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CHAPTER 7- The Skeletal System: The Axial Skeleton
Choose the single best answer to each of the following questions.
1) Why are bones important?
A) They protect soft tissues of the body.
B) They serve as anatomical landmarks.
C) When working with smooth muscles, they make movement possible.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
Answer: D
Reference: Page 195, Introduction
Level of Difficulty: Easy
2) Which of the following are parts of the musculoskeletal system?
A) bones
B) joints
C) skeletal muscles
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
Answer: E
Reference: Page 195, Introduction
Level of Difficulty: Easy
3) The adult skeleton
A) contains more bones than a child's skeleton.
B) contains 206 named bones.
C) contains very few paired bones.
D) is radially symmetrical.
E) All of these are correct.
Answer: B
Reference: Page 195, Divisions of the Skeletal System
Level of Difficulty: Medium
4) All of the following are part of the axial skeleton EXCEPT the:
A) pectoral girdle
B) vertebrae
C) sternum
D) ribs
E) hyoid bone
Answer: A
Reference: Page 195, Divisions of the Skeletal System
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Level of Difficulty: Easy
5) All of the following are parts of the appendicular skeleton EXCEPT the:
A) bones of the upper extremity
B) bones of the pectoral girdle
C) bones of the skull
D) bones of the lower extremity
E) bones of the pelvic girdle
Answer: C
Reference: Page 195, Divisions of the Skeletal System
Level of Difficulty: Medium
6) Which of the following bone types is typically found in ligaments or tendons?
A) irregular
B) flat
C) short
D) long
E) sesamoid
Answer: E
Reference: Page 197, Types of Bones
Level of Difficulty: Medium
7) Why are adult long bones usually slightly curved?
A) because collagen fibers are curved
B) because curves allow mechanical stress to be evenly distributed
C) because osteoblasts cannot deposit bone matrix in a straight line
D) because osteoclasts routinely resorb more bone at the center of one side of the diaphysis
E) because the weight of the body bends the bones over time
Answer: B
Reference: Page 197, Types of Bones
Level of Difficulty: Medium
8) Which of the following is characteristic of short bones?
A) Their width is greater than their length.
B) They include the femur and humerus.
C) They include the patella and scapula.
D) They consist mostly of spongy bone.
E) They include all of the carpal bones.
Answer: D
Reference: Page 197, Types of Bones
Level of Difficulty: Medium
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9) Which of the following best describes a flat bone?
A) any bone in a ligament or tendon
B) a bone consisting of two parallel plates of compact bone
C) a bone whose length and width are nearly equal
D) a bone that has no curves in its structure
E) a bone in a suture
Answer: B
Reference: Page 197, Types of Bones
Level of Difficulty: Medium
10) Bone surface markings
A) develop in response to stresses placed on bones.
B) are usually present at birth.
C) caused by compression are raised surfaces.
D) caused by tension are depressed surfaces.
E) are decorative rather than functional.
Answer: A
Reference: Page 197, Bone Surface Markings
Level of Difficulty: Medium
11) All of the following allow blood vessels and nerves to penetrate bones EXCEPT:
A) foramen
B) tuberosity
C) fissure
D) meatus
E) B and C are correct.
Answer: B
Reference: Page 197, Bone Surface Markings
Level of Difficulty: Medium
12) Which of the following bone surface markings is a large, rounded projection at the end of a bone?
A) sulcus
B) fossa
C) condyle
D) tuberosity
E) trochanter
Answer: C
Reference: Page 197, Bone Surface Markings
Level of Difficulty: Medium
13) Which of the following can be ascertained from skeletal remains?
A) race
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B) sex
C) patterns of nutrition
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
Answer: E
Reference: Page 197, Bone Surface Markings
Level of Difficulty: Medium
14) Which of the following is a cranial bone?
A) ethmoid bone
B) nasal bone
C) maxilla
D) mandible
E) lacrimal bone
Answer: A
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Easy
15) Which of the following is a facial bone?
A) sphenoid bone
B) temporal bone
C) palatine bone
D) frontal bone
E) parietal bone
Answer: C
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Easy
16) Each of the following is part of a pair of bones of the skull EXCEPT the
A) parietal
B) vomer
C) zygomatic
D) temporal
E) maxilla
Answer: B
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Medium
17) The skull
A) contains only one cavity.
B) has few surface markings.
C) excludes the paranasal sinuses.
D) includes many moveable bones.
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E) houses the ossicles in the temporal bone.
Answer: E
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Medium
18) The skull
A) protects the brain.
B) stabilizes the position of the brain.
C) provides attachments for muscles of facial expression.
D) protects special sense organs.
E) All of the above.
Answer: E
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Medium
19) The frontal bone
A) consists of two bones separated by a metopic suture in very young children.
B) forms the floors of the orbits.
C) forms the majority of the cranium between the coronal and lamboidal sutures.
D) contains the infraorbital foramina.
E) seldom contains a paranasal sinus.
Answer: A
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Medium
20) The parietal bones
A) are joined medially by a suture that closes by age 7 or 8 years.
B) contain the crista galli.
C) form the majority of the posterior roof of the skull.
D) house a portion of the carotid artery.
E) contain paranasal sinuses.
Answer: C
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Medium
21) The temporal bones
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
articulate with the sphenoid, zygomatic, parietal and occipital bones.
house the ossicles and organs associated with hearing and equilibrium.
contain the sella turcica, which shelters the pituitary gland.
A and B are correct.
A, B and C are correct.
Answer: D
Reference: Page 198, Skull
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Level of Difficulty: Medium
22) The occipital bone
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
contains the foramen in which the medulla oblongata merges with the spinal cord.
articulates with the maxilla on the inferior side of the skull.
articulates with the vertebrae via the occipital protuberance.
is part of the facial skeleton.
forms most of the lateral sides of the skull.
Answer: A
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Medium
23) The sphenoid bone
A) articulates with all of the other cranial bones.
B) contains a paranasal sinus.
C) contains foramina that allow the optic nerves to enter the brain.
D) includes pterygoid processes to which muscles that move the mandible attach.
E) All of these are correct.
Answer: E
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Medium
24) The ethmoid bone
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
forms part of the orbits.
contains foramina that allow passage of nerves associated with sight.
forms the inferior portion of the nasal septum.
includes the inferior nasal conchae.
is also part of the facial skeleton.
Answer: A
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Medium
25) The maxillae
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
unite to form the lower jaw.
are the smaller parts of the hard palate.
help separate the nasal and oral cavities.
contain the supraorbital foramina.
articulate with the mandible.
Answer: C
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Medium
26) The zygomatic bones
6
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
articulate with the sphenoid and temporal bones.
form portions of the orbits.
articulate with the maxillae and the mandible.
A and B are correct.
A, B and C are correct.
Answer: D
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Medium
27) The lacrimal bones
A) are the smallest bones of the face.
B) form the lateral walls of the orbits.
C) form the bridge of the nose.
D) house the lacrimal glands that produce tears.
E) are superior and lateral to the ethmoid bone.
Answer: A
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Medium
28) The palatine bones
A) form the soft palate.
B) form the anterior portion of the hard palate.
C) form the medial wall of the nasal cavity.
D) form the posterior portion of the hard palate.
E) is involved in the sense of smell.
Answer: D
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Medium
29) The inferior nasal conchae
A) are part of the ethmoid bone.
B) help swirl, warm and filter air as it enters the nasal cavity.
C) form part of the medial wall of the nasal cavity.
D)are part of the nasal septum.
E) are involved in the sense of taste.
Answer: B
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Medium
30) The mandible
A) is the largest bone of the skull.
B) is the only bone of the skull, other than the ossicles, that moves.
C) includes the coronoid and condylar processes.
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D) includes the mental foramina.
E) All of these are correct.
Answer: E
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Medium
31) The nasal septum
A) is composed entirely of bone.
B) includes the vomer and the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone.
C) is considered deviated if it is aligned medially with the midline of the nose.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
Answer: B
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Medium
32) Which of the following bones does NOT contribute to the orbit?
A) zygomatic
B) sphenoid
C) occipital
D) ethmoid
E) frontal
Answer: C
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Easy
33) The foramina of the skull
A) allow passage of blood vessels through the bones.
B) allow passage of nerves through the bones.
C) may exhibit some phenotypic variation, e.g. supraorbital foramen vs. supraorbital notch
D) are associated with specific bones, e.g. the foramen magnum in the occipital bone.
E) All of the above are correct.
Answer: E
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Medium
34) A suture
A) may be movable in an adult but not in a young child.
B) uniting the frontal and parietal bones is the lambdoid suture.
C) is a joint between bones of the skull.
D) uniting the occipital and parietal bones is the coronal suture.
E) uniting the temporal and parietal bones is the metopic suture.
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Answer: C
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Medium
35) Paranasal sinuses
A) are elevated areas on craniofacial bones.
B) are “vestigial” structures with no known function.
C) are found on the mandible, temporal bone and zygomatic bone.
D) are lined with mucous membranes.
E) are not associated with any clinical problems.
Answer: D
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Medium
36) All of the following are true of fontanels EXCEPT:
A) they are present between bones of the skull at birth.
B) they facilitate passage of the baby through the birth canal.
C) they allow for brain growth after birth.
D) they are commonly called soft spots.
E) they are composed of cartilage.
Answer: E
Reference: Page 198, Skull
Level of Difficulty: Medium
37) The hyoid bone
A) does not articulate directly with any other bone.
B) is located with the space bordered by the mandibular body.
C) is connected to the mastoid process by ligaments and muscles.
D) serves as an anchor for posterior neck muscles.
E) consists of a bat-shaped body with extensions called wings.
Answer: A
Reference: Page 212, Hyoid Bone
Level of Difficulty: Medium
38) The vertebral column
A) consists of bones called vertebrae and connective tissue.
B) surrounds and protects the spinal cord.
C) contains more bones in young children than in adults.
D) is part of the trunk of the body.
E) All of these are correct.
Answer: E
Reference: Page 212, Vertebral Column
Level of Difficulty: Easy
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39) A professional basketball player may be more than two feet taller than an Olympic gymnast. How would
their vertebra compare?
A) The gymnast probably has 1 less vertebra in each region of the vertebral column.
B) The basketball player probably has 1 more vertebra in each region of the vertebral column.
C) The gymnast probably has larger vertebrae than the basketball player.
D) The basketball player probably has larger vertebrae than the spinal column.
E) The basketball player probably has much thicker intervertebral discs.
Answer: D
Reference: Page 212, Vertebral Column
Level of Difficulty: Hard
40) The vertebral curves
A) increase the strength of the vertebral column.
B) increase the probability of vertebral fractures.
C) decrease in number after birth.
D) decrease stability and equilibrium.
E) All of these are correct.
Answer: A
Reference: Page 212, Vertebral Column
Level of Difficulty: Medium
41) Place the vertebral curves in the order in which they develop:
1. cervical
2. thoracic and sacral
3. lumbar
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 3, 2, 1
C) 2, 1, 3
D) 3, 1, 2
E) 1, 3, 2
Answer: C
Reference: Page 212, Vertebral Column
Level of Difficulty: Medium
42) Which of the following correctly describes the vertebrae?
A) Their weight-bearing part projects posteriorly and is called the spinous process.
B) They are separated by intervertebral discs.
C) Their intervertebral foramina contain the spinal cord.
D) Their vertebral foramina allow the passage of spinal nerves from the spinal cord to the body.
E) Their transverse processes contain the intervertebral foramina.
Answer: B
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Reference: Page 212, Vertebral Column
Level of Difficulty: Medium
43) The atlas
A) is a lumbar vertebra.
B) includes the dens (odontoid process)
C) has a large spinous process.
D) articulates with the occipital condyles of the skull.
E) allows a person to move her head left or right on the neck.
Answer: D
Reference: Page 212, Vertebral Column
Level of Difficulty: Medium
44) Which feature is unique to cervical vertebrae?
A) bifid spinous processes on C3-C6.
B) small vertebral arches
C) absence of foramina in the transverse processes.
D) small vertebral arches
E) large, thick vertebral bodies
Answer: A
Reference: Page 212, Vertebral Column
Level of Difficulty: Medium
45) Vertebral features found only in the thoracic region are
A) transverse processes.
B) superior articular facets.
C) articulation with ribs.
D) transverse foramina.
E) superiorly projecting spinous processes.
Answer: C
Reference: Page 212, Vertebral Column
Level of Difficulty: Medium
46) Lumbar vertebra
A) have the largest vertebral foramina.
B) have thin bodies.
C) have long, inferiorly angled spinous processes.
D) bear more weight than the cervical or thoracic vertebrae.
E) fuse into a single bone by the age of 30 years.
Answer: D
Reference: Page 212, Vertebral Column
Level of Difficulty: Medium
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47) The sacrum
A) is a rectangular bone formed by the fusion of four coccygeal vertebrae.
B) is the anchor point of the pectoral girdle.
C) curves anteriorly in females and inferiorly in males.
D) includes a canal on its anterior surface, but is mostly smooth on its posterior surface.
E) is shorter and wider between S2 and S3 in females than in males.
Answer: E
Reference: Page 212, Vertebral Column
Level of Difficulty: Medium
48) Which of the following is NOT part of the thoracic cage?
A) sternum
B) bodies of thoracic vertebrae
C) clavicle
D) ribs
E) costal cartilages
Answer: C
Reference: Page 222, Thorax
Level of Difficulty: Easy
49) The sternum
A) is a rounded, S-shaped bone at the superior edge of the thoracic cage.
B) consists of three parts: the manubrium, the body (gladiolus) and the xiphoid process.
C) includes the sternal notch formed by the junction of the manubrium and body.
D) articulates with the clavicles at the sternal angle.
E) directly attaches to every rib.
Answer: B
Reference: Page 222, Thorax
Level of Difficulty: Medium
50) Which of the following statements about ribs is true?
A) Ribs are more numerous in women than men.
B) Ribs 11 and 12 are the broadest and flattest; they serve as a landmark for the brachial plexus.
C) Ribs 8-10 attach directly to the sternum through the costal cartilage.
D) Ribs 1-6 attach indirectly to the sternum and are called false ribs.
E) Ribs attach to the vertebral bodies and the vertebral transverse processes.
Answer: E
Reference: Page 222, Thorax
Level of Difficulty: Medium
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