humans grow best in the laboratory when cultures are
incubated at:
A. 15-20°C
B. 20-30°C
C. 38-50°C
D. 50-55°C
E. *30-37°C
255.
The synthesis of which of the following cell components is dependent upon a template?
A. Lipopolysaccharide
B. Peptidoglycan
C. Capsular polysaccharide
D. Phospholipids
E. *Deoxyribonucleic acid
256.
Mutations in bacteria can occur by which of the following mechanisms?
A. Deletions
B. Insertions
C. Rearrangements
D. Base substitutions
E. *All of the above
257.
The form of genetic exchange in which donor DNA is introduced to the recipient by a bacterial
virus is:
A. Transformation
B. Conjugation
C. Transfection
D. Horizontal transfer
E. *Transduction
258.
The form of genetic exchange in bacteria that is susceptible to the activity of deoxyribonuclease
is:
A. Conjugation
B. Transfection
C. Transduction
D. All of the above
E. *Transformation
259.
The formation of a mating pair during the process of conjugation in Escherichia coli requires:
A. Lysis of the donor
B. Transfer of both strands of DNA
C. A restriction endonuclease
D. Integration of a transposon
E. *A sex pilus
260.
The term virus was first used by
A. Koch
B. van Leewuenhoek
C. Fleming
D. Redi
E. *Pasteur
261.
The viral protein coat is also referred to as a(n
A. core
B. cell membrane
C. envelope
D. cell wall
E. *capsid
262.
A virion refers to
A. a core
B. an envelope, if present
C. a coat
D. none of the above
E. *all of the above
263.
Which of the following is not true?
A. viral nucleic acid can be single-stranded
B. viral nucleic acid can be double-stranded
C. viral genomes can be DNA
D. viral genomes can be RNA
E. *viruses contain DNA and RNA
264.
Depending on the virus, projections referred to as spikes may or may not extend from the viral
envelope. These spikes are composed of
A. phospholipids
B. carbohydrates
C. glycolipids
D. proteins
E. *glycoproteins
265.
Which of the following is the most common polyhedral shape of a virus?
A. bullet-shaped
B. dodecahedral
C. helical
D. complex
E. *icosahedral
266.
Viral specificity takes into account all of the following, except
A. the specific receptors on the host cells
B. the availability of appropriate host enzymes
C. the specific attachment structures on the viral capsid or envelope
D. the availability of host organelles for replication
E. *the nature of the viral genome
267.
Which of these statements is not true about the retroviridae?
A. they contain two copies of plus-sense RNA
B. they contain a reverse transcriptase
C. they contain an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
D. ncorporate into the host chromosome
E. *they contain one copy of plus-sense RNA
268.
Which virus was the first one to be purposely eradicated from the face of the Earth?
A. chickenpox
B. swinepox
C. cowpox
D. avianpox
E. *smallpox
269.
Which of the following is not true about latency?
A. is a universal property of herpes viruses
B. has the ability to remain in host cells for long periods
C. retains the ability to replicate
D. is reactivated as a result of psychological or physical factors
E. *usually remains in nephrons
270.
Which of the following types of pathogenic viruses have a segmented genome?
A. plus-sense RNA viruses
B. minus-sense RNA viruses
C. double-stranded RNA viruses
D. genome of paramyxoviruses
E. *genome of orthomyxoviruses
271.
Which of the following is not in the proper order for viral replication?
A. adsorption
B. penetration
C. maturation
D. release
E. *biosynthesis
272.
If you had a phage suspension in a test tube, which of the following techniques would you use to
determine the number of viruses in the tube?
A. spectrophotometric analysis
B. count from electron micrographs
C. light microscopy and a counting chamber
D. most probable number
E. *plaque assay
273.
Which of the following is mismatched?
A. cell strain - genetically identical cells subcultured from a primary cell line
B. primary cell cultures - come directly from the animal
C. subculturing - cells from an existing culture are transferred to fresh media
D. continuous cell line - cells that reproduce for an extended number of generations
E. *immortal cell lines - continuous cell lines that contain genetically identical cells
274.
Which of the following is not true about viroids?
A. they exist inside of cells without capsids or envelopes
B. they do not require a helper phage
C. their genome is always copied in the host-cell nucleus
D. each consists of a single circular RNA molecule
E. *they produce protein from its genome
275.
All viruses have
A. RNA
B. envelopes
C. glycoprotein spikes
D. DNA
E. *capsid
276.
Prions:
A. are easily inactivated at 90 degrees centigrade
B. are also called viroids
C. are infectious pieces of RNA
D. is the name given to latent viruses
E. *are infectious particles not destroyed by DNase or RNase
277.
Which of the following will not support the growth of viruses?
A. embryonated eggs
B. continuous cell cultures
C. animals
D. primary cell cultures
E. *blood agar
278.
What of the influenza-enveloped virus appear to be involved in attachment to the host cell
receptor site?
A. Pili
B. Fimbriae
C. Flagellae
D. Neuraminidase
E. *Hemagluttinin
279.
Intracellular structures formed during many viral infections are:
A. Procaryotes
B. Chromosomal disruptions
C. Cytocidal bodies
D. All of the above
E. *Inclusion bodies
280.
Which of the following is the agent associated with development of neurodegenrative disease in
livestock and humans?
A. Viroids
B. virions
C. Virinos
D. Viruses
E. *Prions
281.
Virus vaccines are made from:
A. antibiotics
B. human white blood cells.
C. medicines that cure the symptoms of viral diseases.
D. DNA of virus
E. *weakened or dead versions of a dangerous virus.
282.
A natural vaccination happens when:
A. a doctor gives a person a measles vaccine.
B. a person catches a cold.
C. after contracting influenza once, a person can contract it again.
D. a doctor gives a person a immunoglobulins.
E. *a person becomes immune to chicken pox after contracting it.
283.
A natural vaccination occurs after:
A. immunisation by live vaccine
B. introduction of immunoglobulins
C. introduction of patient serum
D. recovery after measles.
E. *contact with sick man
284.
Viruses are spread between people in different ways, including:
A. contact with contaminated blood.
B. insects that transmit infected blood.
C. contact with contaminated saliva or mucus.
D. contact with contaminated vaginal secrets
E. *all of the listed answers.
285.
Viruses in the body are destroyed by:
A. red blood cells.
B. vaccines
C. antibodies
D. B cells
E. *white blood cells.
286.
Which of the following bacteria is cell wall deficient?
A. Treponema.
B. Slaphylococcus.
C. Klebsiella.
D. Salmonella
E. *Mycoplasma.
287.
Which tissue is normally free from colonization by microorganisms (normal flora) because of the
effectiveness of the host constitutive defenses?
A. upper respiratory tract (throat, pharynx)
B. upper gastrointestinal tract
C. lower gastrointestinal tract
D. vagina
E. *lower respiratory tract (lungs)
288.
The predominant bacteria in the mouth, GI tract (colon), and skin, respectively, are
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
staphylococci, streptococci, and corynebacteria
streptococci, E. coli, and staphylococci
staphylococci, E. coli, and streptococci
neisseriae, enterococci, and clostridia
*lactic acid bacteria, Bacteroides, and staphylococci
289.
The predominant bacterium in the GI tract of nursing infants. because mother's milk contains a
growth factor that enriches for bacterial growth, is
A. Enterococcus faecalis
B. Escherichia coli
C. Bacteroides fragilis
D. Lactobacillus acidophilus
E. *Bifidobacterium bifidum
290.
The bacterial product that prevents colonization of the vagina by potentially pathogenic yeasts is
A. bacteriocin
B. peroxide
C. TSST toxin
D. lysozyme
E. *lactic acid
291.
Which of the following statements about bacterial endotoxins is true?
A. They usually act at a tissue site in the host that is removed from the site of bacterial growth
B. They typically have an enzymatic (specific) type of activity
C. They can be converted into toxoids.
D. none of the above
E. *They are nonantigenic.
292.
Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins both share this property.
A. They are proteins
B. They are structural components of the bacterial cell wall
C. They have an enzymatic type of activity
D. none of the above
E. *They are toxic to animals.
293.
The portion of the bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) that is responsible for the toxicity of the
molecule is
A. lipoteichoic acid
B. O polysaccharide
C. Omp A
D. N-acetylglucosamine (NAG)
E. *lipid A
294.
Dark Ground microscopy is used for detection of
A. Chlamydia
B. Fungi
C. Virus
D. Mycoplasmas
E. *Spirochetes
295.
The structure of DNA was discovered by:
A. Watson and Griffith
B. Darwin and Crick
C. Pasteur and Koch
D. Baltimore and Flemming
E. *Watson and Crick
296.
What mechanism reproduction of bacteria is:
A. by a mitosis
B. by spore formation
C. by sexual way
D. by a disjunctive way
E. *by a simple transversal division
297.
The most commonly encountered bacteria are roughly spherical. The microbiological term
describing this shape is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
298.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
299.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
bacillus
pleomorphic
vibrio
spirochete
*coccus
What bacteria have the spiral form:
staphylococcus
streptococcus
bacillus
clostridium
*spirillum
Some bacteria are considered pleomorphic. This means
they are shaped like bent rods.
they have a corkscrew shape.
they are not either bacilli or cocci.
they are not either vibrio or spirocheteand does not decolorized
*they do not have just one shape.
Cells that do not have a membrane separating their nuclear material from their cytoplasm are
300.
called
A. heterozygous.
B. homozygous.
C. eukaryotic.
D. viruses.
E. *prokaryotic
301.
The original distinction between the two types of cells,prokaryotic and eukaryotic, was made on
the basis of the
A. structure of the cell wall
B. absence or presence of mitochondria.
C. absence or presence of ribosomes
D. structure of the cell membrane.
E. *absence or presence of a nuclear membrane.
302.
Why is a bacterium called a prokaryotic organism?
A. A bacterium is a one-cell organism that has a distinct nucleus.
B. A bacterium is a multicellar organism that does not have a distinct nucleus.
C. A bacterium is a multicellar organism that has a distinct nucleus
D. All anwers are true
E. *A bacterium is a one-cell organism that does not have a distinct nucleus.
303.
Which of the following components are not found in the Gram-positive cell wall?
A. peptidoglycan
B. teichoic acid
C. N-acetyl muramic acid
D. amino acids
E. *lipopolysaccharides
304.
Choose among these bacteria gram-negative:
A. Staphylococci
B. Streptococci
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Bacillus anthracis
E. *Meningococci
305.
Cell walls, when they exist, usually contain peptidoglycan in
A. eucaryotes only.
B. fungi
C. protozoa
D. both procaryotes and eucaryotes.
E. *procaryotes only.
306.
Peptidoglycan is major constituent of cell wall of:
A. gram-negative bacteria
B.
C.
D.
E.
307.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
308.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
309.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
310.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
311.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
312.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
313.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
314.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
315.
A.
B.
C.
D.
fungi.
protozoa.
none of the above
*gram-positive bacteria
Lipopolysaccharide is a major constituent of cell wall in:
gram-positive bacteria
fungi
protozoa
none of the above
*gram-negative bacteria
Choose among listed what is correct regarding Gram positive cells
have a second, outer membrane that helps retain the crystal violet stain.
have a thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain.
have a periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet.
have monolayers of peptidoglycan
*have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain.
Organ of adhesion of bacteria is
Capsule
Slime
Flagella
Spore
*Fimbriae
What is a plasmid?
Self-replicating segment of single stranded RNA
A bacterial chromosome
Bacterial inclusion
Part of the ribosome
*Self-replicating segment of double stranded DNA
Which of the following is not true about capsules and slime layers?
They consist of secreted material lying outside of the bacterial cell wall
They can prevent desiccation of bacteria cells
They help bacteria resist phagocytosis by macrophages
All answers are true
*They are required for bacteria to grow normally in culture
Endospores of bacillus are necessary for:
Defence from acid in stomach
Reproduction
Defence from fagocytosis
Survival into human and animal’s organism
*Survival in an external environment
When bacteria have cluster of flagella at one or both sides, the arrangement is known as:
monotrichous.
amphitrichous.
peritrichous.
bitrichous
*lophotrichous.
When flagella are distributed on both sides of the bacterial cell, the arrangement is known as:
monotrichous.
lophotrichous.
peritrichous.
bitrichous
*amphitrichous.
What is the value of a wet-mount preparation?
For study cultural properties of bacteria
For study morphology of bacteria
For examinate biochemical properties
For study sensitivity to antibiotics
316.
317.
318.
319.
320.
321.
322.
323.
324.
325.
E. *For study motility of bacteria
What color does Mycobacterium tuberculosis have after staining by Ziehl-Neelsen technique?
A. yellow
B. blue
C. violet
D. brown
E. *red
Acid fast microbes are resistante to acid because they contain in cell wall:
A. lipopolysaccharides
B. acetylglucosamine
C. diaminopimelic acid
D. polyphosphates
E. *waxes, fatty acid
All are acid fast except
A. Nocardia
B. Bacterial spores
C. M. leprae
D. M. tuberculosis
E. *Mycoplasma
In depending on the source of carbon such groups of bacteria are:
A. lithotrophs and organotrophs
B. chemotrophs and phototrophs
C. chemotrophs and heterotrophs
D. autotrophs and chemotrophs
E. *autotrophs and heterotrophs
Microorganisms, which are able to cause diseases in human, belong to:
A. chmemorganoautotrophs
B. chemolithoheterotrophs
C. chemolithoautotrophs
D. heterophotoorganotrophs
E. *chemoorganoheterotrophs
Temperature optimum for mesophilic bacteria is :
A. 10-15 1 C
B. 20-30 2C
C. 40-50 4C
D. 50-60 5C
E. *30-37 3С
Temperature optimum for thermophilic bacteria is:
A. 10-20 1C
B. 20-30 2C
C. 30-37 С3
D. 40-50 4C
E. *50-60 5C
Microorganisms that require the high concentrations of salts for their cultivation are called:
A. Acidophilic
B. Oxyphilic
C. Mesophilic
D. Osmiephilic
E. *Halophilic
Enzymes that are produced outside from bacteria are called:
A. endoenzymes
B. heteroenzymes
C. isoenzymes
D. all answers are correct
E. *exoenzymes
What from the listed words is a name of enzyme?
A. Saccharose
B.
C.
D.
E.
Glucose
Maltose
Galactose
*Saccharase
326.
What microorganisms can produce such enzymes, as fibrinolysin, streptodornase, streptokinase,
which are used for patients’ treatment?
A. Staphylococci
B. Neisseria
C. Branchamella
D. Gemella
E. *Streptococci
327.
What enzymes localized in cytoplasm membrane do provide the facilitated diffusion?
A. transferases
B. proteases
C. hydrolases
D. ligases
E. *permeases
328.
What color do lactose-negative colony of bacteria on Ploskirev’s medium have?
A. dark blue
B. rose
C. brown
D. green
E. *colorless
329.
It is necessary to check the peptolytic properties of bacteria. What nutrient medium will you
recommend?
A. MPA
B. Endo’s medium
C. Roux’s medium
D. 1 % alkaline peptone water
E. *MPB
330.
Sterilization may be conducted by the following methods:
A. action of moist steam
B. filtration
C. radiation
D. pasteurization
E. *all answers are correct
331.
Choose a correct answer according to the types of microbial decontamination:
A. sterilization
B. disinfections
C. antiseptics
D. all answer are wrong
E. *all answer are right
332.
Choose capneic bacteria:
A. Shigella dysentery
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
E. *Brucella abortus
333.
Indicate the capneic bacteria:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Lactobacillus spp.
D. Clostridium perfringens
E. *Brucella abortus
334.
What microbes do belong to facultative anaerobes?
A. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium perfringens
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Vibrio cholerae
C. Brucella abortus
D. Lactobacillus acidophilus
335.
Match the organism with its usual colonizing site - Coagulase negative Staphylococcus
A. Intestine
B. Vagina
C. Mouth
D. Conjuctiva
E. *Skin
336.
Match the organism with its usual colonizing site -Lactobacillus spp
A. Intestine
B. Skin
C. Mouth
D. Conjuctiva
E. *vagina
337.
Match the organism with its usual colonizing site -Enterococcus faecalis
A. Skin
B. Vagina
C. Mouth
D. Conjuctiva
E. *Intestine
338.
Which one of the following body sites is not usually bacteriologically 'sterile'?
A. Endometrial cavity of uterus
B. Pulmonary alveoli
C. Bladder
D. Meninges
E. *Duodenum
339.
Choose the best match for the mechanisms controlling normal flora in the stomach:
A. Mucociliary action
B. Peristalsis
C. Antibody to normal flora
D. mucus
E. *low pH
340.
Choose the best match for the mechanisms controlling normal flora in the Lower respiratory
tract:
A. low pH
B. Peristalsis
C. Antibody to normal flora
D. All are true
E. *Mucociliary action
341.
Choose the best match for the mechanisms controlling normal flora in the vagina, during
reproductive years:
A. Mucociliary action
B. Peristalsis
C. Antibodies to normal flora
D. All are true
E. *low pH
342.
Which tissue in a human is free from colonization by microbes (normal flora) because the
organisms lack normal access to the tissue?
A. colon
B. stomach
C. lower respiratory tract
D. urinary tract (urethra)
E. *blood (vascular system)
343.
The most important benefit that the human gastrointestinal flora provide for their host is
A. digestion of dietary cellulose
B. production of endotoxin that produces toxemia
C. production of dietary protein
D. production of antibodies
E. *antagonism against colonization by potential pathogens
344.
Which one of the following microorganisms is closely associated with dental caries?
A. Candida albicans
B. Prevotella melaninogenica
C. Neisseria subflava
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
E. *Streptococcus mutans
345.
Streptococcus pneumoniae can be part of the normal flora of 5-40% of people. At what anatomic
site can it be found7
A. Conjunctiva
B. Colon
C. Urethra
D. Vagina
E. *Nasopharynx
346.
Which of the following areas of the body do not have a resident microbial flora?
A. upper respiratory tract
B. eyes
C. ear
D. skin
E. *bladder
347.
Agent which on addition to a colony inhibits its growth and on removal the colony regrows is
A. Bactericidal
B. Antibiotic
C. Antiseptic
D. Antifungal
E. *Bacteriostatic
348.
A condition in which bacteria circulate in blood without multiplication is known as:
A. septicaemia.
B. pyaemia.
C. endotoxaemia.
D. viraemia
E. *bacteraemia.
349.
A condition in which toxin circulate in blood is known as:
A. bacteraemia.
B. septicaemia.
C. pyaemia.
D. viraemia
E. *toxaemia.
350.
Septicemia is:
A. bacteria in blood
B. Toxin in blood
C. Pus in blood
D. viruses in the blood
E. *Multiplication of bacteria and toxins in blood
351.
Interferon action is:
A. to disrupt cytoplasmic membranes
B. to protect primary infected cells
C. found in high levels in phagocytic granules
D. kill cells infected by viruses
E. *primarily antiviral
352.
Which of the following substances has antiviral activity?
A. collagenase
B. complement
C. lysozyme
D. lysosome
E. *interferon
353.
Natural killer cells are involved in:
A. allograft rejection.
B. tumour rejection.
C. non-specific killing of virus transformed target cells.
D. type II of allergy
E. *all of the above.
354.
A T helper lymphocyte recognizes an antigen presented by an antigen-presenting-cell (APC) if
the antigen is associated with:
A. HLA class I antigen.
B. Surface immunoglobulin.
C. CD 8 antigen.
D. All of the above.
E. *HLA class II antigen.
355.
T-killer cells are important in controlling
A. allergy
B. autoimmunity
C. antibodies synthesis
D. all of these
E. *virus infections
356.
The classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of Cl with
A. antigen
B. factor B
C. bacterial lipopolysaccharides
D. E factor D and I
E. *antigen-IgG complexes
357.
Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is
A. IgG and IgA
B. IgG and IgD
C. IgD and IgE
D. IgM and IgE
E. *IgG and IgM
358.
An example of a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection is:
A. NK cells
B. unbroken skin
C. cilia in trachea
D. all of these
E. *lysozyme in saliva
359.
Why does lysozyme destroy bacteria cells?
A. because inhibits protein synthesis
B. because activates lysosome’s enzymes
C. because inhibits mRNA
D. because stimulates proteolytic enzymes
E. *because attacks of peptidoglycan
360.
Which of the following pairs is mismatched
A. vagina --- lactobacilli
B. eye --- lysozyme
C. oropharynx --- anaerobes
D. mucus --- lactoferrin
E. *skin --- Gram negative
361.
Which nonspecific host defense is associated with the trachea?
A. lacrimation
B. desquamation
C. lactic acid
D. macrophages
E. *ciliary lining
362.
Humoral factor of a nonspecific resistance to infection is
A. NK cells
B.
C.
D.
E.
363.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
364.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
365.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
366.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
367.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
368.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
369.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
370.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
371.
A.
B.
C.
D.
unbroken skin
cilia in trachea
all of these
*lysozyme in saliva
T cells mature in:
peyers patch
lymph node
bursa of fabricius
bone marrow
*thymus
An immunoglobulin is a(n)
histamme
antigen
macrophage
carbohydrate
*antibody
Antibody-secreting cells are called:
T cell blasts
macrophages
B lymphoblasts
pre-B lymphocytes
*plasma cells
Choose antibody production cells
T cells.
B cells
T helpers
Macrophages
*Plasma cells
Plasma cells are
mature T cells.
immature macrophages
mature macrophages.
immature T cells.
*antibody-producing cells.
Which lymphocytes have CD8 surface antigen on their surface:
helper Т cells.
NK cells
all of these
none of of these.
*cytotoxic Т cells.
Complement lyses cells by
enzymatic digestion of the cell membrane
activation of adenylate cyclase
inhibition of elongation factor 2
production of lysozyme
*insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane
Clinical infection leads to:
active artificial immunity.
passive natural immunity.
passive artificial immunity.
inate
*active natural immunity.
Match the types of immunity after vaccination:
Innate
naturally acquired active
naturally acquired passive
artificially acquired passive
372.
373.
374.
375.
376.
377.
378.
379.
380.
381.
E. *artificially acquired active
Match the types of immunity after recovery from disease:
A. innate
B. naturally acquired passive
C. artificially acquired active
D. artificially acquired passive
E. *naturally acquired active
Match the types of immunity after administration antitoxic serum:
A. innate
B. naturally acquired active
C. naturally acquired passive
D. artificially acquired active
E. *artificially acquired passive
Match the types of immunity after transfer of immunity from mother to fetus:
A. innate
B. naturally acquired active
C. artificially acquired active
D. artificially acquired passive
E. *naturally acquired passive
Match the types of immunity of humans to cat and dog distemper:
A. naturally acquired active
B. naturally acquired passive
C. artificially acquired active
D. artificially acquired passive
E. *innate
Which is an example of type III hypersensitivity
A. contact dermatitis
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Good Pasture's syndrome
D. skin allergic test
E. *Serum sickness
Type of immunologic response in transplant rejection
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. TypeV
E. *Type IV
Allergic rhinitis is mediated by which class of antibody?
A. IgG.
B. IgM.
C. IgA.
D. All answers are correct
E. *IgE.
Anaphylactic reactions are mediated by which class of immunoglobulin?
A. IgM.
B. IgA.
C. IgD.
D. Antibodies of an any class
E. *IgE.
Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an
A. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus.
B. AB mother carries an 0 fetus.
C. 0 mother carries an AB fetus
D. Any variant is correct.
E. *Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus
Which is concerned with cell mediated immunity
A. B- Lymphocytes
B.
C.
D.
E.
T-Lymphocytes
Esoinophils
Neutrophyls
*Monocytes
382.
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to
A. B lymphocytes
B. Monocytes
C. Histiocytes
D. Neutrophyls
E. *T Lymphocytes
383.
Due to the deficiency of secretory IgA, infections occur predominantly in:
A. respiratory tract.
B. gastrointestinal tract.
C. urogenital tract.
D. No correct answer
E. *all answers are true
384.
Thymic hypoplasia leads to:
A. humoral immunodeficiency.
B. complement deficiency.
C. No correct answer
D. Phagocyte Deficiencies
E. *cellular immunodeficiency.
A. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
B. SCID
C. ADA deficiency
D. Immunodeficiency of IgA
E. *DiGeorge syndrome
385.
Patient has the Chidiak-Higashi Syndrome. What deficiency of immune system has this patient?
A. B cell defect.
B. Т cell defect.
C. both В and Т cell defects.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. *Phagocyte Deficiencies
386.
Which is a live attenuated vaccine
A. Rabies
B. Hepatitis B
C. Cholera
D. Tick borne encephalitis
E. *BCG
387.
For prevent diseases caused by bacterial toxins it necessary uses
A. specific antibodies,
B. type of enzyme that destroys toxins,
C. IgM,
D. Bacteriophages
E. *toxoids,
388.
The main component of all viruses is
A. the envelope
B. the polymerase
C. the icosahedral capsid
D. the lipid
E. *the nucleic acid
389.
When an animal virus becomes integrated into the host's chromosome it is then called a
A. prophage
B. vegetative virus
C. temperate virus
D. temperate phage.
E. *provirus
390.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
391.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
392.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
393.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
394.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
395.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
396.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
397.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
398.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
399.
A cytoplasmic membrane is
a membrane that provides a selective barrier between the nucleus and the cell’s internal
structures
*part of the cell envelope
a membrane that provides a barrier between the cell’s internal structures
a membrane that provides a selective barrier between the cell wall and the cell’s internal
structures
None of the above
A pili is:
A form of storage granule within the cell.
Is a long thin protein rod that is used for adhesion.
Generally composed of sugars.
*Is a long thin protein rod that is used for bacterial exchange of genetic material.
Always present on a cell that has the ability to form a capsule.
After what sign of mycoplasma differ from bacteria :
by structure of the nucleosis
*by absence of cell wall
by intracellular parasite
by tinctorial properties
by structure of cytoplasmatic membrane
All prokaryotes
produce endospores.
possess ribosomes identical to those of eukaryotes.
have inner and outer membranes.
*lack mitochondria.
have cell walls.
Among these bacteria gram-positives there are all, EXCEPT FOR :
Staphylococci
*Meningococci
Streptococci
Clostridium botulini
Bacillus anthracis
An important property of the cell envelope of acid-fast bacteria is:
*the abundance of mycolic acid in the cell wall
the presence of porins in the outer membrane
the lack of oxidative phosphorylation enzymes
the absence of a peptidoglycan layer
the accumulation of dipicolinic acid in the periplasmic space
At staining by Gram’s method after flood slide with the iodine solution preparation is treated by:
Fuchsine
Washing with water
Crystal violet
*Alcohol
Sulphuric acid
Bacterial genus/genera of medical importance which produce endospores is/are: .
*Bacillus.
Bacterium.
Corynebacterium
Mycobacterium
Micrococcus
Bacterial genus/genera of medical importance which produce endospores is/are:
*Bacillus.
Bacterium.
Corynebacterium
Mycobacterium
Micrococcus
Capsules to the bacteria are needed for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
400.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
401.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
402.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
403.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
404.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
405.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
406.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
407.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
408.
A.
B.
C.
survival in an external environment
*defence from fagocytosis
toxins production
antibodies production
spore production
Cell wall of gram-negative bacteria contains all, except:
thin monolayer peptidiglycan
lipoproteins
lipopolysaccharides
*polilayer peptidoglycan
outer membrane
Choose among listed what is correct regarding Gram positive cells
have a second, outer membrane that helps retain the crystal violet stain.
*have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain.
have a thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain.
have a periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet.
have monolayers of peptidoglycan
Choose among listed what is true regarding Gram positive cells
have a second, outer membrane that helps retain the crystal violet stain.
have monolayers of peptidoglycan.
have a thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain.
have a periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet.
*have multiple layers of peptidoglycan
Choose from following gram-positive bacteria.
Salmonella and Shigella
*Micrococcus and Tetracoccus
Vibrio and Spirocheta
Borrelia and Leptospira
Neisseria and Treponema
Choose method of staining of bacterial spores:
Staining by mеthylene blue
*Staining by Auesko’s method
Staining by Ziehl-Neelsen’s method
Staining by Gram method
Staining by crystal violet
Choose rod-shaped bacteria:
*Clostridium
Meningococcus
Vibrio
Borrelia
Sarcina
Each of the following statements concerning peptidoglycan is correct EXCEPT:
It has a backbone composed of alternating units of muramic acid and acetylglucosamine
Cross-links between the tetrapeptides involve D-alanine
*It is thinner in gram-positive than in gram-negative cells
It can be degraded by lysozyme
It has tetramers of aminoacids
Each of the following statements concerning bacterial spores is correct EXCEPT:
*Their survival ability is based on their enhanced metabolic activity
They are formed by gram-positive rods
They can be killed by being heated to 121 °C for 15 minutes
They contain much less water than bacterial cells
They are formed by some gram-positive cocci
Each of the following statements concerning bacterial spores is correct EXEPT:
*Their survival ability is based on their enhanced metabolic activity
They are formed by gram-positive rods
They can be killed by being heated to 120 C? for 15 minutes
D. They contain much less water than bacterial cells
E. No correct answer
409.
Each of the following statements concerning the Gram stain is correct EXCEPT:
A. Escherichia coli stains pink because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer
B. Streptococcus pyogenes stains blue be cause it has a thick peptidoglycan layer
C. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis stains blue because it has a thick lipid layer
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae isn't visible in the Gram stain because it doesn't have a cell wall
E. Salmonella typhi stains pink because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer
410.
Each of the following statements concerning the Gram stain is correct EXCEPT:
A. Escherichia coli stains pink because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer
B. Streptococcus pyogenes stains blue because it has a thick peptidoglycan layer
C. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis stains blue because it has a thick lipid layer
D. Mycoplasma pncumoniae isn't visible in the Gram stain because it doesn't have a cell wall
E. No true answer
411.
Each of the following statements concerning the surface structures of bacteria is correct
EXCEPT:
A. Pili mediate the interaction of bacteria with mucosal epithelium
B. Polysaccharide capsules retard phagocytosis
C. Both gram-negative rods and cocci have lipopolysaccharide ("endotoxin") in their cell wall
D. *Bacterial flagella are nonantigenic in humans because they closely resemble human flagella in
chemical composition
E. None of the above
412.
Fimbriae
A. *attach bacteria to various surfaces.
B. cause bacteria move through fluids.
C. sense changes in nutrient concentration.
D. are pathways for the secretion of exoenzymes.
E. cause diseases
413.
Gram positive cells
A. have a second, outer membrane that helps retain the crystal violet stain.
B. *have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain.
C. have a thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain.
D. have inclusions that traps crystal violet stain.
E. have monolayer of peptidoglycan that traps crystal violet stain
414.
Gram positive cells
A. have thick, homogeneous cell walls.
B. *have large amounts of teichoic acids.
C. do not have an outer membrane.
D. do not have LPS
E. all of the above are true.
415.
Indicate gram-negative bacteria.
A. *Neisseria and Treponema
B. Salmonella and Shigella
C. Vibrio and Spirocheta
D. Correct all
E. No correct answer
416.
Indicate gram-positive bacteria.
A. *Streptococcus
B. Vibrio
C. Borrelia
D. Neisseria
E. Salmonella
417.
Indicate gram-positive bacteria.
A. Neisseria and Treponema
B. Vibrio and Spirocheta
C. Borrelia and Leptospira
D. Salmonella and Shigella
418.
419.
420.
421.
422.
423.
424.
425.
426.
427.
E. *Bacillus and Clostridium
Living, unstained cells and organisms can be observed best using
A. fluorescent microscopy
B. transmission electron microscopy
C. *phase contrast microscopy
D. Scan. Electron microscopy
E. light microscopy
Mark rod-shaped bacteria:
A. Sarcina
B. Spirilla
C. *Mycobacterium
D. Streptococcus
E. Neisseria
Mesosomes of bacteria are analogous to:
A. *mitochondria of eukaryotes.
B. lysosomes of eukaryotes.
C. Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes.
D. polyribosomes of eukaryotes
E. none of the above.
Morphological classification of rod-shaped bacteria:
A. monobacilli and monobacteria
B. diplobacteria and diplobacilli
C. streptobacteria and streptobacilli
D. *Correct all
E. No correct answer
Morpholohgical classification of spherical bacteria:
A. monococci and diplococci
B. streptococci and staphylococci
C. tetracocci and sarcina
D. *Correct all
E. No correct answer
Plasmids are important to the genetics of many bacteria. This is because
A. they are inherited from one generation to the next.
B. they may carry genes that give their host a selective advantage.
C. they can render bacteria drug-resistant.
D. *all of the above.
E. none of the above
Plasmids are important to the genetics of many bacteria. This is because
A. they are inherited from one generation to the next.
B. they may carry genes that give their host a selective advantage.
C. they can render bacteria drug-resistant.
D. they may carry genes that code sugarlytic enzymes
E. *all of the above.
Polyphosphate inclusion bodies
A. protect bacteria from excessive drying.
B. *supply of nutritives and energy
C. turn reddish brown when stained with iodine.
D. are composed of polymers of glucose.
E. no correct answer
Resistance of bacteria to acid depends from present in cytoplasm
A. lipopolysaccharides
B. *oxyacid, fatty acid
C. acetylglucosamine
D. diaminopimelic acid
E. poliphosphates
Scanning electron microscopy (SEM) is best used to study
A. small internal cell structures.
B.
C.
D.
E.
428.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
429.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
430.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
431.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
432.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
433.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
434.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
435.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
436.
A.
B.
C.
D.
*surface morphology.
cytoplasma
nucleoid
all of the above.
Show diplococci:
Vibrio
Treponema
*Neisseria
Borrelia
Clostridium
Some bacteria are considered pleomorphic. This means:
they are shaped like bent rods.
they have a corkscrew shape.
*they do not have just one shape.
they are not either bacilli or cocci.
they are not either vibrio or spirochete
Spherical bacteria arranged in a chain are known as
spirochetes
bacilli
staphylococci.
streptobacilli
*streptococci
Syphilis is caused by which of the following?
Helicobacter pylori
Proteus mirabilis
*Treponema pallidum
Serratia marcesans
Treponema Vincentii
The 70S procaryotic ribosomes consist of
two 40S subunits.
*a 50S and a 30S subunit.
a 40S and a 30S subunit.
a 50S and a 20S subunit.
a 30S and 70S subunit.
The bacteria of what family have a capsule constantly?
shigella
salmonella
*klebsiella
brucella
shigella
The bacterial capsule is:
A form of storage granule within the cell.
a long thin protein rod that is used for attachment.
*A coating on the exterior of many cells.
a long thin protein rod that is used for bacterial exchange of genetic material.
Always present on a cell that has the ability to form a capsule.
The cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria is composed primarily of
chitin.
cellulose,
starch.
protein.
*peptidoglycan.
The construction and use of the compound microscope is attributed to:
*Antony van Leeuwenhoek.
Louis Pasteur.
Robert Koch.
Ferdinand Cohn.
437.
438.
439.
440.
441.
442.
443.
444.
445.
446.
E. Paul Ehrlich.
The cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria is important in each of the following aspects EXCEPT:
A. exocytosis of proteins
B. cell wall synthesis
C. *location of lipopolysaccharide
D. oxidative phosphorylation and electron transport
E. active transport of nutrients
The first person to see bacteria did his work mostly in what century?
A. th
B. th
C. th
D. *18th
E. th
The first techniques of sterilization were introduced by:
A. *Louis Pasteur.
B. Robert Koch.
C. Ferdinand Cohn.
D. John Needham.
E. Gerhardt Domagk.
The form of coffee corn is had:
A. staphylococcus and streptococcus
B. pneumococcus and monococcus
C. *meningococcus and gonococcus
D. peptococcus and peptostreptococcus
E. tetracoccus and sarcina
The fourth stage of making of a staining smear is:
A. Fixation
B. Washing
C. *Staining
D. Drying
E. Preparation of smear
The LPS or lipopolysaccharide found in Gram-negative bacteria IS NOT composed of:
A. *peptidoglycan
B. lipid A
C. core polysaccharide
D. O-antigen
E. any of the above
The major function of the cell membrane is:
A. To keep water from entering the cell, which causes it to burst.
B. To bind lipids in the hydrophobic inner layer.
C. To trap energy so the cell can use it for the functions of life.
D. *To protect the internal components of a cell from the chaos outside of a cell.
E. No correct answer
The most important role of the prokaryotic cell wall is to
A. *maintain the shape of the cell.
B. protect the cell from osmotic pressures.
C. prevent ions from diffusing away from the cell.
D. block the effects of antibiotics like penicillin.
E. protect cell from oxygen
The significance of the plasma membrane is that
A. *it selectively allows some molecules to pass into the organism
B. it prevents movement of molecules out of the organism
C. it is the site of protein synthesis
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
The substage condenser
A. changes the wavelength of the light reaching the specimen
B.
C.
D.
E.
447.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
448.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
449.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
450.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
451.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
452.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
453.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
454.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
455.
A.
B.
C.
*focuses light on the specimen
decreases the amount of light reaching the specimen
eluminate the specimen
magnificates size of specimen
The third stage of making of a staining smear is:
*Fixation
Washing
Staining
Drying
Preparation of smear
Typical drumstick appearance of bacilli is observed in:
Clostridium perfringens.
*C. tetani.
Cl. botulinum.
C. histolyticum.
C. difficilae
What are plasmides of bacteria?
circular DNA in nucleoid
*circular DNA in a cytoplasm
circular DNA in a shell
fragments DNA in volutin granules
circular RNA in cytoplasm
What color has mycobacterim tuberculosis after staining by Ziehl-Neelsen technique
blue
violet
*red
brown
green
What is a microorganism?
*A microorganism is a small organism that takes in and breaks down food for energy and
nutrients, excretes unused food as waste, and is capable of reproduction.
A microorganism is a small organism that causes diseases only in plants.
A microorganism is a small organism that causes diseases only in animals.
A microorganism is a term that refers to a cell.
No correct answer
What is a pathogenic microorganism?
A microorganism that multiplies
A microorganism that grows in a host
A microorganism that is small
*A disease-causing microorganism
No correct answer
What is a smear?
A smear is a preparation process in which a specimen is spread on a slide.
A smear is a preparation process in which a specimen is dyed.
A smear is a process in which a specimen is moved beneath a microscope.
*A smear is a process used to identify a specimen.
No correct answer
What is NOT a characteristic of prokaryotic organisms?
the presence of a cell membrane
*the presence of a nuclear membrane
+ACI-naked+ACI- DNA molecule
the presence of cytoplasm
No correct answer
What is the function of an illuminator?
To control the temperature of the specimen
To keep the specimen moist
*An illuminator is the light source used to observe a specimen under a microscope
456.
457.
458.
459.
460.
461.
462.
463.
464.
465.
D. To keep the specimen dry
E. No correct answer
What is the purpose of bacterial endospores?
A. Allow the bacterium to make hundreds of "seeds" to spread on the wind.
B. Help the bacterium to differentiate into faster growing stages of bacteria.
C. Allow the bacterium to survive the absence of oxygen.
D. *Allow the bacterium to survive the bad condition (drying,lack of nutrition).
E. All of the above.
What is unique about the Mycoplasma bacterial group?
A. *they lack cell walls
B. they lack a cell membrane
C. they have organelles
D. they are prokaryotes
E. they have ribosome
What microbes do belong to coccal forms?
A. Escherichia coli
B. *Staphylococcus aureus
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Yersinia pestis
E. None of above
What microbes do belong to coccal forms?
A. Salmonella
B. Leptospira
C. Yersinia
D. Clostridia
E. *Streptococcus
What microbes do belong to coccal forms?
A. Bordetella
B. Treponema
C. *Micrococcus
D. Vibrio
E. Shigella
What microbes do belong to coccal forms?
A. *Neisseria
B. Borrelia
C. Corynebacteria
D. Proteus
E. Spirilla
What microbes do belong to spiral forms?
A. Neisseria
B. *Borrelia
C. Corynebacteria
D. Proteus
E. Sarcina
What microbes do belong to spiral forms?
A. Bordetella
B. *Treponema
C. Micrococcus
D. Sarcina
E. Shigella
What microbes do belong to spiral forms?
A. Salmonella
B. *Leptospira
C. Yersinia
D. Clostridia
E. Streptococcus
What microbes do belong to spiral forms?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
466.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
467.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
468.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
469.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
470.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
471.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
472.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
473.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
474.
A.
B.
C.
Bordetella
Clostridia
Micrococcus
*Vibrio
Shigella
What morphological structure is responsible for bacterial motility?
Pilli
Fimbria
*Flagella
Capsule
LPS
What shape is not peculiar for bacteria:
round or oval
rod or stick
*icosaedral
spiral
No correct answer
When bacteria have cluster of flagella at one or both sides, the arrangement is known as:
monotrichous.
*lophotrichous.
amphitrichous.
peritrichous.
bitrichous
When would you use a wet mount?
A wet mount is used to observe a dead specimen under a micro-scope.
*A wet mount is used to observe a live specimen under a microscope.
A wet mount is used to observe an inorganic specimen under a microscope.
A wet mount is the first step in preparing a specimen.
A wet mount is the last step in preparing a specimen
Which from following microorganisms does contain sterols in the cytoplasmic membrane?
*Mycoplasma.
Bacillus.
Clostridium.
Proteus.
Ricketsia
Which of following are gram-negative bacteria?
Clostridium botulinum
Bacillus anthracis
*Neisseria meningitidis
Micrococcus luteus
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Which of the following bacteria don’t contain cell wall?
Klebsiella
*Mycoplasma
Ricketsia
Slaphylococcus.
Treponema.
Which of the following does NOT apply to plasmids?
*They are essential to growth of the cell.
They are composed of DNA.
They multiply independently of the chromosome.
They may pass from cell to cell in recombinations.
They may be included into chromosome
Which of the following is not true about bacterial flagella?
Most of their length consists of a hollow, rigid protein tube.
They are constructed largely of a single protein called flagellin.
*They spin like wheels, either clockwise or counterclockwise.
475.
476.
477.
478.
479.
480.
481.
482.
483.
D. They use cytoplasmic ATP as their primary energy source.
E. All of the above.
Which of the following materials is NOT a bacterial storage granule:
A. Sulfur
B. Glycogen
C. Phosphorous
D. *Ribosomes
E. Volutin
Which of the following statements is most correct about the differential Gram stain?
A. Crystal violet differentially stains Gram positive cells.
B. Gram's iodine differentially stains Gram positive cells.
C. *Etanol differentially destains Gram negative cells.
D. Saffron red differentially stains Gram negative cells.
E. Etanol fixes Gram negative cells
Which of the following structures is unique to prokaryotic organisms?
A. mitochondria
B. ribosomes
C. cell wall
D. *peptidoglycan cell wall
E. cell membrane
Which property does mycoplasma differ from bacteria most of all?
A. by structure of the nucleoid
B. *by absence of cell wall
C. by intracellular parasite
D. by tinctorial properties
E. by structure of cytoplasmatic membrane
Which with these substances can damage bacteria cell wall :
A. sulphonamides
B. *lysozyme
C. interferone
D. alcohol
E. streptomycin
F.
Who did coin the term vaccine?
A. Edward Jenner.
B. Kitasato.
C. Ehrlich.
D. *Louis Pasteur,
E. Robert Koch.
Who did discovere bacillus of tuberculosis?
A. Hansen.
B. Loeffler.
C. *Robert Koch.
D. Bruce.
E. Pasteur
Who did introduce the method of vaccination to prevent smallpox?
A. Louis Pasteur.
B. *Edward Jenner.
C. Paul Ehrlich.
D. John Hunter.
E. Antony van Leeuwenhoek.
Why bacteria are prokaryotic organism?
A. A bacterium is a multicell organism that has a distinct nucleus.
B. A bacterium is a one-cell organism that has a distinct nucleus.
C. A bacterium is a multicell organism that does not have a distinct nucleus.
D. *A bacterium is a one-cell organism that does not have a distinct nucleus
E. No correct answer
484.
______ is probably the most important characteristic for classification of viruses in eucaryotes.
A. Host preference
B. Morphology
C. Physical nature of virion constituents
D. *Chemical nature of virion constituents
E. Genetic relatedness
485.
A/an _______ is specifically able to have a long-term relationship with the host known as
lysogeny.
A. *Temperate virus
B. Adsorbed virus
C. Virion
D. RNA phage
E. DNA phage
486.
According to the source of energy there are such bacteria:
A. *chemotrophs and phototrophs
B. lithotrophs and organotrophs
C. chemotrophs and heterotrophs
D. autotrophs and chemotrophs
E. autotrophs and heterotrophs
487.
According to the types of bacterial respiration such groups of bacteria may exist:
A. obligate aerobes
B. obligate anaerobes
C. facultative anaerobes
D. capneic
E. *all answers are correct
488.
All nutrient media are elective, EXCEPT:
A. Mueller’s medium
B. Roux’s medium
C. Leffler’s medium
D. % alkaline peptone water
E. *blood MPA
489.
All of bacteria belong to obligate aerobes, EXCEPT:
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Micrococcus spp.
D. *Clostridium tetani
E. Vibrio cholerae
490.
All of the following viral genomes are replicated in the cytoplasm EXCEPT:
A. poxviruses
B. reoviruses
C. picornaviruses
D. *herpesviruses
E. paramyxoviruses
491.
All of the following viruses are replicated in the nucleus EXCEPT:
A. *poxviruses
B. papovaviruses
C. adenoviruses
D. herpesviruses
E. parvoviruses
492.
All of the following viruses contain lipid EXCEPT:
A. herpesviruses
B. *picornaviruses
C. poxviruses
D. togaviruses
E. paramyxoviruses
493.
All of the listed microorganisms are facultative anaerobes, EXCEPT:
A. *Clostridium botulinum
B.
C.
D.
E.
494.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
495.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
496.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
497.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
498.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
499.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
500.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
501.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
502.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Escherichia spp.
Salmonella spp.
Shigella spp.
Staphylococci spp.
All viruses may do any of the following but not
Inhibit host cell DNA synthesis
Inhibit host cell RNA synthesis
Inhibit host cell protein synthesis
*Stimulate host cell macromolecule synthesis
Degrade host cell DNA
An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps?
penetration
lysis
synthesis
*release
assembly
Anaerobic microorganisms may be isolated according such technique:
Fortner’s
*Veynberg’s
Shukevitch’s
Pasteur’s
Leffler’s
Anaerobic microorganisms may be selected by:
Fortner’s method
*Veynberg’s method
Shukevich’s method
Pasteur’s method
Leffler’s method
Areas of dead host cells evident on an agar plate are:
pocks
cytopathic effects
cell lines
*plaques
primary cell cultures
At what temperature agar-agar melts and becomes thick?
*100 °С and 40 °С
°С and 70 °С
°С and 60 °С
°С and 30 °С
°С and 20 °С
Choose among these media differential diagnostic ones:
MPA
Kitt-Tarozz's medium
MPB
Sugar meat peptone broth
*Giss’ media
Choose faithful composition of yolk salt agar
*MPA, yolk, 9 % of sodium chloride
MPA, ram’s , 9 % of sodium chloride
MPA, rabbit’s red cells, 9 % of sodium chloride
MPA, horse’s red cells , 9 % of sodium chloride
MPA, glucose, 9 % chloride of sodium
Choose microaerophils:
Clostridium tetani
Escherichia coli
*Lactobacillus acidophilus
Salmonella typhi
503.
504.
505.
506.
507.
508.
509.
510.
511.
512.
E. Salmonella paratyphi A
Choose obligate aerobes among these microorganisms:
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulini
C. Shigella dysenteriae, Salmonella typhi
D. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella melitensis
E. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Micrococcus spp.
Choose obligate anaerobes among these microbes:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. *Bacteroides spp.
D. Rickettsia spp.
E. Corynebacterium spp.
Choose obligate anaerobes:
A. *Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulinum
B. Escherichia coli
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Proteus vulgaris
E. Brucella melitensis
Choose the best destroying exhaust cultures of bacteria:
A. sterilization by boiling
B. sterilizations heat oven
C. *sterilizations in an autoclave
D. sterilization by ethylene oxide
E. sterilization by ultraviolet light
Choose the components of Ressel’s medium:
A. *semi-solid agar, lactose (1 %), glucose (0,1 %) and indicator of WR (water blue and rosolic
acid)
B. MPB, lactose (1 %), glucose (0,1 %) and indicator WR (water blue and rosolic acid)
C. MPB, lactose (1 %), glucose (0,1 %) and indicator fuchsine
D. semi-solid agar, lactose (1 %), maltose (0,1 %) and indicator WR (water blue and rosolic acid)
E. semi-solid agar, mannitol (1 %), glucose (0,1 %) and indicator WR (water blue and rosolic acid)
Differential diagnostic media are used for:
A. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility of bacteria
B. Accumulations of microbial biomass
C. Examination of microorganisms pathogenicity
D. Studies of antigen structure of microorganisms
E. *Examination of bacteria enzyme activity
During a Log-phase the division of bacteria takes place:
A. delay of division
B. *at constant rate
C. more bacteria die, then appears
D. division does not take place
E. all answers are incorrect
During the stationary phase of population growth the reason of bacterial death is:
A. diminishing amount of nutrients
B. changes of medium рН
C. toxic action of appearing substances
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
Edward Jenner began inoculating humans with material from _______ lesions.
A. Smallpox
B. Avianpox
C. *Cowpox
D. Chickenpox
E. Dogpox
Endo’s medium consist of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*MPA, 1 % lactose, an indicator fuchsin
MPB, 1 % lactose, an indicator fuchsin
MPA, 1 % lactose, an indicator eosin
MPB, 1 % lactose, an indicator eosin
MPA, 5 % lactose, indicator bromthymol blue
513.
Enveloped viruses have a ______ shape
A. Icosahedral
B. Helical
C. Hexagonal
D. *Roughly spherical
E. Complex
514.
Family Picornaviridae includes viruses with following morphology:
A. *naked viruses;
B. enveloped viruses;
C. genome is positive double -stranded RNA;
D. genome is negative single -stranded RNA;
E. virus containing double-stranded DNA.
515.
Final products of carbonhydrates utilization:
A. sediment in test tube
B. *acid, or acid + gas
C. pellicle on the surface of nutrient medium
D. all answer are correct
E. absence of changes
516.
For abolition of bacteria in the air of operating room such methods may be used:
A. gamma-rays
B. X-ray
C. *ultraviolet Light
D. gamma-rays
E. gas method
517.
Free oxygen is toxic for bacteria, because it:
A. kills a bacterium
B. *detains their growth
C. halts spore formation
D. inhibit toxins production
E. inhibit enzymes production
518.
Growth of what microorganisms does not inhibit furasolidon, added into nutrient medium in
certain concentrations?
A. *Micrococci and Corynebacteria
B. E. coli and Bacillus spp.
C. Clostridium spp. and Branhamella spp.
D. Streptococci and Gemella spp.
E. Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp.
519.
Holes produced in bacterial “lawns” by viruses are called
A. Colonies
B. *Plaques
C. Patches
D. Lysis
E. Clearance
520.
How is it possible to increase the phase of exponential growth and M-concentration artificially ?
A. by the renewing of nutrient medium
B. additional aeration (for aerobes)
C. it is impossible to do it
D. a right answer is not present
E. *right answers A and B
521.
In depending on substrate that is donor of electrons there are such bacteria:
A. lithotrophs and chemotrophs
B. chemotrophs and heterotrophs
C. autotrophs and chemotrophs
D. chemotrophs and phototrophs
E. *lithotrophs and organotrophs
522.
In Olkenitsky’s medium Salmonella typhi, which forms the hydrogen supplied was inoculated.
What changes will be in a medium in this case?
A. To fix the hydrogen sulphide production in this medium is impossible
B. *appearance of black precipitate in the column of agar
C. appearance of greenish precipitate in the column of agar
D. appearance of bright red precipitate in the column of agar
E. all medium will be black
523.
In what phases of growth are microorganisms most physiologically and functionally active?
A. initial and exponential
B. *exponential and stationary
C. stationary and death
D. initial and stationary
E. exponential and death
524.
Indicate among these microbes obligate anaerobic bacteria:
A. Staphylococcus spp., Streptococcus spp.
B. *Clostridium perfringens, Bacteroides spp.
C. Escherichia coli, Salmonella typhi
D. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella abortus
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae
525.
Indicate composition of semi-solid Giss’s media
A. *MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other),
indicators water blue with rosolic acid)
B. MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other),
indicator Andrede
C. MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other), an
indicator diamond green
D. MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other),
indicator – complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate
E. MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other), an
indicator phenol red
526.
Indicate halophilic bacterium:
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. *Vibrio parahaemolyticus
D. Treponema pallidum
E. Shigella flexneri
527.
Indicate obligate anaerobic microorganisms:
A. Staphylococcus spp., Streptococcus spp.
B. *Clostridium perfringens, Bacteroides spp.
C. Escherichia coli, Salmonella typhi
D. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella abortus
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae
528.
Indicate the basic components of Ploskirev’s medium.
A. MPB, saccharose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red.
B. MPA, saccharose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red.
C. MPB, lactose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red.
D. *MPA, lactose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red.
E. MPA, glucose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red.
529.
Indicate the composition of blood agar.
A. *MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals
B. MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals, an indicator bromthymol blue
C. MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals, an indicator fuchsin
D. MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals, an indicator neutral red
E. MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals, an indicator eosin
530.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
531.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
532.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
533.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
534.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
535.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
536.
A.
B.
C.
Indicate the composition of Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium for cultivation of anaerobes:
MPA, pieces of liver or meat
MPB, yolk, medium is covered with vaseline oil
*Hottinger’s broth, pieces of liver or meat, glucose, medium is covered with vaseline oil
Hottinger’s broth, pieces of brain tissues
Serum broth, pieces of liver or meat, , medium is covered with vaseline oil
Indicate the composition of liquid Giss’s media
% peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol and
other), an indicator bromthymol dark blue
% peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol and
other), an indicator eosin
% peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol and
other), an indicator is methylene blue
% peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol and
other), an indicator neutral red
*1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol and
other), indicator of Andrede
Indicate the composition of Olkenitsky’s medium?
MPA, lactose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt), sodium thiosulphate, urea,
an indicator is phenol red
MPA, saccharose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt), sodium thiosulphate,
urea, an indicator is phenol red
MPA, glucose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt), sodium thiosulphate, urea,
an indicator is phenol red
MPA, lactose, saccharose, glucose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt),
sodium thiosulphate, an indicator is phenol red
*MPA, lactose, saccharose, glucose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt),
sodium thiosulphate, urea, an indicator is phenol red.
Indicate the correct sequence of the stages of isolation of pure culture of aerobes.
*Microscopic examination of tested material > inoculation on a solid nutrient medium for
obtaining the isolated colonies > inoculation on the slant agar for obtaining the pure culture >
identification > conclusion
Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material > inoculation on the slant agar for
the obtaining the isolated colonies > obtaining the pure culture > identification > conclusion
Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material > inoculation in MPB for the
obtaining the isolated colonies > inoculation on the slant agar for obtaining the pure culture >
identification > conclusion
Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material > inoculation on a solid nutrient
medium for the obtaining the isolated colonies > identification > conclusion
Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material > inoculation on a solid nutrient
medium for obtaining the isolated colonies > identification
Indicate the growth signs of bacteria in a liquid nutrient medium:
formation of diffuse turbidity
formation of pellicle
formation of sediment
*all answers are correct
all answers are wrong
Indicate the necessary components of Levin’s medium:
MPB, lactose, indicators methylene blue, eosin .
MPA, saccharose, indicators methylene blue, eosin.
MPB, saccharose, indicators methylene dark, eosin.
*MPA, lactose, indicators methylene blue, eosin.
MPA, lactose, indicators methylene blue, fuchsin.
Indicate the type of bacterial cell division:
And. passing ahead
In. synchronous
P. with the passing ahead division of nucleoid
D. **all of answers are correct
E. all of answers are wrong
537.
Indicate vitamins necessary for bacterial growth:
A. Biotin
B. Thiamine
C. Riboflavin
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
538.
Intracellular structures formed during many viral infections, called __________, which can
directly disrupt cell structure.
A. Procaryotes
B. Chromosomal disruptions
C. *Inclusion bodies
D. Cytocidal bodies
E. All of the above
539.
It is necessary to choose the medium for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria:
A. Endo’s and Levin’s media
B. Meat-peptone agar, meat-peptone broth
C. *Zeissler’s blood-sugar agar, Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium
D. Coagulated serum, мeat-peptone gelatin
E. Ascitic agar, serum agar
540.
Mechanism of high temperatures antibacterial action:
A. damage of ribosomes
B. destruction of tertiary structure of albumens
C. destruction of cytoplasm membranes
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
541.
Morphological identification is examination of bacterial species according to:
A. character of colonies
B. *morphological signs
C. character of staining
D. character of motility
E. biochemical properties
542.
Most of non-spore-forming perish at a temperature:
A. *58-60 °С 30-60 minutes
B. -30 °С in 2-4 ч
C. -50 °С in 1 ч
D. -20 °С in 5-8 ч
E. -30 °С in 30-60 minutes
543.
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria belong to what group according to their type of respiration?
A. Obligate aerobes
B. Obligate anaerobes
C. Facultative anaerobes
D. *Microaerophils
E. Capneic
544.
Non-inoculated Endo’s medium has color:
A. bright red
B. *poorly-rose
C. yellow
D. greenish
E. colorless
545.
Respiration of bacteria is a process:
A. biosynthesis of protein molecules
B. *biooxidation with formation of ATP
C. biosynthesis of carbohydrates
D. biosynthesis of lipids
E. biosynthesis of microelements
546.
Respiration of bacteria is accompanied:
A. *by formation of energy
B. by the loss of energy
C. by accumulation of CO2
D. all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
547.
Salts of heavy metals will cause in a bacterial cell:
A. destruction of lipids
B. destroying the polysaccharides
C. DNA destroying
D. Protein synthesis disturbances
E. *coagulation of protein
548.
Special nutrient medium is:
A. Blood agar
B. Serum agar
C. Ascitic agar
D. *All answers are correct
E. All answers are wrong
549.
Such enzymes prevail in a bacterial cell:
A. oxydoreductases
B. constitutive
C. hydrolases
D. *adaptive
E. ligases
550.
Such groups of bacteria are existed according to their respiration:
A. capneic
B. microaerophils
C. anaerobes
D. aerobes
E. *all of them
551.
Such nutrient media belong to universal ones:
A. *MPB and MPA
B. Mannitol salt agar Levin’s medium
C. Serum MPA and 1% alkaline peptone water
D. Endo’ medium and blood agar
E. Ploskirev’s medium and serum broth
552.
Surface-tension-reducing agents (detergents) can cause:
A. violation of spores’ formation.
B. violation of flagella structure
C. violation of capsule formation.
D. Violation of nucleoid function
E. *violation of CPM structure and cell wall structure
553.
Taking into consideration the features of fermenting type of anaerobe bacteria metabolism they
require:
A. More rich for nutrients medium
B. More rich for vitamins nutrient medium
C. Obligatory addition of bacterial growth factors in nutrient medium
D. *All answers are correct
E. All answers are wrong
554.
Temperature optimum for mesophilic bacteria:
A. -15 1C
B. -30 2C
C. *30-37 3С
D. -50 4C
E. -60 5C
555.
Temperature optimum for psychrophilic bacteria:
A. *10-25 1C
B.
C.
D.
E.
556.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
557.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
558.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
559.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
560.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
561.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
562.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
563.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
564.
A.
B.
C.
D.
-30 2C
-37 С3
-50 4C
-60 5C
Temperature optimum for thermophilic bacteria:
-20 1C
-30 0C
-37 С3
-50 4C
*50-60 5C
The appearance of a group of viruses under the light micoscope within cells is termed the :
*inclusion
viroid
colony
cytopathic effect
plaque
The characteristic cytophatologic effect (CPE) that viruses cause in cells include:
vacuolation
necrosis
cell lysis
syncytia formation
*all of the above
The enzyme that enhances the respiratory penetration on the orthomyxovirus is:
*hemagglutinin
hemolysin
lipoprotein
neuraminidase
hyaluronidase
The following test determines the presence of infectious virus in a sample:
Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI)
Immunofluoresence or Fluorescence assays (IF or FA)
Neutralization Tests (NT)
Complement Fixation Test (CF)
*all of the above.
The following test reveals the intracellular location of viral antigens:
Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI)
*Immunofluoresence or Fluorescence assays (IF or FA)
Neutralization Tests (NT)
Complement Fixation Test (CF)
ELISA
The function/s of a viral capsid is/are:
it protects the viral genome from physical and enzymatic destruction.
it provides binding sites that enable the virus to attach to specific receptor sites on the host cell.
it serves as a vehicle of transmission from one host to another.
It consists of proteins
*all of the above.
The main use of embryonated eggs in virology is the:
detection of cytopathic effect
production of interferon
production of vaccines
*observation of viral growth
production of lysozym
The mechanism of action of iodine consists of:
destruction of lipids
destroying the polysaccharides
DNA depolarization
*oxidization of protein active groups and their denaturizing
565.
566.
567.
568.
569.
570.
571.
572.
573.
574.
E. violation of proteins synthesis
The most popular indirect method of counting virus particles is
A. Microscopically
B. By hemagglutination assay
C. By plaque-assay
D. *By counting plaque-forming units
E. By colony counting
The nucleocapsid refers to:
A. *the complete viral particle
B. the viral genetic material
C. the viral proteins only
D. the viral genetic material and associated lipids
E. the viral genetic material and associated proteins
The process by which phage reproduction is initiatied in lysogenized culture is called
A. Infection
B. Integration
C. Repression
D. *Induction
E. Enhancement
The protein coat that envelopes the viral genetic material is known as a:
A. Virion
B. Case
C. Viroid
D. *Capsid
E. Spikes
The release of animal viruses from their host occur in:
A. assembly
B. endocytosis
C. maturation
D. *exocytosis
E. eclipse
The role of the 'early genes' of a mammalian virus?
A. *initiation and regulation of virus replication
B. maintenance of the virus outside the cell
C. coding for the structural proteins of the virus
D. determining the group specific antigens of the virus
E. coding for the lipid components of the viral envelope
The smallest known viruses are the:
A. *Picornavirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Enterovirus
D. Orthomyxovirus
E. Paramyxovirus
There are such components of Endo’s medium:
A. *MPA, 1 % lactose, an indicator fuchsine
B. MPB, 1 % lactose, an indicator fuchsine
C. MPA, 1 % lactose, an indicator eosin
D. MPB, 1 % lactose, an indicator eosin
E. MPA, 5 % lactose, indicator bromthymol blue
There are such demands to the nutrient media, EXCEPT:
A. presence of nutrients
B. sterility
C. *certain color
D. certain viscidity
E. transparency
There are such mechanisms of penetration different substances into the cell, EXCEPT:
A. facilitated diffusion
B.
C.
D.
E.
*transformations of chemical groups
passive diffusion
active transport
ionic transport
575.
To Chlorine which are used for disinfection, belong all preparation, EXCEPT:
A. ,2-1,0 % solutions of Chloramin B.
B. % water solutions of calcium hypochloride.
C. ,05-0,1 % solution of trichloroisocyanuric acid.
D. ,1-0,2 % sulfochlorantine solution
E. *3-5 % solution of carbolic acid.
576.
To dyes, which can inhibit bacterial growth , belong:
A. diamond green.
B. rivanol.
C. acriflavin.
D. none of them.
E. *all of them.
577.
To the universal nutrient media belong:
A. serum MPA and serum MPB.
B. Endo’s medium and Ploskirev’s medium
C. *MPA and MPB
D. Blood MPA and TCBS medium
E. Yolk salt agar and ascitic agar
578.
Viral DNA is replicated in the host cell
A. Cytoplasmic matrix
B. *Nucleus
C. Wall
D. Mitochondria
E. Lysozomes
579.
Viral RNA is replicated in the host cell
A. *Cytoplasmic matrix
B. Nucleus
C. Wall
D. Mitochondria
E. Lysozomes
580.
Virulent and nonvirulent viruses may do any of the following but not
A. Inhibit host cell DNA synthesis
B. Inhibit host cell RNA synthesis
C. Inhibit host cell protein synthesis
D. *Stimulate host cell macromolecule synthesis
E. Degrade host cell DNA
581.
Viruses are intracellular obligate parasites, which means that they cannot reproduce or express
their genes without
A. enzymes
B. *a host cell
C. another virus
D. a cell wall
E. nutrience media
582.
Viruses require ______ for growth.
A. Plants
B. Animals
C. Bacteria
D. *Living cells
E. Fungi
583.
What actions are necessary to do during І stage of isolation of pure cultures of aerobes?
A. To study the features of the tested material
B. To study the morphological features of possible causative agent
C. To choose necessary nutrient medium for inoculation
584.
585.
586.
587.
588.
589.
590.
591.
592.
593.
D. To inoculate tested material for obtaining the isolated colonies
E. *All answers are correct
What antibiotic is it necessary to add into nutrient medium for inhibition of fungi growth?
A. Penicillin
B. Streptomycin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. *Nistatin
E. Mitomicin C
What bacteria are very susceptible to drying?
A. Staphylococci
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. *Meningococci
D. Shigella
E. Salmonella
What bacteria do belong to obligate anaerobes?
A. *Clostridium septicum, Bacteroides fragilis
B. Salmonella schottmuelleri
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Proteus rettgeri
E. Francisella tularensis
What changes do appear in Ressel’s medium when microbes produce gas?
A. Discoloration of column of agar
B. Discoloration of the slant surface of agar
C. Appearance of gas bubbles
D. Appearance of breaks in the column of agar
E. *Right answers C and D
What changes may be observed Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium after inoculation of tested material?
A. Turbidity
B. Formation of sediment
C. Formation of gas
D. Right answers A and C
E. *Right answers A, B, C
What color do Giss’s media have, if microbes utilize sugars?
A. *red
B. green
C. violet
D. brown
E. a color does not change
What color do lactose-negative colony of bacteria on Levin’s medium have?
A. dark blue
B. colorless
C. red with metallic hue
D. brown
E. *rose
What color do lactose-positive colony of bacteria on Levin’s medium have?
A. *dark blue
B. colorless
C. red with metallic hue
D. brown
E. green
What color do lactose-positive colony of bacteria on Ploskirev’s medium have?
A. dark blue
B. colorless
C. *rose
D. brown
E. green
What color does a simple medium – MPA– have?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
red
*yellow
greenish
violet
dark blue
594.
What color does a simple medium – MPB– have?
A. red
B. dark blue
C. greenish
D. violet
E. *yellow
595.
What color does no inoculated Levin’s medium have?
A. bright red
B. poorly-rose
C. yellow
D. greenish
E. *violet
596.
What color does non-inoculated Olkenitsky’s medium have?
A. bright red
B. *pink
C. yellow
D. greenish
E. violet
597.
What color does noninoculated Ressel’s medium have?
A. bright red
B. *pinky
C. yellow
D. greenish
E. violet
598.
What color does the methylene blue stain nutrient medium if its redox potential increases?
A. Yellow
B. Green
C. Brown
D. *Blue
E. Pink
599.
What component is added into the nutrient media for examination of decarboxilase activity of
bacteria?
A. Proteins
B. Peptones
C. *Amino acids
D. Lipids
E. Carbohydrates
600.
What components may be the source of nitrogen in nutrient media?
A. meat
B. fish
C. meat and bone flour
D. casein
E. *all answers are correct
601.
What dyes can inhibit bacterial growth:
A. Brilliant green
B. Rivanol
C. Acriflavin
D. none of them.
E. *all of them
602.
What enzyme of aerobic bacteria can stop the harmful effect of hydrogen peroxide?
A. lipase
B. protease
C. hydrolase
D. *catalase
E. urease
603.
What enzyme of aerobic bacteria does provide neutralization of hydrogen peroxide toxic effect?
A. lipase
B. protease
C. hydrolase
D. *catalase
E. urease
604.
What enzymes do control the substrate splitting with joining the water molecules?
A. Oxydoreductases
B. Isomerases
C. Ligases
D. *Hydrolases
E. Transferases
605.
What enzymes do provide oxydation-reduction reactions?
A. Hydrolases
B. Isomerases
C. Transferases
D. Lyases
E. *Oxydoreductases
606.
What enzymes do provide the reactions of groups of atoms transfer?
A. *Transferases
B. Ligases
C. Lyases
D. Oxydoreductases
E. Isomerases
607.
What factors do not influence on the bacterial reproduction?
A. age of bacteria
B. composition of nutrient medium
C. medium рН
D. *year season
E. temperatures, aeration
608.
What finished products do appear in the semi-solid Giss’ media after sugar utilization?
A. acid
B. alkali
C. gas
D. *acid and gas
E. fixing the finished products is not succeeded
609.
What group of nutrient media does Ressel’s medium belong to?
A. Universal
B. Liquid
C. Selective
D. Elective
E. *Differential-diagnostic
610.
What groups of methods for creation of anaerobic conditions for anaerobic bacteria cultivation
do you know ?
A. mechanical
B. physical
C. chemical
D. biological
E. *all answers are correct
611.
What is a biological catalyst?
A. nucleic acids
B. *enzymes
C. metabolites
D. Plasmids
612.
613.
614.
615.
616.
617.
618.
619.
620.
621.
E. Transposons
What is a chemical origin of agar-agar?
A. Lipids
B. Proteins
C. *Polysaccharides
D. Carbohydrates
E. Amino acids
What is a chemical origin of gelatin?
A. Polysaccharides
B. Lipids
C. *Proteins
D. Carbohydrates
E. Amino acids
What is a name of enzyme localized inside a bacterial cell:
A. adaptive
B. *endoenzymes
C. exoenzymes
D. constitutive
E. all answers are right
What is a reason molecular oxygen toxic action according to bacteria?
A. formation of singlet oxygen
B. formation of hydrogen peroxide
C. formation of ozone
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are incorrect
What is a virus that infects bacteria called?
A. Virophage
B. *Bacteriophage
C. Arbovirus
D. Rhabdovirus
E. Provirus
What is always required for a successful first step in viral infection of an eucaryotic cell?
A. the presence of the correct viral polymerase
B. *the presence of the correct virus receptor
C. the presence of a nucleus in the eucaryotic cell
D. the presence of cellular polyribosomes
E. the presence of the correct number of viral genome segments
What is chemical composition of prokaryotic cell?
A. Water - 50-60 %, dry weight - 40-60 %.
B. Water - 60-90 %, dry weight - 10-30 %.
C. *Water - 70-90 %, dry weight - 10-30 %.
D. Water - 40-50 %, dry weight - 50-60 %.
E. Water - 20-40 %, dry weight - 60-80 %.
What is chemostate?
A. synonym of term of «jar»
B. vehicle which allows to study chemical properties of bacteria
C. vehicle, in which it is possible to make sterilization of media
D. *vehicle which allows to make continuous cultivation of microorganisms in laboratory
conditions
E. vehicle which allows to study antigenic properties of bacteria
What is one component of all mammalian viruses?
A. the envelope
B. the polymerase
C. the icosahedral capsid
D. the lipid
E. *the nucleic acid
What is raw material for agar-agar obtaining?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
622.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
623.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
624.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
625.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
626.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
627.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
628.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
629.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
630.
A.
B.
C.
Skin
Meat
*Algae
Arthral cartilage
Bones
hat is the role of the 'early genes' of a mammalian virus?
*initiation and regulation of virus replication
maintenance of the virus outside the cell
coding for the structural proteins of the virus
determining the group specific antigens of the virus
coding for the lipid components of the viral envelope
What kind of embryo is often used for viral assays?
Mouse
Rat
Cat
Dog
*Chicken
What mechanism of action of ultraviolet light against bacteria?
does not have any effect according to the cell
affect RNA molecules
*affect DNA molecules and as a result forms thymine dimers
affect the ribosomes
affect the structure of cell wall
What mechanism of ultrasound action against bacteria?
destroys cell DNA
destroys cell RNA
destroys cell mesosome
*forms a cavitation cavity, filled in the pair of liquid, with high pressure inside
an ultrasound does not influence on bacteria
What is mechanism of reproduction of bacteria:
*by a simple transversal division
by a mitosis
by spore formation
by sexual way
by a disjunctive way
What medium is it possible to use for checking the utilization of a few sugars?
Roux’s medium
Leffler’s medium
*Giss’s media
Ploskirev’s medium
EMB medium
What microbes do belong to capneic one?
Clostridium tetani, Clostridium perfringens
Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Vibrio cholerae
Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Salmonella typhi
*Brucella abortus
Lactobacillus acidophilus
What microbes do belong to facultative anaerobes?
Clostridium tetani, Clostridium perfringens
Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Vibrio cholerae
*Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Salmonella typhi
Brucella abortus
Lactobacillus acidophilus
What microbes have ability to penetrate through normal skin?
Staphylococcus aureus
Shigella flexneri
Salmonella patience
D. *Yersinia pestis
E. Streptococcus pyogenes
631.
What microorganisms do have a tendency to superficial growth?
A. Obligate anaerobes
B. Capneic bacteria
C. *Obligate aerobes
D. Microaerophilic bacteria
E. Facultative anaerobes
632.
What part of dry weight of the cell does belong to protein?
A. %.
B. %.
C. *55 %.
D. %.
E. %
633.
What phase is characterized by high speed of bacterial division and increasing their number?
A. Stationary
B. *Exponential
C. Initial
D. Death
E. Expotential
634.
What phase of microbial growth in periodic culture does not exist?
A. Initial
B. Exponential
C. *Accumulations
D. Stationary
E. Decline
635.
What reaction can be utilized for examination of toxigenic properties of microbes?
A. Agglutination test
B. Complement fixation test
C. *Precipitation test
D. Gruber’s test
E. Indirect hemagglutination test
636.
What signs of hemolytic activity of bacteria are present on blood MPA?
A. appearance of areas of darkening on a mat red background
B. the changes of medium color
C. appearance of bright red colonies of microbes, if they cause haemolysis
D. *appearance of colorless areas surround the colonies on mat red background if the have
hemolytic activity
E. appearance of colorless colonies
637.
What stage of meat water preparing is the most important?
A. Making meat small
B. Filtration
C. *Extraction
D. Boiling
E. Sterilization
638.
What substance is it necessary to add to peptone water for creation the optimum conditions for
the isolation of cholerae vibrio?
A. % sodium sulfate
B. % acids
C. *1 % alkali
D. % iron sulfate
E. % sodium chloride
639.
What substrate is utilized for providing the necessary density of nutrient medium?
A. proteins
B. lipids
C. *agar-agar
D. carbohydrates
640.
641.
642.
643.
644.
645.
646.
647.
648.
E. there is no correct answer
What technique does belong to the biological method of anaerobic conditions creation?
A. *Joint cultivation of anaerobic bacteria and Serratia marcescens, which utilizes an oxygen
intensively
B. Cultivation of anaerobes in the organism of laboratory animals
C. Cultivation of anaerobes in the chicken embryos
D. All answers are correct
E. All answers are wrong
What technique does belong to the chemical method of anaerobic conditions creation?
A. use of Gas generating box
B. application of pyrogallol on the bottom of the jar
C. use the high column of nutrient medium
D. introduction of pieces of liver or muscles and vitamin K3 as supplement in the medium
E. *right answer A, B, D
What technique does belong to the mechanical method of anaerobic conditions creation?
A. use of Gas generating box
B. to cover the surface of medium with the layer of vaseline oil
C. use the high column of nutrient medium
D. *right answers B and C.
E. right answers A, B and C
What technique does belong to the physical method of anaerobic conditions creation?
A. use of Gas generating box
B. to cover the surface of medium with the layer of vaseline oil
C. use the high column of nutrient medium
D. *regeneration of nutrient medium before inoculation
E. correct answer is not present
What type of bacterial growth near the inner part of tube wall is there may be?
A. formation of flakes, fastened to the inner wall of test tube
B. by diffuse turbidity
C. formation of grains, fastened on the inner wall of test tube.
D. formation of pellicle on the surface of medium
E. *correct answers A and C
What type of sediment may be formed by microbes in liquid nutrient media?
A. Crumble-like
B. homogeneous
C. viscid
D. mucous
E. *all answers are correct
What types of bacterial fermentation do you know?
A. Lactic-acid fermentation
B. alcoholic fermentation
C. butiric-acid fermentation
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
What vitamins are necessary for development of bacteria?
A. pantothenic acid
B. Cholin
C. nicotine acid
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers of incorrect
What was the first virus shown to cause disease?
A. Polio
B. Hepatitis
C. *Tobacco mosaic virus
D. Potato blight
E. Influenza
649.
When antibody titers are used in the laboratory diagnosis of viral infections, the diagnosis can be
made only if
A. the acute titer is less than 10
B. the convalescent titcr is greater than 20
C. there is a twofold rise in titer
D. *there is a fourfold rise in titer
E. there is no change in titer
650.
Where does point of replication localize, when the division of bacteria begins?
A. on DNA of cell
B. on мРNA
C. on a cytoplasm membrane
D. on a cellular wall
E. *on DNA, located in the place of connection of mesosome and cytoplasm membrane
651.
Which is not true of virions?
A. Contain DNA
B. Contain RNA
C. Are extracellular
D. Reproduce independently
E. *Induce host metabolism
652.
Which of the following is not a single-stranded RNA virus?
A. *Herpes
B. Rhinovirus
C. Influenza
D. Rabies Virus
E. echovirus
653.
Which of the following is not found in all viruses
A. protein
B. enzymes
C. nucleic acid
D. *a capsid
E. an envelope
654.
Which of the following is semi-continuous (diploid) cell line?
A. *WI-38.
B. HeLa.
C. HEp-2.
D. KB.
E. Detroid 5
655.
Which of the following is/are continuous cell line/s?
A. HeLa.
B. HEp-2.
C. KB.
D. Detroit 5
E. *All of the above
656.
Which of the following is/are synthesized from late mRNA?
A. Phage structural proteins
B. Proteins that help with phage assembly without becoming part of the virion structure
C. Proteins involved in cell lysis and phage release
D. *All of the above
E. None of the above
657.
Which of the following viruses makes mRNA from an RNA template?
A. poxvirus
B. retrovirus
C. *picornavirus
D. herpesvirus
E. adenovirus
F.
658.
Which one of the viral components is smallest?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*capsomers
capsid
nucleocapsid
virion
envelope
659.
Which structure of viruses is synthesized from late mRNA?
A. *Phage structural proteins
B. DNA polymerase
C. Early proteins
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
660.
Which viruses are least accurate?
A. Temperate virus
B. Naked virus
C. Virion
D. *RNA phage
E. DNA phage
661.
Which viruses replicate in the nucleus?
A. Poxviruses
B. Paramyxoviruses
C. Picornaviruses
D. *Parvoviridae
E. Orthomyxoviruses
662.
Which wirus has a naked nucleocapsid?
A. herpes virus
B. mumps
C. influenza
D. chicken pox
E. *picorna virus
663.
Who was discoverer of phenomenon of anaerobiosis?
A. I. Mechnikov
B. S. Vinogradsky
C. *L. Pasteur
D. R. Koch
E. E. Ru
664.
A degree of heterotrophy may be different. The highest heterotrophy has prokaryotic organisms
that are able to live only inside the living cells. There are:
A. staphylococci and streptococci
B. escherichia and salmonellas
C. mycobacteria and bordetella
D. *rickettsia and chlamidia
E. vibrios and treponema
665.
Colonies of bacteria that grow on solid nutrient media can differentiate according to:
A. consistencies
B. density
C. color
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
666.
Constructive and power metabolisms are closely connected, sometimes their ways coincide, and
the same substrates are utilized for different necessities. Such ways are called:
A. metabolic
B. *amphibolic
C. associative
D. dissociative
E. polybolic
667.
During the evolution bacteria produced the ways of energy reception. There are:
A. fermentation
B.
C.
D.
E.
respiration
photosynthesis
*all answers are correct
all answers are wrong
668.
For biological control of sterilization quality microorganisms are used. What important feature
do they have?
A. gram-positive
B. gram-negative
C. form capsules
D. *form spores
E. form pili
669.
For verifying the peptolytic properties of bacteria what substances are examined in nutrient
medium?
A. carbon acid and water
B. glucose and lactose
C. carbon acid and nitrogen
D. mannitol and methanol
E. *indole and hydrogen sulphide
670.
How much time is it necessary to cultivate the bacteria on Bismuth-sulfite agar for final
evaluation of growth?
A. hours
B. hours
C. hours
D. *48 hours
E. hour
671.
In Olkenitsky’s medium Salmonella typhi, which decomposes glucose to acid was inoculated.
What changes will be observed in a medium, which certify utilization of glucose?
A. *The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of the column of agar
B. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow the slant surface of agar
C. The changes of the color from a pinky to red the slant surface of agar
D. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of the column of agar and the slant surface of
agar
E. The changes of the color from a pinky to red of the column of agar
672.
In what nutrient media for cultivation of bacteria 7,5-10 % chloride of sodium may be added?
A. Yolk-salt agar
B. Buchin’s medium
C. Mannitol-salt agar
D. Blood-sugar agar
E. *Right answers A and C
673.
It is necessary to create anaerobic conditions for cultivation of proper bacteria by biological
method. What method could you propose?
A. Zeissler’s method
B. Shukevich’s method
C. Veynberg’s method
D. *Fortner’s method
E. Pasteur’s method
674.
It is necessary to prepare a coagulated serum for isolation of culture of Corynebacterium
diphtheriae. How can you do serum coagulation?
A. -90 °С during 10 min
B. -80 °С during 30 min
C. -60 °С during 30 min
D. -100 °С during 30 min
E. *80-90 °С during 1 hour.
675.
It is necessary to sterilize an object that destroys at 100 °С . Choose the comfortable regime of
tyndalization:
A. sterilization by water bath at 58-60 °С during a hour 2-3 days one after the other
B. single sterilization by water bath at 98-100 °С during 10 min
C. sterilization by water bath at 58-60 °С during a hour 3-4 days one after the other
D. *sterilization by water bath at 58-60 °С during a hour 5-6 day one after the other
E. sterilization by water bath at 80-90 °С during a hour 2-3 days one after the other
676.
Material from a sick woman must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium for diagnosis of
vaginal candidiasis. Indicate this medium?
A. Mueller’s medium
B. % alkaline peptone water
C. Ru’s medium
D. Blood agar
E. *Saburo’s medium
677.
Material from patient with typhoid fever must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium.
Choose most optimum from them:
A. *Mueller’s medium
B. % alkaline peptone water
C. Ru’s medium
D. Blood agar
E. Saburo’s medium
678.
Microorganisms that are used as an energy source chemical reaction in the medium belong to:
A. heterotrophs
B. autotrophs
C. lithotrophs
D. organotrophs
E. *chemotrophs
679.
On the mucous membranes of human there are corynebacteria. What selective medium for their
cultivation?
A. Mueller’s medium
B. % alkaline peptone water
C. Ru’s medium
D. *Agar with furazolidonum and tween
E. Saburo’s medium
680.
One of the asepsis measures is disinfection. What is it – a concept "disinfection"?
A. deleting bacterial and fungal spores of the objects of environment
B. elimination of pathogenic microorganisms in a wound
C. *decontamination of pathogenic microorganisms is the
D. diminishing the degree of microbial contamination of skin and mucous membranes
E. elimination viruses in the environment
681.
What component is it necessary to take for carrying out presumptive agglutination test for
examination of bacterial antigens?
A. Precipitating serum
B. *Agglutinating serum
C. Neutralizing serum
D. Hemolytic serum
E. Right answer is not present
682.
What finished products does appear in the semi-solid Giss’s media after sugar utilization?
A. acid
B. alkali
C. gas
D. *acid and gas
E. fixing the finished products is not succeeded
683.
What indicator is utilized in a medium with an urea according to Christensen?
A. Andrede
B. Neutral red
C. *Phenol red
D. Bromthymol blue
E. Thymol blue
684.
According to the colony relief there may have such form:
A. Flat
B.
C.
D.
E.
Convex
Dome-shaped
Pitted
*All answers are correct
685.
According to what signs can we check the purity of selected bacterial culture?
A. Biochemical and serologic
B. *Cultural (signs of growth) and morphological
C. Tinctorial and biochemical
D. Susceptibility to phages and antibiotics
E. Right answer is not present
686.
After practical classes it is necessary to kill bacterial cultures that were used by students. Choose
optimum regime of sterilization in an autoclave:
A. *134 °С 40 minutes
B. °С 20 minutes
C. °С 15 minutes
D. °С 10 minutes
E. °С 30 minutes
687.
Bacteria that form R-colonies have all features, EXCEPT:
A. *does not have capsules
B. have capsules
C. sometimes does not have flagella
D. low or absent virulence
E. easily phagocytable
688.
Bacteria that form S-colonies have all features, EXCEPT
A. *easily phagocytable
B. poorly phagocytable
C. biochemically more active
D. isolated in the acute stage of disease
E. have capsules
689.
Biochemical identification is examination of bacterial species according to their:
A. *enzymes
B. toxins
C. allergens
D. plasmids
E. antigens
690.
Biological identification is carrying out by:
A. allergic tests
B. *inoculation of laboratory animals
C. agglutination test
D. biochemical reactions
E. cultivation on species
691.
Choose bacteria susceptible to desiccation.
A. *Gononococci
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Shigella
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
E. Salmonella typhi
692.
Choose the method of inoculation of bacteria, based on mechanical principle?
A. Roux’s method
B. Gram’s method
C. Inoculation by a needle
D. *Drigalsky’s method
E. Morozov’s method
693.
Cultural identification is examination of bacterial species according to:
A. *character of growth
B. character of staining
C. enzyme activity
D. all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
694.
Cultural properties – there are:
A. character of bacterial staining
B. *character of growth of bacteria on/in nutrient medium
C. character of biological features of bacteria
D. all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
695.
During examination of peptolytic properties what products are checked in a nutrient medium:
A. Carbonic acids and waters
B. Glucose and lactose
C. Carbonic acid and nitrogen
D. Mannitol and methanol
E. *Indole and hydrogen sulfide
696.
During the isolation of pure culture of anaerobic microorganisms the isolated colony is
inoculated on/in:
A. *Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium
B. Giss’s medium
C. Zeissler’s medium
D. Endo’s medium
E. Ploskirev’s medium
697.
Ethylene oxide may be used for sterilization of all equipment, EXCEPT:
A. equipment for anesthesia
B. *nutrient media
C. prostheses
D. endoscope instruments
E. catgut
698.
For chemical sterilization by gases all of them are used, EXCEPT:
A. formaldehyde
B. chloroform
C. beta-propiolactone
D. ethylene oxide
E. *methane
699.
For diagnosis of what diseases biological identification is most important?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Botulism
C. Tetanus
D. Salmonellosis
E. *All answers are correct
700.
For examination of saccharolytic properties of bacteria we can use such medium:
A. Veinberg’s medium
B. Zeissler’s medium
C. *Giss’ media
D. Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium
E. Milk
701.
For inoculation of microbes according to Drigalsky’s method we can use:
A. Bacteriological loop
B. *Spatula
C. Bacteriological needle
D. Jar
E. All answers are correct
702.
For inoculation of microbes by streak’s technique we can use:
A. *Bacteriological loop
B. Spatula
C. Bacteriological needle
D. All answers are wrong
E. All answers are correct
703.
For mechanical separation of bacteria is not used such method:
A. Pasteur’s serial dilution
B. Koch’s method
C. Drigalsky’s method
D. Streak’s method
E. *Leffler’s method
704.
For obtaining the isolated colonies of aerobic bacteria tested material is inoculated:
A. *on solid nutrient media
B. in liquid nutrient media
C. in laboratory animals
D. in chicken embryo
E. in cell cultures
705.
For the selection of pure cultures the proper methods are used. Choose one of inoculation
technique:
A. Fortner’s method
B. *Drigalsky’s method
C. Membrane filters’ method
D. Gins’s method
E. Leffler’s method
706.
For what purpose does microbiologist carry out identification of pure cultures?
A. For cognition
B. For treatment
C. *For diagnostic
D. For prophylactic
E. For anamnesis
707.
Genetic identification is examination of bacterial species according to:
A. allergic tests
B. biotests in animals
C. *polymerase chain reaction
D. phage typing
E. examination of bacterial susceptibility to antibiotics
708.
Heat oven may be used for sterilization of all objects, EXCEPT:
A. tubes
B. Petry’s plates
C. *rubber corks
D. metallic instruments
E. heat-resistant powders
709.
How is it possible to carry out control of sterility of nutrient media after their preparing?
A. By keeping in incubator at 37 °С for a few hours.
B. By keeping in incubator at a temperature 42 °С for a few hours
C. By keeping at 18-20 °С. For a few hours
D. *By keeping in incubator for a few days at 37 °С.
E. Right answer is not present
710.
How is it possible to divide microorganisms according to spore formation for isolation of pure
culture?
A. To cool the tested material before inoculation, as spores are insusceptible to the action of low
temperatures
B. *To heat the tested material before inoculation, as spores are heat stable
C. To inoculate tested material and cultivate it in anaerobic conditions
D. To inoculate tested material, which contains spore forming bacilli in laboratory animals
E. To separate microorganisms according to their spore formation is impossible
711.
How is it possible to separate microorganisms according to their motility?
A. To inoculate tested material on the upper part of slant agar
B. *To inoculate tested material in the drop of fluid in the lower part of slant agar
C. To do inoculation of tested material by a prick in the slant agar
D. To separate microorganisms is impossible
E. To add to the tested material some substance which cause coagulation flagella protein
712.
How is it possible to verify motility of bacteria that form a colony?
A. *By wet-mount technique
B. By Grey’s technique
C. Staining according to Zdrodovsky’s technique
D. By scanning microscope
E. By radioisotope method
713.
How is it possible to verify the motility of bacteria which form colony?
A. Staining according to Leffler’s technique
B. Staining according to Gram’s technique
C. *By «hanging» drop technique
D. By electron microscope
E. By «lying» drop technique
714.
In an autoclave at 112 °С nutrient media were sterilized. What test-microbe is it possible to
utilize for sterilization control?
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium difficile
E. *Clostridium sporogenes
715.
In an autoclave at 121 °С nutrient media were sterilized. What test-microbe is it possible to
utilize for sterilization control?
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium difficile
E. *Bacillus steatothermophilus
716.
In burner’s flame it is possible to sterilize everything, EXCEPT:
A. forceps
B. bacteriological loops
C. *tampons for material collection
D. slide glasses
E. cover slip
717.
In the process of pure culture identification the most value has:
A. Morphological identification
B. Biological identification
C. Biochemical identification
D. *Serological identification
E. All answer are correct
718.
In what period after finishing the disinfections is it recommended to collect the control samples?
A. not before, than in 10-15 min
B. not before, than in 15-20 min
C. not before, than in 20-30 min
D. *not before, than in 30-45 min
E. not before, than in 60-90 min
719.
Indicate molecular-genetic methods that can be utilized for identification of bacteria
A. Reactions of hybridization of DNK and RNK (reaction of gene probes)
B. Polymerase chain reaction
C. Immunofluorescence test
D. *Right answers A and B
E. Right answers A, B and C
720.
Is it necessary to examine the structure of colonies. What method can you offer?
A. *In the passing light at the small increase of microscope
B. In an electron microscope
C. By a "hanging" drop technique
D. By a phase-contrast microscope
E. By the immersion system of microscope
721.
It is necessary to verify the hemolytic properties of bacteria. What nutrient media will you
recommend?
A. simple MPA
B. simple MPB
C. Endo’s medium
D. *blood MPA
E. serum MPA
722.
What nutrient media will you recommend for examenation the hemolytic properties of bacteria?
A. simple MPA
B. simple MPB
C. Endo’s medium
D. *blood MPA
E. serum MPA
723.
What nutrient medium will you recommend for examenation the peptolytic properties of bacteria
?
A. MPA
B. Endo’s medium
C. Ru’s medium
D. % alkaline peptone water
E. *MPB
724.
It is necessary to conduct pasteurization of juice. Choose its optimum mode:
A. °С during 5-10 min
B. °С during 30 min
C. °С during 60 min
D. °С during 30 min
E. *80 °С during 5-10 min
725.
It is necessary to conduct pasteurization of milk. Choose its optimum mode:
A. *70 °С during 30 min
B. °С during 60 min
C. °С during 90 min
D. °С during 30 min
E. °С during 60 min
726.
It is necessary to sterilize material that contains the spore-forming bacteria by live steam. Choose
the regime of sterilization:
A. single sterilization during 10 min.
B. single sterilization during 20 min.
C. fractional sterilization – three times one after the other during one day, 30 min.
D. fractional sterilization – 2 days one after the other, 30 min.
E. *fractional sterilization – 3 days one after the other, 30 min.
727.
It is necessary to sterilize the dressing material. Choose optimum regime of sterilization in an
autoclave:
A. °С during 20 minutes
B. °С during 20 minutes
C. °С during 40 minutes
D. *120 °С during 20 minutes
E. °С during 20 minutes
728.
It is necessary to study bacterial peptolytic properties. Indicate the proper medium:
A. Meat-peptone agar
B. Sugar MPA
C. Coagulated serum
D. *Meat-peptone broth
E. gelatin
729.
It is possible to sterilize in burner’s flame:
A. liquid nutrient media
B. physiological solution
C. *forceps
D. solid nutrient media
730.
731.
732.
733.
734.
735.
736.
737.
738.
739.
E. catheters
Mechanism of antibacterial effect of 37-40 % formaldehyde solution of:
A. destruction of cellular lipids.
B. *Interaction with protein amino groups and their denaturation
C. destruction of cellular endotoxin
D. destruction of cellular polysaccharides.
E. Cell dehydration
Peculiarities of S-colonies of bacteria:
A. *smooth, convex surface
B. gyrose surface
C. fibred consistency
D. edges are rosette-like
E. have capsules
Rubber and polymeric wares can be sterilized immersing them in:
A. *solution of dexon on 45 min at 18 °С
B. solution of dexon on 25 min at 18 °С
C. solution of dexon on 15 min at 18 °С
D. solution of dexon on 45 min at 56 °С
E. solution of dexon on 25 min at 56 °С
Serological identification is examination of bacterial species by:
A. Bacteria staining
B. *agglutinating sera
C. laboratory animals
D. biochemical signs
E. character of growth on/in nutrient media
Specify, to what pressure in an autoclave a temperature 100 °С corresponds:
A. *0 аtm.
B. ,5 аtm.
C. аtm.
D. ,5 аtm.
E. аtm.
Specify, to what pressures in an autoclave a temperature 112 °С corresponds:
A. аtm.
B. *0,5 аtm.
C. аtm.
D. ,5 аtm.
E. аtm.
Specify, to what pressures in an autoclave a temperature 121 °С corresponds:
A. аtm.
B. ,5 аtm.
C. *1 аtm.
D. ,5 аtm.
E. аtm.
Specify, to what pressures in an autoclave a temperature 127 °С corresponds:
A. аtm.
B. ,5 аtm.
C. аtm.
D. *1,5 аtm.
E. аtm.
Specify, to what pressures in an autoclave a temperature 131 °С corresponds:
A. аtm.
B. ,5 аtm.
C. аtm.
D. ,5 аtm.
E. *2 аtm.
The first stage of isolation of pure culture of anaerobes is:
A. Inoculation of material in the melted sugar agar
B.
C.
D.
E.
740.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
741.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
742.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
743.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
744.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
745.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
746.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
747.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
748.
A.
B.
C.
D.
*Inoculation of material in Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium
Inoculation of material in a coagulated serum
Inoculation of material on the Zeissler’s blood-sugar agar
Inoculation of material on Endo’s medium
The second stage of isolation of pure culture of aerobes is:
Macroscopic examination of material and its inoculation in liquid nutrient medium
Macro- and microscopic verification of culture purity
Serological identification
*Macro- and microscopic study of colonies and their inoculation on slant agar
Biochemical identification
The structure of colonies can be examined by such method:
*In the passing light, small objective of microscope
In an electronic microscope
By a "hanging" drop technique
In a phase-contrast microscope
By the immersion system of microscope
Tinctorial properties of bacteria – there is:
character of growth
*character of bacterial staining
presence of flagella
antigen properties
all answers are correct
Wares from polymeric materials may be sterilized by such method:
mechanical
*chemical
biological
pasteurization
in a heat oven
Wares from rubber and polymeric materials may be sterilized by immersing them in:
% hydrogen peroxide, 6 hours at 18 °С
% hydrogen peroxide, 12 hours at 18 °С
% hydrogen peroxide on 1 hour at 18 °С
*6 % hydrogen peroxide on 6 hours at 18 °С
% hydrogen peroxide on 2 hour at 18 °С
What is tyndalization?
single sterilization by water bath at 98-100 °С during 30 minutes
*sterilization by water bath at 58-60 °С during a hour 5-6 day one after the other
sterilization by water bath at 98-100 °С during a hour 5-6 day one after the other
sterilization by water bath 58-60 °С during a hour 2-3 days one after the other
sterilization by water bath at 98-100 °С during a hour 5-6 days one after the other
What microorganisms can be used for quality control of sterilization by filtration?
Escherichia coli
Salmonella typhi
*Serratia mаrcescens
Clostridium perfringens
Corynebacterium xerosis
What antigens can be found in Enterobacteriaceae during serological identification?
O
H
K
*All answers are correct
All answers are wrong
What are cultural properties of microorganisms?
Features of bacterial staining
Features of growth of bacteria in the column of agar
Features of chemical composition of bacteria
*Features of bacterial growth on/in nutrient media
749.
750.
751.
752.
753.
754.
755.
756.
E. It is a manifestation of tinctorial signs
What are feature of inoculation of anaerobes by Veinberg’s technique?
A. *Dilute material from Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium in tubes with melted sugar meat-peptone agar, their
cultivation then
B. Dilute material from Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium in tubes with MPB, their cultivation then
C. Dilute material from 1 % alkaline peptone water in tubes with melted sugar MPA, their
cultivation then
D. Dilute material from 1 % alkaline peptone water in tubes with MPB, their cultivation then
E. Transfer material in a test tube with melted sugar MPA, its cultivate then
What are features of І stage of isolation of pure culture of anaerobes?
A. Macroscopic examination of tested material and its inoculation in Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium and
milk
B. Microscopic examination of tested material and its inoculation in Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium and
milk
C. Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material and its inoculation on the slant agar
and in milk
D. Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material and its inoculation in MPB and on
MPA
E. *Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material and its inoculation in the KittTarozzi’s medium and milk
What bacterial colony?
A. Medium which is inoculated with bacteria, where different microorganisms grow
B. Growth of microbes of one species on different nutrient medium
C. *Macroscopically visible growth of microbes (posterity of one bacterial cell) on a solid nutrient
medium
D. Visible growth of bacteria in a liquid nutrient medium
E. Visible growth of bacteria on the slant meat-peptone agar
What basic principles are used for isolation of pure cultures?
A. Isolation and analysis
B. Physical and chemical
C. Biochemical and serum
D. Quantitative and qualitative
E. *Mechanical and biological
What biological properties are not taken into consideration for pure culture isolation?
A. Type of respiration
B. Motility
C. Spore formation
D. *Type of reproduction
E. Acid resistance
What can be the form of rough surfaces of colonies of R-form of bacteria?
A. *wrinkled
B. gyrose
C. warty
D. rosette-shaped
E. all answers are correct
What is a name of standard agglutination test for examination of bacterial antigens?
A. Coons’s test
B. Coombs’s test
C. Ouchterloni’s test
D. Manchini’s test
E. *Gruber’s test
What is a sign of bacterial proteolytic properties in milk?
A. Formation of diffuse turbidity
B. Formation of pellicle
C. *Dissolution of casein clot
D. Formation of sediment
E. Formation of pellicle and turbidity
757.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
758.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
759.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
760.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
761.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
762.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
763.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
764.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
765.
A.
B.
What is a sign of proteolytic properties of bacteria in a column gelatin?
Formation of diffuse turbidity
Formation of pellicle
Dissolution of casein clot
Formation of sediment
*Gelatin liquefacience
What is a tinctorial property of microbes?
Features of antigen composition of bacteria
Features of chemical composition of bacteria
*Features of bacterial staining
Features of susceptibility to phages
Features of manifestation of antibiotics susceptibility
What is advantage of Koch’s, Drigalsky’s and streak’s techniques above the Pasteur’ method?
Enable to study biochemical properties of bacteria
Enable to study antigen properties of bacteria
Enable to obtain a pure culture
*Enable to obtain the isolated colonies
Right answer is not present
What is an essence of isolation of anaerobes pure cultures according to Zeissler’s technique?
Material from Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium is inoculated consistently in test tubes with a sugar-blood
agar by bacteriological loop, then they are placed in the jar and incubator
Material from the Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium is inoculated consistently on MPA in by a spatula, then
they are placed in the jar and in a thermostat
Material from Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium is inoculated consistently on serum agar by a spatula, then
it is placed in the jar and in a thermostat
*Material from Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium is inoculated consistently in the Petry’s plates with sugarblood agar by a spatula, then they are placed in the jar and in the thermostat
Material from Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium is inoculated consistently in test tubes with serum broth by
a loop, then they are placed in the jar and in a thermostat
What is an essence of Koch’s technique for isolation of pure cultures?
*Use of melted nutrient media (gelatin) for obtaining the isolated colonies
Use of liquid nutrient media for obtaining the isolated colonies
Use of blood agar for examination of hemolysines types
Use of solid nutrient media for examination of antibiotics susceptibility
Use liquid nutrient media for examination of antibiotics susceptibility
What is an essence of Pasteur’s technique for isolation of pure cultures?
Dilution of tested material in gelatin
*Dilution of tested material in a liquid nutrient medium
Dilution of tested material in MPA
Dilution of tested material in the AGV nutrient medium
Dilution of tested material in a solid nutrient medium
What is an essence of ІV stage of isolation of pure culture of anaerobic bacteria?
Inoculation of colonies on the proper nutrient medium
Examination of tinctorial properties of bacteria
*Checking the culture purity and its identification
Examination of serologic features of bacteria which form colonies by precipitation test
Right answer is absent
What is bacterial colony?
Medium which is inoculated with bacteria, where different microorganisms grow
Growth of microbes of one species on different nutrient medium
*Macroscopically visible growth of microbes (posterity of one bacterial cell) on a solid nutrient
medium
Visible growth of bacteria in a liquid nutrient medium
Visible growth of bacteria on the slant meat-peptone agar
What is biochemical identification of bacteria?
Verification of bacteria according to their ability to produce dehydrogenases
*Verification of bacteria according to their biochemical properties
766.
767.
768.
769.
770.
771.
772.
773.
C. Verification of bacteria according to their ability to produce hemolysines
D. Verification of bacteria according to their tinctorial properties
E. Verification of bacteria according to their reduce properties
What is biological identification of bacteria?
A. *Verification of bacteria according to changes which they cause in the organism of laboratory
animals
B. Verification of bacteria according to their tinctorial properties
C. Verification of bacteria according to their biochemical properties
D. Verification of bacteria according to their antigen properties
E. Verification of bacteria according to their cultural properties
What is cultural identification of bacteria?
A. Verification of bacteria according to their tinctorial properties
B. Verification of bacteria according to their ability to form S- and R-forms of colonies
C. Verification of bacteria according to their capacity to form slime layer
D. Verification of bacteria according to their capacity to produce hydrogen sulfide
E. *Verification of bacteria according to their features of growth on/in nutrient media
What is disinfection?
A. *Complex of measures for complete, partial or selective elimination of potentially pathogenic for
human causative agents on the different objects of medium for warning transmission of
causative agents from the source of infection to the receptive organism
B. Complex measures for complete, partial or selective elimination of potential pathogens for
human in the air for warning transmission of causative agents from the source of infection to
the receptive organism
C. Complex of measures for complete, partial or selective elimination of potential pathogens for
human in his body for warning transmission of causative agents from the source of infection
to the receptive organism
D. Complex of measures which prevent spread of potential pathogens from human body in an
medium
E. Complex of measures for complete, partial or selective elimination of potential pathogens for
human in the water for warning transmission of causative agents from the source of infection
to the receptive organism
What is essence of ІІІ stage of isolation of aerobes?
A. verification of culture purity
B. inoculation of Giss’ media , slide agglutination
C. examination of the antibiotics susceptibility
D. Phage typing
E. *all answers are correct
What is it necessary to do during the second stage of isolation of pure culture of aerobes?
A. Study the features of colonies
B. Make a smear from colonies
C. Inoculation onto slant agar
D. *All answers are correct
E. All answers are not correct
What is morphological identification?
A. Verification of bacteria according to their ability to form a capsule
B. Verification of bacteria according to their ability to form flagella
C. *Verification of bacteria according to their morphological signs
D. Verification of bacteria according to their capacity to spore formation
E. Verification of bacteria according to their ability to transform into L-forms
What is serologic identification of bacteria?
A. Verification of bacteria according to their capacity to form of lipopolysaccharide
B. Verification of bacteria according to their ability to producе bacteriocines
C. *Verification of bacteria according to their antigen properties
D. Verification of bacteria according to their capacity to produce antibodies
E. Right answer is not present
What does means serological identification of the pure culture?
A. Examination of bacterial species according to biochemical properties
B.
C.
D.
E.
774.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
775.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
776.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
777.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
778.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
779.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
780.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
781.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Examination of bacterial species according to ability to utilize a coagulated serum
*Examination of bacterial species according to their antigen structure
Examination of bacterial species according to ability to reduce some dyes
Examination of bacterial species according to gene composition of bacterial nucleoid
What is strain?
*Microbes of the only species isolated from different sources, or from the same source, but at
different times
Microbes of different species isolated from different sources
Microbes of different species isolated from the only source
Microbes of different species isolated in different times
Microbes of different species isolated from different sources, or from the same source, but in
different times
What is the essence of ІІІ stage of isolation of pure cultures of aerobes?
Examination the isolated colonies
Examination bacterial growth in the column of agar
Bacterial phage typing
*Identifications of the unknown bacteria
Examination of ability for bacteriocine production
What is the main demand for any nutrient medium for the primary selection of microorganisms?
To be solid
To be liquid
*To be sterile
To contain vitamins
To contain growth factors
What is the main idea of ІІІ stage of isolation of pure culture of anaerobic bacteria?
Examination of features of pure culture and its identification
*Examination of features of colonies, preparing the smear from them , inoculation of colonies
into Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium for obtaining the pure culture
Examination of features of colonies, preparing the smear from them, inoculation of colonies on
slant MPA for obtaining the pure culture
Examination of features of colonies, preparing the smear from them, inoculation of colonies in
MPB for obtaining the pure culture
Examination of features of colonies, inoculation of colonies in Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium for
obtaining the pure culture
What laboratory animals are most often utilized for biological identification?
Guinea pigs
White mice
White rats
*All answers are correct
Right answer is not present
What laboratory animals are very susceptible to Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
White rats
*Guinean pigs
Rabbits
Syrian hamsters
White mice
What laboratory animals are very susceptible to Streptococcus pneumoniae?
White rats
Guinean pigs
Rabbits
Syrian hamsters
*White mice
What main idea of the first stage of isolation of pure cultures of aerobes?
To study tested material
To choose nutrient medium for inoculation
*To obtain the isolated colonies
To study the morphological features of possible causative agent
E. To study the antigen features of causative agent
782.
What methods of isolation of pure cultures, based on mechanical principle do you know ?
A. Leffler’s method
B. Grey’s method
C. *Streak’s method
D. Buchin’s method
E. Nemchinov’s method
783.
What modern test-systems are utilized for identification of bacteria?
A. “Roche”
B. “API”
C. “Enterotest”
D. *All answers are correct
E. All answers are wrong
784.
What nutrient medium is it possible to use for examination of bacterial proteolytic properties?
A. Endo’s medium
B. Olkenitsky’s medium
C. MPB
D. *Milk
E. Levenshtein-Yensen’s medium
785.
What properties of bacteria are utilized for identification of anaerobic bacteria?
A. Morphological
B. Signs of growth in/on nutrient media
C. Biochemical
D. Toxigenic
E. *All answers are correct
786.
What properties of colonies do we study first?
A. Shape, color
B. Character of edges
C. Character of surface of colonies
D. A right answer is not present
E. *All answers are correct
787.
What substances can repress the action of inhibitors of bacterial growth and toxin formation?
A. some amino acids
B. tweens
C. active carbon
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
788.
Why do we use Vinyal-Veyon’s tubes?
A. *For cultivation of anaerobes according to Veinberg’s technique
B. For cultivation of anaerobes according to Zeissler’s technique
C. For cultivation of aerobes according to Ziehl–Neelsen’s technique
D. For cultivation of aerobes according to Leffler’s technique
E. In bacteriology they are not used
789.
Why is it necessary to identify the pure cultures of bacteria?
A. for prescribing the treatment
B. *for revealing the etiological factor illness
C. for prophylaxis
D. for examination of phages susceptibility
E. for examination of antibiotics susceptibility
790.
With the purpose of increase of boiling temperature and removal of water hard during
sterilization by boiling it is necessary to add:
A. *1 % sodium bicarbonate
B. % potassium permanganate
C. % magnesium sulfate
D. % ether
E. % alcohol
791.
A nurse has to sterilize surgical instruments for an operation. What most effective method can
you offer?
A. fractional sterilization
B. sterilization by pressed steam
C. boiling
D. *by dry heat
E. ionizing radiation
792.
After finishing the experience in students’ laboratory it’s necessary to disinfect the workplace.
What chemicals can be used?
A. ether
B. hydrochloric acid
C. formalin
D. chloroform
E. *Chloraminum
793.
At what advantage of Koch’s method in comparing Pasteur’s one for isolation of pure cultures?
A. Enables to examine antibiotics susceptibility
B. Enables to examine biochemical properties of microbes
C. *Enables to obtain the isolated colonies
D. Enables to examine antigen properties of microbes
E. Has no substantial advantage
794.
For sterilization of glassware utilize a heat oven is used. Choose the best regime of sterilization:
A. C, 15-30 minutes
B. 1C, 120 minutes
C. *180 1, 45-60
D. 1, 45-60 minutes
E. 1, 15-30
795.
From patient with gas anaerobic infection it is necessary to select the culture of causative agents.
What medium can be chosen?
A. Leffler’s medium
B. *Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium
C. Petrov’s medium
D. Makkoy-Chepin’s medium
E. Petranyani’s medium
796.
From patient’s blood the culture Salmonella typhi was isolated. What cultural properties
characterize this microbe?
A. *Formation of colorless or pinky colonies on Endo’s and Ploskirev’s nutrient media
B. Formation of red colonies with metallic hue on Endo’s medium
C. Formation of colorless colonies on Bismuth-sulfite agar
D. Formation of haemolysis on a blood agar
E. Formation of tender pellicle on alkaline peptone water
797.
In a medium with gelatin it is possible to verify the proteolytic properties of bacteria. What signs
will show the positive results?
A. *liquefacience of gelatin column
B. compression of gelatin column
C. discoloration of gelatin column
D. appearance of dark precipitate in gelatin column
E. brightening of gelatin column.
798.
In heat oven at 160 C Petry’s palates were sterilized. What test-microbe is it possible to use for
sterilization control?
A. Bacillus cereus
B. *Bacillus subtilis
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium difficile
E. Proteus vulgaris
799.
In Olkenitsky’s medium microorganism which products an urea was inoculated. What changes
here will be observed in a medium?
A. *all will become red
B.
C.
D.
E.
appearance of red precipitate in the column of agar
appearance of greenish precipitate in the column of agar
to fix the urease production in this medium is impossible
appearance of brightly-violet precipitate in the column of agar
800.
It is necessary to check the quality of antibacterial filters. What microorganism is it possible to
choose as a test-object?
A. *Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Salmonella schottmuelleri
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Bordetella pertussis
E. Mycobacterium kansassii
801.
All listed bacteria are members of normal microflora of oral cavity of mouth, except:
A. streptococci
B. actinomycetes
C. *gonococci
D. veilonella
E. fusobacteria
802.
An aspiration method is used for research of air microflora of ___
A. maternity hall
B. operating-room
C. manipulation room
D. *all are correct
E. drugstore
803.
Bacteriological examination of air is essential in which of following conditions?
A. Surgical operation theatre
B. Premises where pharmaceutical preparations are made
C. In hospital wards in which there is an outbreak of cross-infection
D. All are corect
E. *All are incorect
804.
Besides coliforms, which other bacteria can serve as indicator organism/s of fecal pollution of
soil?
A. *Clostridium perfringens
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Streptococcus viridans
E. All are correct
805.
Choose species of streptococci which have selected from mucus membrane of oral cavity often:
A. S. mitis
B. S. haemolyticus, S. mutans
C. S. sanguis, S. viridans
D. S. salivarius
E. *all are correct
806.
Choose among given microorganisms which occupy a skin:
A. Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum
B. Bacillus subtilis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Pseudomonades
C. Clostridium, Staphylococcus aureus, Micrococcus roseus,
D. *Staphylococcus, Propionobacterium, Peptococcus
E. Escherichia coli, Clostridium perfringens, Neisseria
807.
Choose among listed microorganisms which occupy soil:
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Staphylococcus
B. *Nitrosomonas, Azotobacter, Actynomycetes
C. Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum
D. Brucella, Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium
E. Salmonella, Shigella, Leptospira
808.
Choose among listed microorganisms which occupy water basins.
A. Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus viridans
B. Brucella, Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium
809.
810.
811.
812.
813.
814.
815.
816.
817.
C. Bacillus subtilis, Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. *Micrococcus roseus, Pseudomonas
E. Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum
Choose among the listed drugs eubiotics:
A. Bacteriocines
B. Antibiotics
C. *Bificol
D. Lysozim
E. interferon
Choose among the microorganisms of a colon given the basic kinds:
A. *Bacteroides, Bifidobacterium, Lactobacillus
B. Staphylococci, streptococci, Proteus
C. Clostridium, peptococci, esherichia
D. Candida, spirochetes, micrococci
E. Diphtheroides, spirillum, fungi
Choose an optimum medium for the isolation of streptococci from clinical material:
A. MPB
B. Yolk salt agar
C. Bile MPB
D. MPA
E. *Blood MPA
Choose cocci which are members of normal oral microflora:
A. *S. salivarium, S. mutans|
B. S. pyogenes
C. S. haemolyticus
D. S. viridans
E. All at list
Choose diseases which can be transmitted through air often?
A. AIDS, hepatitis B
B. dysentery, typhoid fever
C. tetanus, salmonelosis
D. *flu, measles, diphtheria
E. cholera
Choose drugs which are used for treatment dysbacteriosis:
A. Penicillinum, Cephalosporinum
B. Antimicrobic serums and immunoglobulines
C. Vitamins and hormones
D. Lysozym and interferon
E. *Colibacterin, bifidobacterin
Choose methods of research of microflora of air:
A. Membranes filters
B. Pasteur's
C. *Sedementative
D. Fortner's
E. Quantitative
Choose the basic group of bacteria which lives on mucus membrane of oral cavity?
A. *streptococci
B. micrococci
C. neisseria
D. hemophilic microorganisms
E. enterobacteria
Choose the method of air microflora research:
A. membrane filters
B. Paster’s
C. *Aspiration
D. Fortner’s
E. Quantitative
818.
Choose the third - fourth degrees of cleanliness of vaginal secret typically:
A. The subacidic pH, the low contents of glycogen , single Dodderlein’s lactic acid bacilli
B. The pH is 4.7, presence of lactic acid bacilli
C. The alkalescent pH, epitelial cells, single leukocytes
D. *The alkaline pH, staphyloco-and streptococci, leukocytes
E. The subacidic pH, presence of glucose, single lactic acid bacilli
819.
What microbe does demonstrate the unsuitability of this group of drugs in medical practice?
A. *Staphylococcus aureus
B. yeast
C. Saprophytic staphylococci
D. mold fungi
E. Sarcina
820.
Disbacteriosis was develop after antibiotic therapy. What medicine does use in this case?
A. Bacteriophage.
B. Antibiotic
C. Interferon
D. *Eubiotic.
E. Vitamines.
821.
For pregnant bacterial disbacteriosis of vagina is diagnosed. What medicine does it follow to
choose in this case?
A. Bacteriophage.
B. Antibiotic
C. Interferon
D. *Eubiotic.
E. Vitamines.
822.
For the first - second degrees of cleanliness of vaginal secret typically:
A. The alkaline pH, is not enough glicogen and glucose
B. *The pH is 4.7, presence of lactic acid bacilli
C. The alkalescent pH, leukocytes, staphylococci
D. The alkaline pH, staphylo-and streptococci, leukocytes
E. The alkaline pH, presence of proteins, single cocci
823.
For the third - fourth degrees of cleanliness of vaginal secret typically:
A. The subacidic pH, the low contents of glycogen , single Dodderlein’s lactic acid bacilli
B. The pH is 4.7, presence of lactic acid bacilli
C. The alkalescent pH, epitelial cells, single leukocytes
D. *The alkaline pH, staphyloco-and streptococci, leukocytes
E. The subacidic pH, presence of glucose, single lactic acid bacilli
824.
Frequently oral streptococci cause ______ .
A. otitis of middle ear
B. sinusitis
C. pharyngites
D. pneumonia
E. *endocardites
825.
From which factors is composition of the microbes of the air depend?
A. mineral and organic suspensions,
B. on the temperature,
C. ainfall and humidity
D. locality,
E. *all are correct
826.
Gnotobiology is a science which studies:
A. Microflora of the person
B. Microflora of experimental animals
C. *Life of the microbe-free animals
D. Microflora of different parts of an organism
E. Influence of various factors on normal microflora
827.
How are microorganisms in air controlled?
A. Settle plate method
B.
C.
D.
E.
828.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
829.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
830.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
831.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
832.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
833.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
834.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
835.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
836.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fortner's
*Membrane's filters
Fortner’s
Drigalsky's
How do bacteria get in air?
from soil, water
from people and animals
from food products
from plants
*all are correct
In operation theatre for neurosurgery, bacterial count of air shoud not exseed:
per foot3
per foot3
per foot3
per foot3
*1 per foot3
In operation theatres, bacterial count of air shoud not exseed:
per foot3
per foot3
*10 per foot3
per foot3
per foot3
In presumptive coliform count of water, it is considered satisfactory if the count is:
*1-3
-10
-15
-20
Name human pathogens that are transmissible in water:
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Bacillus subtilis
Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus epidermidis.
*Salmonella paratyphi
Name the typical bacteria of soil:
Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Staphylococcus
Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum
*Nitrosomonas, Azotobacter, Actynomycetes
Brucella, Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium
Salmonella, Shigella, Leptospira
Name the typical bacteria of water:
Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus viridans
Brucella, Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium
Bacillus subtilis, Streptococcus pneumoniae
*Micrococcus roseus, Pseudomonas
Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum
Sanitary - exponential microorganisms of soil are, EXEPT:
S. faecalis,
coli,
perfrіngens,
*tetanі;
termophylic bacteria
Sanitary – indicative microorganisms of water are:
M. candіcans,
M. roseus,
*E. colі,
S. faecalіs;
E. C. perfrіngens
837.
Sanitary–indicative microorganisms of air are:
A. S. typhi
B. S. typhimurium,
C. *S. aureus,
D. S. epidermidis.
E. S. paratyphi
838.
The coli-titer of drinking water should be:
A. not less than 500 ml,
B. not less than 100 ml,
C. not less then 333 ml;
D. not more then 333 ml;
E. not less then 3 l.
839.
The general microbe amount in water is determined by:
A. *sowing of 1 ml of water into the cooled agar
B. sowing of 1 ml of water into MPB
C. membrane filters
D. all of answers are incorrect
E. sowing of 1 ml of water onto YSA
840.
The greatest amount of microbes (1 000000 per cm3) is found in the top layer of soil at a depth
____
A. -2 mm|
B. -5 cm
C. *10-15 cm
D. -5 m
E. -2 km
841.
The human microflora includes different biotopes with various species of microbes. Where are
Doderlayn’s bacilli founded?
A. on mucus of GT
B. on mucus of stomach.
C. on mucus of upper respiratory tract
D. on a skin.
E. *on mucus of vagine
842.
The resident microflora of large intestine of man include ________:
A. peptococci, streptococi
B. *bifidobacteria, bacteroides, clostridia.
C. vibrio, chlamidia
D. spirochetes, staphylococci
E. enterococci, viruses.
843.
The sanitary - bacteriological investigation of water includes _________
A. determination of total number of microbes in 1 ml of water,
B. determination of a coli-index or coli-titer,
C. detection of pathogenic microbes, their toxins
D. Е. соli bacteriophages
E. *All are correct
844.
The term “disbacteriosis” means ___
A. Reduction of quantity of the anaerobic bacteria of the colon.
B. Infringements of balance between microbes of the small intestine and the colon.
C. *Quantitative and qualitative infringements of balance between microbic populations in structure
of microflora
D. Increases of quantityof pathogenic microorganisms at surfaces of a skin
E. Condition of microflora of the experimental animal, caused by intervention of the experimenter
845.
What anaerobic microorganisms do prevail in human intestinal microflora?
A. Fusobacteria
B. Clostridia
C. *Bacteroides
D. Laktobacteria
846.
847.
848.
849.
850.
851.
852.
853.
854.
855.
E. Enterococcci
What antagonist microorganisms do prevail in human intestinal microflora?
A. Fusobacteria
B. Clostridia
C. *Bifidobacteria
D. Spirillum
E. Enterococcci
What bacteria are a sanitary-indicative microorganisms of water?
A. *collibacillus
B. streptococcus
C. staphylococcus
D. diphtheroid
E. mycobacterium
What diseases are transmitted by air often?
A. gas anaerobic infection
B. hepatitis A
C. *scarlet fever, flu
D. candidosis, mycosis
E. dysentery
What diseases can be transferred through water more often?
A. Tuberculosis, tetanus
B. *Typhoid fever, dysentery, hepatites A
C. Anthrax, plagues, tularemia
D. Flu, measles, diphtherias
E. Botulism, gas gangren infections, tetanus
What diseases should bacteroides cause?
A. appendicitis,
B. septicaemia of different aetiology,
C. postoperative infectious complications in the peritoneal cavity,
D. inflammatory processes of the gastrointestinal tract,
E. *all are correct
What from the listed microorganisms can exist long time in soil?
A. Typhoid fever and dysentery
B. Tuberculosis and diphtheria
C. Virus hepatites A and B
D. Hemophylus influenzea and streptococus pneumonias
E. *Anthrax and a botulism
What human pathogens are found in air?
A. *flu virus, measles virus|
B. clostridia
C. pox virus, varicella-zoster virus
D. hepatitis A virus
E. enterovirus, rotavirus
What human pathogens are found in soil?
A. Lactobacteria
B. Bifidumbacteria
C. Thermophylic bacteria
D. Candida spp.
E. *Clostridia
What human pathogens are found in water?
A. *collibacillus
B. streptococcus
C. staphylococcus
D. diphtheroid
E. mycobacterium
What index is used for the sanitary-hygenic estimation of soil?
A. titre of enterobacteria
titres of enterococci and С. perfringens
titre of thermophylic bacteria
*all are correct
all are incorrect
856.
What is ratio between aerobic and anaerobic microflora of the human intestinal microbiocenesis
in normal?
A. :1
B. :1
C. *1:100
D. :1000
E. :1
857.
What is the colonization resistance?
A. *The ability of members of the normal flora to limit the growth of pathogenes
B. Ability of the microbes given biotope to be distributed to other sites of an organism
C. Resistance of the microbes of biotope to action of an antibacterial drugs
D. Invariance of the quantitative and qualitative characteristic of the microbes of biotope
E. Influence of the microbes of the separate biotope on a line located biotopes
858.
What medicine are used for treatment of disbacteriosis?
A. Bacteriocines
B. Antibiotics
C. *Bificol
D. Lysozim
E. Interferon
859.
What microbes can cause formation of teeth pigment spots?
A. *Porfyromonas, Prevotella
B. Streptococcus, Veillonella
C. Fusobacterium, Treponema
D. Peptostreptococcus, Leptotrichia
E. Treponema, Veillonella
860.
What microorganism is considered major contributor to caries?
A. Fusobacterium
B. Staphylococcus
C. Bacteroides
D. *Streptococcus
E. Treponema
861.
What microorganisms are not members of normal flora of Digestive system?
A. Lactobacillus
B. Clostridium
C. Bacteroides
D. Fusobacterium
E. *Treponema
862.
What microorganisms are prevail in oral microflora?
A. mycoplasma
B. fungi
C. *bacteria
D. chlamydia
E. viruses
863.
What microorganisms do cause teeth demineralization?
A. *streptococci
B. staphylococci
C. leptotrichia
D. veilonella
E. actinomycetes
864.
What microorganisms is it possible to find in a throat in a norm?
A. gamma-hemolytic streptococci.
B. Coagulase-negative staphylococci.
C. Haemophilus haemolyticus.
B.
C.
D.
E.
865.
866.
867.
868.
869.
870.
871.
872.
873.
874.
D. Neisseria
E. *All are correct.
What normal kinds of microorganisms are found in soil?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Staphylococcus
B. Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum
C. *Nitrosomonas, Azotobacter, Actynomycetes
D. Brucella, Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium
E. Salmonella, Shigella, Leptospira
What of following are considered to be an indicator organism for air polution.
A. Neisseria, Streptococcus haemolyticus
B. Escherichia coli, Clostridium perfringens
C. *Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus haemolyticus
D. Sarcina luteae, Actynomycetes
E. Bacillus subtilis, Streptococcus pneumoniae
What of following is considered to be an indicator organism for fecal contamination in water.
A. S. viridans,
B. *E. coli,
C. C. albicans,
D. C. tetanі;
E. termophylic bacteria
What part of respiratory system is essentially sterile?
A. lower respiratory system
B. *the bronchial tubes
C. the throat
D. upper respiratory system
E. oral cavity
What physiological value of normal microflora of human?
A. Stimulates secretory activity of a gastroenteric path
B. Raises a vascular tone and stimulates work of secretory system
C. Stimulates all kinds of a metabolism, immunity, synthesizes a number of vitamins
D. Synthesizes a number of antimicrobic substances, influences synthesis of hormones
E. C and D are true.
What soils do contain richest of microflora?
A. sandy
B. clayey podsol
C. *arable
D. forest
E. loose sand
What species of microorganisms are not member of nasal mucus obligate microflora?
A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
B. Streptococcus viridans
C. *Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Nonpathogenic Nesseria
E. Staphylococcus epidermidis
What species of microorganisms can cause infectious endocarditis?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B. Candida spp.
C. *Streptococcus viridans.
D. E. coli.
E. S. mutans
What viral diseases can transmite by water often?
A. flu, measles
B. herpes-, adenoinfections
C. pox
D. hepatitis C
E. *enteroviruss, rotaviruses
What viruses do often occur in water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
flu virus, measles virus|
rabies virus, herpes virus
pox virus, varicella-zoster virus
*hepatitis A virus
enterovirus, rotavirus
875.
Which drugs are used for treatment dysbacteriosis?
A. Penicillinum, Cephalosporinum
B. Antimicrobic serums and immunoglobulines
C. Vitamins and hormones
D. Lysozym and interferon
E. *Colibacterin, bifidobacterin
876.
Which eubiotic is used for the correction of disbacteriosis of oral microflora?
A. *aerococci
B. bifidobacteria
C. lactobacilli
D. peptostreptococci
E. escherihii
877.
Which microorganisms are occupy a skin:
A. Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum
B. Bacillus subtilis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Pseudomonades
C. Clostridium, Staphylococcus aureus, Micrococcus roseus,
D. *Staphylococcus, Propionobacterium, Peptococcus
E. Escherichia coli, Clostridium perfringens, Neisseria
878.
Which of following is/are soil bacteria?
A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Enterobacer aerogenes
C. Bacillus mycoides
D. *All are correct
E. All are incorrect
879.
Which of following is/are water-born pathogens?
A. Hepatitis A virus
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. *All are correct
E. All are incorrect
880.
Which of following organisms can serve as indicator/s of fecal pollution of drinking water?
A. *Escherihia coli
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Streptococcus viridans
E. Influenza virus
881.
Which of following organisms can serve as indicator/s of fecal pollution of soil?
A. *Escherihia coli
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Streptococcus viridans
E. Influenza virus
882.
Which of the following host proteins is the first to rise to high titer, in response to viral
infection?
A. Immunoglobulin
B. Complement
C. *Interferon
D. Anti-idiotype antibody
E. Interleukin 1
883.
Which of the following infects oropharynx, but not the intestine because the virus is sensitive to
low pH?
A. Coxsackievirus A
B.
C.
D.
E.
Coxsackievirus B
Enterovirus 72
Poliovirus
*Rhinovirus
884.
Who did consider some species of intestinal bacteria to be harmful, causing chronic
intoxications?
A. *Metchnikoff
B. Pasteur
C. Koch
D. Erlich
E. Fleming
885.
All the following bacteria are considered to be an indicator organism for fecal contamination in
soil, exept:
A. S. faecalis,
B. E. coli,
C. C. perfrіngens,
D. *C. albicans;
E. termophylic bacteria
886.
Besides coliforms, which other bacteria can serve as indicator organism/s of fecal pollution of
water?
A. *Clostridium perfringens
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Streptococcus viridans
E. All are correct
887.
Choose a method of research of amount of bacteria of group of an E. coli in water.
A. Sedementative
B. Fortner's
C. *Membrane's filters
D. Fortner’s
E. Drigalsky's
888.
How the causative agents of influenza, measles, scarlet fever, diphtheria can be transmitted
through the air?
A. together with droplets of mucus and sputum,
B. during sneezing,
C. during coughing,
D. during talking.
E. *all are correct
889.
On the membrane filter after through it have filtered 2 l waters, 4 grey and 6 red colonies have
grown. Calculate a coli - subtypes and coli- index. Choose the true answer.
A. and 20
B. and 8
C. and 4
D. *330 and 3
E. and 2
890.
What from the given parameters of the common microbic number of air in operational answer
sanitary specifications?
A. Before operation 1800, after operation - 4200, single staphylococci
B. *Before operation 500, after operation - 950, staphylococci are absent
C. Before operation 1000, after operation - 1500,staphylococci are absent
D. Before operation 500, after operation - 1000, single staphylococci
E. Before operation 500, after operation - 2000, staphylococci are absent
891.
What groups of microorganisms were taken into account at determination of microbial number
of air in an operating-room?
A. Bacteria and viruses are causative agents of infections of respiratory tract.
B. *All of bacteria which grew on a medium.
C. Staphylococci and hemolytic streptococci.
D. Causative agents of hospital infections.
E. All pathogenic bacteria.
892.
Which species of microbes in the intestine are the vitamins essential for the human body (B1,
B2, B12, K) produce?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B. Candida spp.
C. Streptococcus viridans.
D. *Escherihia coli.
E. Streptococcus mutans
F.
893.
A large numbers of medicina plant with mosaic leaf colorin have been found on plantations.
What is microorganism cause such damage of plants?
A. *phytopathogenic viruses
B. phytopathogenic bacteria
C. is highly toxic substances
D. microscopic tisks
E. nematodes
894.
According to the requirements of State Pharmacopeya such substances as: for eye, for parenteral
using must be sterile. Which of following methods is used to control their sterility?
A. *membrane filtration
B. paper disk
C. dilutions
D. diffusion into agar
E. Two phase fermentation
895.
Antibiotic resistance to which of the following is caused by a by-pass mechanism (an alternative
dihydrofolate reductase)?
A. Erythromycin
B. *Trimethoprim
C. Tetracycline
D. Ciprofloxacin
E. All are correct
896.
Beta-lactamase production is a common mechanism of resistance to penicillin in which of the
following organisms?
A. Group A streptococci
B. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Both
D. Neither
E. Neisseria spp.
897.
Each of the following statements concerning the mechanisms of resistance to antimicrobial drugs
is correct EXCEPT:
A. R factors are plasmids that carry the genes for enzymes which modify one or more drugs
B. Resistance to some drugs is due to a chromosomal mutation that alters the receptor for the drug
C. Resistance to some drugs is due to transposon genes that code for enzymes which inactivate the
drugs
D. *Resistance genes from bacterial chromosome are rarely transferred by transduction
E. No correct answer
898.
One of the first step in the process of many infections is adherence of bacteria to mucous
membranes. The bacterial structure that mediates adherence is the
A. *Pilus
B. Peptidoglycan
C. Flagellum
D. Endotoxin
E. Exotoxin
899.
Resistance to which of the following has been shown to result from enzymatic inactivation of the
antibiotic by the bacteria?
A. *chloramphenicol
B. sulfonamides
C. ciprofloxacin
D. trimethoprim
E. ofloxacin
900.
Resistance to which of the following is caused by a "by-pass" mechanism (that is, the synthesis
of an alternative target site)?
A. gentamicin
B. rifampin
C. *vancomycin
D. ciprofloxacin
E. ofloxacin
901.
Select the ONE lettered option that MOST closely associated with inhibition of protein synthesis
by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit
A. Penicillins
B. *Aminoglycosides
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Rifampin
E. Sulfonamides
902.
Some bacteria can cause generalized infection due to ability to split host tissue and spread from
the site of entry. Choose from the list invasion factors of a pathogen:
A. Endotoxins
B. *Virulent enzymes
C. Adhesins
D. Exotoxins
E. Antiphagocytic factors
903.
The first stage of any infection is adhesion of the pathogen to host cells. All from following are
adhesion factors EXCEPT:
A. Peptidoglycan
B. Pili
C. Flagella
D. Lipopolysaccharide in the cell envelope
E. *Capsule
904.
The proportion of antibiotic resistant bacteria has increased along with the widespread use of
antibiotics. This is due to the fact that antibiotics:
A. are unstable in vivo.
B. *act as agents of selection for resistant organisms.
C. are mainly bacteriostatic in vivo.
D. are powerful mutagens.
E. All are correct
905.
A primary immune response in an adult human requires approximately how much time to
produce detectable antibody levels in the blood?
A. hours
B. days
C. *1 week
D. weeks
E. month
906.
AT helper lymphocyte recognizes an antigen presented by an antigen-presenting-cell (APC) if
the antigen is associated with:
A. HLA class I antigen.
B. Surface immunoglobulin.
C. *HLA class II antigen.
D. CD 8 antigen.
E. All of the above.
907.
Membrane bound Ig is just one part of a complex known as the B cell receptor
complex.Additional accessory proteins are termed:
A. *Ig? and Ig?
B. CD4 and CD8
C. Ca and Cb
D. CD3 and TcR
E. Cq and Cr
908.
Which immunoglobulin has no known function, but is present on the surface of B lymphocytes?
It may function as an antigen receptor.
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgA
E. *IgD
909.
Which immunoglobulin is the predominant antibody in the secondary immune response? It has
four subclasses.
A. *IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgA
E. IgD
910.
Which of the following is the immunoglobulin that is initially seen on the primary immune
response? It is present as a monomer on B cell surfaces but as a pentamer in serum.
A. IgG
B. *IgM
C. IgE
D. IgA
E. IgD
911.
Which of the following tests is used extensively to detect microbial antigens rapidly (5 min or
less)? Inert particles are sensitized with either antigen or antibody.
A. *Latex agglutination (LA)
B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
C. Enzyme multiplied immunoassay test (EMIT)
D. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (CIE)
E. Coagglutination (COA)
912.
A certain microorganism’s suspension which binds the heavy chains of antibody is used in the
coagglutination test. Choose him among listed:
A. Micrococcus luteus
B. *Staphylococcus aureus
C. Escherichia coli
D. Streptococcus viridans
E. Salmonella typhi
913.
A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by
A. edema without a cellular infiltrate
B. an infiltrate composed of neutrophils
C. *an infiltrate composed of helper T cells and macrophagcs
D. an infiltrate composed of eosinophils
E. an infiltrate composed of natural killers
914.
A direct immunofluorescence which is used for the pathogenic microorganisms
detection(Treponema pallidum, Streptococcus pyogenes etc.) fluorescein can be binded to:
A. microorganism
B. the sheep red blood cells
C. specific antibody against the human globulins
D. *specific antibody against a microorganism
E. specific antibody against complement
915.
A hypersensitive reaction occurs
A. during the first exposure to an antigen.
B. in individuals with diseases of the immune system.
C. *on a second or subsequent exposure to an antigen.
D. during autoimmune diseases.
E. in immunologically-deficient individuals.
916.
A living microbe with reduced virulence that is used for vaccination is considered
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*attenuated
denatured
a toxoid
an adjuvant
subunit
917.
A patient with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines. The symptoms are MOST likely
to be caused by
A. interleukin-2
B. *slow-reacting substance A (leukotrienes)
C. serotonin
D. bradykinin
E. ?-interferon
918.
A positive tuberculin skin test (a delayed hyper-sensitivity reaction) indicates that
A. a humoral immune response has occurred
B. *a cell-mediated immune response has occurred
C. both the T and B cell systems are functional
D. only the B cell system is functional
E. level of antibodies to tuberculin is normal
919.
A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of
A. *delayed-type allergy
B. acute contact dermatitis
C. autoimmunity
D. eczema
E. atopy
920.
A preliminary conclusion about the selected pure culture allows to do presumptive agglutination
test. Choose faithful assertion concerning this test:
A. *used for the exposure of unknown microorganism by a specific serum
B. used only for determination of level of antibodies in the patient’s serum
C. a test is conducted in the wells of polystyrene plates
D. the account of test is conducted in 2-3 hours
E. allows to define the titre of incomplete antibodies
921.
A primary immune response arises up at the first contact with an antigen. Which Ig class is the
most rapidly synthesized and bind the antigen?
A. IgD
B. *IgM
C. IgG
D. IgA
E. IgE
922.
A simple radial immunodiffusion allows to define the amount of immunoglobulins of different
classes in a serum. It is necessary for this purpose:
A. *to mix up an antiserum with gel. Bring an antigen in wells, done in gel
B. to mix up an antigen with gel. Bring a specific serum in wells, done in gel
C. To make wells in neutral gel. To bring in an antigen in one of them, in other is an antibody
D. To do a well in a centr in neutral gel, where to bring in an antigen. Make four wells, around and
bring in the different types of antibodies into them
E. To mix antigen and specific antibody in the neutral gel
923.
A subunit vaccine contains
A. antiserum
B. parts of bacterial cells
C. parts of viruses
D. *parts of bacterial cells or parts of viruses
E. exotoxin
924.
A titre of agglutination test is accepted as:
A. the least dillution of antigen
B. *maximum dillution of serum, which resuts positivly with the specific antigen
C. minimum dillution of serum, which results positivly with an antigen
D. minimum dillution of antibody
E. maximum dillution of antigen
925.
A toxoid is a(n)
A. type of antibody that combines with a toxin,
B. type of enzyme that destroys toxins
C. *inactivated toxin.
D. type of bacterium that resists phagocytosis.
E. type of virus.
926.
About complement (everything is true,except):
A. the nonspecific factor of immunity
B. contains in all biological liquids, except for spinal fluid and liquids of the forward chamber of an
eye
C. termolabile
D. *The highest titer in spinal fluid
E. System of the proteins capable to self-organizing
927.
Acording to precipitation reaction all are true, except:
A. reaction of sedimentation of a soluble antigene
B. interaction an antigene-antibody
C. *the mechanism of realization of cellular immunity
D. serological test
E. passes in a solution of electrolit
928.
?Administration of immune serum globulin is a form of ____ immunization that ____
A. active, prevents infection
B. therapeutic, prevents disease
C. *passive, provides long-term immunity
D. prophylactic, stimulates the immune system.
E. active, naturel
929.
Agglutination salmonella serum contains:
A. the causative agent of typhy
B. endotoxin
C. Vi-antigen of salmonella
D. *antibodies to a specific antigen of salmonella
E. normal antibodies
930.
All immunologic tests are based on:
A. process of recognition of antigen by the receptors of macrophage
B. co-operating of antigen with dendritic cells
C. recognition of antibody by antigen’s epitopes
D. *co-operating of antigen with an antibody
E. all of assertions are true
931.
Allergic contact dermatitis is mediated by
A. *sensitized T cells.
B. IgG antibodies.
C. IgE antibodies.
D. basophils and mast cells.
E. sensitized macrophages.
932.
An antigen found in relatively high concentration in the plasma of normal fetuses and a high
proportion of patients with progressive carcinoma of the colon is
A. viral antigen
B. *carcinoembryonic antigen
C. alpha-fetoprotein
D. heterophil antigen
E. Forsman antigen
933.
An attenuated vaccine is composed of
A. killed microorganisms.
B. *living, weakened microorganisms.
C. inactivated bacterial toxins.
D. purified macromolecules.
E. recombinant vectors.
934.
An exaggerated or inappropriate immune response is known as a(n)
A. immunodeficiency
B. precipitation
C. histamine.
D. *hypersensitivity.
E. allergen
935.
An example of a type III immune complex disease is
A. *serum sickness
B. contact dermatitis
C. graft rejection
D. atopy
E. asthma
936.
An immune deficiency disorder, genetic testing reveals a defect in a tyrosinekinase gene. Which
of the following would be seen in patients with this immune deficiency disorder?
A. particular susceptibility to viral and fungal infections
B. *very low quantities of immunoglobulinin their serum
C. depletion of lymphocytes in the paracortical areas of lymph nodes
D. normal numbers of B lymphocytes
E. profound deficiencies of cell-mediated immunity
937.
Antibodies against acetylcholine neural receptors were measured in a 35-year-old woman and are
thought to be involved in the pathogenesis of which of the following
A. acute idiopathic polyneuritis
B. Guillain-Barr syndrome
C. multiple sclerosis
D. *myasthenia gravis
E. postpericardiotomy syndrome
938.
Antibodies that are responsible for immune complexes are called
A. precipitins
B. agglutinins
C. hemagglutinins
D. *all of these
E. not correct answers
939.
Antigen at statement indirect (passive) hemagglutination test with the purpose serological
diagnostic:
A. Patient’s serum
B. Red blood cells with antibodies surface
C. *Red blood cells with antigen surface
D. Nonsensitized erythrocytes
E. Suspension of the killed microorganisms
940.
Antigen composition of bacteria has a crucial value :
A. At the cultivation of bacteria
B. For the study of their biological properties
C. *For establishing of the bacteria type
D. For determination of bacteria’s resistance
E. At determining of toxigenic properties
941.
Antigen structure of bacteria has a crucial value :
A. At the cultivation of bacteria
B. For the study of their biological properties
C. *For establishing of the bacteria type
D. For determination of bacteria’s resistance
E. At determining of toxigenic properties
942.
Antigenes of precipitation test:
A. corpuscular
B. are absent
C. *molecular
D. only hapten
E. antigens are not solubile
943.
Antigens used for the precipitation test can be:
A. serum’s proteins
B. liquid and transparent
C. lysed bacteria
D. the extracts of microorganisms
E. *all of the above is true
944.
Antigens of CFT (everything is true,except):
A. viruses
B. *corpuscular
C. haptens
D. high-grade
E. soluble
945.
As an investigated material for serological diagnostics (definition of a level of antibodies) use:
A. pus
B. sputum
C. urine
D. *serum of blood
E. liquor
946.
At O-agglutination bacteria stick together:
A. By flagellas
B. *By bodies
C. By capsules
D. By hairs
E. By proteins
947.
At research of pair serums criterion of estimation CFT at serological diagnosis of bacterial
infections:
A. norm of controls
B. full absence of hemolysis
C. partial hemolysis
D. diagnostic titer
E. *Increase of a titer of antibodies in 2 and more times
948.
B cells are responsible for which allergies?
A. asthma
B. anaphylaxis
C. serum sickness
D. atopy
E. *all of the above
949.
Bacteria stick together at O-agglutination:
A. By flagellas
B. *By bodies
C. By capsules
D. By hairs
E. By proteins
950.
Bacteriolysis test:
A. it is not specific
B. comes to an end phagocytosis
C. *comes to an end lysis
D. comes to an end hemolysis
E. it is possible only in vitro
951.
BCG vaccine is a:
A. *live attenuated preparation.
B. killed preparation.
C. toxoid preparation.
D. recombinant preparation.
E. vector vaccine
952.
BCG vaccine is used for prevent:
A. diphtheria
B.
C.
D.
E.
*tuberculosis
botulism
brucelosis
Q fever
953.
Binding of antibody to epitopes of antigen is provided by active center of immunoglobuline
which is placed:
A. Between the constant parts of Н-chains
B. Between the variable parts of Н-chains
C. Between the constant parts of H- and L-chains
D. *Between the variable parts of H- and L-chains
E. In the variable parts of immunoglobuline
954.
Blood analysis of the patient reveals decreased levels of C4 and decreased levels of C1 inhibitor.
This complement deficiency is likely to lead to which of the following conditions?
A. bacteremia
B. an increased susceptibility to pyogenic infections
C. *angioedema
D. decreased production of anaphylatoxins
E. enhancement of antibody production
955.
Bone marrow transplantation in immunocompromised patients presents which major problem?
A. *Potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease
B. High risk of T cell leukemia
C. Inability to use a live donor
D. Delayed hypersensitivity
E. High risk of immunodeficiency
956.
Certain substances must be utilized for processin of the red blood cells for absorption of antigen
on RBC in the IHT. Specify one of these substances among listed.
A. Formalin
B. Lysozyme
C. Inulin
D. *Tanninum
E. Ksantin
957.
CFT is used at diagnostics (true everything,except):
A. a syphilis
B. gonorrhoeas
C. rickettsiosis
D. virus infections
E. *dysbacteriosis
958.
CFT it is based on activation:
A. antigenes
B. antibodies
C. red blood cells
D. hemolysin
E. *complement
959.
CFT was discovered:
A. L.Pasteur
B. L.A.Zilber
C. A. P.Vasserman
D. *Z.Borde, O.Zhangu
E. I.I.Mechnikov
960.
Child, 9 mounth old, has recurrent pyogenic infections and bleeding. What immunodeficiency
does child have?
A. Combined B Cell and T Cell Deficiencies
B. B cell defect.
C. Т cell defect.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. Phagocyte Deficiencies
961.
Choose among listed below the indicator system of CFT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
962.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
963.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
964.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
965.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
966.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
967.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
968.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
969.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
970.
A.
B.
C.
complement+hemolysin
patient’s serum
red blood cells of I (0) groups and hemolysin
specific antigen
*sheep red blood cells and hemolysin
Choose among listed for what purpose can we use CFT at examination of microorganisms?
an estimation of the immune status
serological diagnosis of congenital immunodeficiency
*serological identification of microorganisms
serological diagnosis of infectious diseases
definition of group of blood
Choose among listed the mechanism of precipitation test:
hydrophobic interactions
*connection of the active centers of antibodies and determinant groups of antigenes
Van-Der Waalse interactions
Brown movement
electrostatic interaction
Choose examination which is not used for the first level of immune status assessment?
Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative);
Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood;
Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins;
Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes.
*Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+)
Choose functions, not incident to the antibodies among listed:
neutralize bacteria
neutralize exotoxin
opsonizate bacteria
activate cytotoxic cells absorbing on the affected cells
*stimulate the synthesis of interferon
Choose incorrect sentence according to antigene of precipitation test:
urine centrifugate
lysed microbial cells
an extract of foodstuff
bacterial toxins
*suspension of bacteria
Choose inside listed property of antigenes for precipitation test:
Corpuscular
only hapten
are absent
*molecular
antigens are not solubile
Choose secondary immunodeficiency
DiGeorge's syndrome
*AIDS
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Ataxia-telangiectasia
Chronic granulomatous disease
Choose test which is not used for the first level of immune status assessment?
Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative);
Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood;
Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins;
Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes.
*Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+)
Choose the components of indirect immunofluorescence among the resulted ingredients :
antigen and patient’s serum
serum and diagnosticum
antigen and fluorescein-tagget antibodies
971.
972.
973.
974.
975.
976.
977.
978.
979.
D. *antigen, antibody, fluorescein-tagget antihuman gammaglobulin
E. antigen, antibody, комплемент
Choose the correct answer acording to titer of complement:
A. a minimum quantity causing partial hemolysis of red blood cells in hemolytic system
B. *a minimum quantity causing full hemolysis
C. a maximum quantity causing full hemolysis
D. minimum quantity at which hemolysis is absent
E. the maximum quantity causing partial hemolysis
Complement fixation refers to
A. the ingestion of C3b-coated bacteria by macrophages
B. the destruction of complement in serum by heating at 56 °C for 30 minutes
C. *the binding of complement components by antigen-antibody complexes
D. the interaction of C3b with mast cells
E. the binding of complement components by bacteria
Complement(everything is true, except):
A. stimulates phagocytosis
B. possesses antigenic properties
C. *possesses oncogenic properties
D. Defines bactericidal action of serum
E. Possesses cytolytic activity
Components of a membrane attack complex of complement:
A. С1С4С2С3
B. С1С4С2С3С5
C. *С5С6С7С8С9
D. С3С5С6С7С8
E. С6С7С8С9
Components of CFT at serological diagnosis of infectious diseases (everything is true,except):
A. complement
B. patient’s serum
C. specific antigen
D. hemolytic system
E. *immune serum
Components of CFT at serological identification (everything is true,except):
A. complement
B. *patient’s serum
C. investigated culture
D. hemolytic system
E. immune serum
Controllable properties of components of CFT (everything is true,except):
A. osmotic stability of red cells
B. anticomplementary activity of patient’s serum
C. anticomplementary activity of an antigen
D. *isotonity of saline solution
E. anticomplementary activity of a hemolysin
Criteria of positive agglutination test:
A. partial hemolysis
B. *agglutination with intensity ++++, +++, ++
C. a phenomenon of spontaneous agglutination
D. sedementation of erythrocytes
E. Full hemolysis of erythrocytes
Criterion of negative CFT:
A. hemolysis absence
B. partial hemolysis of red cells with intensity +++, ++
C. *full hemolysis of red cells
D. precipitate formation
E. agglutinate formation
980.
Diagnosticum at statement indirect (passive) hemagglutination test with the purpose serological
diagnostic:
A. Patient’s serum
B. Red blood cells with antibodies surface
C. Nonsensitized erythrocytes
D. *Red blood cells with antigen surface
E. Suspension of the killed microorganisms
981.
Difference between precpitation and agglutination tests:
A. *an antigene - molecular
B. an antigene – corpuscular
C. antibodies – monoclonal
D. Antibodies – polyclonal
E. Antibodies – blocking
982.
DiGeorge's syndrome is due to:
A. *T cell defect.
B. В cell defect.
C. Ataxia-telangiectasia
D. E. Chronic granulomatous disease
E. AIDS
983.
Direct Coons tests use a labelled antibody to identify.
A. an unknown antibody
B. fixed complement
C. *an unknown microbe
D. precipitins
E. level of immunoglobulines in serum
984.
Direct immunofluorescence tests use a labelled antibody to identify.
A. *an unknown microbe
B. an unknown antibody
C. fixed complement
D. precipitins
E. level of immunoglobulines in serum
985.
During O-agglutination bacteria stick together:
A. By flagellas
B. *By bodies
C. By capsules
D. By hairs
E. By proteins
986.
Each of the following statements concerning a hybridoma cell is correct EXCEPT;
A. The spleen cell component provides the ability to form antibody
B. The myeloma cell component provides the ability to grow indefinitely
C. *The antibody produced by a hybridoma cell is IgM, because heavy-chain switching does not
occur
D. The antibody produced by a hybridoma cell is homogeneous; ie, it is directed against a single
epitope
E. The hybridoma cells formed by fussion of myeloma cell and plasma cell
987.
Farmer's lung is the result of
A. sensitized T cells
B. *immune complex reactions
C. type I hypersensitivity.
D. cytotoxic reactions
E. urticaria
988.
Find correct statement concerning of agglutination test:
A. agglutination reaction is sedimentation of a soluble antigene
B. *agglutination reaction is sedimentation of a corpuscular antigene
C. agglutination reaction is linkages complement
D. agglutination reaction is immune hemolysis
E. agglutination reaction is immune sticking
989.
Fine-grained sediment resulting from agglutination reaction implies:
A. co-operation takes a place between flagella antigens and antibodies
B. *somatic antigens co-operate with antibodies
C. sediment has visen up in 18-24 hours
D. sediment has visen up in 2-4 hours
E. negative result
990.
For prevent diseases caused by bacterial toxins it necessary uses
A. specific antibodies,
B. type of enzyme that destroys toxins,
C. *toxoids,
D. IgM,
E. Bacteriophages
991.
For what purpose can we use CFT at examination of patint’s serum?
A. an estimation of the immune status
B. serological diagnosis of congenital immunodeficiency
C. serological identification of microorganisms
D. *serological diagnosis of infectious diseases
E. definition of group of blood
992.
For what purpose can we use CFT at examination of microorganisms?
A. an estimation of the immune status
B. serological diagnosis of congenital immunodeficiency
C. *serological identification of microorganisms
D. serological diagnosis of infectious diseases
E. definition of group of blood
993.
Fourth type of hypersensitivities are mediated by
A. allergens.
B. macrophages.
C. humoral antibodies.
D. antigens
E. *T cells
994.
Grafts between geneticully identical individuals (ie, identical twins)
A. are rejected slowly as a result of minor histocompatibilily antigens
B. are subject to hyperacute rejection
C. *are not rejected, even without immunosuppression
D. are not rejected if a kidney is grafted, but skin grafts are rejected
E. are rejected slowly as a result of minor A, B, O antigens
995.
Hemagglutination inhibition test is often used for diagnostics of viral infection. Select the
components of this test, if it belongs to serologic diagnostics.
A. Specific serum, viral antigen, chicken red blood cells
B. Viral diagnosticum, patient’s serum, sheep red blood cells
C. *Pair serums, viral diagnosticum, chicken red blood cells
D. Viral antigen, specific serum, chicken red blood cells
E. Specific serum, viral diagnosticum, pair serums
996.
Hemolysin is used in CFT as component of the indicator system. What is hemolysin?
A. patient’s serum
B. hemolysed blood
C. *the rabbit serum, contains antibodies to sheep red blood cells
D. serum of guine pig
E. suspension of sheep’s red blood cells
997.
Hemolysin is:
A. patient’s serum
B. hemolysed blood
C. *the rabbit serum, contains antibodies to sheep red blood cells
D. serum of guine pig
E. suspension of sheep’s red blood cells
998.
Hemolysis reaction is used with the purpose:
A. definitions of group of blood
B.
C.
D.
E.
*titrations of complement
definitions of osmotic stability of red blood cells
serological identification of microorganisms
estimations of phagocytic activity of neutrophils
999.
Hemolytic anemia develops, which resolves shortly after the drug is withdrawn. This is MOST
probably an example of
A. autoimmune diseases
B. cell-mediated hypersensitivity
C. immune-complex hypersensitivity
D. *cytotoxic hypersensitivity
E. atopic hypersensitivity
1000.
HIT is often used in medical practice for diagnostics of viral infection. Select the components of
this test, if it belongs to serologic diagnostics.
A. Specific serum, viral antigen, chicken red blood cells
B. Viral diagnosticum, patient’s serum, sheep red blood cells
C. *Pair serums, viral diagnosticum, chicken red blood cells
D. Viral antigen, specific serum, chicken red blood cells
E. Specific serum, viral diagnosticum, pair serums
1001.
Hypersensitivity to penicillin and bypersensitivity to poison oak are both
A. mediated by IgE antibody
B. mediated by IgG and IgM antibody
C. *initiated by haptens
D. initiated by Th-2 cells
E. initiated by proteins
1002.
Hypersensitivity to pollen is
A. *mediated by IgE antibody
B. mediated by IgG and IgM antibody
C. initiated by haptens
D. initiated by Th-2 cells
E. initiated by Th-1 cells
1003.
If all controls of CFT in norm hemolysis it is observed in which control tube(true everything,
except):
A. an antigen
B. patient’s serum
C. hemolytic system
D. immune serum
E. *complement
1004.
Immediate hypersensitivities are mediated by
A. *allergens
B. macrophages
C. humoral antibodies
D. antigens
E. T cells
1005.
Immune hemolysis test is used with the purpose:
A. definitions of group of blood
B. *titrations of complement
C. definitions of osmotic stability of red blood cells
D. serological identification of microorganisms
E. estimations of phagocytic activity of neutrophils
1006.
Immunofluorescence reactions are currently used as rapid assays for the detection:
A. of viruses in patient’s sample
B. of bacteria in patient’s sample
C. of spirocheates in patient’s sample
D. *all above
E. not correct answer
1007.
Immunoglobulin chemical structure is:
A. protein.
B.
C.
D.
E.
carbohydrate.
*glycoprotein.
lipid
nucleic acid.
1008.
Immunological test for serologic diagnostics are directed to the detection of:
A. Unknown bacteria
B. *level of serum specific antibodies
C. Level of complement
D. Level of lysosyme
E. All of the is true
1009.
Immunosuppressive agent/s is/are:
A. methotrexate.
B. cyclosporine.
C. anti-lymphocytic serum.
D. No correct answer
E. *all answers are true
1010.
Immunotherapy for hypersensitivities probably works because of
A. *the production of IgG blocking antibodies
B. development of suppressor T cells .
C. saturation of IgE antibodies.
D. All of the above are correct
E. All of the above are not correct
1011.
Immunotherapy to prevent generalized anaphylaxis is done by injecting dilute doses of
A. IgG antibodies
B. antihistamine.
C. IgE antibodies.
D. *offending antigen
E. offending antibody
1012.
In direct immunofluorescence test using for the pathogenic microorganisms
detection(Treponema pallidum, Streptococcus pyogenes etc.) fluorescein must be binded to:
A. microorganism
B. the sheep red blood cells
C. specific antibody against the human globulins
D. *specific antibody against a microorganism
E. specific antibody against complement
1013.
In setting up a complement fixation test for antibody, the reactants should be added in what
sequence? (Ag = antigen; Ab = antibody; C = complement; EA = antibody-coated indicator
erylhrocytes.)
A. Ag + EA + C/wait/ + patient's serum
B. C + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ Ag
C. Ag + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ C
D. *Ag + patient's serum + C/wait/+ EA
E. patient's serum + EA +C/wait
1014.
In the structure of viruses antigens can be represented by all, EXCEPT FOR:
A. Capsid’s proteins
B. Internal proteins
C. Nucleoproteins
D. *Nucleic acid
E. Glycoproteins of supercapsid
1015.
In virology neutralization test be used for virus identification. Specify, the sequence of bringing
in its components (virus- V, patient’s serum - PS., specific serum - SS., cell culture – CC).
A. SS + V to expect > CC
B. CC + V to expect > SS
C. *V + SS to expect >CC
D. SS + CC to expect >V
E. CC + PS to expect >V
1016.
In which cases can we use CFT at examination of patient’s serum?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1017.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1018.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1019.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1020.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1021.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1022.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1023.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1024.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1025.
A.
B.
C.
an estimation of the immune status
*serological diagnosis of infectious diseases
serological diagnosis of congenital immunodeficiency
serological identification of microorganisms
definition of group of blood
In which cases precipitation test is used (correct all,except):
in diagnostics of Anthrax
for definition toxigenity of diphtheritic cultures
*for definition of groups of blood
In forensic medicine
for definition of class Ig
In wich of the following test inert particles are sensitized with either antigen or antibody?
Coagglutination (COA)
*Latex agglutination (LA)
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
Enzyme multiplied immunoassay test (EMIT)
Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (CIE)
indicator system of CFT contains:
complement+hemolysin
*red cells and hemolysin
patient’s serum
red blood cells of I (0) groups and hemolysin
specific antigen
Individuals with a genetic deficiency of C6 have
decreased resistance to viral infections
increased hypcrsensitivity reactions
increased frequency of cancer
*decreased resistance to Neisseria bacteremia
all answers are true
Isoantigens are possessed by:
Antigens which all of representatives of this kind have.
*Antigens whichare possessed by some representatives of this kind.
Antigens which are possessed by all of representatives of different kinds.
Antigens which are possessed by some representatives of different kinds.
Antigens which are possessed by a certain person.
Kinds of agglutination tests(everything is true, except):
detailed
indirect hemagglutination
*precipitation
on glass-slide
coagglutination
Mechanism of precipitation test:
hydrophobic interactions
*connection of the active centers of antibodies and determinant groups of antigenes
Van-Der Waalse interactions
Brown movement
electrostatic interaction
Name the secondary immunodeficiency
DiGeorge's syndrome
*AIDS
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Ataxia-telangiectasia
Chronic granulomatous disease
Negative result of indirect hemagglutination test looks like:
*sediment of red cells as a "button"
flocculation
luminescence
D. sediment of red cells as a "umbrella"
E. sediment of red cells in the test tube
1026.
Negative result of slide-agglutination looks like:
A. sediment
B. discoloration
C. *even dimness
D. flocculation
E. gasification
1027.
Neutralization test be used for virus identification. Specify, the sequence of bringing in its
components (virus- V, patient’s serum - PS., specific serum - SS., cell culture – CC).
A. SS + V to expect > CC
B. CC + V to expect > SS
C. *V + SS to expect >CC
D. SS + CC to expect >V
E. CC + PS to expect >V
1028.
One of the disadvantages of ring precipitation test is:
A. Performing the test in a liquid environment
B. use of transparent antigens
C. *impossibility to set the amount of different antigens
D. the colloid particles of protein take part in the reaction
E. all of above are incorrect
1029.
One of variants of indirect agglutination which is widely used for the diagnostics of bacterial
meningitis of different etiology, hepatitis, etc is latex-agglutination test. What can detect by this test?
A. antibodies in the blood serum, urine
B. autoantibodies in serum
C. *bacterial, viral antigens in a serum, urine, CSF.
D. incomplete antibodies in serum
E. incomplete antibodies on red blood cells
1030.
Opsonization refers to
A. parasitic lysosomal degranulation.
B. aglutination of red blood cells.
C. *coating of microorganisms or other particles by antibody and/or complement.
D. adherence to mucosal epithelial cells.
E. antibody mediated viral inactivation.
1031.
Pair serums:
A. monozygotic twins’ serums
B. dizygotic twins’ serum
C. serums taken from different veins
D. serums of two patients with same diseases
E. *serums of one patient, the diseases taken in dynamics
1032.
Passive immunization is indicated in:
A. tuberculosis.
B. enteric fever.
C. diphtheria.
D. rubella.
E. pertussis
1033.
Patient has the Chronic Granulomatosis Disease (CGD). What deficiency of immune system has
this patient?
A. B cell defect.
B. Т cell defect.
C. both В and Т cell defects.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. *Phagocyte Deficiencies
1034.
Patient has the DiGeorge's Syndrome. What deficiency of immune system has this patient?
A. B cell defect.
B. *Т cell defect.
C. both В and Т cell defects.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. Phagocyte Deficiencies
1035.
Patient has the Thymic Aplasia. What deficiency of immune system has this patient?
A. B cell defect.
B. *Т cell defect.
C. both В and Т cell defects.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. Phagocyte Deficiencies
1036.
Patient has the X-Linked Hypogammaglobulinemia (Bruton's Agammaglobulinemia). What
deficiency of immune system has this patient?
A. *B cell defect.
B. Т cell defect.
C. both В and Т cell defects.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. Phagocyte Deficiencies
1037.
Pollen is which type of allergen?
A. contactant
B. ingestant
C. injectant
D. *inhalant
E. insectant
1038.
Precipitated anthrax serum contains:
A. the causative agent of anthrax
B. anthrax toxins
C. spores of bacillus anthracis
D. *antibodies to a specific antigene of bacillus anthracis
E. normal antibodies
1039.
Precipitation serum:
A. receive from donor blood
B. use for therapy
C. *use for serological identifying of microorganisms
D. use for serological diagnosis of infectious diseases
E. contains monoclonal antibodies
1040.
Precipitation test is (true everything, except):
A. reaction of sedimentation of a soluble antigene
B. interaction an antigene-antibody
C. serological test
D. *the mechanism of realization of cellular immunity
E. passes in a solution of electrolit
1041.
Precipitation test use (correct all,except):
A. in diagnostics of Anthrax
B. for definition toxigenity of diphtheritic cultures
C. *for definition of groups of blood
D. In forensic medicine
E. for definition of class Ig
1042.
Precipitation test uses for definition toxin production of diphtheritic cultures:
A. ring precipitation
B. *in gel
C. on glass-slide
D. detailed
E. indirect
1043.
Presumptive agglutination test allows to do a preliminary conclusion about selected pure culture.
Choose faithful assertion concerning this test:
A. *used for the exposure of unknown microorganism by a specific serum
B. used only for determination of level of antibodies in the patient’s serum
C. a test is conducted in the wells of polystyrene plates
D. the account of test is conducted in 2-3 hours
E. allows to define the titre of incomplete antibodies
1044.
Radial immunodiffusion test is used for messure amount of the immunoglobulins in the patient’s
serum. Find inside listed incorrect sentence
A. Agar is mixed with antiserum
B. Patient samples (serum) is diluted
C. All classes of immunoglobulins except IgE determination
D. *Measure Ag-Ab-Complement complex
E. Diameter of ring is proportional to concentration of antigens
1045.
Reaction of agglutination is a reaction:
A. sedimentation of a soluble antigene
B. *sedimentation of a corpuscular antigene
C. linkages complement
D. Immune hemolysis
E. Immune sticking
1046.
Reaction of antigen with IgE antibodies attached to mast cells causes
A. precipitation .
B. complement fixation .
C. *degranulation.
D. agglutination
E. asthma
1047.
Results of CFT are authentic, if in the control (everything is true,except):
A. *red blood cells - hemolysis
B. an antigene - hemolysis
C. serum– hemolysis
D. complement- hemolysis absence
E. hemolysin- hemolysis absence
1048.
Rheumatoid arthritis is an that affects the
A. immunodeficiency disease, muscles
B. autoimmune disease, nerves
C. allergy, cartilage
D. *autoimmune disease, joints
E. autoimmune disease, bones
1049.
Select the protein among listed the bacterial antigens:
A. K
B. O
C. Vi
D. *H
E. B
1050.
Serotyping is a serological procedure used to differentiate strains of microorganisms
A. *that have differences in antigenic composition.
B. that have differences in size
C. that have differences in molecular weigh
D. that have differences in fermentative properties
E. that have differences in morphological structure
1051.
Set the components of ring precipitation test:
A. antigen and patient’s serum
B. antigen, antibody, complement
C. precipitated serum and bacteria
D. antigen and tanned red blood cell diagnosticum
E. *patient’s serum and molecular antigen
1052.
Shoes of person accused of murder is stained with blood. How is it possible to determine,
whether this blood is human?
A. using the immunofluorescence test.
B. using the agglutination test.
C. using the Coombs test
D. *using the precipitation test.
E. using the latex-agglutination test
1053.
Show the role of class II MHC proteins on donor cells in graft rejection?
A. they are the receptors for interleukin-2, which is produced by macrophages .when they attack the
donor cells
B. *they are recognized by helper T cells, which then activate cytotoxic T cells to kill the donor
cells
C. they induce the production of blocking antibodies that protect the graft
D. they induce IgE which mediates graft rejection
E. all are correct
1054.
Sick man with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines. The symptoms are most likely
to be caused by
A. interleukin-2
B. interleukin-10
C. *slow-reacting substance A (leukotrienes)
D. serotonin
E. bradykinin
1055.
Single-radial immunodiffusion (SRID) (Mancini). Choose the correct answer
A. Agar is mixed with antigen
B. Patient samples (serum) is not diluted
C. Only IgG determination
D. Measure Ag-Ab complex
E. *Diameter of ring is proportional to concentration of antigens
1056.
Slide agglutination test allows to do a preliminary conclusion about selected pure culture.
Choose faithful assertion concerning this test:
A. *used for the exposure of unknown microorganism by a specific serum
B. used only for determination of level of antibodies in the patient’s serum
C. a test is conducted in the wells of polystyrene plates
D. the account of test is conducted in 2-3 hours
E. allows to define the titre of incomplete antibodies
1057.
Specificity of antibody is directly related to the active center which is located in the molecule of
immunoglobulin:
A. Between the constant parts of H- and L-chains
B. Between the variable parts of Н-chains
C. Between the constant parts of Н-chains
D. In the joint region of immunoglobuline
E. *Between the variable parts of H- and L- chains
1058.
Specificity of antigen is determined by:
A. Chemical structure
B. Foreignness
C. *Epitopes
D. In size electric charge
E. Size of molecular weight
1059.
Specificity of antigen is predefined:
A. By a chemical nature
B. Foreignness
C. *Determination groups
D. In size of electric potential
E. By size of molecular weight
1060.
Specify that is marked a number 1?
A. Antigens
B. Bacteria
C. *Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus hemolyticus
E. Antiglobulin
1061.
Specify, why IgG and IgM is able to activate complement.
A. Because they have complement binding point in the Fab fragment
B. Because their third domain adsorbs C2 and C4
C. *Because there is a place for attachment of C1 in a joint region
D. Because only their light chains are able to fix complement
E. Because there is similarity between their disulphide bridge and C1-C4
1062.
Structurally the molecule of immunoglobulin (IgМ) consists of:
A. one monomer
B. two monomers
C. three monomers
D. four monomers
E. *five monomers
1063.
Swiss-type agammaglobulinaemia is due to:
A. *B cell defect.
B. Т cell defect.
C. both В and Т cell defects.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. Phagocyte Deficiencies
1064.
Systemic lupus erythematosus is associated with deficiency of:
A. *Cl, C4
B. B cells
C. Т cells
D. No correct answer
E. Phagocyte
1065.
The radial immunodiffusion test (Mancini technique) quantifies amount of
A. *immunoglobulins’ classes.
B. antibodies.
C. immune complexes.
D. cytokines.
E. All of the above.
1066.
The alternative way of activation of complement is carried out:
A. at participation of antibodies
B. *at participation of LPS
C. without formation membrane attack complex
D. at formation of a complex an antigen - antibody
E. at formation of R-forms of microorganisms
1067.
The amount of immunoglobulins of different classes in blood serum we can define by a simple
radial immunodiffusion test. It is necessary for this purpose:
A. *to mix up an antiserum with gel. Bring an antigen in wells, done in gel
B. to mix up an antigen with gel. Bring a specific serum in wells, done in gel
C. To make wells in neutral gel. To bring in an antigen in one of them, in other is an antibody
D. To do a well in a centr in neutral gel, where to bring in an antigen. Make four wells, around and
bring in the different types of antibodies into them
E. To mix antigen and specific antibody in the neutral gel
1068.
The basis of all immunologic tests is:
A. process of recognition of antigen by the receptors of macrophage
B. co-operating of antigen with dendritic cells
C. recognition of antibody by antigen’s epitopes
D. *co-operating of antigen with an antibody
E. all of assertions are true
1069.
The basis of CFT is activation of:
A. *complement
B. antigenes
C. antibodies
D. red blood cells
E. hemolysin
1070.
The Classical way of activation complement is carried out:
A. without participation of antibodies
B. at participation properdin
C. without formation membrane attack complex
D. *at formation of an antigen – antibody complex
E. at formation L-transformations
1071.
The complement proteins act sequentially and this results in an amplification of the activity of
the response. This type of response is referred to as a(n)
A. synergism
B. *cascade
C. avalanche
D. amplified response
E. all are true
1072.
The components of hemagglutination test(HA) are:
A. Specific serum, sheep red blood cells
B. *Viral material, red blood cells
C. Unknown antibodies, chicken red blood cells
D. Virus, sheep red blood cells
E. Pair serums, viral diagnosticum
1073.
The contact with allergen that results in symptoms is called the
A. sensiling dose
B. degranulation dose
C. *provocative dose
D. desensitizing dose
E. inhibition dose
1074.
The direct, immediate cause of allergic symptoms is the action of
A. the allergen directly on smooth muscle
B. the allergen on B lymphocytes
C. *allergic mediators released from mast cells and basophils
D. IgE on smooth muscle
E. the allergen on mast cells
1075.
The double antibody sandwich assay is normally used for the detection of
A. *antigens
B. antibodies
C. either antigens or antibodies
D. limphocytes
E. cytokines
1076.
The first level tests for assessment of immune status includes all of the following determinations,
ECXEPT:
A. Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative);
B. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood;
C. Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins;
D. Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes.
E. *Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+)
1077.
The immune response of organism is activared with recognition of foreign antigen. Which of the
listed proteins are able to recognize an antigen?
A. beta-globulins
B. Albumens
C. Glycoproteins
D. *Immunoglobulins
E. a-fetoprotein
1078.
The isotypes of immunoglobulins are divided into the varieties in:
A. Variable region of light chain.
B. Constant region of light chain
C. Variable region of heavy chain
D. *Constant region of of heavy chain
E. Any area
1079.
The IV type of hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by
A. edema without a cellular infiltrate
B. an infiltrate composed of neutrophils
C. *an infiltrate composed of helper T cells and macrophages
D. an infiltrate composed of eosinophils
E. cellular infiltration
1080.
The level of immunoglobulins in the patient’s serum is determined by the Manchini test. How
does the positive result of this reaction look ?
A. sediment
B. discoloration
C. even dimness
D. *formation of rings precipitation
E. gasification
1081.
The main advantage of passive immunization over active immunization is that
A. it can be administered orally
B. *it provides antibody more rapidly
C. antibody persists for a longer period
D. it contains primarily IgM
E. it contains only antibacterial antibodies
1082.
The major function(s) of an antigen-antibody reaction is(are)
A. to mark and target antigens for destruction by other components of the immune system.
B. to detect unknow antigen
C. to detect unknow antibody
D. *All are true
E. No correct unswer
1083.
The Manchini precipitation test is very important in the immunology. Choose the correct answer
A. *Agar is mixed with antiserum
B. Patient samples (serum) is not diluted
C. Only IgM determination
D. Measure Ag-Ab-Complement complex
E. Diameter of ring is not proportional to concentration of antigens
1084.
The material from patient for statement agglutination reaction with the purpose serodiagnostic is:
A. *serum
B. diagnosticum
C. culture
D. agglutinated serum
E. physiological solution
1085.
The material from patient for statement agglutination reaction with the purpose seroidentification
is:
A. diagnosticum
B. cultures
C. *serum
D. agglutinated serum
E. physiological solution
1086.
The molecule of immunoglobulin ( IgG) consists of:
A. *2th H and 2th L chains
B. th H-chains
C. th L- chains
D. th H-chains
E. th L-chains
1087.
The principal difference between anaphylaxic (type I) and cytotoxic (type II) hypersensitivity is
A. *the class (isotype) of antibody
B. the site where antigen-antibody complexes are formed
C. the participation of macrophages
D. the participation of T cells
E. correct all
1088.
The principal difference between cytotoxic (type II) and immune complex (type III)
hypersensitivity is
A. the class (isotype) of antibody
B. *the site where antigen-antibody complexes are formed
C. the participation of complement
D. the participation of T cells
E. interraction between antigen and antibody
1089.
The protein A on certain strains of Staphylococcus aureus is used the following tests:
A. Enzyme multiplied immunoassay test (EMIT)
B. Latex agglutination (LA)
C. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
D. *Coagglutination (COA)
E. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (CIE)
1090.
The purpose of the use of immunological reactions for serum authentication is determination of :
A. *Unknown bacteria
B. A level of specific antibodies is in a serum
C. Level of complement
D. Level of lysozymes
E. All of the above-mentioned right
1091.
The role of antigen in the Askoli’s thermoprecipitin test is playd by:
A. bacteria
B. virus
C. levage of the surface of the tested object
D. *thermoextract animal’s skin
E. patient’s blood
1092.
The second level tests for assessment of immune status (analytical) includes all of the following
determinations, ECXEPT:
A. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+);
B. Leukocyte migration inhibition test;
C. Examination of proliferative ability of T– and B–lymphocytes (lymphocyte blast transformation
test);
D. Cutaneous tests of hypersensitivity;
E. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood
1093.
The single radial diffusion assay (Mancini technique) quantitates
A. antibodies
B. *antigens
C. immune complexes
D. cytokines
E. complement
1094.
The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to
A. *an inflammatory response
B. histaminesies.
C. autoimmune antigens.
D. IgE.
E. autoimmune antibodies
1095.
The titer of complement:
A. a minimum quantity causing partial hemolysis of red blood cells in hemolytic system
B. *a minimum quantity causing full hemolysis
C. a maximum quantity causing full hemolysis
D. minimum quantity at which hemolysis is absent
E. the maximum quantity causing partial hemolysis
1096.
The working doze of complement must be above its titer on:
A. *20-30 %
B. -40 %
C. -50 %
D. -60 %
E. -70 %
1097.
There was a necessity to probe the presence of antibodies against the hepatitis B virus in the
patient’s serum. A ELISA is used. Specify necessary components:
A. Patient’s serum labeled with an enzyme, specific antigen
B. Specific serum, virus, antigen, antiglobulin serum
C. Virus, antigen in wells, specific serum, substance
D. *Viral antigen in wells, patient’s serum, antiglobulins serum labeled with an enzyme, substance
E. Patient’s serum in wells, viral antigen, antiglobulins serum labeled with an enzyme
1098.
Types of agglutination reaction(everything is true, except):
A. latex-agglutination
B. indirect hemagglutination
C. *precipitation
D. on glass-slide
E. coagglutination
1099.
Vaccination is synonymous with ____ immunity.
A. natural active
B. artificial passive
C. *artificial active
D. natural passive
E. non are correct
1100.
Viruses antigens can be all, EXCEPT:
A. Capsid’s proteins
B. Internal sproteins
C. Nucleoproteins
D. *Nucleic acid
E. Glycoproteins of envelope
1101.
What among transferred does relate to the indirect hemagglutination test?
A. bacterial diagnosticum and patient’s serum
B. *patient’s serum and tanned red blood cells diagnosticum
C. antigen and fluorescein-tagget antibodies
D. antigen and tanned red blood cells diagnosticum
E. antigen, antibody, complement
1102.
What does a positive tuberculin skin test (a delayed hyper-sensitivity reaction) indicate ?
A. a humoral immune response has occurred
B. *a cell-mediated immune response has occurred
C. both the T and B cell systems are functional
D. only the B cell system is functional
E. a humoral immune response has decreased
1103.
What does immunodeficiency with elevated IgM result in:
A. *recurrent pyogenic infections.
B. AIDS
C. All answers are correct.
D. No correct answer
E. recurrent fungal infections
1104.
What examination is not used for the second level of immune status assessment?
A. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+);
B. Leukocyte migration inhibition test;
C. Examination of proliferative ability of T– and B–lymphocytes (lymphocyte blast transformation
test);
D. Cutaneous tests of hypersensitivity;
E. *Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood
1105.
What from next molecules are the best antigens?
A. Lipid
B. Glucose
C. Fat acids
D. *Proteins
E. Carbonhydrates
1106.
What from the next classes of immunoglobuline is the most numerous and able to be passed
from the mother to the child?
A. *IgG
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgE
E. IgA
1107.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1108.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1109.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1110.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1111.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1112.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1113.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1114.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1115.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1116.
A.
What immune response will be after infectious disease
natural, acquired, passive
artificial, acquired, passive.
artificial, acquired, active.
*natural, acquired, active
all answers are incorrect
What is a criterion of negative CFT:
*full hemolysis of red cells
hemolysis absence
partial hemolysis of red cells with intensity +++, ++
precipitate formation
agglutinate formation
What is criteria of positive agglutination test:
partial hemolysis
*agglutination with intensity ++++, +++, ++
a phenomenon of spontaneous agglutination
sedementation of erythrocytes
Full hemolysis of erythrocytes
What is difference between precpitation and agglutination tests:
*an antigene - molecular
an antigene – corpuscular
antibodies – monoclonal
Antibodies – polyclonal
Antibodies – blocking
What is difference between precpitation and agglutination tests? Show the correct answer.
*an antigene - molecular
an antigene – corpuscular
antibodies – monoclonal
Antibodies – polyclonal
Antibodies – blocking
What is DiGeorge's syndrome?
*T cell defect.
В cell defect.
Ataxia-telangiectasia
E. Chronic granulomatous disease
AIDS
What is the advantage of rocket electrophoresis over radial immunodiffusion?
It is easier
*It is more accurate
It requires less test material
It is more sensitive
It is less expensive
What is the mechanism of action of second type hypersensitivities?
IgE reacting with mast cells
activation of cytotoxic T cells
IgG-allergen complexes that clog epithelial tissues
*complement-induced lysis of cells in the presence of antibodies
activation of natural killer cells
What is the pair serums:
monozygotic twins’ serums
dizygotic twins’ serum
serums taken from different veins
serums of two patients with same diseases
*serums of one patient, the diseases taken in dynamics
What is the role of class II MHC proteins on donor cells in graft rejection?
They are the receptors for interleukin-2, which is produced by macrophages .when they attack
the donor cells
B. *They are recognized by helper T cells, which then activate cytotoxic T cells to kill the donor
cells
C. They induce the production of blocking antibodies that protect the graft
D. They induce IgE which mediates graft rejection
E. They induce complement depended cytolysis of the graft
1117.
What is toxoid?
A. type of antibody that combines with a toxin,
B. type of bacterium that resists phagocytosis.
C. type of enzyme that destroys toxins,
D. type of virus.
E. *inactivated toxin.
1118.
What kind of immundeficiency is chronic granulomatous?
A. NADPH oxidase.
B. MPO.
C. G6PD.
D. No correct answer.
E. *all answers are true
1119.
What kind of precipitation test does use for definition toxin production of diphtheritic cultures:
A. ring precipitation
B. *in gel
C. on glass-slide
D. detailed
E. indirect
1120.
What microorganism’s suspension which binds the heavy chains of antibody is used in the
coagglutination test. Choose him among listed:
A. Micrococcus luteus
B. *Staphylococcus aureus
C. Escherichia coli
D. Streptococcus viridans
E. Salmonella typhi
1121.
What modern immunological methods do serve for the detection of the minimum concentration
of viral antigens?
A. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
B. ELISA
C. Method with the use of monoclonal antibodies
D. Radioimmune method (RIA)
E. *All of transferred
1122.
What patent’ material is used for serological diagnostics (definition of a level of antibodies)?
A. *serum of blood
B. pus
C. sputum
D. urine
E. liquor
1123.
What purpose necessary to heat up the patient’s serum at 56 °С – 30 min. for before performing
of the CFT ?
A. For elimination of heterophiles antibodies
B. For diminishing of properdin’s activity
C. For the decline of lysozymes’ activity
D. *For elimination of complement
E. For oppressing of normal antibodies
1124.
What reaction does enable to set the antigen identity, simirality or dissimilarity?
A. The radial immunodiffusion of Manchini
B. The single dimension immunodiffusion in one dimension (Oudin procedure)
C. *The double immunodiffusion in two dimension (Ouchterlony)
D. The double diffusion in one dimension (Oakley-Fulthorpe)
E. The ring precipitation
1125.
What structural parts of immunoglobulins are used for their division into the classes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Light chains
*Heavy chains
Domains
Fc- fragment
Fab-fragments
1126.
What structures are primarily responsible for such specificity?
A. Cytotoxic T cells
B. *Hypervariable regions in domains of B cells
C. The major histocompatibility complex
D. Specific T cell receptors
E. Memory cells
1127.
What structures of antigens are responsible for their variety?
A. Amino acid
B. Polysaccharidess
C. *Epitope
D. Protein
E. Porin
1128.
When immune complexes from the serum are deposited on glomerular basement membrane,
damage to the membrane is caused mainly by
A. gamma interferon
B. phagocytosis
C. cytotoxic T cells
D. *enzymes released by polymorphonuclear cells
E. natural killers
1129.
Which allergies are T-cell mediated?
A. type I
B. type II
C. type III
D. *type IV
E. all are correct
1130.
Which antibodies cause eosinophils to bind to tissue parasites, causing lytic and inflammatory
mediators to destroy the parasites?
A. *IgE
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. only IgM and IgA
E. all of these
1131.
Which antibody(ies) can bind to some extracellular viruses and inactivate them?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. Only IgM and IgA
E. *all of these
1132.
Which antibody(ies) can prevent bacterial from colonizing mucosal surfaces and initiating the
disease process?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. *IgA
D. Only IgG and IgM
E. all of these
1133.
?Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic disease of the newborn caused
by Rh incompatibility?
A. Atopic or anaphylactic
B. *Cytotoxic
C. Immune complex
D. Delayed
E. Autoimmune
1134.
Which disease would be most similar to AIDS in its pathology?
A. B cell defect.
B. *Т cell defect.
C. Complement deficiency.
D. Phagocyte Deficiencies
E. No correct answer
1135.
Which immunological reaction would normally be used to screen for levels of immunoglobulins
in a patient?
A. Fluorescent antibody tests
B. Rocket electrophoresis
C. Double Diffusion in agar
D. *Immunoelectrophoresis
E. Ring precipitation
1136.
Which ingredient among listed can be included into indicator system of the CFT?
A. Specific antibody and complement
B. Specific antigen and complement
C. *Sheep red blood cells and hemolysin
D. Inactivated by temperature patient’s serum
E. Serum of guinea-pig
1137.
Which is the working doze of hemolytic serum (a credit 1:1200) for CFT:
A. : 50
B. : 100
C. *1 : 200
D. : 400
E. : 3600
1138.
Which macromolecule is currently not being used as a vaccine in humans?
A. Capsular polysaccharides
B. Recombinant surface antigens
C. Inactivated exotoxins
D. *DNA-based
E. All of the above
1139.
Which major problem do immunocompromised patients with bone marrow transplantation have?
A. *potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease
B. high risk of T cell leukemia
C. inability to use a live donor
D. delayed hypersensitivity
E. autoimmune reaction
1140.
Which method can detect IgG on the glomerular basement membrane in a kidney tissue section?
A. precipitin test
B. complement fixation test
C. agglutination test
D. coagglutination test
E. *indirect fluorescent-antibody test
1141.
Which of following is secondary immunodeficiency
A. DiGeorge's syndrome
B. *AIDS
C. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
D. Ataxia-telangiectasia
E. Chronic granulomatous disease
1142.
Which of following tests are/is not used for the first level of immune status assessment?
A. Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative);
B. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood;
C. Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins;
D. Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes.
E. *Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+)
1143.
Which of the following characteristics is not associated with live vaccines?
A. Single dose is immunogenic.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Dose is less.
Strict conditions of storage are essential.
Only humoral response is elicited.
It can mutate
1144.
Which of the following involves separation of antigens by size on a gel, followed by diffusion
and precipitation?
A. Flow cytometry
B. Double diffusion immunoassay
C. *Immunoelectrophoresis
D. Direct immunosorbent assay
E. Indirect immunosorbent assay
1145.
Which of the following is (are) way(s) that the complement system aids in the defensive
responses of an organism?
A. lysis of antibody coated eucaryotic cells or bacteria
B. attract phagocytic cells
C. activation of phagocytic cells
D. *all of these are ways that the complement system aids in the defensive responses of an
organism.
E. correct answers absent
1146.
Which of the following is most commonly involved in graft rejections?
A. Complement proteins
B. ABO antibodies
C. *MHC antigens
D. MHC antibodies
E. Mast cells
1147.
Which of the following is used for typing when a patient is being prepared for an organ
transplant?
A. *MHC class I molecules
B. MHC class II molecules
C. MHC class III molecules
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
1148.
Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for the type IV hypersensitivity reaction in
the school pupil?
A. expression of antigen epitopes on B cells
B. expression of allergen epitopes on CD8 +T cells
C. IgE reaction with mast cells
D. reaction of allergen with the Ti and CD4 markers of B cells
E. *T helper cell reaction with the antigen epitope
1149.
Which of the following vaccine is attenuated?
A. Dysentery vaccines.
B. Cholera vaccines
C. *BCG
D. Diphtheria vaccines.
E. Solk polio vaccines
1150.
Which of the following vaccines is live?
A. Salk.
B. *Sabin.
C. TAB.
D. Human diploid cell rabies vaccine.
E. DPT
1151.
Which of the following would be a Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity?
A. hayfever
B. *allergic contact dermatitis
C. glomerulonephritis
D. penicillin reaction
E. blood transfusion reaction
1152.
Which of the listed techniques of antibodies detection is the most sensitive?
A. Agglutination test
B. Precipitation test
C. Radial immunodiffusion test
D. *Radioimmune test
E. Immunoelectrophoresis
1153.
Which one of the following is the BEST method of reducing the effect of graft-versus-host
disease in a bone marrow recipient?
A. Matching the complement components of donor and recipient
B. Administering alpha interferon
C. *Removing mature T cells from the graft
D. Removing pre-B cells from the graft
E. Using monoclonal antibodies
1154.
Which one of the following properties of antibodies is NOT dependent on the structure of the
heavy-chain constant region?
A. Ability to cross the placenta
B. Isotype (class)
C. Ability to fix complement
D. *Affinity for antigen
E. Ability to opsonization
1155.
Which process is used to detect the presence of antibodies in serum following an individual's
exposure to microorganisms?
A. direct immunofluorescence
B. *indirect immunofluorescence
C. gel electrophoresis
D. countercurrent immunoelectrophoresis
E. all are correct
1156.
Which test involves separation of antigens by size on a gel, followed by diffusion and
precipitation?
A. Direct immunosorbent assay
B. Double diffusion immunoassay
C. Flow cytometry
D. *Immunoelectrophoresis
E. Indirect immunosorbent assay
1157.
Which test would normally be used to screen for abnormal levels of immunoglobulins in a
patient suspected of having leukkemia?
A. Fluorescent antibody tests
B. Rocket electrophoresis
C. Double Diffusion in agar
D. *Immunoelectrophoresis
E. Ring precipitation
1158.
Which type of allergy best describes Rh incompatibility in newborn?
A. atopic or anaphylactic
B. *cytotoxic
C. immune complex
D. delayed
E. autoallergy
1159.
Widespread immunity that protects the population from the spread of disease is called
A. herd immunity
B. seropositivity
C. cross reactivity
D. epidemic prophylaxis
E. *population immunity
1160.
Wright’s agglutination test is used for serological diagnostic of special dangerous infections.
Select such an ilness among listed?
A. *brucellosis
B. cholera
C. tularemia
D. typhoid
E. anthrax
1161.
Н-agglutination a bacterium stick together:
A. *By flagellas
B. By bodies
C. By capsules
D. By hairs
E. By proteins
1162.
Which of the following immunoglobulins is responsible for passing the placental barrier and
attacking the Rh + fetal red blood cells in hemolytic disease of the newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis)?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. *IgG
E. IgM
1163.
Which one of the following statements BEST explains the relationship between inflammation of
the heart (carditis) and infection with group A beta-hemolytic streptococci?
A. *Streptococcal antigens induce antibodies cross-reactive with heart tissue
B. Streptococci are polyclonal activators of B cells
C. Streptococcal antigens bind to IgE on the surface of heart tissue and histamine is released
D. Streptococci are ingested by neutrophils that release proteases that damage heart tissue
E. Streptococci produce exotoxin B(protease) that destroy heart tissue
1164.
Which two classes of immunoglobulins are synthesized almost simultaneously under the
influence of foreign agent, Although one of these classes increases in number and decreases in
concentration more quickly?
A. *IgM and IgG
B. Ig M and IgD
C. IgG and IgD
D. Ig An and IgD
E. IgA and IgG
1165.
Your patient is a child who has no detectable T cells. This immunodeficiency is most probably
the result of a defect in
A. *the thymus
B. the bursal equivalent
C. bone marrow
D. T cell-B cell interaction
E. stem cells originating in the bone marrow
1166.
Your patient is a child who has no detectable T or B cells. This immunodeficiency is most
probably the result of a defect in
A. the thymus
B. the bursal equivalent
C. T cell-B cell interaction
D. *stem cells originating in the bone marrow
E. gene encoding tyrosin kinase
1167.
A major role of macrophages is to present foreign antigens to:
A. other APCs
B. B lymphocytes
C. *Th lymphocytes
D. Neutrophils
E. NK cells
1168.
A T lymphocyte which expresses CD3 must also express:
A. *the TcR
B. CD4
C. Class II MHC
D. membrane Ig
E. the BcR
1169.
the:
An activated T helper lymphocyte will have each of the cell markers on its surface except for
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
CD 38 marker.
CD 25 marker.
CD 4 marker.
CD 3 marker
*CD 19 marker.
1170.
An antigen is
A. a hapten that combines with an antibody
B. *a substance that incites an antibody response and can combine specifically with these antibodies
C. a small molecule that attaches to cells
D. a carbohydrate
E. a protein that combines with antibodies
1171.
An immunoglobulin is a
A. protein.
B. carbohydrate.
C. *glycoprotein.
D. fatty acid.
E. nucleic acid.
1172.
An antibody is a
A. protein.
B. carbohydrate.
C. *glycoprotein.
D. fatty acid.
E. nucleic acid.
1173.
Antigen presenting cell express which one of the following on their surfaces?
A. IgE
B. Gamma interferon
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. *Class II MHC antigens
E. Class III MHC antigens
1174.
Macrophages, dendritic cells and B-cells had activate helper T cells must express which one of
the following on their surfaces?
A. IgE
B. Gamma interferon
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. *Class II MHC antigens
E. Class III MHC antigens
1175.
Antigen-presenting cells process antigen to?
A. B-cells
B. T-killers
C. NK-cells
D. Mast cells
E. *T-helpers
1176.
Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper Tcells must express which one of the following on
their surfaces?
A. IgE
B. Gamma interferon
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. *Class II MHC antigens
E. gM
1177.
APC express which one of the following on their surfaces?
A. IgE
B. Gamma interferon
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. *Class II MHC antigens
E. Class III MHC antigens
1178.
CD3 surface antigen is expressed only by:
A. *T cells.
B. В cells.
C. monocytes.
D. granulocytes.
E. mast cells
1179.
CD4 and CD8 both:
A. bind to Class II MHC
B. function in signal transduction
C. bind to B7
D. *T cells
E. B1 and B2 cells
1180.
CD40 on the surface of B lymphocytes binds to which of the following Th cell surface
molecules?
A. ICAM
B. TcR
C. *CD40L
D. CD16
E. CD8
1181.
CD8 is a glycoprotein found on:
A. all lymphocytes
B. B cells
C. *cytotoxic T cells
D. helper T cells
E. NK cells
1182.
CD8 surface antigen is present in:
A. helper Т cells.
B. *cytotoxic Т cells.
C. NK cells
D. both of the above.
E. none of the above.
1183.
Choose correct statement about important function of antibody in a host defense from the next:
A. Activation of lysozyme that degrades the cell wall
B. Acceleration of proteolysis of exotoxins
C. *Facilitation of phagocytosis
D. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
E. Inhibition of bacterial metabolism
1184.
Choose primary lymphoid organ/s:
A. thymus
B. bursa of Fabricius.
C. bone marrow.
D. *all of the above are correct
E. all of the above are false
1185.
Choose the correct sentence according antigen:
A. a hapten that combines with an antibody,
B. *a substance that incites an antibody response and can combine specifically with these
antibodies.
C. a small molecule that attaches to cells.
D. a carbohydrate
E. a protein that combines with antibodies.
1186.
Choose the correct statements concerning haptens:
A. A hapten is complex antigen-antibody
B. *A hapten cannot induce an antibody by itself; rather, it must be bound to a carrier protein to be
able to induce antibody
C. Haptens are big molecules of protein
D. Haptens must be processed by CD8 cells to become immunogenic
E. Haptens must be processed by MHC II to become immunogenic
1187.
Class II MHC molecules would be found positioned in the plasma membrane of which of the
following types of cells?
A. epithelial cells
B. *macrophages
C. nerve cells
D. basophils
E. all of the above
1188.
Compared to the secondary antibody response, the primary response
A. *has a longer lag phase.
B. has a more rapid log phase.
C. persists for a longer plateau period.
D. attains a higher IgG titer.
E. produces antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen.
1189.
Cytotoxic T cells can kill target cells by inserting into their membranes proteins called:
A. perforations
B. *perforins
C. perforinse
D. performins
E. perporins
1190.
Cytotoxic T cells induced by infection with virus A will kill
A. target cells from the same host .infected with any virus
B. *infected by virus A and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells
C. infected by virus A and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells
D. infected with a different virus and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells
E. infected with a different virus and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells
1191.
During the maturation of a B lymphocyte, the first immunoglobulin heavy chain synthesized is
the
A. *mu chain
B. gamma chain
C. epsilon chain
D. alpha chain
E. kappa chain
1192.
The first immunoglobulin heavy chain synthesized is the
A. *mu chain
B. gamma chain
C. epsilon chain
D. alpha chain
E. kappa chain
1193.
Each of the following statements concerning class I MHC proteins is correct EXCEPT:
A. They are cell surface proteins on virtually all cells
B. They are recognition elements for cytotoxic T cells
C. They are codominantly expressed
D. *They are important in the skin test response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. They are absent onto red blood cells
1194.
Find the correct sentence according antigen:
A. a hapten that combines with an antibody
B. *a substance that incites an antibody response and can combine specifically with these
antibodies.
C. a small molecule that attaches to cells.
D. a carbohydrate
E. a protein that combines with antibodies.
1195.
Find the correct statements concerning haptens:
A. *A hapten can combine with an antibody
B. A hapten can induce an antibody by itself
C. Haptens are big molecules of protein
D. Haptens must be processed by CD8 cells to become immunogenic
E. Haptens must be processed by MHC II to become immunogenic
1196.
Human T lymphocytes:
A. *Are found mainly in the cortex region of the lymph node.
B. Are found in the red .pulp of the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) of the spleen.
C. Make up 65-85% of the peripheral blood lymphocytes.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
1197.
Idiotypic determinants are located within
A. *Hypervariable regions of heavy and light chains
B. Constant regions of light chains
C. Constant regions of heavy chains
D. The hinge region
E. Constant regions of light and heavy chains
1198.
If art individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be
affected?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgG and IgM
E. *IgM and IgA
1199.
Immunoglobulin molecules would be found positioned in the plasma membrane of which of the
following types of cells?
A. *B lymphocytes
B. Monocytes
C. T lymphocytes
D. NK cells
E. be recognized by natural killers
1200.
Individuals of blood group type AB
A. are Rh(D)-negative
B. *are "universal recipients" of transfusions
C. have circulating anti-A and anti-B antibodies
D. have the same haplotype
E. are "universal donors" of transfusions
1201.
Isotypes refer to variations in the
A. light chain variable region.
B. light chain constant region.
C. heavy chain variable region.
D. *heavy chain constant region.
E. Any of the above.
1202.
Macrophage as antigen presenting cell express which one of the following on their surfaces?
A. IgE
B. Gamma interferon
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. *Class II MHC antigens
E. Class III MHC antigens
1203.
Monoclonal antibodies are produced by
A. lymphocytes.
B. myeloma cells.
C. *hybridomas.
D. spleen cells.
E. plasma cells.
1204.
Monoclonal antibodies are routinely used in all of the following EXCEPT
A. the typing of tissue.
B. the identification and epidemiological study of infectious microorganisms.
C. the identification of tumor antigens.
D. the classification of leukemias.
E. *the manipulation of the immune response.
1205.
Opsonization refers to
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1206.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1207.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1208.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1209.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1210.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1211.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1212.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1213.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1214.
A.
B.
parasitic lysosomal degranulation.
aglutination of red blood cells.
*coating of microorganisms or other particles by antibody and/or complement.
adherence to mucosal epithelial cells.
antibody mediated viral inactivation.
Persons of blood group type AB
are Rh(D)-negative
*are "universal recipients" of transfusions
have circulating anti-A and anti-B antibodies
have the same haplotype
are "universal donors" of transfusions
Primary lymphoid organ/s are:
thymus
bursa of Fabricius.
bone marrow.
*all of the above are correct
E all of the above are false
Programmed cell death in animal cells is known as:
A poptos
a poptosis
a pop tosis
apopstasis
*apoptosis
Regarding Th-1 and Th-2 cells, which one of the following is LEAST accurate?
Th-1 cells produce gamma interferon and promote cell-mediated immunity
Th-2 cells produce interleukin-4 and -5 and promote antibody-mediated immunity
Both Th-1 and Th-2 cells have both CD3 and CD4 proteins on their outer cell membrane
*Before naive Th cells differentiate into Th-1 or Th-2 cells, they are, double- positives; ie, they
produce both gamma interferon and intefleukin-4
Th-2 cells produce interleukin-10 and inhibit activity of Th-2 cells
Secondary lymphoid organ/s is/are:
lymph nodes.
spleen.
mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue.
GALT
*all of the above
Shoose correct answer according the primary immune response
*has a longer lag phase.
has a more rapid log phase.
persists for a longer plateau period.
attains a higher IgG titer.
produces antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen.
Show a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection:
NK cells
unbroken skin
cilia in trachea
*lysozyme in saliva
all of these
Show primary lymphoid organ/s:
thymus
bursa of Fabricius.
bone marrow.
*all of the above are correct
all of the above are false
Stem cells arise from:
yolk sac.
foetal liver.
C. bone marrow.
D. *all of the above.
E. all of the above are wrong
1215.
TcRs are present in the cell membrane of:
A. all mature null cells
B. all mature lymphocytes
C. *all mature T lymphocytes
D. all mature monocytes
E. all mature K cells
1216.
Th2 cells are released one of the following substances. Choose it.
A. serotonin
B. gamma interferon
C. *Interleukin-6
D. TNF
E. beta interferon.
1217.
The antibody-binding site is formed primarily by
A. The constant regions of H and L chains
B. *The hypervariable regions of H and L chains
C. The hypervariable regions of H chains
D. The variable regions of H chains
E. The variable regions of L chains
1218.
The antigen binding specificity of an antibody is due to:
A. the constant regions of the light chains
B. the variable framework regions of the heavy & light chains
C. the variable regions of the heavy chains
D. *the hypervariable regions of both heavy & light chains
E. the constant regions of the heavy chains
1219.
The BEST method to demonstrate IgG on'the glomerular basement membrane in a kidney tissue
section is the
A. precipitin test
B. complement fixation test
C. agglutination test
D. *indirect fluorescent-antibody test
E. coagglutination test
1220.
The CD4 glycoprotein is found:
A. on all Tc lymphocytes
B. only on Th1 lymphocytes
C. *on all Th lymphocytes
D. on all NK cells
E. on all B lymphocytes
1221.
The class of immunoglobulin present in highest concentration in the blood of a human is
A. *IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgD
E. IgE
1222.
The class of immunoglobullin present in highest concentration in the blood of a human newborn
is
A. *IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgD
E. IgE
1223.
The class of immunoglobullin present in lowest concentration in the blood of a human is
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
1224.
1225.
1226.
1227.
1228.
1229.
1230.
1231.
1232.
1233.
D. IgD
E. *IgE
The effects of antibody on bacteria include each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Lysis of gram-negative bacteria in conjunction with complement
B. Enhancement of phagocytosis
C. *Inhibition of bacterial metabolism
D. Inhibition of adherence of bacteria to mucosal surfaces
E. Neutralization of toxins
The Fc region mediates all of the below EXCEPT binding to
A. host tissue.
B. various cells of the immune system.
C. some phagocytic cells.
D. lysosomes.
E. *all are correct.
The first tenet of clonal selection theory relies specifically on
A. combinatorial joinings.
B. somatic mutations.
C. variations in the splicing process.
D. *B-cell clones.
E. T-cell clones.
The fragment required for an IgG molecule to bind complement is
A. Fab
B. *Fc
C. Variable part of a L-chain
D. Variable part of a H-chain
E. Constant parts of the L-chains
Which fragment of an IgG molecule to bind complement ?
A. Fab
B. *Fc
C. Variable part of a L-chain
D. Variable part of a H-chain
E. Constant parts of the L-chains
The functional equivalent to the Bursa of Fabricius in humans is:
A. the spleen
B. the thymus
C. *the bone marrow
D. the appendix
E. GALT
The main function of lysozyme:
A. aggregates bacteria
B. captures free iron
C. *breaks down the bacterial cell wall
D. enhances phagocytosis
E. is antiviral
The main host defense against bacterial exotoxins is
A. Activated macrophages secreting proteases
B. *IgG and IgM neutralizing antibodies
C. Helper T cells
D. Modulation of host cell receptors in response to the toxin
E. Cleave exotoxins by antibodies
What mechanism of defense against bacterial exotoxins is main
A. Activated macrophages secreting proteases
B. *IgG and IgM neutralizing antibodies
C. Helper T cells
D. Modulation of host cell receptors in response to the toxin
E. Cleave exotoxins by antibodies
The most common type of circulating white cell is the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1234.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1235.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1236.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1237.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1238.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1239.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1240.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1241.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1242.
A.
B.
C.
*neutrophil
lymphocyte
basophil
eosinophil
monocyte
The portion of an antigen molecule that stimulates an antibody response is called the
specific receptor
*epitope
antibody determinant.
active center.
antigen binding place.
The single radial diffusion assay (Mancini technique) quantifies
antibodies.
*antigen.
immune complexes.
cytokines.
All of the above.
The TcR is found on:
all mature lymphocytes
*all mature T lymphocytes
all mature B lymphocytes
all NK cells
all monocytes
The thymus is considered to be:
*a primary lymphoid organ
a secondary lymphoid organ
a reticuloendothelial organ
a specialized lymph node
a complement producing organ
What are cells expressed CD3 surface antigen:
*T cells
В cells
monocytes
granulocytes
mast cells
What is function of T-killer cells?
*take part in antiviral immunity
allergy
autoimmunity
antibodies synthesis
all of these
What of the following are not organs of immune system?
*thyroid gland
spleen
lymph nodes
GALT
tonsil gland
Where do human T lymphocytes locate:
*Are found mainly in the cortex region of the lymph node.
Are found in the red .pulp of the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) of the spleen.
Make up 65-85% of the peripheral blood lymphocytes.
All of the above.
None of the above.
Which cells do antigen-presenting cells process antigen need to activation?
B-cells
T-killers
NK-cells
D. Mast cells
E. *T-helpers
1243.
Which do from following cell markers belong for B lymphocyte?
A. CD 38 marker.
B. CD 25 marker.
C. CD 4 marker.
D. CD 3 marker
E. *CD 19 marker.
1244.
Which do one of the following substances released by activated helper T cells can activate T
killers?
A. trasfer factor
B. *Gamma interferon
C. Interleukin- 6
D. Interleukin-4
E. lymphotoxin
1245.
Which do T cells activate the functions of B cells and other T cells.
A. Sensitized
B. *Helper
C. Cytotoxic
D. Natural killer
E. K cells
1246.
Which do T cells assist in the functions of certain B cells and other T cells.
A. Sensitized
B. Cytotoxic
C. *Helper
D. Natural killer
E. K cells
1247.
Which immunoglobulin is the primary antibody in saliva, tears, and intestinal and genital
secretions?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. *IgA
E. IgD
1248.
Which immunoglobulin mediates immediate hypersensitivity and is involved in immune
response to parasitic infections?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. *IgE
D. IgA
E. IgD
1249.
Which of the following are function of B-cells?
A. Proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells
B. Respond to antigens by making antibodies
C. Act as antigen-processing cells
D. *All of the above
E. None of the above
1250.
Which of the following cell types are known to have Fc receptors on their surface?
A. follicular dendritic cells
B. macrophages
C. basophils
D. eosinophils
E. *all of the above
1251.
Which of the following classes of MHC proteins are produced only by antigen presenting cells?
A. Class I
B. *Class II
C. Class III
D. Class II & Class III
E. Class I & Class III
1252.
Which of the following components of complement possess the binding site for the Fc portion of
IgG or IgM?
A. C1s
B. C9
C. *C1q
D. C3
E. C5
1253.
Which of the following cytokines does function as an endogenous pyrogen?
A. IL-2
B. *IL-1
C. IL-6
D. TNF
E. IFN
1254.
Which of the following pairs of cytokines could be said to have antagonistic activities?
A. IL-1 and TNF
B. IL-12 and IFN-gamma
C. *IL-10 and IFN-gamma
D. IL-4 and IL-5
E. IFN-gamma and IL-2
1255.
Which of the following statements concerning class II MHC proteins is noncorrect:
A. *They are found on the surface of both B and T cells
B. They have a high degree of polymorphism
C. They are involved in the presentation of antigen by macrophages
D. They have a binding site for CD4 proteins
E. They are main in succefull transplantation
1256.
Which of the following tests depends on the presence of protein A on certain strains of
Staphylococcus aureus?
A. Latex agglutination (LA)
B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
C. Enzyme multiplied immunoassay test (EMIT)
D. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (CIE)
E. *Coagglutination (COA)
1257.
Which of the following types of CD proteins is found only on T cytotoxic lymphocytes?
A. CD2
B. CD3
C. CD4
D. CD5
E. *CD8
1258.
Which one of the following statements concerning immunoglobulin allotypes is CORRECT?
A. Allotypes are found only on heavy chains
B. Allotypes are determined by class I MHC genes
C. Allotypes are confined to the variable regions
D. *Allotypes are due to genetic polymorphism within a species
E. Allotypes are found only on light chains
1259.
Which one of the following substances is NOT released by activated helper T cells?
A. *Alpha interferon
B. Gamma interferon
C. Interleukin-2
D. Interleukin-4
E. Interleukin-10
1260.
Which one of the following substances is released by activated killer T cells?
A. Alpha interferon
B. *Gamma interferon
C. Interleukin-5
D. Interleukin-4
1261.
1262.
1263.
1264.
1265.
1266.
1267.
1268.
1269.
1270.
E. Interleukin-10
Which substances can produce Th1 cells?
A. Alpha interferon
B. *Gamma interferon
C. Interleukin-5
D. Interleukin-6
E. bradikidin
Which type of antibody is MOST effective in activating complement?
A. IgE
B. IgG1
C. IgG2
D. IgG3
E. *IgM
A nosocomial infection is an infection
A. that can come from the patient's own normal flora.
B. acquired during hospitalization
C. always caused by medical personnel
D. a and b are correct.
E. *b and c are correct
All of following are the factors of transmission of an infection except:
A. water
B. *bacterium carrier
C. dirty hand
D. polluted foodstuff
E. soil
All the following are the factors of virulens, except:
A. aggressins;
B. hyaluronidase
C. fibrinolysin
D. lecithinasae
E. *flagella
Aminoglycosides can cause:
A. Inhibition of bacterial RNA polymerase
B. Inhibition of cross-linking of peptidoglycan
C. *Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit
D. Inhibition of folic acid synthesis
E. No correct answer
An antibiotic that disrupts the normal flora can cause
A. the teeth to turn brown
B. aplastic anemia
C. a superinfection
D. *disbacteriosis
E. hepatotoxicity
Antibiotic altering enzymes commonly cause resistance to which of the following?
A. Vancomycin
B. Trimethoprim
C. *Aminoglycosides
D. Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin)
E. All are correct
Bacteriemia is:
A. a state, when bacteria colonize many organs and tissues of an organism;
B. *a presence of viable bacteri in blood;
C. a state, when there are toxins of bacteria in the blood.
D. a long preservation of the infectious microbes in the organism;
E. a contamination of the organism by two or more causative agents.
Chloramphenicol can cause:
A. Inhibition of bacterial RNA polymerase
B.
C.
D.
E.
1271.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1272.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1273.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1274.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1275.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1276.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1277.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1278.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1279.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Inhibition of cross-linking of peptidoglycan
*Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit
Inhibition of folic acid synthesis
No correct answer
Choose the factors of transmission of an infection
sick human
bacterium carrier
sick animal
*polluted foodstuff
bacterial capsule
Choose the antiphagocytic factors of bacteria:
endotoxin
hyaluronidase
enterotoxins
*aggressins
haemolysin
Choose the factors of invasion:
urease
*enterotoxins
bacterial capsule
aggressins;
fibrinolysin
Choose the main properties of bacterial endotoxins:
proteins.
*lipopolysaccharide complex
is encoded by genes on the bacterium chromosom
have a tissue tropism
thermolabile
Choose the main properties of bacterial exotoxins:
*proteins.
lipopolysaccharide complex
polysaccharide substanses
have no a tissue tropism
thermostabile
Choose the source of an infection
soil
*sick person
dirty hand
mosquitoes
louses
Droplet nuclei are significant in the transmission of diseases of the:
digestive system,
reproductive system,
nervous system.
*respiratory system.
skin
Drug that prevent the formation of the bacterial cell wall are:
quinolons
*beta-lactams
tetracyclines
aminoglycosides
cloramphenicoles
Each of the following statements concerning penicillin is correct EXCEPT
The drug is bacteriostatic
The drug inhibits cell wall synthesis
The drug is made by a fungus
*The drug may destroy bacteria by activating their own autolysins
E. No correct answer
1280.
Each of the following statements concerning endotoxins is correct EXCEPT:
A. The toxicity of endotoxins is due to the lipid portion of the molecule
B. *Endotoxins are found in most gram-positive bacteria
C. Endotoxins are located in the cell wall
D. The antigenicity of somatic (O) antigen is due to repeating oligosaccharides
E. No correct answer
1281.
Each of the following statements concerning exotoxins is correct EXCEPT:
A. Exotoxins are polypeptides
B. Exotoxins are more easily inactivated by heat than are endotoxins
C. *Exotoxins are less toxic than the same amount of endotoxins
D. Exotoxins can be converted to toxoids
E. No correct answer
1282.
Each of the following statements regarding the selective action of antibiotics on bacteria is
correct EXCEPT:
A. Chloramphenicol affects the large subunit of the bacterial ribosome, which is different from the
large subunit of the human ribosome
B. Isoniazid affects the DNA polymerase of bacteria but not that of human cells
C. Sulfonamides affect folic acid synthesis in bacteria, a pathway that does not occur in human cells
D. *Penicillins affect bacteria rather than human cells because bacteria have a cell wall, whereas
human cells do not
E. No correct answer
1283.
Endotoxins
A. *all have the same effect
B. are found in both Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria
C. are part of the Gram-positive cell wall only
D. are heat labile
E. are proteins
1284.
Exotoxins are responsible for:
A. Fever
B. Inflammatory reactions
C. General intoxication
D. Decreasing of the blood pressure
E. *Specific action depending on the type of toxin
1285.
Formites are:
A. insect vectors.
B. animate objects.
C. an ancient tribe of Israel.
D. *inanimate objects.
E. biological vectors.
1286.
How can the virulence be increased?
A. *Transformation
B. disinfectant
C. antimicrobial preparation
D. immune sera
E. all are correct
1287.
Indicate the factors of transmission of an infection
A. sick human
B. bacterium carrier
C. sick animal
D. *polluted foodstuff
E. bacterial capsule
1288.
Indicate the source of an infection
A. soil
B. *sick person
C. dirty hand
D. mosquitoes
1289.
1290.
1291.
1292.
1293.
1294.
1295.
1296.
1297.
1298.
E. louses
Infection diseases are transmitted from its source. Choose the source of an infection
A. polluted foodstuff
B. different objects
C. *sick animal
D. mosquitoes
E. fly
All are correct EXCEPT:
A. Vancomycin acts by inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis
B. Quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, act by inhibiting the DNA gyrase of bacteria
C. *Erythromycin is a bactericidal drug that disrupts cell membranes by a detergentlike action
D. Aminoglycosides such as streptomycin are bactericidal drugs that inhibit protein synthesis
E. No correct answer
Penicillin G remains highly active against which of the following?
A. Enterococcus
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. *Neisseria meningitidis (meningococci)
D. Escherichia coli
E. All are correct
Penicillin inhibits bacteria because it:
A. Binds to D-alanyl- D-alanine in ribosomes.
B. Binds to D-alanyl- D-alanine in cell wall peptidoglycan precursors.
C. *Resembles D-alanyl-D-alanine and binds to cell wall synthesis enzymes.
D. Disrupts the inner membrane.
E. All answers are right
Penicillins can cause:
A. Inhibition of bacterial RNA polymerase
B. *Inhibition of cross-linking of peptidoglycan
C. Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit
D. Inhibition of folic acid synthesis
E. No correct answer
People get diseases mostly from:
A. their pets.
B. water
C. *other people
D. food
E. air
Persistence is the state of:
A. *an occult form of disease without clinical sings;
B. a long preservation of the infectious microbes in the organism;
C. a contamination of the organism by two or more causative agents.
D. a state, when bacteria colonize many organs and tissues of an organism;
E. a presence of viable bacteria blood;
R factor are__________that contain a code for _______
A. genes, replication
B. *plasmids, drug resistance
C. transposons, interferon
D. plasmids, conjugation
E. IS elements, mutation
Reinfection is:
A. *a repeated infection by the same species of microorganisms responsible for the disease which
terminated in convalescence;
B. a repeated infection of an organism, when main disease has not ended;
C. a state, when an infectious disease is spread to entire countries or continents
D. a state, when bacteria colonize many organs and tissues of an organism;
E. a presence of viable bacteria blood;
Ribosomal resistance is a cause of resistance to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*Streptomycin
Vancomycin
Sulfonamides
Imipenem
All are correct
1299.
Rifampin can cause:
A. *Inhibition of bacterial RNA polymerase
B. Inhibition of cross-linking of peptidoglycan
C. Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit
D. Inhibition of folic acid synthesis
E. No correct answer
1300.
Select the ONE lettered option that MOST closely associated with inhibition of folic acid
synthesis
A. Penicillins
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Rifampin
E. *Sulfonamides
1301.
Select the ONE lettered option that MOST closely associated with inhibition of bacterial RNA
polymerase:
A. Penicillins
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Chloramphenicol
D. *Rifampin
E. Sulfonamides
1302.
Select the ONE lettered option that MOST closely associated with inhibition of cross-linking of
peptidoglycan
A. *Penicillins
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Rifampin
E. Sulfonamides
1303.
Show virulent factor which can cause splitting connective tissue of a host?
A. Plasmocoagulase
B. IgA protease
C. Fibrinolysine
D. *Hyaluronidase
E. Hemolysine
1304.
Sulfonamides can cause:
A. Inhibition of bacterial RNA polymerase
B. Inhibition of cross-linking of peptidoglycan
C. Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit
D. *Inhibition of folic acid synthesis
E. No correct answer
1305.
Sulfonamides drugs initially disrupt which process?
A. *folic acid synthesis
B. transcription
C. enzymes production
D. protein synthesis
E. polysaccharides
1306.
The antiphagocytic factors of bacteria are
A. endotoxin;
B. bacterial capsule
C. hyaluronidase;
D. plasmocoagulase;
E. *B and D
1307.
The bacterial structure that mediates adherence is the
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1308.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1309.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1310.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1311.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1312.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1313.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1314.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1315.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1316.
A.
B.
C.
Flagellum
Endotoxin
*Pilus
Peptidoglycan
Cell wall
The bacterial structure that mediates adherence is the
Flagellum
Endotoxin
*Pilus
Peptidoglycan
Cell wall
The beta-lactamase of Staphylococcus aureus inactivates which of the following?
Oxacillin
Methicillin
*Ampicillin
Vancomycin
Vancomycin
The biological effects of endotoxin include each of the following EXCEPT:
Fever
Activation of the coagulation cascade
Hypotension
*Opsonization
Diarrhea
The effects of endotoxin include each of the following EXCEPT:
*Opsonization
Fever
Activation of the coagulation cascade
Hypotension
No correct answer
The MIC is the _____________of drug that is required to inhibit growth of a microbe
a largest concentration
standard dose
*smallest concentration
lowest dilution
beginning concentration
Vancomycin inhibits bacteria because it:
*binds to peptidoglycan precursors ending in D-alanine-D-alanine
binds to ribosomal subunits ending in D-alanine-D-alanine
inhibits protein synthesis
disrupts the inner membrane
all are correct
Virulence can be decreased by all ways, except:
*transduction
disinfectant
lysogenic conversion
antimicrobial preparation
high temperatures
Virulence can be increased by
*Transformation
Disinfectant
antimicrobial preparation
immune sera
all are correct
What does mean ‘inhibitory concentration (MIC)’?
*Most concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a particular pathogen.
Lowest drug concentration that kills the pathogen
Lowest concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a particular pathogen.
1317.
1318.
1319.
1320.
1321.
1322.
1323.
1324.
1325.
1326.
D. Drug concentration required for clinical treatment of a particular infection
E. Most drug concentration that kills the pathogen
What is the antiphagocytic factors of bacteria:
A. endotoxin
B. hyaluronidase
C. *plasmocoagulase
D. pillus
E. haemolysin
What is the main properties of bacterial exotoxins:
A. lipids.
B. lipopolysaccharide complex
C. is encoded by genes on the bacterium chromosom
D. *have a tissue tropism
E. thermostabile
Which of following is the source of an infection?
A. soil
B. *sick person
C. dirty hand
D. mosquitoes
E. louses
Which of following bacterial structures are known to formation drug resistance?
A. bacterial enzymes
B. *plasmids
C. bacterial chromosome
D. cytoplasm
E. ribosome
Which of the following antibiotics interfere with protein synthesis?
A. Aminoglycosides (or tetracyclines, erythromycin, clindamycin)
B. Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin)
C. Rifampin
D. *Tetracyclines
E. All are correct
Which of the following antibiotics interfere with folic acid synthesis?
A. Aminoglycosides (or tetracyclines, erythromycin, clindamycin)
B. Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin)
C. *Sulfonamides
D. Rifampin
E. Cephalosporins
Which of the following antibiotics interfere with cell wall synthesis?
A. erythromycins (tetracyclines, aminoglycosides)
B. sulfonamides
C. penicillins
D. pyrimethamine
E. *Cephalosporins
Which of the following antibiotics interfere with DNA replication?
A. erythromycins (tetracyclines, aminoglycosides)
B. sulfonamides
C. *Fluoroquinolones
D. Pyrimethamine
E. Penicillin
Which of the following are narrow spectrum drugs?
A. Vancomycin and Cephalosporins
B. Cephalosporins and Aztreonam
C. *Aztreonam and Vancomycin
D. Tetracycline and Vancomycin
E. All are correct
Which of the following has little if any activity against gram-negative bacteria?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
ampicillin
aminoglycosides
cephalosporins
*oxacillin
chloramphenical
1327.
Which of the following is a beta lactamase inducer?
A. chloramphenicol
B. *cephalosporin
C. aminoglycoside
D. quinolone
E. sulfonamide
1328.
Which of the following is considered a beta-lactam?
A. vancomycin
B. *imipenem
C. azithromycin
D. pyrimethamine
E. All are correct
1329.
Which one of the following BEST describes the mode of action of endotoxin?
A. Degrades lecithin in cell membranes
B. Inactivates elongation factor 2
C. Blocks release of acetylcholine
D. *Causes the release of biologically active mediators, responsible for shock reaction
E. No correct answer
1330.
Which one of the following has little if any activity against Gram-negative bacilli?
A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
B. Fluoroquinolone
C. *Vancomycin
D. Cephalosporin
E. Aztreonam
1331.
Which statement is MOST accurate regarding the aminoglycosides?
A. It is bacteriostatic
B. *It inhibits protein synthesis
C. It prevents formation of folic acid
D. It inhibits DNA synthesis
E. No correct answer
1332.
Which virulent factor from following capable of splitting connective tissue of a host?
A. Plasmocoagulase
B. *Hyaluronidase
C. IgA protease
D. Fibrinolysine
E. Hemolysine
Situation tasks
1. Your patient is a child who has no detectable T and B cells. This immunodeficiency is most probably
the result of a defect in:
A. the bursal equivalent
B. T cell-B cell interaction
C. stem cells originating in the bone marrow
D. phagocytosis
E. *stem cells originating in the bone marrow
2. If we don’t detect in child T and B cells, this immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect
in:
A. the thymus
B. T cell-B cell interaction
C. phagocytosis
D. the bursal equivalent
E. *stem cells originating in the bone marrow
3. If an individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be affected?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgG and IgM
E. *IgM and IgA
4. When a substance is added to a solid medium which inhibits the growth of unwanted bacteria but
permits the growth of wanted bacteria, this is such medium:
A. basal media.
B. enrichment medium.
C. enriched medium.
D. differential medium.
E. *selective medium.
5. When a substance is added to a liquid medium which inhibits the growth of unwanted bacteria and
favours the growth of wanted bacteria, it is known as:
A. selective medium.
B. enriched medium.
C. differential medium.
D. basal media.
E. *enrichment medium.
6. Choose among listed the period of microbial growth curve when microorganisms are growing and
dividing at the maximal rate:
A. lag phase.
B. stationary phase.
C. decline phase.
D. maximum phase
E. *log phase.
7. If a person were rushed to the hospital in anaphylactic shock from a bee sting, which antibodies would
be found in the highest amount?
A. IgD
B. IgG
C. IgA
D. IgM
E. *IgE
8. If you are of a particular blood type, that means that you have no antibodies against the antigens present
on your blood cells. What kind of antibodies are you missing?
A. IgG
B. IgE
C. IgD
D. IgA
E. *IgM
9. In systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), autoantibodies are primarily made against which of the
following?
A. neurons
B. RNA
C. blood cells
D. dermis
E. *DNA
10. Cell-associated differentiation antigens (CDs) are functional cell surface proteins or receptors that can
be measured in situ.
A. In normal individuals the concentration of these molecules in serum is always low.
B. Thousands of CDs have been characterized.
C. All of the above are true.
D. None of the above are true.
E. *Detecting these soluble molecules may help in the management of disease.
11. Desensitization to an allergen involves injection of the allergen beneath the skin to induce production of
which of the following immunoglobulins?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM
E. *IgG
12. Monochromatic (one color) light is sometimes used to increase the resolution of light microscopes.
Light of which color below would give you the best resolution?
A. Red
B. Orange
C. Green
D. Yellow
E. *Blue
13. The process by which bacteriophage P1 packages random phage-genome-sized pieces into phage heads
and thereby allows transfer of pieces of the bacterial chromosomal DNA between bacteria is called:
A. Nongeneral transposition
B. Specialized transduction
C. High-frequency recombination
D. Reverse conjugation
E. *Generalized transduction
14. The portion of the lipopolysaccharide molecule that varies the most among different bacteria and thus
exhibits antigenic differences is the:
A. Lipid A.
B. Core polysaccharide.
C. Dipicolinic acid.
D. Exotoxin component.
E. *Side polysaccharide chain.
15. The steps leading to the synthesis of peptidoglycan occur in the cytoplasm, on the cytoplasmic
membrane, and extracellularly. Which antibiotic inhibits peptidoglycan biosynthesis?
A. Cycloserine
B. Rifampin
C. Bacitracin
D. Streptomycin
E. *Penicillin
16. Amino acids are found in the protein, peptidoglycan,and capsule of bacteria. Which of the following
amino acids is found only in peptidoglycan?
A. L-Lysine
B. D-Glutamate
C. L-Alanine
D. None of the above
E. *Diaminopimelic acid
17. The ability to use compounds and ions other than oxygen as terminal oxidants in respiration is a
widespread microbial trait.This capacity is called:
A. Photosynthesis
B. Fermentation
C. Substrate phosphorylation
D. Nitrogen fixation
E. *Anaerobic respiration
18. Material from a patient with suspicion on shigellosis (dysentery) was inoculated on the Ploskirev’s
medium. What color do colonies of lactose-negative Shigella have?
A. dark blue
B. green
C. red with metallic hue
D. brown
E. *colorless
19. A child stung by a bee experiences respiratory distress within minutes and lapses into unconsciousness.
This reaction is probably mediated by
A. IgG .antibody
B. sensitized T cell
C. complement
D. IgM antibody
E. *IgE antibody
20. After inoculation of Escherichia coli on Ploskirev’s medium the growth of bacteria is inhibited. What
chemical does predetermine this phenomenon?
A. oxalic acid
B. sodium sulphite
C. *brilliant green
D. Bismuth salts
E. fuchsin
F.
21. Material from a patient with suspicion on an intestinal infection was inoculated on the Ploskirev’s
medium. What color do colonies of Escherichia coli have?
A. dark blue
B. colorless
C. *rose
D. brown
E. green
22. Material from a patient with suspicion on colienteritis was inoculated on Endo’s medium. What color do
colonies of Escherichia coli have?
A. blue
B. colorless
C. *red with metallic hue
D. brown
E. green
23. What color does acquire the semi-solid Giss’s media with the indicators water blue and rosolic acid
there is sugar utilization?
A. red
B. green
C. *dark blue
D. brown
E. a color does not change
24. After inoculation of the patient’s faces on Endo’s medium there were grown to types of colonies: one –
red with metallic hue, other - colorless. To what group of nutrient media does Endo’s medium belong
to?
A. *Differential diagnostic
B. Elective
C. Enriching media
D. Universal
E. Selective
25. Energy which is generated by a cell exists in the form of electrochemical transmembrane gradient of
hydrogen ions - ?µН+ or in ATP molecules. What is the mechanism of transformation of one type of
energy into another?
A. electronic ATF-synthesizing complex
B. *proton ATF-synthesizing complex
C. molecular ATF-synthesizing complex
D. all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
26. For checking the quality of filters in an experiment a fluid containing test-microbe was filtered. Later a
filter was laid on the surface of nutrient medium and put into the incubator. How much time is it
necessary to hold it on medium to give a final answer about its quality?
A. 1 day at an optimum temperature
B. optimum temperature, 2 days
C. optimum temperature, 3 days
D. optimum temperature, 4 days
E. *at an optimum temperature, 5 day
27. It is necessary to study ability of microbes to utilize glucose, saccharose, lactose, production of
hydrogen sulphide and utilization of urea. What nutrient media will you recommend?
A. Ru’s medium
B. Leffler’s medium
C. Endo’s medium
D. Ploskirev’s medium
E. *Olkenitsky’s medium
28. Laboratory diagnosis of tetanus was made in the laboratory. What method of sterilization is it necessary
to use for killing the selected cultures?
A. *Autoclaving
B. Boiling
C. Tindalizatio
D. In the heat oven
E. Pasteurization
29. Material from a patient with suspicion on typhoid fever was inoculated on Endo’s medium. What color
do colony of lactosonegative Salmonella typhi have?
A. dark blue
B. *colorless
C. red with metallic hue
D. brown
E. green
30. Material from a patient with suspicion on dysentery was inoculated on Endo’s medium. What color do
colony of lactosonegative Shigella have?
A. dark blue
B. green
C. red with metallic hue
D. brown
E. *colorless
31. On the Endo’s medium colonies Escherichia and Salmonella were isolated. According to what signs is it
possible to make differentiation between them?
A. sizes
B. character of the edges
C. character of surfaces
D. consistency
E. *color
32. Salmonella typhi, which utilizes glucose to acid was inoculated in Ressel’s medium. What changes will
be observed in nutrient medium, which verify utilization of glucose?
A. *Changes of the color from a pinky to dark blue in the column of agar
B. Changes of the color from a pinky to dark blue of the slant surface of agar
C. Changes of the color from a pinky to red of the slant surface of agar
D. Changes of the color from a pinky to dark blue in the column of agar and slant part of agar
E. Changes of the color from a pinky to red in the column of agar
33. Some microorganisms lost their capacity for a synthesis of some necessary growth factors, therefore
they do not can grow on minimum nutrient media. They are called:
A. *auxotrophs
B. paratrophs
C. prototrophs
D. myxotrophs
E. oligotrophs
34. The wild bacteria are able to synthesize all necessary for them substances from a limited number of
organic compounds, for example, from glucose and ammonium salts. They are called:
A. auxotrophs
B. paratrophs
C. *prototrophs
D. myxotrophs
E. oligotrophs
35. What indicator may be added into nutrient medium for cultivation of anaerobes, which can testify
expedience of its use for inoculation of tested material?
A. Fuchsine
B. Brilliant green
C. Methylene green
D. *Methylene blue
E. Fenolrot
36. In a pharmacy it is necessary to sterilize the small bottles with physiological sodium chloride solution
for injection. What method is it necessary to apply for their sterilization?
A. *in an autoclave, 2 atmospheres
B. in an autoclave by fluid steam
C. in a heat oven
D. by X-ray
E. by ultraviolet light
37. Because of ill-timed treatment of pulpitis lower jaw osteomyelitis has developed in patient. What
examination is it necessary to carry out for identification of causative agents and to choose effective
preparation for treatment?
A. Complex serological examination
B. To examine the presence of proper antibodies
C. Microscopic examination of the pus
D. To examine bacterial antigens
E. *To isolate bacterial pure culture and examine its susceptibility to antibiotics
38. Escherichia coli was inoculated in Ressel’s medium. What changes will be observed in nutrient medium,
which verify utilization of glucose and lactose?
A. Changes of the color from a pinky to dark blue in the column of agar
B. Changes of the color from pinky to dark blue of the slant surface of agar
C. Changes of the color from a pinky to red of the slant surface of agar
D. *Changes of the color from a pinky to dark blue in the column of agar and slant surface of agar
E. Changes of the color from a pinky to red of the column of agar
39. For examination of lipolytic properties of microbes lipids and lipid-like substances – tweens – are
supplemented into the medium. According to what signs is it possible to check the lipolytic activity of
bacteria?
A. The colonies of bacteria lose their typical form
B. *Bacteria form iridescent halos round the colonies
C. The colonies of bacterium are painted in the color of indicator
D. The colonies of bacteria become semilucent
E. If microbes lipolytic properties they do not grow on an medium
40. In a bacteriological laboratory it is necessary to nutrient media, which contain matters, changing at a
temperature higher then 100 °С (urea, carbohydrates, proteins). What method of sterilization can you
offer?
A. *by live steam
B. autoclave, pressed steam
C. boiling
D. tindalization
E. pasteurization
41. In a hospital chief of department decided to check the quality of instruments sterilization in an autoclave
by biological method. What bacteria can be used for this test?
A. Pathogenic
B. Capsule-forming
C. Acid fast
D. *Spore-forming
E. Thermophilic
42. In a laboratory for acceleration of sterilization of media with sugar by live steam this procedure was
made in one day: in the morning, in the day-time and in the evening for 30 min. How it was necessary to
sterilize these media correctly?
A. To sterilize 1 hour
B. To sterilize 15 minutes
C. To sterilize 45 minutes
D. *To sterilize three times with 24 hour interval
E. To sterilize twice for a days
43. In MPB it is necessary to check the peptolytic properties of bacteria. How is it possible to prove, if
microbes produces the hydrogen sulphide?
A. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with the lead acetate; the hydrogen sulphide is changed its
color, it becomes red
B. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with the lead acetate; the hydrogen sulphide is changed its
color, it becomes dark blue
C. *to insert the indicator paper, saturated with a lead acetate; the hydrogen sulphide is changed its
color, it becomes black
D. the color of medium becomes greyish
E. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with an oxalic acid; the hydrogen sulphide is changed by
its color, it becomes black
44. In MPB it is necessary to verify the peptolytic properties of bacteria. What signs will show the positive
results – indole production?
A. to insert the indicator, saturated with a litmus; an indole is changed its color, it becomes red
B. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with an oxalic acid; an indole is changed its color, it
becomes dark blue
C. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with a litmus; a indole is changed its color, it becomes
dark blue
D. the color of medium becomes rose
E. *to insert the indicator paper, saturated with an oxalic acid; a indole is changed by its color, it
becomes rose
45. What changes will be observed in a Olkenitsky’s medium, if Escherichia coli will confirm utilization of
glucose and lactose?
A. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow in the column of agar
B. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of slant surface of agar
C. The changes of the color from a pinky to red of slant surface of agar
D. *The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of the column of agar and slant surface of agar
E. The changes of the color from a pinky to red of the column of agar
46. In Olkenitsky’s medium Escherichia coli was inoculated. What changes will be observed in a medium,
which will confirm utilization of glucose and lactose?
A. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow in the column of agar
B. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of slant surface of agar
C. The changes of the color from a pinky to red of slant surface of agar
D. *The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of the column of agar and slant surface of agar
E. The changes of the color from a pinky to red of the column of agar
47. It is necessary to check the quality of sterilization by compressed steam at 121 °С. What chemical
indicator of sterilization effectiveness may be used?
A. benzonaphtolum
B. antipyrine
C. sulphur
D. *benzoic acid
E. urea
48. It is necessary to check the quality of sterilization by compressed steam at 110 °С sterilization. What
chemical indicator of sterilization quality can be utilized?
A. *benzonaphtolum
B. antipyrine
C. sulphur
D. benzoic acid
E. urea
49. It is necessary to check the quality of sterilization by compressed steam at 115 °С. What chemical
indicator of sterilization quality can be utilized?
A. benzonaphtolum
B. *antipyrine
C. sulphur
D. benzoic acid
E. urea
50. It is necessary to check the quality of sterilization by compressed steam at 132 °С. What chemical
indicator of sterilization quality can be utilized?
A. benzonaphtolum
B. antipyrine
C. sulphur
D. benzoic acid
E. *urea
51. It is necessary to make biochemical identification and examine saccharolytic properties of bacteria.
What media could you offer?
A. Veynberg’s medium
B. Zeisscler’s medium
C. *Giss’ media
D. Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium
E. Milk
52. The pure culture of microorganisms grows and develops at presence of oxygen in an atmosphere (no
less what 20 % oxygen). What group of microorganisms according to their respiration does this culture
belong to?
A. *Obligate aerobes
B. Obligate anaerobes
C. Facultative anaerobes
D. Microaerophilic bacteria
E. Capneic bacteria
53. What chemicals can you offer for separation of staphylococci and bacilli from other microbes according
to biological principle?
A. magnesium sulfate
B. aluminium nitrate
C. ascetic lead
D. oxalic acid
E. *7,5-10 % sodium chloride
54. What is it necessary to take into consideration during collection of tested material for isolation of
anaerobic causative agents?
A. Warning neutralizing effect of antibodies
B. *Warning toxic effect of oxygen
C. Warning influence of disinfectants
D. Warning changes of tinctorial properties
E. Warning changes of serologic properties
55. What substance must be added into nutrient medium for examination of bacterial proteolytic properties?
A. Agar-agar
B. *Gelatin
C. Agarose
D. All answers are correct
E. All answers are wrong
56. After filtration of 2 l water onto filter grew 4 grey and 6 red colonies of bacteria. What are coli-titre and
coli-index of such water. Choose the correct answer:
A. 50 and 20
B. 125 and 8
C. 250 and 4
D. *330 and 3
E. 500 and 2
57. Research of drinking-water quality is conducted in a bacteriological laboratory. The general microbal
number appeared near to 100. What microorganisms were taken into account here?
A. Enteropatogenic bacteria and viruses.
B. Colibacilli.
C. Pathogenic for people and animals bacteria.
D. Nonpathogenic microorganisms.
E. *All of bacteria which grew onto medium
58. The air condition of in an operating-room before an operation is examinate by sedimentation method. 5
rounded colonies with the hemolytic zone round them were visible. What medium is used?
A. *Blood MPA
B. MPA
C. Endo
D. YSA
E. Levin’s
59. A examination of air bacterial contamination includes an account the total number microorganisms in a
certain amount and qualitative composition of microflora. What microorganisms are sanitary -indicated
for indoor air?
A. *Staphylococcus aureus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Yeast fungi
E. mold fungi
60. According to the requirements of Pharmacopoeia and WHO a number of bacteria and fungi allowed in
various non-sterile dosage. How many saprophytic bacteria and fungi in 1 g (ml) of oral drugare safety
guarantee?
A. *1000 bacteria and100 mold fungi
B. 500 bacteria and 50 mold fungi
C. 250 bacteria and 25 mold fungi
D. 500 and 200 bacteria, mold fungi
E. 1500 bacteria and 150 mold fungi
61. Bacteriological control of non-sterile drugs involves the possible presence of a small number of groups
of microorganisms. What of following microbes is possible presence in non-sterile drugs?
A. *sarcina
B. E.coli
C. Ps. aeruginosa
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. hemolytic streptococcus
62. Doctor prescribes the patient drug to prevent intestinal disbacteriosis when receiving antibiotic therapy.
What drugs is used to save normal microflora?
A. Sulphanilamides
B. *Eubiotics
C. Interferon
D. Antifungal
E. Nitrophuranes.
63. During bacteriological examination of the air condition in a chemist's appartment where manufactured
injection forms of drugs, five small rounded colonies with hemolysis zone around them were detected
by sedimentation method. What is medium use for?
A. *blood agar.
B. Endo’s medium
C. MPA.
D. yolk -salt agar.
E. Levin’s medium.
64. During the bacteriological control of air in chemist shop were isolated B. cereus, M. luteus, yeast,
hemolytic streptococci. Which of these microbes are sanitary indicated microorganisms?
A. *hemolytic streptococci
B. B. cereus
C. M. luteus
D. yeast
E. all of them
65. During the bacteriological examination for check of bacterial carier amoung pharmacy workers bacteria
of the genus Staphylococcus were isolated from nasopharynx. What morphological characteristic of this
microbes?
A. *grape like cluster
B. cells arranged in chain
C. cells arranged singles
D. location of cell pairs
E. group of four
66. For air sampling in a pharmacy, a bacteriologist used Krotov’s apparatus. What of the following
methods is used for investigation of the air?
A. *aspiration
B. membrane filters
C. Termoprecipitation
D. Sedimentation
E. vacuum
67. For microbacteriological control of herbal raw materials was ranked at various differential-diagnostic
media. What are the microorganisms that cause plant diseases can not be defined in such research?
A. *Viruses
B. Bacteria
C. Mycoplasma
D. Fungi
E. actinomycetes
68. In the chemist shop the presence of pathogenic microorganisms in the air may be provided by the
presence of sanitary-indicative bacteria. Choose among the listed bacteria, which are indicate direct
epidemiological danger:
A. *hemolytic streptococci
B. Sarcina
C. Moulds
D. yeasts
E. micrococcus
69. Laboratory staff conducted compliance sanitary and epidemic profile in the pharmacy, particularly in its
aseptic room. They have studied the air. What air microorganisms are sanitary -indicative in the
pharmacy?
A. *Staphylococcus aureus and hemolytic streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermal
C. Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus saprofitnyy
D. epidermal hemolytic streptococcus and staphylococcus
E. Saprofitnyy hemolytic streptococcus and staphylococcus
70. Medicines which contain protein were ssterilized during a week at temperature 55 ?C a hour every day.
What is method of sterilizaation used?
A. *Tindalization.
B. Boiling
C. Pasterization
D. by flame.
E. fluid steam.
71. On the plantation of medicinal plants a disease spread in which one the leaves are formed yellow spots
and areas of necrosis. Juice of diseased plants retains infectivity during passage through a bacterial
filter, but it plated on nutrient media the growth agent is not found. Which group of pathogenic
microorganisms most likely belongs strain of the disease?
A. *Viruses
B. Fungi
C. Actinomycetes
D. Bacteria
E. Mycoplasma
72. Phytopathogenic bacteria cause diseases of plants, leading to deterioration of medical plants. Name the
main location in the environment phytopathogenic microbes?
A. *Soil
B. Water
C. air
D. Animals
E. Insects
73. Plant material should be examined for the presence yeast. What meduim should be used for cultivation
of these microorganisms, but inhibit growth of concomitant microflora?
A. *Saburo agar
B. Endo agar
C. meat pepton agar
D. Milk-salt agar
E. blood agar
74. Preliminary disinfection of air and working equipment surfaces was did in aseptic box befor making
drugs which are used for internal administration. What is the preferable method of sterilization use?
A. *UV sterilization
B. fluid steam
C. sterilization by radiation
D. boiling
E. by formalin
75. Preparation of many drugs requires strict aseptic conditions. One of the sources of drugs contamination
by microorganisms of laboratory glasswar . Which method of sterilization is the best one?
A. *dry heat
B. through flame
C. boiling
D. Tyndalizatsiya
E. pasteurization
76. Pure culture of gram-negative bacteria was obtained from drug by bacteriological examination. What
medium is used to examine the biochemical properties of bacteria by their enzymatic activity?
A. *differential diagnostic
B. elective
C. meat-peptone agar
D. meat pepton broth
E. semi solid agar
77. Quality of medicines includes some indicators. One of them is bacteriological purity. Which of
following drugs which contain more saprophytic bacteria compared to other forms of?
A. *extract
B. Aerosols
C. suppository
D. Eye drops
E. solutions for injection
78. Results of microbacteriological examinations of black mint leaves extract is bad according to the
requirements of Pharmacopoeia because pathogenic microflora identified. Indicate this pathogenic
microflora:
A. *Ps.aeruginosa
B. yeast
C. epidermal staphylococcus
D. mold fungi
E. micrococcus
79. Solutions made in the pharmacy inoculated on medium to detect of microbial contamination. On Endo
medium red colonies with metallic blisten grew . What it can be microbes?
A. *Escherihia
B. Shigella
C. Staphylococcus
D. streptococci
E. Salmonella
80. Tablet medication after bacteriological examination was found unsuitable for use, although its overall
microbial contamination does not exceed the norm. Detecting of what microorganisms in the sample
allowed to make such a conclusion?
A. *Enterobacteriaceae
B. mold
C. Actinomycetes
D. micrococcus
E. Sarcina
81. The child is six months doctor has ordered drug for oral administration. What is the maximum number
of bacteria and fungi is acceptable 1g of the drug according the requirements of WHO and the
Pharmacopoeya?
A. *Not more than 50 total bacteria and fungi
B. is not more than 500 bacteria and fungi summarily
C. Not more than 1000 bacteria and fungi total
D. Not more than 1000 bacteria and 100 fungi
E. Not more than 500 bacteria and fungi
82. The medicinal plants have uncharacteristic for it proliferation: lateral shoots (witches broom), the
cessation of fruiting and number of other signs of infection. What a group of phytopathogenic microbe
can cause such changes?
A. *mycoplasma
B. fungi
C. actinomycetes
D. viruses
E. viroids
83. The medicinal product for intenal using contains more than 1 billion living microbial cells in 1 ml.
Nevertheless, the drug was found suitable for use. Which group of drugs its true for?
A. *eubiotics
B. antibiotics
C. vitamins
D. sulfonamide
E. immunoglobulin
84. The pharmaceutical company received raw plants for the manufacture of medications. What
microbacteriological tests should be used for the quality of this raw material?
A. *The total number of microorganisms in 1 g of raw
B. Coli -titre
C. Coli -index
D. antibacterial activity
E. Pyrogenecity
85. The pharmacy prescription ear drops prepared. What is the maximum number microbial cells is allowed
in 1 ml of drops in accordance with WHO and Pharmacopoeya?
A. *No more than 100
B. 50 or
C. Not more than 1000
D. Less than 500
E. Not more than 150
86. The phytopathogenic microorganisms was selected from medicinal plants, forming colonies as "fried
eggs" on a nutrient medium. What are microbes?
A. *Mycoplasma
B. yeast
C. Actinomycetes
D. Nokardia
E. Pseudomonas
87. To treat eczema, a doctor ordered the patient the drug, which should be used transdermally. What is the
maximum amount of microbial acceptable 1y this means, in accordance with the requirements of WHO
and the Pharmacopoeya?
A. *100 bacteria and fungi summarily
B. 100 bacteria and 50 fungi
C. 1000 bacteria and fungi
D. 100 bacteria and 100 fungi
E. 500 bacteria and fungi
88. A previously healthy 8-year old presents with a large boil (carbuncle) at the back of his neck. Gram
stain from incision and drainage reveals sheets of polymorphonuclear leukocytes and gram-positive
cocci in clusters. Pending susceptibility testing in the laboratory, which of the following would be the
most appropriate antimicrobial therapy?
A. *Oxacillin
B. Penicillin G
C. Tetracycline
D. Gentamicin
E. Aztreonam
89. Chemical modification of benzylpenicillin (penicillin G) has resulted in several beneficial changes in the
clinical use of this drug. Which one of the following is NOT one of those beneficial changes?
A. Lowered frequency of anaphylaxis
B. Increased activity against gram-negative rods
C. *Increased resistance to stomach acid
D. Reduced cleavage by penicillinase
E. No correct answer
90. Corynebacteria diphtheria strain without a tox-gene was cultivated into the media with temperate phage.
After several passages toxigenic strain of C.diphtheria was isolated. It arose due to following type of
recombination (choose from the list one correct answer):
A. *Transduction
B. Conjugation
C. DNA transformation
D. Transposition
E. No correct answer
91. During an outbreak of gastrointestinal disease caused by an Escherichia coli strain sensitive to
ampicillin, tetracycline, and chloramphenicol, a stool sample from one patient yields E. coli with the
same serotype resistant to the three antibiotics. This phenomenon is the most closely associated with the
next process:
A. Transduction
B. *Conjugation
C. DNA transformation
D. Transposition
E. No correct answer
92. Some bacterial enzymes belong to invasion factors and play important role in the pathogen spreading
from the portal of entry. Choose from the list culture media for detection bacterial hemolysins:
A. MPB
B. MPA
C. *Blood agar
D. Salt yolk agar
E. No correct answer
93. Each of the following statements concerning the variable regions of heavy chains and the variable
regions of light chains in a given antibody molecule is correct EXCEPT:
A. *They have the same amino acid sequence
B. They define the specificity for antigen
C. They are encoded on different chromosomes
D. They contain the hypervariable regions
E. They bind with epitop
94. Which one of the immunoglobulins BEST fits the following description: It is found in plasma as a dimer
with a J chain. As it passes through mucosal cells, it acquires a secretory piece that protects it from
degradation by proteases.
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. *IgA
D. IgD
E. IgE
95. Your patient became ill 10 days ago with a viral disease. Laboratory examination reveals that the
patient's antibodies against this virus have a high ratio of IgM to IgG. What is your conclusion?
A. *It is unlikely that the patient has encountered this organism previously
B. The patient is predisposed to IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions
C. The patient has encountered this organism previosly
D. It is likely that the patient has an autoimmune disease
E. The patient has chronic viral disease
96. A latex-agglutination test is one of variants of indirect agglutination which is widely used for the
diagnostics of bacterial meningitis of different etiology, hepatitis, etc. What can it find out by this test?
A. antibodies in the blood serum, urine
B. autoantibodies in serum
C. *bacterial, viral antigens in a serum, urine, CSF.
D. incomplete antibodies in serum
E. incomplete antibodies on red blood cells
97. Salmonella typhi murium was isolated from the patient with acute gastroenteritis. What serologic
reaction was used for identify an antigen structure of this bacteria?
A. *Agglutination test
B. Complement fixation test
C. Neutralization test
D. Precipitation test
E. Opsonization test
98. A 2-year-old child suffers of recurrent staphylococcal infections arrives at the emergency department at
the local hospital. His neutrophils show normal chemotaxis, degranulation, and phagocytosis. However,
intracellular killing of staphylococci by the neutrophils is severely impaired. Myeloperoxidase activity
of his neutrophils is normal. The child has no history of streptococcal infection. Which of the following
is the most likely disease affecting this patient?
A. rheumatoid arthritis
B. Graves disease
C. *chronic granulomatous disease
D. severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)
E. systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
99. A 20-year-old girl suddenly experiences severe dyspnea after the consumption of fish at a local
restaurant. Upon arrival at the local emergency room she is found to be severely hypotensive and in
respiratory distress.Urticarial wheals are also noted all over her body. As the resident physician you
quickly realize this to be a hypersensitivity reaction.Physical examination reveals severe laryngeal
edema resulting in a marked hoarseness when the 20-year-old girl attempts to speak. Also,her lips and
tongue show significant swelling.Which of the following chemicals most likely caused this edematous
swelling?
A. corticosteroids
B. cromolyn sodium
C. epinephrine
D. *histamine
E. 5-lipoxygenase
100.
A 25-year-old female presents to her doctor’s office with a rash over the malar eminences of her
face, sparing the nasolabial folds; a skin rash due to exposure to sunlight; and painless nasopharyngeal
ulcers. Suspecting an autoimmune disorder, her physician obtains an anti-nuclear antibody test of her
blood and finds high titers of anti-ouble-stranded DNA anti-bodies. Which one of the following diseases
is most likely responsible for this immunological reaction?
A. Goodpasture syndrome
B. multiple sclerosis
C. myasthenia gravis
D. rheumatoid arthritis
E. *systemic lupus erythematosus
101.
A 27-year-old man was treated with penicillin for gonorrhea. Thirty-five days later he was
reinfected with the same germ, and his physician administered an intramuscular dose of penicillin. Two
minutes following the injection of penicillin, the patient experienced hypoten-sion and shock and
became unconscious. This reaction was most likely mediated by which of the following?
A. activation of the alternate complement pathway
B. activation of the classical complement
C. IgD
D. *IgE
E. IgG
102.
A 3-year-old child arrives at the hospital in severe respiratory distress. Periorbital edema is also
noted. Blood analysis reveals decreased levels of C4 and decreased levels of C1 inhibitor. This
complement deficiency is likely to lead to which of the following conditions?
A. *angioedema
B. an increased susceptibility to pyogenic infections
C. bacteremia
D. decreased production of anaphylatoxins
E. enhancement of antibody production
103.
A 3-year-old child with a history of recurrent staphylococcal infections arrives at the emergency
department at the local hospital. His neutrophils show normal chemotaxis, degranulation, and
phagocytosis. However, intracellular killing of staphylococci by the neutrophils is severely impaired.
Myeloperoxidase activity of his neutrophils is normal. The child has no history of streptococcal
infection. Which of the following is the most likely disease affecting this patient?
A. *chronic granulomatous disease
B. Graves disease
C. rheumatoid arthritis
D. severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)
E. systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
104.
A 34-year-old female patient is sneezing and has a runny nose and watery eyes every summer.
Her physician is convinced that the patient is suffering from an allergy and performs some skin tests.
The results of these test sare shown below: Allergen used Response to allergen for testing(wheal
diameter in mm) cat dander 1, house dust 4, Kentucky blue grass13, pollen7, fungal spores 6, solventonly control 5. Which of the following test allergens is most likely to be inducing the patient’s
symptoms?
A. cat dander
B. house dust
C. *Kentucky blue grass
D. mold
E. pollen
105.
A 35-year-old male with end-stage renal disease must undergo a kidney transplant. Which of the
following is true of immunologic suppression for transplantation?
A. *It can occur by antilymphocyte globulin.
B. It cannot be achieved by cyclosporine administration.
C. It cannot occur by lymphoid irradiation.
D. It is facilitated by gamma interferon administration.
E. It is not likely to respond to steroid administration.
106.
A 35-year-old woman suffers of severe muscular weakness. Antibodies against acetylcholine
neural receptors were measured in a woman and are thought to be involved in the pathogenesis of which
of the following
A. acute idiopathic polyneuritis
B. Guillain-Barr syndrome
C. *myasthenia gravis
D. multiple sclerosis
E. postpericardiotomy syndrome
107.
A 45-year-old male was admited to hospital with a rash over the malar eminences of his face,
sparing the nasolabial folds; a skin rash due to exposure to sunlight; and painless nasopharyngeal ulcers.
Suspecting an autoimmune disorder, his physician obtains an anti-nuclear antibody test of his blood and
finds high titers of anti-ouble-stranded DNA anti-bodies. Which one of the following diseases is most
likely responsible for this immunological reaction?
A. *systemic lupus erythematosus
B. multiple sclerosis
C. myasthenia gravis
D. rheumatoid arthritis
E. Goodpasture syndrome
108.
A 5-month-old baby presents to the local community clinic with noted oral candidiasis, chronic
diarrhea, extensive diaper rash, and an overall failure to thrive. Previously this infant has been seen for
multiple severe, recurrent infections from viruses, fungi, bacteria, and protozoa. Chest x-ray reveals an
absent thymic shadow. Which of the following immunodeficiencies best explains this baby’s recurrent
infections?
A. Bruton agammaglobulinemia
B. deficiencies in the C5–C8 components of complement
C. deficiency in neutrophil NADPH oxidase
D. DiGeorge syndrome
E. *severe combined immunodeficiency(SCID)
109.
A 6-month-old girl has severe combined immunodeficiency(SCID). Which of the following can
most likely restore the immunological competency of this 6-month-old girl?
A. administration of purine nucleosidephosphorylase
B. B-cell supplementation
C. T-cell treatment
D. injection of adenosine deaminase
E. *compatible bone marrow transplantation
110.
A 7-month-old boy suffers of candidiasis, chronic diarrhea, extensive diaper rash, and an overall
failure to thrive. Previously this infant has been seen for multiple severe, recurrent infections from
viruses, fungi, bacteria, and protozoa. Chest x-ray reveals an absent thymic shadow. Which of the
following immunodeficiencies best explains this baby’s recurrent infections?
A. Bruton agammaglobulinemia
B. deficiencies in the C5–C8 components of complement
C. *severe combined immunodeficiency(SCID)
D. DiGeorge syndrome
E. deficiency in neutrophil NADPH oxidase
111.
A child disturbs a wasp nest, is stung repeatedly, and goes into shock within minutes,
manifesting respiratory failure and vascular collapse. This is MOST likely to be due to
A. *systemic anaphylaxis
B. serum sickness
C. an Arthus reaction
D. cytotoxic hypersensitivity
E. endotoxic shock
112.
A girl has a genetic defect and cannot produce the J chain which is important in the strucure of
some immunoglobulin molecules.Which of the following will most likely be observed in this
individual?
A. *a decrease in serum IgM
B. a decrease in mature T lymphocytes
C. a decrease in mature B cells
D. an increase in IgA in the intestine
E. an increase in serum IgM
113.
A high school student while on a field trip encounters poison ivy and develops a severe contact
dermatitis, which is classified as type IV hypersensitivity. Contact dermatitis is differentiated from type
III hypersensitivity by which of the following facts?
A. It is associated with cell bound antigens of human erythrocytes.
B. It is associated with cytotoxic reactions.
C. It is encountered in atopic individuals.
D. It is mediated by antigen-antibody complexes.
E. *It is mediated by cellular immunity.
114.
A little boy presents to the local community clinic with noted oral candidiasis, chronic diarrhea,
extensive diaper rash, and an overall failure to thrive. Previous diagnosis is severe combined
immunodeficiency(SCID). Which of the following can most likely restore the immunological
competency of this 5-month-old baby?
A. administration of purine nucleosidephosphorylase
B. B-cell supplementation
C. *compatible bone marrow transplantation
D. injection of adenosine deaminase
E. T-cell treatment
115.
A patient is hospitalized with a tentative diagnosis "Hepatitis B". Serologic test is used for the
diagnostics. It is based on co-operating of antigen with an antibody, chemically related to peroxydase.
What name does this test have?
A. *ELISA
B. RIA
C. Immunofluorescence test
D. CFT
E. Immobilization test
116.
A patient skin-tested with purified protein derivative (PPD) to determine previous exposure to
Mycobacterium tuberculosis develops induration at the skin test site 48 hours later. Histologically, the
reaction site would MOST probably show
A. Eosinophils
B. Neutrophils
C. *Helper T cells and macrophages
D. B cells
E. NK cells
117.
A patient with rheumatic fever develops a sore throat from which.beta-hemolytic streptococci
are. cultured. The patient is started on treatment wilh penicillin, and the sore throat resolves within
several days. However, 7 days after initiation of penicillin therapy the patient develops a fever of 103 F,
a generalized rash, and proteinuria. This MOST probably resulted from
A. recurrence of the rheumatic fever
B. a different infectious disease
C. an IgE response to penicillin
D. *an IgG-M response to penicillin
E. a delay hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin
118.
A rock singer is hospitalized with a tentative diagnosis "AIDS". Serologic test is used for the
diagnostics. It is based on co-operating of antigen with an antibody, chemically related to peroxydase.
What name does this test have?
A. *ELISA
B. RIA
C. Immunofluorescence test
D. CFT
E. Immobilization test
119.
?A student has a genetic defect and cannot produce the J chain which is important in the strucure
of some immunoglobulin molecules.Which of the following will most likely be observed in this
individual?
A. a decrease in mature B cells
B. a decrease in mature T lymphocytes
C. *a decrease in serum IgM
D. an increase in IgA in the intestine
E. an increase in serum IgM and decrease in IgE
120.
A women with rheumatic heart disease has tonsillitis. From the sputum beta-hemolytic
streptococci are obtained. The patient is treatment with penicillin, and the tonsillitis resolves within
several days. However, 8 days after initiation of penicillin therapy the patient develops a fever of 39°C,
a generalized rash, and proteinuria. This most probably resulted from
A. recurrence of the rheumatic fever
B. a different infectious disease
C. an IgE response to penicillin
D. *an IgG-M response to penicillin
E. a delay hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin
121.
A young girl was treated with penicillin for gonorrhea. Twenty-two days later she was reinfected
with the same germ, and his physician administered an intramuscular dose of penicillin. Two minutes
following the injection of penicillin, the patient experienced hypotension and shock and became
unconscious. This reaction was most likely mediated by which of the following?
A. activation of the alternate complement pathway
B. activation of the classical complement
C. IgD
D. IgG
E. *IgE
122.
A young housworker suffers of systemic lupus erythematosus. Administration of which one of
the following substances is likely to be most beneficial to this patient?
A. gamma interferon
B. interleukin-1
C. plasmapheresis
D. *prednisone
E. tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
123.
A young infant suffers of recurrent pyogenic infections. Low low levels of all immunoglobulins
(IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, IgE) are found in young infant. He has which of the following diseases?
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Goodpasture syndrome
C. Graves disease
D. *Bruton disease
E. Addison disease
124.
?According an anamesis of this disease patient has been very susceptible to opportunistic
bacterial and fungal infections. This disease is due to a defect in the intracellular microbicidal activity of
neutrophils as a result of a lack of NADPH oxidase activity (or similar enzymes). What
immunodeficiency disease does patient have?
A. Chronic Granulomatosis Disease (CGD)
B. Hereditary Angloedema
C. Ataxia-Telangiectasia
D. Agammaglobulinemia
E. HIV-infection
125.
Acording to a complement fixation test for serologic diagnosis, the reactants should be added in
what sequence? (Ag = antigen; Ab = antibody; C = complement; EA = antibody-coated indicator
erylhrocytes.)
A. Ag + EA + C/wait/ + patient's serum
B. C + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ Ag
C. Ag + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ C
D. patient's serum + EA +C/wait
E. *Ag + patient's serum + C/wait/+ EA
126.
An 8-month old boy presents to the emergency room in respiratory distress from a recurrent
upper respiratory tract bacterial infection. Labsreveal low levels of IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM.
Suspecting an immune deficiency disorder, genetic testing reveals a defect in a tyrosinekinase gene.
Which of the following would be seen in patients with this immune deficiency disorder?
A. particular susceptibility to viral and fungal infections
B. profound deficiencies of cell-mediated immunity
C. depletion of lymphocytes in the paracortical areas of lymph nodes
D. normal numbers of B lymphocytes
E. *very low quantities of immunoglobulinin their serum
127.
Causative agent of the acute gastroenteritis was isolated from the patient’s organism. It is
necessary to identify him after the detection of an antigen structure. What serologic reaction can be used
for this purpose?
A. *Agglutination test
B. Complement fixation test
C. Neutralization test
D. Precipitation test
E. Opsonization test
128.
Child, 7 mounth old, has bleeding and eczema. Recurrent pyogenic infections occur frequency.
What immunodeficiency does child have?
A. *Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
B. Chronic Granulomatosis Disease (CGD)
C. Hereditary Angloedema
D. Ataxia-Telangiectasia
E. Agammaglobulinemia
129.
?Following the consumption of fish at a local restaurant, a 17-year-old girl suddenly experiences
severe dyspnea. Upon arrival at the local emergency room she is found to be severely hypotensive and
in respiratory distress.Urticarial wheals are also noted all over her body. As the resident physician you
quickly realize this to be a hypersensitivity reaction.To which of the following immunoglobulins does
the allergen bind rapidly during the activation stage of mast cells?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. *IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
130.
Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires maternal
antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is
A. IgE antibody
B. *IgG antibody
C. IgM antibody
D. IgA antibody
E. IgD antibody
131.
In antibodies which occure in the organism under such diseases as brucellesis, autoimmune
diseases, etc. one of the active centres is blocked. An idirect Coombs test is used for their detection.
Specify that can be defined by this reaction.
A. incomplete antibodies on the red blood cells
B. deficient antigens on the red blood cells
C. *incomplete antibodies in the blood serum
D. incomplete antibodies on the platelets
E. haptens on the red blood cells
132.
One of the active centres of antibodies which present in the organism under such diseases as
brucellesis, autoimmune diseases, etc. is blocked. An idirect Coombs test is used for their detection.
Specify that can be defined by this reaction.
A. incomplete antibodies on the red blood cells
B. deficient antigens on the red blood cells
C. *incomplete antibodies in the blood serum
D. incomplete antibodies on the platelets
E. haptens on the red blood cells
133.
One of variants of indirect agglutination is a latex-agglutination test. This test is widely used for
the diagnostics of bacterial meningitis of different etiology, hepatitis, etc. What can it find out by this
test?
A. antibodies in the blood serum, urine
B. autoantibodies in serum
C. *bacterial, viral antigens in a serum, urine, CSF.
D. incomplete antibodies in serum
E. incomplete antibodies on red blood cells
134.
Penicillin is a hapten in both humans and mice. To explore the hapten-carrier relationship, a
mouse was injected with penicillin covalently bound to bovine serum albumin and, at the same time,
with egg albumin to which no penicillin was bound. 0f the following, which one will induce a secondary
response to penicillin when injected into the mouse 1 month later?
A. Penicillin
B. cephalosporins
C. Penicillin bound to egg albumin
D. Egg albumin
E. *bovine serum albumin
135.
The home worker is hospitalized with a tentative diagnosis "Hepatitis B". Serologic test is used
for the diagnostics. It is based on co-operating of antigen with an antibody, chemically related to
peroxydase. What name does this test have?
A. *ELISA
B. RIA
C. Immunofluorescence test
D. CFT
E. Immobilization test
136.
The person’s clothes with brown spots defined tham as blood is delivered to the forensic medical
examination laboratory. An expert defined them as tracks of blood. What test does need to should be
used to confirm this blood belonging to human?
A. Complement fixation test
B. *Ring precipitation test
C. Flocullation test
D. ELISA
E. Agglutination test
137.
The woman’s shoe with red spots defined tham as blood is delivered to the forensic medical
examination laboratory. An expert defined them as tracks of blood. What test does need to should be
used to confirm this blood belonging to human?
A. Complement fixation test
B. *Ring precipitation test
C. Flocullation test
D. ELISA
E. Agglutination test
138.
This electrophoretic pattern of serum proteins was likely to be obtained from a 6-month-old
infant suffering from recurrent pyogenic infections. Very low levels of all immunoglobulins are found
in young infant. He has which of the following diseases?
A. Addison disease
B. *Bruton disease
C. Graves disease
D. Goodpasture syndrome
E. Myasthenia gravis
139.
A patient suspected on anthrax is admitted to hospital. For express diagnostics the direct
immunofluorescense method was utillized. What ingredient is used for these diagnostics?
A. Toxoid
B. Immune antibacterial serum
C. Immune antitoxic serum
D. *Specific fluorescent serum
E. Protective antigen
140.
Two cases of anthrax took place in New village. The patients were admitted to hospital. For
express diagnostics the direct immunofluorescense method was utillized. What ingredient is used for
these diagnostics?
A. Toxoid
B. Immune antibacterial serum
C. Immune antitoxic serum
D. *Specific fluorescent serum
E. Protective antigen
141.
While on a wilderness vacation, a banker develops extensive skin lesions noted for their varying
degrees of erythema, edema, and vesiculations. His physician tells him that these lesions are due to
delayed type hypersensitivity. If this is actually the case, which of the following statements is accurate?
A. *Delayed-type hypersensitivity can be transferred passively to volunteers by sensitized
lymphocytes.
B. Delayed-type hypersensitivity is suppressed by antihistaminic drugs.
C. This allergy does not cause tissue damage.
D. This allergy is due to IgE absorbed on mast cells.
E. This type of allergy usually occurs after inhalation of grass pollens.
142.
You have a patient who makes autoantibodies against his own red blood cells, leading to
hemolysis. Which one of the following mechanisms is MOST likely to explain the hemolysis?
A. Performs from cytotoxic T cells lyse the red cells
B. Neutrophils release proteases that lyse the red cells
C. lnterieukin-2 binds to its receptor on the red cells, which results in lysis of the red cells
D. *Complement is activated, and membrane attack complexes lyse the red cells
E. Autoantibodies direct lyse the red cells
143.
Young girl is hospitalized with a tentative diagnosis "Hepatitis B". Serologic test is used for the
diagnostics. It is based on co-operating of antigen with an antibody, chemically related to peroxydase.
What name does this test have?
A. *ELISA
B. RIA
C. Immunofluorescence test
D. CFT
E. Immobilization test
Test’s questions to figures
1. Who is there in this figure? Fig. 1
A. Zacharian Jansen
B. *Louis Pasteur
C. E. Duclaux
D. Edward Jenner
E. Robert Koch
2. What microbes are there? Fig. 2
A. Micrococci
B. *Diplococci
C. Staphylococci
D. Streptococci
E. Tetracocci
3. What microbes are inside the cells? Fig. 2
A. Staphylococci
B. Streptococci
C. Micrococci
D. *Gonococci
E. Vibrio
4. What microbes are there? Fig. 3
A. Micrococci
B. Diplococci
C. *Staphylococci
D. Streptococci
E. Tetracocci
5. What microbes are there in the tissue? Fig. 3
A. Neisseria
B. Tetracocci
C. Pneumococci
D. *Staphylococci
E. Streptococci
6. What microbes are there? Fig. 4
A. Micrococci
B. Diplococci
C. Staphylococci
D. *Streptococci
E. Tetracocci
7. What microbes are there in the figure 5?
A. M. tuberculosis
B. *C. tetani
C. C. botulinum
D. S. typhi
E. C. tetani
8. What microbes are there? Fig. 5
A. Streptobacilli
B. Streptobacteria
C. Diplobacteria
D. *Clostridia
E. Monobacteria
9. What type of the spore localization is in this figure? Fig. 6
A. *Central
B. Terminal
C. Subterminal
D. Correct all
E. No correct answer
10. What microbes are there ? Fig. 6
A. Streptobacteria
B. *Streptobacilli
C. Diplobacteria
D. Monobacilli
E. Monobacteria
11. What type of immune response is shown in this figure? Fig. 7
A. *Humoral immune response
B. Immediate hypersensitivity
C. Delayed hypersensitivity
D. Cell mediated immune response
E. Cytotoxic rection
12. This is the scheme of the immune response. What cell is marked by number 1? Fig. 7
A. B-lymphocyte
B. T-killer
C. T-helper
D. *Antigen presenting cell
E. Plasma cell
13. This is the scheme of the immune response. What cell is marked by number 2? Fig. 7
A. *B-lymphocyte
B. T-killer
C. T-helper
D. Antigen presenting cell
E. Plasma cell
14. This is the scheme of the immune response. What cell is marked by number 3? Fig. 7
A. B-lymphocyte
B. T-killer
C. T-helper
D. Antigen presenting cell
E. *Plasma cell
15. This is the scheme of the immune response. What cell is marked by number 4? Fig. 7
A. B-lymphocyte
B. T-killer
C. *T-helper
D. Antigen presenting cell
E. Plasma cell
16. There are bacteria with: Fig. 8
A. Nucleoids
B. *Capsules
C. Spores
D. Volutine granules
E. No correct answer
17. There are different stages of microbial population development in liquid nutrient medium. Choose the
name of the phase that is marked as number 1. Fig. 9
A. phase of negative acceleration
B. Log- phase
C. Stationary
D. Decline
E. *Lag- phase
18. There are different stages of microbial population development in liquid nutrient medium. Choose the
name of the phase that is marked as number 2. Fig. 9
A. Lag- phase
B. Decline
C. Stationary
D. *Log- phase
E. Phase of negative acceleration
19. There are different stages of microbial population development in liquid nutrient medium. Choose the
name of the phase that is marked as number 3. Fig. 9
A. *Stationary
B. Log- phase
C. Lag- phase
D. Decline
E. Phase of negative acceleration
20. There are different stages of microbial population development in liquid nutrient medium. Choose the
name of the phase that is marked as number 4. Fig. 9
A. Lag- phase
B. Log- phase
C. Stationary
D. Phase of negative acceleration
E. *Decline
21. What microbes according to flagella localization are marked by the letter (a)? Fig. 10
A. *Monotrichous
B. Lophotrichous
C. Amphitrichous
D. Peritrichous
E. No correct answer
22. What microbes according to flagella localization are marked by the letter (b)? Fig. 10
A. Monotrichous
B. *Lophotrichous
C. Amphitrichous
D. Peritrichous
E. No correct answer
23. What microbes according to flagella localization are marked by the letter (c)? Fig. 10
A. Monotrichous
B. Lophotrichous
C. *Amphitrichous
D. Peritrichous
E. No correct answer
24. What microbes according to flagella localization are marked by the letter (d)? Fig. 10
A. Monotrichous
B. Lophotrichous
C. Amphitrichous
D. *Peritrichous
E. No correct answer
25. When may be all these symptoms take place? Fig. 11
A. This is the result of the anaphylaxis
B. These symptoms are associated with autoimmune diseases
C. These symptoms are the result of the exotoxin action
D. *These symptoms are the result of the endotoxin action
E. These symptoms belong to the delayed hypersensitivity
26. What fungi are there in figure? Fig. 12
A. Aspergillus
B. Penicillium
C. *Mucor
D. Trichophyton
E. Microsporum
27. What method is shown in the figure? Fig. 13
A. inoculation by a spatula
B. *inoculation by streaks technique
C. by serial dilution in solid nutrient media
D. by a tampon
E. none of offered
28. Which method in order to receive separeted colonies of enterobacteria is shown to in the figure 13?
A. Koch’s technique
B. Drigalsky’s technique
C. *Streaks’ technique
D. Pasteur’s technique
E. There is no correct answer
29. What properties of Streptococcus are tested on blood agar? Fig. 14
A. reductive
B. lipolytic
C. proteolytic
D. sugarlytic
E. *hemolytic
30. What properties of bacteria are tested on this medium (blood agar)? Fig. 14
A. saccharolytic
B. lipolytic
C. proteolytic
D. *hemolytic
E. reductive
31. Which bacterial properties you can determine using blood agar? Fig. 14
A. cultural
B. serological
C. sugarlytic
D. biological
E. *hemolytic
32. What type of identification do you see on figure 15?
A. biochemical
B. serological
C. morphological
D. cultural
E. *biological
33. What type of identification laboratory animal is used for? Fig. 15?
A. biochemical
B. serological
C. morphological
D. cultural
E. *biological
34. Bacteriophages were used for identification of bacteria. Bacteriophages against Staphylococcus aureus
were added. Make conclusion: was Staphylococcus aureus identified or not? Fig. 16
A. *Yes
B. No
C. Test is doubtful
D. It is impossible to make correct conclusion
E. Staphylococcus epidermidis was identified
35. What is there in the figure? Fig. 17
A. Bacterial cell
B. *Bacteriophage
C. Protozoa
D. Fungus
E. No correct answer
36. There is scheme of: Fig. 18
A. Transformation
B. Transduction
C. *Conjugation
D. All are correct
E. No correct answer
37. What fungi are there in figure? Fig. 19
A. Aspergillus
B. *Penicillium
C. Mucor
D. Trichophyton
E. Microsporum
38. What is there in the figure? Fig. 20
A. Examination of antibiotic susceptility
B. *Examination of bacterial antagonism
C. Examination of susceptility to phage
D. All are correct
E. No correct answer
39. What is there in the figure? Fig. 21
A. Structure of bacterial inner membrane
B. Structure of bacterial outer membrane
C. Structure of gram-positive bacterial cell wall
D. *Structure of gram-negative bacterial cell wall
E. Structure of bacterial capsule
40. What test is shown in this figure? Fig. 22
A. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique in solid nutrient medium
B. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique liquid nutrient medium
C. *Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by disc diffusion technique
D. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by express technique
E. No correct answer
41. What structural part of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture under a letter A. Fig. 23
A. Light chain
B. *Variable region
C. Disulphide bonds
D. Complement binding region
E. Receptor for placental passage
42. What structural part of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture under the letter B. Fig. 23
A. *Light chain
B. Variable region
C. Disulphide bonds
D. Complement binding region
E. Receptor for placental passage
43. What structural part of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture under the letter C. Fig. 23
A. Light chain
B. Variable region
C. *Disulphide bonds
D. Complement binding region
E. Receptor for placental passage
44. What structural part of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture under the letter D. Fig. 23
A. Light chain
B. Variable region
C. Disulphide bonds
D. *Complement binding region
E. Receptor for placental passage
45. What structural part of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture under the letter E. Fig. 23
A. Light chain
B. Variable region
C. Disulphide bonds
D. *Complement binding region
E. Receptor for placental passage
46. What class of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture? Fig. 24
A. Ig G
B. *Ig M
C. Ig D
D. Ig E
E. Ig A
47. What structures of immunoglobulin are presented on a picture under a letter A. Fig. 24
A. Active center
B. *Heavy chain
C. J chain
D. Light chain
E. Fc-fragment
48. What structures of immunoglobulin are presented on a picture under the letter B. Fig. 24
A. Active center
B. Heavy chain
C. *J chain
D. Light chain
E. Fc-fragment
49. What structures of immunoglobulin presented on a picture under the letter C. Fig. 24
A. *Active center
B. Heavy chain
C. J chain
D. Light chain
E. Fc-fragment
50. What structures of immunoglobulin are presented on a picture under the letter D. Fig. 24
A. Active center
B. Heavy chain
C. J chain
D. Light chain
E. *Fc-fragment
51. What structures of immunoglobulin are presented on a picture under the letter E. Fig. 24
A. Active center
B. Heavy chain
C. J chain
D. *Light chain
E. Fc-fragment
52. The schematic image of what immunoglobulin is presented? Fig. 25
A. Ig G
B. Ig M
C. Ig D
D. Ig E
E. *Ig A
53. Choose from presented, what is marked by letter A. Fig. 25
A. Active center
B. Heavy chain
C. *J chain
D. Secretory component
E. Fc-fragment
54. Choose from presented, what is marked by letter B. Fig. 25
A. Active center
B. Heavy chain
C. J chain
D. *Secretory component
E. Fc-fragment
55. Choose from presented, what is marked by letter C. Fig. 25
A. *Active center
B. Heavy chain
C. J chain
D. Secretory component
E. Fc-fragment
56. Choose from presented, what is marked by letter D. Fig. 25
A. Active center
B. *Heavy chain
C. J chain
D. Secretory component
E. Fc-fragment
57. Choose from presented, what is marked by letter A. Fig. 26
A. Active center
B. *Heavy chain
C. Fab- fragment
D. Variable region
E. Fc-fragment
58. Choose from presented,what is marked by letter B. Fig. 26
A. Active center
B. *Stable part of immunoglobuline
C. Fab- fragment
D. Variable region
E. Fc-fragment
59. Choose from presented, what is marked by letter C. Fig. 26
A. Active center
B. Stable part of immunoglobuline
C. Fab- fragment
D. Variable region
E. *Fc-fragment
60. Choose from presented, what is marked by letter D. Fig. 26
A. *Active center
B. Stable part of immunoglobulin
C. Fab- fragment
D. Variable region
E. Fc-fragment
61. Choose from presented, what is marked by letter E. Fig. 26
A. Active center
B. Stable part of immunoglobulin
C. *Fab- fragment
D. Variable region
E. Fc-fragment
62. What class of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture? Fig. 27
A. *Ig G
B. Ig M
C. Ig D
D. Ig E
E. Ig A
63. How many active centers do have an immunoglobulin presented on a picture? Fig. 27
A. *2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
E. 12
64. Specify, what letter is marked Ig A? Fig. 28
A. Letter of A
B. *Letter of B
C. Letter of C
D. Letter of D
E. Letter of E
65. Specify, what letter is marked Ig M? Fig. 28
A. Letter of A
B. Letter of B
C. *Letter of C
D. Letter of D
E. Letter of E
66. Specify, what letter is marked Ig G? Fig. 28
A. *Letter of A
B. Letter of B
C. Letter of C
D. Letter of D
E. Letter of E
67. Specify, what letter is marked Ig E? Fig. 28
A. Letter of A
B. Letter of B
C. Letter of C
D. Letter of D
E. *Letter of E
68. What test is represented in figure 32?
A. Examination of mobility of bacteria
B. *Ring precipitation test
C. Agglutination test
D. Chain polymerase reaction
E. Gelatin hydrolysis
69. What is advantage of immunofluorescence test as compared with standart agglutination test?
A. It is possible to determine the presence of antibody in blood
B. *It is possible to determine the presence of antigen in tissues
C. It is possible to determine the presence of soluble antigen
D. It is possible to determine the presence of complex antigen-antibody
E. It is possible to determine the presence of patient’s antibody
70. This test is used for serological diagnosis of infection disease. What is this method? Fig. 35
A. Precipitation test
B. Agglutination test
C. *Indirect hemagglutination test
D. Hemagglutination inhibition test
E. Immunofluorescense test
71. Main components of IHA test are ____ Fig. 35
A. agglutinogen, agglutinin
B. *patient’s serum, erythrocyte diagnosticum
C. specific and tested microbes
D. tested microbes, erythrocyte diagnosticum
E. patient’s serum, agglutinogen
72. What type of hypersensitivity is shown in this figure? Fig. 36
A. Immune-complex reaction
B. Immediate hypersensitivity
C. *Delayed hypersensitivity
D. Cell mediated immune response
E. Cytotoxic rection
73. What immunological process is demonstrated in this figure? Fig. 37
A. Cytotoxic, cytolytic reaction
B. Antibody dependent cytotoxicity
C. *Immune-complex reaction
D. Atopic reaction
E. Delayed hypersensitivity
74. This is an example of one type of allergy.What is marked by number 1? Fig. 38
A. Agglutination reaction
B. Precipitation reaction
C. Formation of the antibody-antigen-complement complex
D. *Immune-complex formation
E. Interaction between the cells and antibodies
75. What process is shown in this figure? Fig. 38
A. Anaphylactic reaction
B. Cell mediated immune response
C. *Desensitisation
D. Humoral immune response
E. Antibody dependent cytotoxicity
76. This is the scheme of the desensitisation. What is marked by number 1? Fig. 38
A. Antigen-antibody complex
B. Immune complex
C. IgE binds with allergen
D. *blocking antibodies IgG
E. All of the above
77. What structure is marked by number 1? Fig. 39
A. Ribosome
B. mRNA
C. Class I MHC protein
D. *Class II MHC protein
E. Epitope
78. What formation is marked by number 2? Fig. 39
A. Complex of the IgM and antigen
B. Class I MHC protein with the peptide
C. Class I MHC protein
D. Class II MHC protein
E. *Class II MHC protein with the epitope
79. What is there in the figure? Fig. 40
A. Antigen structure of bacteria
B. Biochemical properties of bacteria
C. Chromosome cap
D. *Chromosome map
E. No correct answer
80. What test is shown in this figure? Fig. 41
A. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique in solid nutrient medium
B. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique liquid nutrient medium
C. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by express technique
D. *Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by disc diffusion technique
E. No correct answer
81. What test is shown in this figure? Fig. 42
A. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique in solid nutrient medium
B. *Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique liquid nutrient medium
C. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by express technique
D. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by disc diffusion technique
E. No correct answer
82. What is there in the figure? Fig. 46
A. Agglutination
B. *Hemagglutination
C. Coagglutination
D. Latex-agglutination
E. Precipitation
83. What test is there in the figure? Fig. 47
A. Hemagglutination test
B. *Hemadsorption test
C. Cytopathic effect
D. Syncytium formation
E. Inclusion bodies
84. What stage of replication of virus is marked by number 1? Fig. 48
A. Uncoating
B. *Adsorption
C. Entry
D. Assembly
E. Release
85. What stage of replication of virus is marked by number 2? Fig. 48
A. Uncoating
B. Adsorption
C. *Entry
D. Assembly
E. Release
86. What stage of replication of virus is marked by number 4? Fig. 48
A. Uncoating
B. Adsorption
C. Entry
D. *Assembly
E. Release
87. What stage of replication of viruse is marked by number 5? Fig. 48
A. *Uncoating
B. Adsorption
C. Entry
D. Assembly
E. Release
88. What stage of replication of viruse is marked by number 6? Fig. 48
A. Uncoating
B. Adsorption
C. Entry
D. Assembly
E. *Release
89. What method of inoculation of viruses into chicken embryo is marked by number 1? Fig. 48
A. Allantoic inoculation
B. *Amniotic inoculation
C. Chorionallantoic membrane inoculation
D. Yolk sac inoculation
E. Albumen inoculation
90. What method of inoculation of viruses into chicken embryo is marked by number 2? Fig. 48
A. Allantoic inoculation
B. Amniotic inoculation
C. *Chorionallantoic membrane inoculation
D. Yolk sac inoculation
E. Albumen inoculation
91. What method of inoculation of viruses into chicken embryo is marked by number 3? Fig. 48
A. Allantoic inoculation
B. Amniotic inoculation
C. Chorionallantoic membrane inoculation
D. *Yolk sac inoculation
E. Albumen inoculation
92. What method of inoculation of viruses into chicken embryo is marked by number 4? Fig. 48
A. *Allantoic inoculation
B. Amniotic inoculation
C. Chorionallantoic membrane inoculation
D. Yolk sac inoculation
E. Albumen inoculation
93. What structure of bacteriophage is marked by number 1? Fig. 50
A. Tail
B. Contractile sheath
C. *Head
D. Base plate
E. Tail fibres
94. What structure of bacteriophage is marked by number 2? Fig. 50
A. *Tail
B. Contractile sheath
C. Head
D. Base plate
E. Tail fibres
95. What structure of bacteriophage is marked by number 3? Fig. 50
A. Tail
B. *Contractile sheath
C. Head
D. Base plate
E. Tail fibres
96. What structure of bacteriophage is marked by number 4? Fig. 50
A. Tail
B. Contractile sheath
C. Head
D. *Base plate
E. Tail fibres
97. What structure of bacteriophage is marked by number 5? Fig. 50
A. Tail
B. Contractile sheath
C. Head
D. Base plate
E. *Tail fibres
98. What structure of virus is marked by number 1? Fig. 51
A. Envelope
B. Capsid
C. Nucleic acid
D. Peplomer
E. *Capsomer
99. What structure of virus is marked by number 2? Fig. 51
A. Envelope
B. Capsid
C. *Nucleic acid
D. Peplomer
E. Capsomer
100.
What structure of virus is marked by number 3? Fig. 51
A. Envelope
B. *Capsid
C. Nucleic acid
D. Peplomer
E. Capsomer
101.
There are bacteria which stained by Loeffler’s technique. What component of bacterial cell is
determined by this method? Fig. 57
A. Cell wall
B. Cytoplasmic membrane
C. *Volutin granules
D. Capsule
E. Flagellum
102.
There is staining of volutin granules according to_______ Fig. 57
A. Grey’s technique
B. *Burry’s technique
C. Loeffler’s technique
D. Peshkov’s technique
E. Gram’s technique
103.
There is structure of ______ Fig. 59
A. Spore
B. *Flagellum
C. Ribosome
D. Volutine granules
E. Nucleoid
104.
What component of bacterial cell do you see on Fig. 59?
A. Spore
B. Flagellum
C. *Ribosome
D. Volutine granules
E. Nucleoid
105.
There is structure of _____: Fig. 60
A. Cell wall
B. *Cytoplasmic membrane
C. Nucleus
D. Sulfur granules
E. Magnetosomes
106.
What component of bacterial cell do you see on Fig. 60?
A. Cell wall
B. Nucleus
C. *Cytoplasmic membrane
D. Sulfur granules
E. Nucleoid
107.
These microorganisms cause thrush. What are there? Fig. 61
A. Candida
B. Staphylococcus
C. *Streptococcus
D. Treponema
E. Toxoplasma
108.
Your patient has dysbacteriosis. Of the following, which one is fast multiplies and causes
disease? Fig. 61
A. Shigella dysenteriae
B. Salmonella enteritidis
C. *Vibrio cholerae
D. Candida albicans
E. Toxoplasma
109.
As result of dysbacteriosis what disease developes? Causetive agent of it is demonstrated in
figure 61.
A. Candida
B. Salmonella
C. *Enterobiosis
D. Diphtheria
E. Toxoplasmosis
110.
What type of identification do you see on figure 62?
A. biological
B. cultural
C. *biochemical
D. serological
E. morphological
111.
What scientist is there in the figure? Fig. 63
A. P. Ehrlich
B. I. Metchnikov
C. L. Pasteur
D. R. Koch
E. *A. Fleming
112.
Which type of the capsomers arrangement around the nucleic acid is shown in figure? Fig. 64
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Complex symmetry
*Helical symmetry
Icosahedral symmetry
Irregular symmetry
Polyhedron symmetry
113.
What scientist did experiment presented in the figure 65 when transformation was shown? Fig.65
A. *Griffits
B. Metchnikov
C. L. Pasteur
D. S. Waksman
E. A. Fleming
114.
What test is demonstrate on YSA? Fig. 70
A. glucose fermentation
B. manitiol fermentation
C. coagulase production
D. citrate utilization
E. *lecitinase production
115.
There is yolk agar on the picture 70. What property of bacteria is verify?
A. proteolytic
B. hemolytic
C. *lecithinase activity
D. gelatin hydrolysis
E. saccharolytic
116.
Tested material from the patient’s nose was inoculated onto yolk agar. Do microbes have
lecithinase activity? What is microbe? Fig. 70
A. *Yes. Staphylococcus aureus.
B. Yes. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
C. Does not have. Staphylococcus aureus.
D. Does not have. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
E. Yes. Streptococcus pyogenes.
117.
Which microbes have lecitinase activity onto YSA? Fig. 70
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. *Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D. Sreptococcus pyogenes
E. Micrococcus luteus
118.
To determine to which species of Staphylococcus bacterial culture belongs, the microbiologist
performs test. What species of microbes has coagulase activity in lowest tube? (figure 71)
A. *Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D. Sreptococcus pyogenes
E. Micrococcus luteus
119.
The microbiologist performs test to determine to which species of Staphylococcus bacterial
culture belongs. All species of microbes has no coagulase activity, EXCEPT: (figure 71)
A. *Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D. Sreptococcus pyogenes
E. Micrococcus luteus
120.
What property of bacteria is possible to verify by this test? (figure 71)
A. proteolytic
B. hemolytic
C. lecithinase production
D. gelatin hydrolysis
E. *coagulase activity
121.
In lowest tube you see positive coagulase test. Which microbes coagulase plasma. (see figure 71)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Sreptococcus pyogenes
Micrococcus luteus
122.
To determine virulent staphylococci or not, the microbiologist performs test. What property of
bacteria is possible to verify by this test? (see figure 71)
A. proteolytic
B. hemolytic
C. lecithinase production
D. gelatin hydrolysis
E. *coagulase activity
123.
Antigen structure of which microbes are this present? Fig.72
A. Micrococci
B. *Salmonella
C. Staphylococci
D. Streptococci
E. Tetracocci
124.
A stool sample is plated on standard Mac Conkey medium plates. After overnight incubation
some of the colonies are red in color, others are pale, nearly colorless. What can you conclude about the
bacteria that produced red colonies? (figure 73)
A. Gram-positive.
B. *Ferment lactose.
C. Not likely to be ‘normal flora’.
D. Non-motile.
E. Produce capsules
125.
A stool sample is plated on standard Mac Conkey medium plates. After overnight incubation
some of the colonies are red in color, others are pale, nearly colorless. What can you conclude about the
bacteria that produced pale colonies? (figure 73)
A. Gram-positive.
B. Ferment lactose.
C. *Don’t ferment lactose
D. Non-motile.
E. Produce capsules
126.
Which bacteria can produce on Mac Conkey medium dark red colonies? Fig. 73
A. Salmonella enterica
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Shigella sonnei
E. Shigella dysenteriae
127.
All at list species of bacteria can produce on Mac Conkey medium colourless colonies, except:
Fig. 73
A. Salmonella enterica
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Shigella sonnei
D. Shigella dysenteriae
E. Salmonella typhi
128.
Which of following bacteria can’t produce colourless colonies on Mac Conkey medium? Fig. 73
A. Salmonella enterica
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Shigella sonnei
E. Shigella dysenteriae
129.
What microorganisms form colonies onto this medium? Fig. 73
A. Fungi
B. Mycoplasma
C. Rickettsia
D. *Bacteria
E. Chlamidia
130.
What method of mechanical separation of bacteria is present at scheme? Fig. 74
A. Koch’s technique
B. Drigalsky’s technique
C. *Streaks’ technique sowing
D. Pasteur’s technique
E. There is no correct answer
131.
What equipment is shown in figure 75?
A. *autoclave
B. serum coagulator
C. thermostat
D. sterilizer
E. dry-heat closet
132.
How can we use this test-system? Fig. 76
A. for control of sterilization in a heat oven
B. for control of sterilization by autoclaving
C. *for control of mechanical sterilization
D. for control of sterilization by gas method
E. for control of sterilization by ultraviolet rays
133.
What microorganisms can grow on the Endo’s medium and form dark pink colonies? Fig. 77
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Salmonella paratyphi A
E. *Escherichia coli
134.
What properties of bacteria could you determine to see growth of them onto Endo’s medium?
Fig. 77
A. fermentetion of proteins
B. fermentetion of sucrose
C. *fermentetion of lactose
D. fermentetion of mannit
E. fermentetion of sterol
135.
Which bacteria can form dark pink colonies on Endo’s medium? Fig. 77
A. Salmonella enterica
B. *Escherichia coli
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Shigella sonnei
E. Shigella dysenteriae
136.
This test is used for identification of microorganism. What is this method? Fig. 78
A. Precipitation test
B. *Agglutination test
C. Indirect hemagglutination test
D. Hemagglutination inhibition test
E. Immunofluorescense test
137.
What test is represented in figure 78?
A. Examination of mobility of bacteria
B. Examination of susceptibility to bacteriophages
C. *Agglutination test
D. Chain polymerase reaction
E. Gelatin hydrolysis
138.
Which bacteria are on the picture 79?
A. Escherichia
B. Salmonella
C. Shigella
D. *Vibrio
E. Campylobacter
These microorganisms are stained by Ziehl-Neelsen’s method. What microbes are there? Fig.
139.
82
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
M. smegmatis
Bordetella pertussis
Vibrio cholerae
140.
What properties of bacteria are tested on this medium? Fig. 84
A. saccharolytic
B. lipolytic
C. *proteolytic
D. hemolytic
E. reductive
141.
How can we use this test-system? Fig. 86
A. for verification of sterilization
B. for identification of bacteria
C. for phage typing
D. for bacteria staining
E. *for creation of anaerobic condition
142.
How can we use this jar? Fig. 86
A. for cultivation of aerobic bacteria
B. for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria
C. *for cultivation of facultative anaerobic bacteria
D. for sterilization of Petry’s plate with microbes
E. for cultivation of aerotolerant bacteria
143.
Doctor made vaginal secret smear. According to the result what is degree of vaginal secret
cleanness and has this woman been ill or healthy? Fig. 89
A. Its 1st degree of vaginal secret cleanness, woman has been healthy
B. Its 2d degree of vaginal secret cleanness , woman has been ill
C. Its 3d degree of vaginal secret cleanness, woman has been healthy
D. *Its 4th degree of vaginal secret cleanness, woman has been ill
E. Its 1st degree of vaginal secret cleanness , woman has been ill
144.
What is degree of vaginal secret cleanness of health woman do you see on the picture 89?
A. 1st
B. 2d
C. 3d
D. *4th
E. It is not smear of vaginal secret
145.
Where is monococci in the figure 91?
A. *1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
146.
Where is diplococci in the figure 91?
A. 1-2
B. *4-5
C. 8-9
D. 6-7
E. 15-16
147.
Where is streptococci in the figure 91?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
E. *13
148.
Where is strtaphycocci in the figure 91?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
149.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
150.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
151.
92
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
4
6
8
*14
Where is bean-shaped cocci in the figure 91?
1
4
*5
8
15
Where is lanceolated cocci in the figure 91?
1
*4
5
8
15
Your patient has dysbacteriosis. Of the following, which one is fast multiplies and disease? Fig.
Shigella dysenteriae
Salmonella enteritidis
Vibrio cholerae
*Candida albicans
Toxoplasma
152.
As result of dysbacteriosis what disease can developes. Causetive agent of it is demonstrated in
figure 93.
A. *Candida
B. Salmonella
C. Enterobiosis
D. Diphtheria
E. Toxoplasmosis
153.
What biotope of the human microbiocenosis are this microbes from? Fig. 94
A. on mucus of stomach
B. *on small GT
C. on mucus of upper respiratory tract
D. on skin.
E. on colon
154.
There are Bifidobacteria on the picture 94. What biotope of the human microbiocenosis includes
this microbes?
A. *on mucus of gut
B. on body skin
C. on mucus of upper respiratory tract
D. on a head skin.
E. on blood
155.
What microbes are there in the figure 97?
A. Treponema
B. Borrelia
C. Leptospira
D. *Spirilla
E. Vibrio
156.
What microbes are shown in the figure 98?
A. Spirilla
B. Vibrio
C. Treponema
D. *Borrelia
E. Leptospira
157.
Doctor made vaginal secret smear from patient’s vaginal secret. According to the result (figure
100) has this woman been ill or healthy.
A. *Its 1st degree of vaginal secret cleanness, woman has been healthy
B. Its 2d degree of vaginal secret cleanness , woman has been ill
C. Its 3d degree of vaginal secret cleanness, woman has been healthy
D. Its 4d degree of vaginal secret cleanness, woman has been healthy
E. Its 1d degree of vaginal secret cleanness , woman has been ill
158.
What is degree of a vaginal secret cleanness of health woman do you see on the picture? Fig. 100
A. *1st - 2d
B. 2d - 3d
C. 3d
D. 4th
E. It is not smear of vaginal secret
159.
There are Doderlayn’s bacilli on the picture 100. What biotope of the human microflora includes
this microbes.
A. on mucus of GT
B. on mucus of stomach.
C. on mucus of upper respiratory tract
D. on a skin.
E. *on mucus of vagine
160.
Where are Doderlayn’s bacilli can founded? Fig.100.
A. on mucus of GT
B. on mucus of stomach.
C. on mucus of upper respiratory tract
D. on a skin.
E. *on mucus of vagine