Download Earth Science Final

Earth Science Final
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1.
According to the nebular hypothesis, our solar system formed from a huge rotating
cloud made mostly of ____.
____ 2.
Earth’s four major spheres are the ____.
____ 3.
What are the three main parts of the geosphere?
____ 4.
The theory of plate tectonics helps scientists explain ____.
____ 5.
According to the plate tectonics model, what layers form Earth’s rigid, mobile plates?
____ 6.
What are the two sources of energy for the Earth system?
____ 7.
The sun’s energy drives which of the following processes?
____ 8.
How could the building of a dam affect the Earth system?
____ 9.
Which of the following is an example of a renewable resource?
____ 10.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a renewable resource?
____ 11.
A scientific idea that is well tested and widely accepted by the scientific community
is called a scientific ____.
____ 12.
What are the building blocks of minerals?
____ 13.
What is a naturally occurring, inorganic solid with an orderly crystalline structure and
a definite chemical composition?
____ 14.
Mineral formation caused by high pressures and high temperatures would most likely
occur in which of the following environments?
____ 15.
The most common mineral group in Earth’s crust is the ____.
____ 16.
What is the density of a mineral with a mass of 41.2 g and a volume of 8.2 cm ?
____ 17.
Which of the following minerals will fizz in contact with hydrochloric acid?
____ 18.
What is a naturally occurring, solid mass of mineral or mineral-like matter?
____ 19.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of rock?
____ 20.
All of the energy that drives Earth’s rock cycle comes from ____.
____ 21.
A rock that forms when magma hardens beneath Earth’s surface is called an ____.
____ 22.
A rock that forms from cooling lava is classified as an ____.
____ 23.
____.
As the rate of cooling of igneous rocks increases, the size of the crystals that form
____ 24.
Fossils are only found in ____.
____ 25.
Renewable resources ____.
____ 26.
What is one of the drawbacks to the extensive use of solar energy?
____ 27.
Hydroelectric power is produced by ____.
____ 28.
What amount of Earth’s total water supply is usable fresh water?
____ 29.
What is the function of the atmosphere’s ozone layer?
____ 30.
The greenhouse gas carbon dioxide helps to ____.
____ 31.
The water cycle is the ____.
____ 32.
Balance in the water cycle means that ____.
____ 33.
A fault is ____.
____ 34.
When an earthquake occurs, energy radiates in all directions from its source, which is
called the ____.
____ 35.
Most earthquakes are produced by the rapid release of which kind of energy stored in
rock subjected to great forces?
____ 36.
The San Francisco earthquake of 1906 occurred along what fault?
____ 37.
Which seismic waves travel most rapidly?
____ 38.
Overall, which seismic waves are the most destructive?
____ 39.
An earthquake’s magnitude is a measure of the ____.
____ 40.
A tsunami can occur when there is vertical movement at a fault under ____.
____ 41.
What layers of Earth make up the lithosphere?
____ 42.
Most of the information about Earth’s interior was obtained by studying ____.
a. earthquake waves
c. meteorites
b. rocks of the ocean crust
d. rocks in deep wells
____ 43.
Earth’s inner core is solid because of ____.
____ 44.
The supercontinent in the continental drift hypothesis was called ____.
____ 45.
A tectonic plate consists of ____.
____ 46.
What kind of plate boundary occurs where two plates grind past each other without
destroying or producing lithosphere?
____ 47.
What type of boundary occurs where two plates move together, causing one plate to
descend into the mantle beneath the other plate?
____ 48.
New ocean crust is formed at ____.
____ 49.
Volcanic island arcs are associated with what type of plate boundary?
____ 50.
At a transform fault boundary, ____.
____ 51.
The Hawaiian Islands were formed when the Pacific Plate moved over ____.
____ 52.
Which of the following factors helps determine whether a volcanic eruption will be
violent or relatively quiet?
____ 53.
The particles produced in volcanic eruptions are called ____.
____ 54.
The most violent volcanic eruptions are associated with what type of volcano?
____ 55.
Magma tends to rise towards Earth’s surface primarily because ____.
____ 56.
Faults in which movement is mainly horizontal and parallel to the trend of the fault
surface are called ____.
____ 57.
What is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere?
____ 58.
What is the lowest layer of the atmosphere?
____ 59.
When energy is transferred to air, what happens to the particles of air?
____ 60.
Earth receives energy from the sun through what method of heat transfer?
____ 61.
The two most important heat-absorbing gases in the lower atmosphere are ____.
____ 62.
Which of the following best describes the temperatures of a city located along a
windward coast?
____ 63.
Many clouds have a high albedo and therefore tend to ____.
____ 64.
Which of the following can change from one state of matter to another at the
temperatures and pressures experienced at Earth’s surface?
____ 65.
The change of state from a gas to a liquid is called ____.
____ 66.
What is true about warm, saturated air?
____ 67.
The force exerted by the weight of the air above is called ____.
____ 68.
Which force generates winds?
____ 69.
Variations in air pressure from place to place are the principal cause of ____.
____ 70.
The deflection of wind due to the Coriolis effect is strongest at ____.
____ 71.
High-pressure systems are usually associated with which of the following?
____ 72.
If Earth did not rotate, how would air at the equator move?
____ 73.
An immense body of air characterized by similar properties at any given altitude is
known as a(n) ____.
____ 74.
A cold, dry air mass that moves over warm, tropical waters will likely become ____.
____ 75.
What is the first sign of an approaching warm front?
____ 76.
What type of front usually produces several hours of light-to-moderate precipitation
over a large region?
____ 77.
What happens to air when it sinks?
____ 78.
What phenomenon naturally warms Earth’s lower atmosphere and surface?
____ 79.
Which greenhouse gas is the most powerful absorber of radiation emitted by Earth?
____ 80.
One astronomical unit (AU) averages about ____.
____ 81.
What is the shape of a planet’s orbit?
____ 82.
orbits?
Which scientist determined the nature of the forces that keep the planets in their
____ 83.
What movement of Earth is responsible for night and day?
____ 84.
Seasons are caused by ____.
____ 85.
How long does it take the moon to go from full-moon phase to new-moon phase?
____ 86.
What occurs when the moon casts its shadow on Earth?
____ 87.
The most obvious difference between the terrestrial and the Jovian planets is ____.
____ 88.
____.
The formation of the solar system from a huge cloud of dust and gases is called the
____
The planet with the greatest temperature extremes is ____.
89.
____ 90.
Which planet has a dense carbon dioxide atmosphere and high surface temperatures?
____ 91.
The atmosphere of Venus is composed primarily of ____.
____ 92.
Which of the following planets does NOT have rings?
____ 93.
Which planet has a greater mass than the combined mass of all the remaining planets
and their moons?
____ 94.
Jupiter’s Great Red Spot is believed to be a ____.
____ 95.
Most asteroids lie between the orbits of ____.
____ 96.
A comet’s tail always points ____.
____ 97.
The small particles that produce a streak of light upon entering Earth’s atmosphere
are called ____.
____ 98.
Which of the following is NOT a form of electromagnetic radiation?
____ 99.
Gamma rays, X-rays, visible light, and radio waves are all types of ____.
____ 100.
Which color has the most energetic photons?
____ 101.
What information does a star’s spectrum offer about the star?
____ 102.
The layer of the sun that radiates most of the light that reaches Earth is the ____.
____ 103.
The outermost layer of the sun is called the ____.
____ 104.
The sun’s surface is made up mostly of ____.
____ 105.
What are the most explosive events that occur on the sun?
____ 106.
Sunspots appear dark because they are ____.
____ 107.
What effect do solar flares have on Earth?
____ 108.
The product of nuclear fusion is ____.
____ 109.
The sun can continue to exist in its present stable state for about another ____.
____ 110.
Stars of which color have the highest surface temperature?
____ 111.
Stellar distances are usually expressed in what units?
____ 112.
Which force is most responsible for the formation of a star?
____ 113.
Massive stars terminate in a brilliant explosion called a ____.
____ 114.
All stars, regardless of size, eventually ____.
____ 115.
The sun is a ____.
____ 116.
What will be the final stage in the sun’s life cycle?
____ 117.
Light cannot escape the intense gravitational pull of a ____.
____ 118.
Our galaxy is called the ____.
____ 119.
Where is our sun located in the Milky Way?
____ 120.
Which of the following is NOT a type of galaxy?
____ 121.
Which of the following indicates that the universe is expanding?
Earth Science Final
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
STA: 1.b
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 1.2
2.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 1.3
3.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 1.4
4.
ANS: C
STA: 3.a | 3.d | 3.e
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 1.5
5.
STA: 3.c
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 1.5
6.
STA: 4.a
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 1.10
7.
ANS: C
STA: 5.a | 5.b
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 1.10
8.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 1.11
9.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 1.12
10.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 1.12
11.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 1.13
12.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 2.1
13.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 2.6
14.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 2.7
15.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 2.9
16.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 2.13
17.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 2.14
18.
STA: 3.c
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 3.1
19.
STA: 3.c
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 3.2
20.
STA: 3.c
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 3.4
21.
STA: 3.c
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 3.5
22.
STA: 3.c
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 3.5
23.
STA: 3.c
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 3.6
24.
STA: 3.c
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 3.10
25.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 4.1
26.
STA: 4.a
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 4.6
27.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 4.9
28.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 4.10
29.
STA: 8.c
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 4.11
30.
ANS: D
STA: 4.d | 8.b
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 4.11
31.
STA: 7.c
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 6.1
32.
STA: 7.c
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 6.2
33.
STA: 3.d
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 8.1
34.
STA: 3.d
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 8.1
35.
STA: 3.d
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 8.2
36.
STA: 3.d
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 8.3
37.
STA: 3.d
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 8.4
38.
STA: 3.d
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 8.4
39.
STA: 3.d
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 8.6
40.
ANS: C
STA: 3.a | 3.d
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 8.8
41.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 8.10
42.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 8.10
43.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 8.11
44.
STA: 1.c
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 9.1
45.
STA: 3.a
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 9.5
46.
STA: 3.b
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 9.6
47.
STA: 3.b
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 9.6
48.
STA: 3.b
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 9.6
49.
STA: 3.b
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 9.9
50.
STA: 3.b
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 9.10
51.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 9.12
STA: 3.f
52.
ANS: D
STA: 3.e | 3.f
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 10.1
53.
STA: 3.f
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 10.2
54.
ANS: C
STA: 3.e | 3.f
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 10.3
55.
STA: 3.c
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 10.7
56.
STA: 3.b
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 11.4
57.
STA: 8.a
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 17.1
58.
STA: 8.a
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 17.1
59.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 17.3
60.
ANS: C
STA: 4.b | 5.a
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 17.5
61.
ANS: D
STA: 8.a | 8.b
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 17.5
62.
STA: 6.b
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 17.7
63.
STA: 4.b
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 17.8
64.
STA: 7.c
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 18.1
65.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 18.2
66.
ANS: B
STA: 5.a | 5.b
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 18.3
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 19.1
67.
ANS: A
STA: 5.b
68.
ANS: C
STA: 5.a | 5.b
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 19.3
69.
ANS: C
STA: 5.a | 5.b
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 19.3
70.
STA: 5.a
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 19.4
71.
STA: 5.b
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 19.6
72.
STA: 5.b
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 19.8
73.
ANS: B
STA: 5.a | 5.b
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 20.1
74.
STA: 5.c
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 20.1
75.
STA: 5.a
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 20.6
76.
STA: 5.a
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 20.7
77.
STA: 6.a
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 21.9
78.
ANS: D
STA: 4.d | 6.c | 6.d
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 21.13
79.
STA: 6.d
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 21.14
80.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 22.3
81.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 22.3
82.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 22.3
83.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 22.4
84.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 22.4
85.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 22.5
86.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 22.6
87.
STA: 1.a
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 23.1
88.
STA: 1.b
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 23.2
89.
STA: 1.a
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 23.3
90.
ANS: A
STA: 1.a | 4.d
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 23.3
91.
ANS: D
STA: 1.a | 4.d
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 23.3
92.
STA: 1.a
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 23.3
93.
STA: 1.a
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 23.4
94.
STA: 1.a
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 23.4
95.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 23.5
96.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 23.6
97.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 23.7
98.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 24.1
99.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 24.1
100.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 24.1
101. ANS: B
STA: 2.d | 2.f
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 24.2
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 24.7
102.
ANS: A
STA: 1.e
103.
STA: 1.e
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 24.7
104.
STA: 1.e
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 24.7
105.
STA: 1.e
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 24.8
106.
STA: 1.e
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 24.8
107.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 24.8
108. ANS: C
STA: 1.e | 2.f
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 24.9
109.
STA: 1.e
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 24.9
110. ANS: D
STA: 2.d | 2.f
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 25.1
111.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 25.2
112.
STA: 2.d
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 25.5
113. ANS: D
STA: 2.d | 2.f
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 25.6
114.
STA: 2.f
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 25.6
115.
STA: 1.e
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 25.7
116.
STA: 2.d
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 25.7
117.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 25.7
118.
STA: 2.a
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 25.8
119.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 25.8
120.
STA: 2.b
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L1
OBJ: 25.9
121.
STA: 2.g
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
L2
OBJ: 25.10