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1. Platyhelminthes are more advanced than cnidaria because:
a. Platyhelminthes have a coelom.
b. They have radial symmetry, cnidarians are bilateral.
c. They have a complete digestive system, cnidarians don't.
d. Platyhelminthes are cephalized and have eye spots.
e. Actually cnidarians are more complex.
2. The following are all lophotrochozoans except:
a. Rotifera
b. Echinodermata
c. Ectoprocta
d. Nematoda
e. More than one of the above
3. In members of which of the following classes could you find an
incomplete digestive system?
a. Gastropoda
b. Turbellaria
c. Cnidaria
d. More than one, but not all of the above
e. All of the above
4. Which of the following classes are composed primarily of parasites?
a. Cestodia
b. Hirudinea
c. Trematoda
d. A & C only
e. All of the above
5. What is a major characteristic of parasitic life cycles?
a. A body with a scolex
b. High reproductive out put
c. Consuming a large amount of its host’s nutrients
d. Causing the death of the host
e. More than one of the above
6. A new species of terrestrial animal is discovered with the following
characteristics: exoskeleton; tracheal system for gas exchange;
modified segmentation. A knowledgeable zoologist would predict
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that as an adult it probably also would have:
a. wings
b. a post anal tail
c. a water vascular system
d. a sessile life style
e. a mantle cavity
7. Which of the following phyla are characterized by a complete
digestive system (mouth and anus)?
a. Porifera
b. Cnideria
c. Platyhelminthes
d. Rotifera
e. Choices c and d are both correct
9. What structure is characteristic of all mollusks?
a. tentacles
eyes
b. shell
d. gastrovascular cavity
c. multiple (more than two)
e. mantle cavity
10. Nudibranchs (mollusk) are sometimes known to display cnidocytes
on their surface for protection. These cnidocytes are obtained from their
food. What might they have been eating?
a. starfish
b. jellyfish
c. leaches
d.
crustaceans
e. flatworms
11. In which of the following phyla do the animals exhibit
segmentation?
a. Nematoda
b. Arthropoda
c. Annelida
d. Platyhelmenthes
e. Choices b and c are both correct
12. Annelids are characterized by which of the following
characteristics?
a. Blood vessels; b. Both mouth and anus; c. hermaphroditic;
d. answers b and c are correct; e. answers a, b, and c are all correct.
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15. Bird embryology is most similar to the embryology of what other
vertebrate class?
a. Agnatha
b. Amphibia c. Reptilia
d.
Mammalia
e. Osteichthyes
16. In which group of vertebrates did the lung first evolve?
a. Cartilaginous fishes
b. Bony fishes
c. Amphibians
d. Reptiles
e. Mammals
17. Reptiles are fully adapted to life on land. Which of the following
features is one of the adaptations which make life away from water easier
for this group than for the amphibians?
a.less permeable skin
b. limbs with digits
c. teeth
d. sense of smell
e. endothermy
18. Why are the Echinoderms considered to be more closely related to
the Chordates than to the Arthropods?
a. Because of the lack of segmentation
b. Because of their highly developed sensory systems
c. Because of similar body plans
d. Because of similarities in early development
e. Because most have limbs.
19. Which of the following animals exhibits five-fold symmetry as an
adult but bilateral symmetry as an embryo?
a. sea urchin
b. roundworm
c. hydra
d. clam
e. turtle
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20. What basic structure forms in the early embryos of most animals and
resembles
the sponge larval stage and some multicellular protists?
a. zygote
b. blastula
c. gastrula d.
protostome
e. coelom
22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of all mammals?
a. live birth of the young
b. hair
c. metabolic regulation of body temperature (endothermy)
d. secretory glands in skin
e. nourishment of the young with milk.
23. What is the most likely reason that Australia had no placental
mammals (except bats) prior to colonization by humans?
a. Marsupials were better adapted to the environment and caused
the placental mammals to go extinct.
b. Long ago, Australia rose out of the sea and was only colonized
by marsupials.
c. Australia separated from Africa and the other continents after the
appearance of the marsupials but before the appearance of the
placental mammals.
d. Marsupials evolved on the southern super continent (Gondwana)
while placental mammals evolved on the northern super continent
(Laurasia).
e. Australia is mostly desert and marsupials and monotremes are
better adapted to desert conditions.
26. When characterizing the life cycles of organisms in the various
eukaryotic kingdoms, which of the following statements would apply
best to the animals?
a. the haploid portion of the life cycle has been minimized
b. the diploid portion of the life cycle has been minimized
c. the haploid and diploid portions of the life cycle are about
equal
d. the life cycles of different animal species are so different that
statements about the life cycles of all the animals are not possible.
e. only the animals include a dikaryotic phase of the life cycle.
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27. The endoderm arises during which animal developmental stage?
a. Zygote; b. Cleavage; c. Blastula; d. Gastrula; e. Larva
28. Modern systematics indicates that the animal kingdom evolved from
what other kingdom?
a. Monera; b. Protista; c. Fungi; d. Plantae;
e. The animal kingdom arrose as the result of a symbiosis between a
member of the Protista and a member of the Fungi
29. Which of the following is descriptive of deuterostome
development?
a. The fate of the cleavage stage cells is indeterminate, and the
coelom forms from a solid mass of mesoderm.
b. The fate of the cleavage stage cells is determinant, and the coelom
forms from the blastocoel.
c. Early cleavage is spiral and determinant, and the blastopore
becomes the mouth.
d. Early cleavage is radial and indeterminate, and the blastopore
becomes the anus.
e. Early cleavage is radial and determinant, and the coelom forms
from outpockets of the archenteron (endoderm).
30. Which two phyla contain organisms which have eyes with a
focusable lens?
a. Molusca and
Arthropoda
b. Annelida and
Chordata
c. Cnideria and
Arthropoda
d. Echinodermata and
Chordata
e. Molusca and
Chordata
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31. Imagine that you are a biologist who has discovered a previously
unknown creature living on the bottom of the sea. Fertilized eggs from
this organism readily develop into embryos in the laboratory. The early
embryos have a notochord, and older embryos have a vertebral column
and dorsal nerve cord and a muscular postanal tail. From the
information given, how would you classify the organism?
a. Animal Kingdom
b. Chordate
c. Vertebrate
d. Choices a and b are both correct, but c may not be correct.
e. Choices a, b, and c are all correct.
3. Which of the following phylogenetic groups within the animal kingdom
encompasses all the others in the list?
A. rotifera
B. deuterostomes
C. bilateria
D. arthropoda
E. protostomes
4. Bilateral symmetry in the animal kingdom is best correlated with:
A. an ability to sense equally in all directions
B. an ability to capture food from a sessile position
C. symbiotic relationships
D. ventral and dorsal differentiation
E. motility and active predation and escape
5. Different lineages of the Class Reptilia are believed to have given rise to
which of the following animal groups?
A. Birds
B. Amphibians
C. Bony fishes
D. Mammals
E. Both (A) and (D)
6. Medusa and polyp body plans are typical of which group:
A. Parazoa
B. Cnidaria
C. Echinoderms
D. Platyhelminthes
E. Porifera
7. Which of the following is radially symmetrical?
A. a donut
B. an automobile
C. a spoon
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D. a dog
grinder, etc.)
E. a submarine sandwich (a.k.a. hoagie, sub,
8. Unlike other animals, sponges:
A. are unicellular.
B. possess cell walls.
C. lack true
tissues.
D. exhibit bilateral symmetry.
E. are prokaryotic.
9. Octopi are most closely related to which of the following organisms?
A. clams
B. jellyfish
C. starfish
D. earthworms
E. crabs
10. There are three major groups of mammals, categorized on the basis of
their
A. size.
B. habitat.
C. method of
locomotion.
D. the presence or absence of hair.
E. method of
reproduction.
11. The innovation that freed vertebrates from being tied to water for
reproduction and allowed them to radiate into diverse terrestrial
environments was the development of
A. ecdysis.
B. the placenta.
C. lateral line
system.
D. bony appendages.
E. amniotic egg.
12. Which of the following classifications would not apply to both dogs and
humans?
A. Sub-phylum Vertebrata
B. Kingdom Animalia C. Phylum
Chordata
D. Order Primates
E. Class Mammalia
13. A child brought home a strange animal it found outside under a rock. It
had moist skin, a complete digestive tract, a ventral nerve cord, and had
gone through torsion. It must be:
A. a lancelet.
B. a crustacean.
C. a
mollusk.
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D. a roundworm.
E. an annelid.
14. You are eumetazoan, bilateral, and a protostome. What other clade must
you belong to in order to be a rotifera?
A. radiata
B. cnidaria
C. mollusca
D. lophotrochozoa
E. ecdysozoa
15. Tetrapods include:
A.humans
C. birds
E. all of the above
B. snakes
D. salamanders
18. Based on our current understanding of the evolutionary relationships
among organisms, humans are most closely related to:
A. ray-finned fish
B. amphibians
C. osteichthyes
D. reptiles
E. echinodermata
19. Insects are typically characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Three pairs of legs
B. chelicerata
C. wings
D. A head, thorax, and abdomen
E. Bilateral symmetry
20. Unlike placental mammals, both monotremes and marsupials:
A. are found in Australia and Africa
B. lack nipples
C. include only insectivores and herbivores D. lay eggs
E. have some embryonic development outside the mother's uterus
22. The Chelicerata:
A. have malpighian tubules
B. have three body regions:
head, thorax, abdomen
C. have anterior appendages modified as pincers or fangs
D. undergo complete metamorphosis during their life cycles
E. have all of the above (A-D) features
23. The greatest number of described species is found in which of the
following groups of organisms?
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A. Kingdom Plantae
C. Kingdom Fungi
D. Class Insecta
B. Subphylum Vertebrata
E. Kingdom Animalia
8.) In Protostome development:
a.) the mouth develops from the blastopore b.) the mouth develops second
c.) the anus develops first
d.) the mouth and the anus are
the
same opening
9.) The Mesoderm gives rise to
a.) the outer covering and the central nervous system
b.) the digesntive
tube lining
c.) the lungs and the liver
d.) the muscles and most organs
10.) Ecdysozoans are characterized by
a.) having wings
b.) a process of shedding their exoskeleton
c.) a unique feeding structure d.) a trochophore larval stage
11.) Phylum Porifera contains organisms that:
a.) lack true tissues
b.) live on land
c.) are motile most of their lives d.) None of the above
12.) Animals in Phylum Cnidarian:
a.) can have two body forms
b.) contain cnidocytes to help capture
prey
c.) include jelly fish, corals and hydras
d.) all of the above.
14.) All mollusks:
a.) have three main body parts b.) are soft bodied
c.) contain a mantle
d.) all of the above
15.) Nematodes have a tough outer coat called a:
a.) saprobe
b.) cuticle
c.) proglotids
d.) exockeleton
16.) Echinoderms contain
a.) a water vascular system
c.) cnidocytes
b.) a true head
d.) chitin
17.) Which is not a characteristic of all chordates?
a.) dorsal, hallow nerve cord
b.) notochord
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c.) paired appendages
d.) muscular post-anal tail
18.) The unique cells to craniates are called:
a.) epithelial cells b.) neural crest cells
c.) radial crest cells
d.) none of the above
19.) Lobe-finned fish
a.) contain a swim bladder
b.) are from order anura
c.) are amniotes
d.) none of the above
20.) Derived human characteristics include
a.) upright posture b.) bipedal stance
c.) larger brains d.) all of the above
3. Sharks and rays _______.
a. have skeletons made of cartilage
b. are gnathostomes
c. have true jaws
d. all of the above
4. A water vascular system can be found in _______.
a. millipede
b. grass hopper
c. crab
d. starfish
e. Roundworm
6. What gave vertebrates an advantage to colonizing land?
a. being warm-blooded
b. the amniotic egg
c. development of gills
d. indeterminant cleavage
7. ______, ______, and ______ all lack true heads.
a. tunicates, lancelets, craniates
b. tunicates, lancelets, rotifers
c. craniates, tunicates, rotifers
d. rotifers, craniates, lancelets
8. Protosomes undergo _______ and ______ cleavage.
a. radial and indeterminant
b. radial and determinant
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c. spiral and indeterminant
d. spiral and determinant
10. Chitin can be found in _______.
a. cell walls of fungi
b. exoskeleton of arthropods
c. cell walls of nematodes
d. both a and b
11. Humans are _______ animals.
a. exothermic
b. endothermic
c. isothermic
d. mesothermic
12. Reptiles, birds, amphibians, and humans are all amniotes.
a. true
b. false
13. A tracheal system is a system used for _______.
a. respiration
b. excretion
c. digestion
d. none of the above
14. The Cambrian explosion occurred during the _______ Era.
a. Cenozoic
b. Mesozoic
c. Paleozoic
d. Neoproterozoic
15. The body regions of an insect are _______.
a. head, body, wings
b. head, abdomen
c. thorax, abdomen, wings
d. head, thorax, abdomen
2. The difference between millipedes and centipedes is that ______.
a. millipedes live one million years and centipedes only live one
hundred years
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b. millipedes have one million legs and centipedes only have one
hundred legs
c. millipedes have two pairs of legs per segment and centipedes have
only one pair
d. millipedes have one pair of legs per segment and centipedes have
two
3. Viviparous development occurs with ______.
a. all mammals
b. reptiles
c. amphibians
d. eutherians
4. Humans evolved from apes.
a. true
b. false
6. Ecdysis is the process of _____.
a. growing back a lost limb
b. the molting of an exoskeleton
c. changing from one stage to another in metamorphosis
d. an insect slowly dehydrating itself in preparation for winter
9. An example of a filter feeder would be a(n) _______.
a. amphibians
b. snail
c. earthworm
d. sponge
10. Humans are ______.
a. Mammals
b. Eutherians
c. Homo sapiens
d. Hominoids
e. all of the above
11. Having moist skin and lungs allowed ______ to live on land.
a. amphibians
b. reptiles
c. slugs
d. plankton
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13. Birds are _____.
a. always able to fly
b. descended from reptiles
c. sometimes flightless
d. both b and c
e. both a and b
24. Which of the following is false regarding mitosis and meiosis?
a. Mitosis produces daughter cells with the same ploidy level whereas
meiosis produces daughter cells with half the ploidy level.
b. Mitosis provides heritability but not variability whereas meiosis
provides both heritability and variability.
c. Mitosis is present in all somatic cells and germ cells whereas
meiosis is present only in germ cells.
d. none of the above
e. all of the above
25. A cell has 250 chromosomes. After the cell undergoes meiosis, how
many daughter cells are formed and how many chromosomes does each cell
have?
A. 2, 250 B. 4, 125 C. 4, 250 D. 2, 125 E. 2, 500
26. Which of the following is not a phase of mitotic phase of cell cycle?
A. Prophase B. Interphase
C. Prometaphase D. Telophase
E. Anaphase
27. The chromosome is attached to the spindle fiber at the following
structure
A. centrosome
B. centromere
C. Kinetochore
D. microtubule
28. Which of the following is not one of the check points in cell cycle?
A. G1 checkpoint B. S checkpoint C. M checkpoint D. G2
checkpoint
29. Which of the following doesn’t occur during mitosis?
A. condensation of the chromosomes
B. replication of DNA
C. spindle formation
D. separation of the spindle poles
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30. One difference between cancer cells and normal cells is that cancer cells
A. are unable to synthesize DNA
B. are arrested at the S phase of the cell cycle
C. continue to divide even when they are tightly packed together
D. are always in the M phase of the cell cycle
31. A particular cell has half as much DNA as some other cells in a
mitotically active tissue. The cell in question is most likely in
A. G1
B. G2
C. metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. prophase
40. Trichinosis is a disease caused by a/an
A. Rotifera
B. Platyhelminthes C. Nematoda
Fungus
E. Annelida
32. Among the characteristics unique to animals is
a. gastrulation.
b. multicellularity.
c. sexual reproduction.
d. flagellated sperm.
e. heterotrophic nutrition.
33. Acoelomates are characterized by
a. the absence of a brain.
b. the absence of mesoderm.
c. deuterostome development.
d. a coelom that is not completely lined with mesoderm.
e. a solid body without a cavity surrounding internal organs.
D.
34. Ectoderm can give rise to _____; mesoderm can give rise to _____;
endoderm can give rise to _____.
a. muscle ... the outer covering of the animal ... the central nervous
system
b. the lining of the digestive tract ... muscle ... the outer covering of the
animal
c. the central nervous system ... the outer covering of the animal ... the
lining of the digestive tube
d. muscle ... the outer covering of the animal ... the lining of the
digestive tube
e. the central nervous system ... muscle ... the lining of the digestive tube
35. A pseudocoelomate animal is one in which the body cavity is _____.
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a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
bounded completely by mesoderm
filled by a solid mass of mesoderm
bounded completely by endoderm
bounded partly by ectoderm
bounded partly by mesoderm
36. Which of the following are related only to Prophase I in meiosis?
i. synapsis
ii. crossing over iii. kinetochore
iv. chiasmata v. Tetrad
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
i, ii and iii
i, ii and iv
i, ii and iv
i, ii, iii and iv
i, ii, iii and v
All of the above
37. Which of the following is true about Anaphase I of meiosis?
a. The sister chromatids separate
b. The nuclear envelope forms back
c. The homologous chromosomes separate
d. The spindle fibers contracts
e. more than one of the above
f. none of the above
1. Which of the following statements about the relationship between DNA
molecules and chromatids is correct?
a. Each chromatid contains a single linear DNA molecule.
b. Each chromatid contains a large number of circular DNA molecules.
c. The number of DNA molecules per chromatid varies between one and
two depending on the time in the cell cycle.
d. The number of DNA molecules per chromatid is described by the term
ploidy. Thus, diploid cells contain two, tetraploid four, etc.
e. Each gene is a DNA molecule, and chromosomes contain many genes,
therefore each chromatid contains a large number of linear DNA
molecules.
2. Which of the following terms refers to structures with similar, but not
identical, DNA molecules?
a. diploids
b. homologous chromosomes
c. sister chromatids
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d. homologs
e. choices b and d are both correct
3. How many chromosomes and how many chromatids are present in a
haploid cell during metaphase if a diploid cell from the organism has 48
chromosomes during G1?
a) 24 and 24;
b) 24 and 48;
c) 48 and 48;
d) 48 and 96;
e) 96 and 96.
4. Which of the following statements about meiosis is correct?
a. One purpose of meiosis is to assure that sexual reproduction does not
double the amount of DNA per cell each generation.
b. One purpose of meiosis is to assure that daughter cells are essentially
identical.
c. One purpose of meiosis is to provide a large amount of variation
within a population.
d. Choices a and c are both correct.
e. Choices a, b, and c are all correct.
5. What is a major difference between Prophase of Meiosis I and Prophase
of Meiosis II?
a. DNA synthesis occurs in Prophase I, but not in Prophase II.
b. Recombination occurs in Prophase I, but not in Prophase II.
c. The spindle forms in Prophase II, but not Prophase I.
d. Chromosomes line up in the center of the cell in Prophase I.
Chromosomes do not line up in Prophase II.
e. Choices b and c are both correct.
6. A diploid brain cell from a female mouse has 22 chromosomes in
Metaphase. How many chromosomes and how many chromatids are
present in prophase of meiosis II in this mouse?
a. 11 chromosomes and 11 chromatids
b. 11 chromosomes and 22 chromatids
c. 22 chromosomes and 11 chromatids
d. 22 chromosomes and 22 chromatids
e. 22 chromosomes and 44 chromatids
7. A Drosophila melanogaster sperm cell has four chromosomes. How
many DNA molecules, how many chromatids, and how many
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chromosomes are present in a Drosophila cell nucleus during metaphase
of Meiosis I?
a. 4 DNA Molecules, 4 chromatids, and 4 chromosomes
b. 8 DNA Molecules, 8 chromatids, and 4 chromosomes
c. 8 DNA Molecules, 8 chromatids, and 8 chromosomes
d. 16 DNA Molecules, 8 chromatids, and 8 chromosomes
e. 16 DNA Molecules, 16 chromatids, and 8 chromosomes
8. A tetraploid marigold cell has 48 chromosomes in its nucleus during the
G1 portion of the mitotic cell cycle. How many chromosomes are
present in a cell from the same plant which is in the metaphase of meiosis
II?
a. 96
b. 48
c. 24
d. 12
e. 6
9. The transmission of traits from one generation to another is called:
a.) genetic recombination.
b.) meiosis.
c.) gene transmission.
d.) inheritance.
10.Chromosomes in a pair that have the same length, staining pattern, and
centromere position are known as_________________.
a.) homolougues.
b.) sister chromatids
c.) somatic chromosomes.
d.) none of the above.
11.Gametes are produced by ____________ which takes place in the
_____________ part of the life cycle.
a.) mitosis, haploid.
b.) mitosis, diploid.
c.) meiosis, diploid.
d.) meiosis, haploid.
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