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Assignment Booklet
B. Tech. in Aerospace Engineering
BTAE Programme
Second Semester
Third Semester
ET 101 B
Mathematics-II
BAS 007
CNS- ATM Systems
BAS 004
Workshop Technology
BAS 008
Strength of Materials
BAS 005
Engineering Drawing
BME 018
Material Science
BME 021
Principles of Electrical and
Electronics Science
ET 201 A
Mechanics of Fluid
BAS 006
Computer Fundamentals
BAS 009
Introduction to Aeronautics
SCHOOL OF ENGINEERING & TECHNOLOGY
INDIRA GANDHI NATIONAL OPEN UNIVERSITY
Maidan Garhi, New Delhi-110 068
JANUARY 2010
B. Tech in Aerospace Engineering
Dear Student,
As we explained in the Programme Guide for B. Tech in Aerospace Engineering, you will
have to do one Tutor Marked Assignment (TMA) for each course.
You will find that the questions in the assignments are analytical and descriptive so that you
can better understand and comprehend the concepts.
Before you attempt the assignments, please read the instructions carefully provided in the
Programme Guide. It is important that you write the answer to all the TMA questions in
your own words. Your answers should be in brief and to the point. Remember, writing
answers to assignment questions will improve your writing skills and prepare you for the
term-end examination.
You are to submit the assignments to the Coordinator of your Centre. You must obtain a
receipt from the Centre for the assignments submitted and retain it with you. It is desirable
to keep a photocopy of the assignments submitted by you.
Once evaluated, the Centre will return the assignments to you. Please insist on this. The
Centre will send the marks to the SR&E Division at IGNOU, New Delhi.
Submission :
You need to submit the assignment within the stipulated date for being eligible to appear in
the term-end examination.
The completed assignments should be sent as per the following schedule.
Assignment
ET – 101 B
BAS – 004
BAS – 005
BME – 021
BAS – 006
BAS – 007
BAS – 008
BME – 018
ET – 201 A
BAS - 009
Date of Submission
Whom to send
All assignments are to be
submitted by
31st May 2010
To
The Coordinator of the
Centre allotted to you
2
GUIDELINES FOR DOING ASSIGNMENT
We expect you to answer each question as per instructions in the assignment.
You will find it useful to keep the following points in mind:
1)
Planning: Read the assignment carefully; go through the Units on
which they are based. Make some points regarding each question and
then rearrange them in a logical order.
2)
Organisation: Be a little selective and analytical before drawing up a
rough outline of your answer. Give adequate attention to question’s
introduction and conclusion.
Make sure that:
a) The answer is logical and coherent.
b) It has clear connections between sentences and paragraphs.
c) The presentation is correct in your own expression and style.
3)
Presentation: Once you are satisfied with your answer, you can
write down the final version for submission. It is mandatory to write
the assignment neatly in your own handwriting. If you so desire, you
may underline the points you wish to emphasize. Make sure that the
answer is within the stipulated word limit.
Prof. Subasis Maji
(Programme Coordinator)
3
BTAE
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
ET-101 B
MATHEMATICS-II
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Note :
.
Q.1
Course Code : ET-101B
Last Date of Submission : May 31, 2010
All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all
Blocks of Mathematics II
(a)
An urn contain 10 balls of which three are black and seven are white. At each trial, a ball is
selected at random, its colour is noted and it is replaced by two additional balls of the same
colour. What is the probability that a white ball is selected in the second trial?
(b)
One bag contains 4 white balls and 3 black balls, and a second bag contains 3 white balls
and 5 black balls. One ball is drawn from the first bag and placed unseen in the second bag.
What is the probability that a ball now drawn from the second bag is black?
(c)
An anti-aircraft gun can take a maxinum of four shots on enemy’s plane moving away from
it. The probabilities of hitting the plane at first, second, third and fourth shots are 0.4, 0.3,
0.2 and 0.1 respectively. Find the probability that the gun hits the plane.
(d)
Let x be the continuous random variable with probability density function
Kx 2 ,
1  x  2
f ( x)  
otherwise
0,
(i)
Find the constant K
(ii)
Find P(0  x  1)
(e)
A factory manufacturing televisions has four units A, B, C and D. The units A, B,
C and D manufacture 15%, 20%, 30% and 35%, of the total output respectively. It
was found that out of their output 1%, 2%, 2% and 3% are defective. A television
is chosen at random from the total output, and found to be defective. What is the
probability that it came for the unit D?
(f)
Find the errors in each of the following statements:
(i) A and B are two events with P(A) = 0.9, P(B) = 0.8, P( A  B)  0.6 .
1
2
1
3
(ii) A and B are two independent events with P( A)  , P( B)  and P( A  B) 
3
4
(g)
India plays two matches each with West Indies and Australia. In any match the
probability of India getting points 0, 1 and 2 are 0.45, 0.05 and 0.50 respectively.
Assuming that the outcomes are independent, find the probability of India getting
at least 7 points.
(h)
Suppose the probability for A to win a game against B is 0.4. If A has an option of
playing either a “best of 3 games” or a “best of 5 games” match against B, which
option should A choose so that the probability of his winning the match is higher?
(Assume that no game ends in a draw).
4
Q.2
(a)
If 20% of the bolts produced by a machine are defective, determine the probabilty that out
of 4 bolts chosen at random
(i)
1
(ii)
0
(iii)
At most 2
bolts will be defective.
(b)
Numbers are selected at random, one at a time, from the two-digit numbers 00, 01, 02, ...,
99 with replacement. An event E occurs if and only if the product of the two digits of a
selected number is 18. If four number is selected, find the probability that the event E occurs
at least 3 times.
(c )
The probability density function of a variable X is
(d)
x
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
P (x)
k
3k
5k
7k
9k
11 k
13 k
(i)
Find P( X  4), P( X  5), P(3  X  6)
(ii)
What will be the minimum value of k so that P( X  2)  3 ?
A multiple choice test contains 6 questions. Each question has 3 answers of
which only 1 is the correct answer. The student has no idea as to which of the
alternatives is the correct answer. The student rolls a fair dice. If face 1 or 2 show
up, he selects answer (a) If face 3 or 4 show up, he selects answer (b) and if face
5 or 6 show up, he selects answer (c). Find the probability that he will get
(i)
exactly 4 correct answers.
(ii)
no correct answer
(iii)
at most 2 correct answers.
(e)
A lot contains 20 articles. The probability that the lot contains exactly 2 defective
articles is 0.4 and that it contains exactly 3 defective articles is 0.6, Articles are
drawn from the lot at random one by one without replacement and tested till all
the defective articles are found. What is the probability that this procedure ends at
the twelfth testing?
(f)
The diameter of an electric cable is assumed to be continuous random variate
with p. d. f.(Probability density function).
f ( x)  6 x(1  x), 0  x  1
(i)
Verify that above is probability density function.
(ii)
Find the mean and variance.
5
Q.3
(a)
A random sample of 400 tins of vegetable oil and labeled “5 kg net weight” has a mean net
weight of 4.98 kg with standad deviation of 0.22 kg. Do we reject the hypothesis of net
weight of 5 kg per tin on the basis of this sample at 1% level of significance?
(b)
Ten individuals are chosen at random from the population and their heights are found to be
inches 63, 63, 64, 65, 66, 69, 69, 70, 70, 71. Discuss the suggestion that the mean height in
the universe is 65 inches given that for 9 degree of freedom the value of students’s ‘t’ at 0.05
level of significance is 2.262.
(c)
A random sample of 16 values from a normal population is found to have a mean of 41.5 and
standard deviation of 2.795 . On this basis, is there any reason to reject the hypothesis that
the population mean  = 43? Also find the confidence limits for .
(d)
A random sample of 400 male students is found to have a mean height of 67.47 inches and
standard deviaiton of 1.30 inches. On this basis is there any reason to reject the hypothesis
that the population mean height is 67.39 inches?
(e)
A group of 1000 students has the mean height 67.5 inches. Another group of 2000 students
has the mean height 68 inches. Can the sample be regarded as drawn from the same
populaiton with standard deviaiton of 2.5 inches?
(f)
The height distribution of a group of 10,000 men is normal with mean 64.5 inch and standard
deviaition 4.5 inch.
Find the number of men whose height is
(i)
less than 69” but greater than 55.5”
(ii)
less than 55.5”, and
(iii)
more than 73.5” (you may use the data of Area under Standard Normal Curve).
6
BTAE
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
BAS-004
WORKSHOP TECHNOLOGY
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Note :
.
Q.1 (a)
Q.2
Q.3
Q.4
Q.5
Q.6
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Course Code : BAS-004
Last Date of Submission : May 31, 2010
All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all
Blocks of Workshop Technology
Explain why the understanding of manufacturing process is essential for better products.
(b)
State how carbon content influences the strength and ductility of plain carbon steels.
(a)
State the advantages of aluminium alloys over ferrous alloys.
(b)
Describe in brief the application of NC & CNC machines.
(a)
What do you mean by NC & CNC machine?
(b)
Name two alloying elements other than carbon, commonly employed in steel and state how
they influence the properties of steel.
(a)
State the advantages of both mechanical and hydraulic presses for press-forging applications.
(b)
What properties are desirable of a moulding sand from the stand point of sound castings?
(a)
State the difference between ‘smithing’ and ‘forging’. List the advantage and disadvantage of
each.
(b)
Describe how flame cutting is done stating its principle. Describe fully the method of oxygen
cutting. State the difference in oxygen and arc cutting? Which one is preferred and why?
(a)
What are the functions of coatings on shielded electrodes?
(b)
Describe the types of flames obtained in an oxy-acetylene gas welding process giving the
applications. Why is the neutral flame extensively used in oxy-acetylene welding?
(a)
Distinguish between arc and gas welding processes from the point of view of heat
concentration, temperature, ease of operation and running cost.
(b)
What is fit? Name the three main types of fits with their uses and suitbale sketches.
(a)
Explain the terms: tolerance, allowance, basic size, standard size, nominal size and limits.
(b)
A sheet which has already been bent in a cold state, offers great resistance to further
bending. Explain the reason.
(a)
Describe the use of limit gauges with suitable sketches.
(b)
State briefly electroplating with its advantages and limitations.
Q.10 (a)
(b)
Describe the common sheet metal operations or processes with suitbales sketches.
Why is inspection of manufactured part necessary, and what is the primary responsibility of
the inspection department?
7
BTAE
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
BAS-005
ENGINEERING DRAWING
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code: BAS-005
Last Date of Submission: May 31, 2010
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
Q.1
(a)
(b)
Write note on Outlines, Margin lines, Dimension lines, Construction lines,
Hatching lines
Show progressive dimensioning and angular dimensioning with sketch.
(6)
(6)
Q.2
Two lines OA & OB makes an angle of 75 . The point P is 40 mm from OA & 50 mm from OB.
Draw the hyperbola through
(12)
Q.3
Draw: (i) Front view, (ii) Side view, (iii) Top view.
(12)
Q.4
Fig. shows Three Views of the Bracket. Draw the Isometric View.
(12)
8
Q.5
Draw the development of the cylinder shown in the following figure.
Q.6
Define the following terms used in connection with a screw threads; core diameter;
outside diameter; crest; flank; depth; pitch; show each on a sketch of the thread end of the screw.
(12)
Q.7
Details of a crane hook are given in Fig. The particulars of parts are in Table. Draw the
following views of the crane hook with all parts assembled together.
(i)
(ii)
Sectional front view
Top view.
(12)
(16)
9
Table:
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
No
Q.8
Pin
Pin
Pin
Eye
Pulley
Link
Hooks
Plate
Name of the part
1
1
1
1
1
2
1
2
No. off
C-30
C-30
C-30
C-30
C.I
C-30
C-45
C-30
Material
Draw the sketch by using circle, line rectangle commands on AUTOCAD.
10
Remarks
(12)
BTAE
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
BME-021
PRINCIPLES OF ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS SCIENCE
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code: BME- 021
Last Date of Submission : May 31, 2010
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
Q.1
(a)
In the circuit shown in Figure 1, E1  3 V, E2  2 V, E3  1V and R  r1  r2  r3  1
r1
R
A
E1
r2
E2
r3
B
E3
Figure 1
(b)
(i)
Find the potential difference between the points A and B and the currents through each
branch.
(ii)
If r2 is short circuited and the point A is connected to point B, find the currents through
E1, E2, E3 and the resistor R.
Calculate the steady state current in the 2  resistor shown in the circuit (see Figure 2). The
internal resistance of the battery is negligible and the capacitance of the condenser C is
0.2 F
2
C
3
4
2.8

V = 6 volt
Figure 2
Q.2
(a)
An infinite ladder network of resistances is constructed with 1  and 2  resistances, as
shown in Figure 3? The 6 V battery between A and B has negligible internal resistance:
A
6V
2
1

1
1
1
2
2
2
B
Figure 3
(i)
Show that the effective resistance between A and B is 2  .
(ii)
What is the current that passes through the 2  resistance nearest to the battery?
11
Q.3
(b)
A lamp having a hot resistance of 25  is not allowed to pass current more than 5 A. Find
the value of the inductance, which must be used in series with the lamp, which is supplied by
an a.c. of maximum r.m.s 325 V at 50 Hz.
(a)
A circuit containing a 80 mH inductor and a 60 F capacitor in series is connected to a
230 V,50 Hz supply. The resistance of the circuit is negligible.
(b)
(i)
Obtain the current amplitude and r.m.s. values.
(ii)
Obtain the r.m.s values of potential drops across each element.
(iii)
What is the average power transferred to the inductor?
(iv)
What is the average power transferred to the capacitor?
In the network, given in the Figure 4:
(i)
Calculate the current through the 6 V battery
(ii)
Determine the potential difference between points A and B.
B
A
4
3
+
+
4V
2V
1
2
+
6V
Figure 4
Q.4
(a)
In the network of capacitors shown in Figure 5, find (i) equivalent capacitance and (ii) total
charge.
C1 = 100pF
C2 = 200pF
C3 = 200pF
300 V
+
C4 = 100pF
Figure 5
(b)
Q.5
(a)
(b)
(i)
Calculate the synchronous speed of a four-pole 50 Hz alternator.
(ii)
What is the frequency of voltage generated by an alternator having 10 – poles and
rotating at 720 rpm?
A single-phase transformer has 300 primary turns and 750 secondary turns, the net cross
sectional area of the core is 64 sq.cm. If the primary voltage is 440 voltage 50 c/s. Find
(i)
maximum flux density in the core
(ii)
e.m.f induced in the secondary.
A 1-phase, 50 Hz, core type transformer has square cores of 20 cm side. The permissible flux
density is 1 Wb/m2. Calculate the number of turns per limb on the high and low voltage sides
for a 3000/220 V ratio.
12
Q.6
(a)
(b)
A 150 kW, 250 V shunt generator has a field circuit of 50  and an armature circuit
resistance of 0.05 . Calculate:
(i)
The full load line current flowing to the load
(ii)
The field current
(iii)
The armature current
(iv)
The full load generator volatage
Find the current in the 1  resistor of the circuit of Figure 6 by Norton’s theorem.
1
+
5A
5
- 20V
+
10V
-
Figure 6
Q.7
(a)
A coil having a resistance of 10  and an inductance of 0.15 H is connected in series with a
100 F capacitor. At what frequency will the current be a maximum? If the applied voltage is
200 V, find the current. Calculate also the p.d. across the inductor and the capacitor.
(b)
An inductive coil of resistance 4  takes a current of 8 A when connected to a 100-V, 50 c/s
supply.
Calculate:
(i)
The impedance
(ii)
The reactance
(iii)
The inductance of the circuit.
What is the angle of phase difference between current and voltage.
Q.8
Q.9
(a)
The common base current gain of a transistor is 0.918.
(i)
If the emitter current is 9 mA, what is the value of base current?
(ii)
If the base current is 24 A, what is the value of emitter current?
(b)
A resistance of 10  is connected in series with an inductance of 30 mH across a 100 V,
50 Hz a.c. supply. Determine the current drawn, the power consumed and the power factor.
(a)
Find the equivalent resistance and the current drawn from the source by the circuit shown
below.
10
500 V
10
5
20
20
(b)
Give a brief explanation of the symbol, structure and equivalent circuit of an IGBT. Also
explain its on-state operation.
(c )
Discuss the architecture of 8085 microprocessor.
13
Q.10 (a)
Explain the circuit diagram of a half wave rectifier. Draw the output voltage waveform of the
rectifier. How does this output waveform gets modified in a full wave rectifier?
(b)
Discuss the OR, AND and NOT logic gates along with their truth tables. Hence explain
De-Morgan’s theorems.
(c)
Define Flip-flop. What are the different types of flip-flops? Explain how an S R flip-flop can
be realized.
 
14
BTAE
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
BAS-006
COMPUTER FUNDAMENTALS
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code: BAS-006
Last Date of Submission : May 31, 2010
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
Q.1
(a)
(b)
Define computer. What are the important characteristics of computers?
Describe various generations in computer technology.
Q.2
(a)
Draw a block diagram of computer and explain it.
(b)
What is the difference between RAM and ROM?
(c)
What is virus? How we can remove virus from computer?
(d)
Write a care of hardware Do’s and don’ts
(a)
Write functions of MS word.
(b)
Explain in brief the difference between save and save as.
(c)
Describe the concept of formatting and spell check.
(d)
Write steps of mail merge.
Q.3
Q.4
Q.5
Write following functions of excels.
i) Product ii) Sum iii) Mod
iv) Max
v) Min
vi) Average
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Q.6
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Convert binary to decimal
i) (1101011)2 ii) (11010)2
Convert octal to binary
i) (2614)8
ii) (562)8
Convert hexadecimal to binary
i) (2AC)16
ii) (FAB)16
i) Add the binary numbers 1010110 and 1011010
ii) Subtract 5610 from 9210 using complementary method
(a)
Write a program to add all elements of array.
(b)
Write a function of addition to add two numbers.
(a)
Describe in brief the uses of DBMS.
(b)
Write syntax of SQL command create table , insert record , edit , display.
(a)
What is operating system?
(b)
What are the different options available in the ‘file’ menu of MS word?
Write different version of windows.
Q.10 Write short note on internet.
15
BTAE
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
BAS-007
CNS-ATM SYSTEMS
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code: BAS-007
Last Date of Submission : May 31, 2010
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
Q.1
(a)
What is a DME? Explain its working with the help of a neat sketch.
(b)
What are marker beacons?
Q.2
What is a VOR? Explain each of its parts in detail.
Q.3
(a)
What is a PSR, SSR ? Where are they used?
(b)
Q.4
What is an ATC Transponder? What are the different modes of Operation of the transponder?
What is the importance of the mode C?
What is Hyperbolic navigation? What are its types? Explain each type in detail
Q.5
(a)
What is radio navigation?
(b)
What is the difference between en-route navigation and terminal area
navigation? Explain any one type of en-route navigation system.
Q.6
Explain the air traffic management system.
Q.7
What are Air data instruments? Explain any three.
Q.8
(a)
Explain the Principle of RADAR and derive the Radar equation?
(b)
Differentiate between the Primary Surveillance Radar and Secondary Surveillance Radar.
Q.9
Explain the following Organization
(i) DGCA
(ii) ICAO
(iii) AAI
Q.10 (a)
(b)
Describe the Analog Communication and Digital Communication with the help of a neat
sketch.
Explain the CW Radar.
16
BTAE
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
BAS-008
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code: BAS-008
Last Date of Submission : May 31, 2010
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
Q.1 (a)
A 3 m solid rectangular bar of cross-section 10 mm x 15 mm is subjected to a
compressive force of 150 kN. What is the change in length of the bar? Also find the strain
and stress produced in the bar. Take E = 2105 N/mm2 .
(b)
A composite bar made of brass and steel is fixed between two supports as shown in Figure

1. If the temperature is increased by 80 C, find the stresses induced in the steel and the
brass section assuming (i) if the supports do not yield and (ii) if the supports yield by 0.15
mm.
Steel Bar
Brass Bar
Take
  10mm
Es  2  10 5 N/mm 2
  20mm
Eb  1  10 5 N/mm 2
 s  1.2  10 5 /  C
 b  1.9  10 5 /  C.
200 mm
250 mm
Figure 1
Q.2
(a)
(b)
At a point in a material, there is a horizontal tensile stress of 270 MPa, a vertical tensile
stress of 130 MPa and shearing stress of 40 MPa downwards on left. With the aid of Mohr’s
circle or otherwise, find out the maximum and the minimum principal stresses and the
planes on which they act. Determine also the maximum shearing stress in magnitude and
direction.
In a strained material, the state of stress at a point is given below:
 x  40 MPa ,  y  25 MPa , and  xy  15 MPa
Find the following parameters:
i)
principal stresses on two mutually perpendicular planes at the point,
ii)
maximum shear stress,
iii)
principal stress planes
iv)
planes of maximum shear stress, and
v)
normal stress and shear stress on the planes of maximum shear stress.
17
Q.3 (a)
A composite bar is fixed between two supports as shown in Figure 2. If the temperature of

the bar is raised from 25 C to 75 C , find the stresses induced in each rod by assuming
(i) if the supports do not yield and (ii) if the supports yield by 0.25 mm.
E1  200 kN/mm 2 ,
1  1.2  10 5 /  C
E2  30 kN/mm 2 ,
 2  1.8  10 5 /  C
E3  100 kN/mm 2 ,
 3  1.6  10 5 /  C.
 = 150 mm
 = 50 mm
A
 = 100 mm
1
2
3
B
200 mm
300 mm
500 mm
Figure 2
(b)
Q.4
(a)
At a certain point within a strained material, the two normal stresses acting on two
mutually perpendicular planes are 60 MPa tensile and 30 MPa compressive. The maximum
principal stress is limited to 100 MPa. Find the shear stress on the planes. Also find the
maximum shear stress at the point.
Find the centroid of the shaded area formed by a straight line y = mx and a
2
= kx as shown in Figure 3, using direct integration method.
y
A
y = mx
b
y = kx2
O
x
a
Figure 3
18
curve y
(b)
Find the centroid and the area moment of inertia of the I-section as shown in Figure 4
about its centroidal axes.
50 mm
Y
15 mm
110 mm
G
X
X
20 mm
25 mm
Y
100 mm
Figure 4
Q.5
(a)
Draw shear force and bending moment diagrams for the beam as shown in Figure 5.
70 kN
20 kN/m
A
B
C
1m
2m
Figure 5
(b)
Draw shear force and bending moment diagrams for the beam as shown in Figure 6.
20 kN
40 kN
A
D
C
B
2.5 m
3m
2m
Beam
Figure 6
19
Q.6
(a)
A 5 m cantilever beam of cross – section 150 mm x 300 mm weighing
0.05 kN/m
carries an upward concentrated load of 30 kN at its free end as shown in Figure 7.
Determine the maximum bending stress at a section 2 m from free end.
30kN
2m
150 mm
300 mm
Figure 7
(b)
An I –section beam as shown in Figure 8 is subjected to a shear force 50 kN. Find the
magnitude and position of maximum shear stress.
120 mm
30 mm
30 mm
150 mm
30 mm
120
Figure 8
Q.7
(a)
(b)
Q.8
(a)
A simple steel beam of 4 m span carries a uniformly distributed load of 6 kN/m over its
entire span at a point load 2 kN mm
at its centre. If the permissible stress does not exceed 100
MPa, find the cross-section of the beam assuming depth to be twice of breadth.
A 2 m simple beam having cross-section 150 mm x 500 mm carries a point load of 20 kN at
a distance of 0.5 m from the left end. Find the slope at the two ends, deflection under the
load and the maximum deflection. Take E  2  10 4 N/mm 2 .
Two point loads of 5 kN and 15 kN are acting on a 5 m simple beam at 1 m and 2 m
respectively from the left end. Find
(i)
Slopes at the two ends,
(ii)
Deflections under the applied loads, and
(iii)
Positions and magnitude of maximum deflection.
Take
E = 90 GPa
I  18  10 6 mm 4 .
20
(b)
Q.9
(a)
(b)
Q10 (a)
(b)
Find the lowest speed at which 250 kW could be transmitted through a shaft of diameter
63 mm. The maximum shear stress is limited to 50 MPa. If length of the shaft is 6 m, find
the angle of twist. Take G = 80 GPa
Find the maximum torque that can be applied safely to a shaft of a diameter 300 mm.

The permissible angle of twist is 1.5 in a length of 7.5 m and maximum shear is limited to
42 MPa. Take G = 84.4 GPa.
A close coiled helical spring of mean coil radius equal of 6 times the wire
diameter is
subjected to an axial load of 120 N. It can absorb 5 J of energy producing a deflection of
50 mm. The maximum stress in the spring is not to exceed 80 N/mm 2 . Find the mean coil
diameter, the wire diameter, the number of turns in the spring and the length of the
spring. Take G  80 kN/mm 2 .
A bar of length 2 m is subjected to an axial load of 25 kN. The diameter of the bar for onehalf of its length is 30 mm and for the other half 60 mm. Calculate the strain energy stored
in the bar. Take E = 200 GPa.
A thin cylinder of inside diameter 250 mm is made of steel plate of thickness 12 mm and
having yield strength of 390 MPa. Find the maximum fluid pressure assuming a factor of
safety of 2.5 on the maximum shear stress.
21
BTAE
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
BME-018
MATERIAL SCIENCE
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code: BME- 01 8
Last Date of Submission : May 31, 2010
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
Q.1
Q.2
(a)
State how the properties of alloy steels are affected by following alloying elements:
manganese, chromium, and tungsten.
(b)
List any two commonly used nonferrous alloys stating their composition and application.
(a)
Draw a stress-strain diagram for a low carbon steel specimen indicating the proportional
limit, elastic limit, yield point, the point of maximum loading and rupture. Explain the above
important data.
(b)
What are plastics? Name two broad classifications of plastics. Distinguish between them.
Explain the term “polymerization”.
Q.3 (a)
(b)
Q.4
Q.5
Q.6
(i)
State briefly electroplating with its advantages and limitations. List important
quantitative and qualtitaive properties of lubricants.
(ii)
Why plastic coating is prefered on metals? State the various methods used in coating
plastics.
Draw the Iron-Carbon diagram and identify the following transformations.
(i)
Peritectic Reaction
(ii)
Eutectic Reaction
(iii
Eutectoid Reaction
(a)
Show that the atomic packing factor for the FCC crystal structure is 0.74.
(b)
With the help of sketches, discuss the fatigue crack propagation mechanism in (i) ductile
material and (ii) brittle material.
(a)
Determine the composition, in atom percent, of an alloy that consists of 97 wt% aluminum
and 3 wt% copper.
(b)
A cylindrical rod of copper (E = 110 Gpa), having a yield srenght of 240 MPa is to be
subjected to a load of 6660 N. If the lenght of the rod is 380 mm, what must be the diameter
to allow an elongation of 0.50 mm?
(a)
A steel specimen shows upper yeid point at 280 MPa, and lower yeild point at 250 MPa. If
modulus of elasticity, E, for steel is 230 ×103 MPa, calculate modules of resilience.
(b)
A piece of copper originally 305 mm long is pulled in tension with a strees of 276 MPa. If
deformation is entirely elastic, what will be the resultant elongation ?
Take E for copper = 11.0 × 104 MPa.
22
Q.7
Q.8
(a)
A steel wire having y  190 MPa is required to have a modulus of resilience of
140 Χ 10-6 N-m/mm3 . The yield strength can be increased by strain hardening. What should
be the percentage increase in yield strength ? Take E = 210 Χ 103 N/mm2 .
(b)
In a Brinell hardness test, a 1500 kg load is pressed into a specimen using a 10 mm diameter
hardened steel ball. The resulting indentation has a diameter = 3.2 mm. Determine the BHN
for the metal.
(a)
A cylindrical metal specimen 12.7 mm in diameter and 250 mm long is to be subjected to a
tensile stress of 28 MPa; at this stress level the resulting deformation will be totally elastic.
(i)
If the elongation must be less than 0.080 mm, which of the metals in Table 1 are
suitable candidates? Why?
(ii)
If, in addition, the maximum permissible diameter decrease is 1.2 x 10– 3 mm, which of
the metals in Table 1 may be used? Why?
Table 1 : Room Temperature Elastic and Shear Moduli,
and Poission’s Ratio for various Metal Alloys
Modulus of Elasticity
(GPa)
Shear Modulus
(GPa)
Poisson’s Ratio
Aluminum
69
25
0.33
Brass
97
37
0.34
Copper
110
46
0.34
Magnesium
45
17
0.29
Nickel
207
76
0.31
Steel
207
83
0.30
Titanium
107
45
0.34
Tungsten
407
160
0.28
Metal Alloy
Q.9
(b)
A cylindrical metal specimen having an original diameter of 12.8 mm and gauge length of
50.80 mm is pulled in tension until fracture occurs. The diameter at the point of fracture is
6.60 mm, and the fractured gauge lenght is 72.14 mm. Calculate the ductility in terms of
perent reduction in area and percent elongation.
(a)
A large thin plate carrying a crack of 80 mm at its centre is subjected to fluctuating stress
cycle perpendicular to crack. max = 90 MPa, and min = 40 MPa. The fracture toughness of
material of plate is 1700 MPa mm .
(b)
What are the functions of cutting fluids? Why are oil-water emulsions used as cutting fluids?
Q.10 (a)
(b)
A hypoeutectoid steel which was cooled slowly from austenite () state to room temperature
was found to contain 10% eutectoid ferrite. Assume no change in structure occurred on
cooling from just below the eutectoid temperature to room temperature. Calculate the carbon
content of steel.
A unidirectional FRP is produced with fibre volume ratio of 60%. The density of fibre is
1480 kg/m3. Determine the weight percentages of matrix and fibre and density of the
composite. Also determine the modulus of elasticity of the composit if Ef = 70 MPa and
Em = 3 GPa.
23
BTAE
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
ET-201 A
MECHANICS OF FLUID
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code: ET-201 A
Last Date of Submission : May 31, 2010
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
Q.1
Q.2
Q.3
Q.4
3
y  y 2 where u is the velocity in m/s
4
at distance y metres above the plate, determine the shear stress at a distance of 0.15 m from
the plate. Take the dynamic viscosity of the fluid as 0.834 N s/m2.
(a)
If the velocity distribution over a plate is given by u 
(b)
Calculate (i) the discharge and (ii) the power required to pump a liquid of specific gravity 0.8,
viscosity 0.01 N s/m2 through a pipeline 2 cm diameter, 100 m long operating at Reynolds
number of 500.
(a)
A square plate of size 1 m  1 m and weighing 350 N slides down an inclined plane with a
uniform velocity of 1.5 m/s. The inclined plane is laid on a slope of 5 vertical to 12 horizontal
and has an oil film of 1 mm thickness. Calculate the dynamic viscosity of oil.
(b)
Calculate the specific weight, density and specific gravity of two litres of liquid which weight
15 N.
(a)
A wooden block of width 2 m, depth 1.5 m and length 4 m floats horizontally in water. Find
the volume of water displaced and position of centre of buoyancy. The specific gravity of the
wooden block is 0.7.
(b)
Check if   x 2  y 2  y represents the velocity potential for 2-dimensional irrotational flow.
It is does, then determine the stream function .
(a)
A pipe (1) 450 mm in diameter branches into two pipes (2) and (3) of diameters 300 mm and
200 mm respectively as shown in Figure 1. If the average velocity in 450 mm diameter pipe
is 3 m/s, find:
(i)
discharge through 450 mm diameter pipe and
(ii)
velocity in 200 mm diameter pipe if the average velocity in 300 mm pipe is
2.5 m/s.
d2 = 300 mm
1
2
d1 = 450 mm
d3 = 200 mm
Figure 1
24
3
Q.5
(b)
If for a two – dimensional potential flow, the velocity potential is given by :   4 x(3 y  4) ,
determine the velocity at the point (2, 3). Determine also the value of stream function  at
the point (2, 3).
(a)
The velocity vector in a fluid flow is given by
V  2x3 i  5x 2 y j  4t k . Find the velocity and
acceleration of a fluid particle at (1, 2, 3) at time, t = 1.
(b)
A fluid flow field is given by
V  x2 y i  y 2 z j  (2xyz  yz2 ) k
Prove that it is a case of possible steady incompressible fluid flow. Calculate the velocity and
acceleration at the point (2, 1, 3).
Q.6
Q.7
Q.8
(a)
A pipe, through which water if flowing, is having diameters, 20 cm and 10 cm at the crosssections 1 and 2 respectively. The velocity of water at section 1 is given 4.0 m/s. Find the
velocity head at sections 1 and 2 and also rate of discharge.
(b)
A 25 mm diameter nozzle discharges 0.76 m3 of water per minute when the head is 60 m.
The diameter of the jet is 22.5 mm. Determine: (i) the values of co-efficients Cc, Cv and Cd
and (ii) the loss of head due to fluid resistance.
(a)
Calculate: (i) the pressure gradient along flow, (ii) the average vleocity, and (iii) the
discharge for an oil of viscosity 0.02 Ns/m2 flowing between two stationary parallel plates
1 m wide maintained 10 mm apart. The velocity midway between the plates is 2 m/s.
(b)
Glycerine of density 1250 kg/m3 and viscosity 0.72 kg/ms flows through a pipe of 80 mm
diameter. If the shear stress at the wall is 300 N/m2, calculate the following:
(a)
(i)
the pressure gradient along the flow,
(ii)
the average velocity in the pipe,
(iii)
the rate of discharge, and
(iv)
the Reynolds number of the flow.
A partially submerged body is towed in water. The resistacne R to its motion depends on the
density , the viscosity  of water, length l of the body, velocity v of the body and the
acceleration due to gravity g. Show that the resistance to the motion can be expressed in the
form
    lg 
,  2 
R  L2V 2 
 VL   V 
(b)
An agitator of diameter D rotates at a speed N in a liquid of density . and viscosity . Show
that the power P required to mix the liquid is expressed by a functional form,
 ND 2 N 2 D 
P



f
  , g 
N 3 D 5


Q.9
(a)
A flat plate, 1.5 m  1.5 m, moves at 50 km/hr in a stationary air of density 1.15 kg/m3.
If the coeffcients of drag and lift are 0.15 and 0.75 respectively, determine
(i)
the lift force,
(ii)
the drag force,
(iii)
the resultant force and
(iv)
the power required to keep the plate in motion.
25
(b)
The laminar boundary layer profile in a case is approximated by a cubic parabola
2
u 3 y  1 y 
     
U 2 
2 
3
Where u = velocity at a distance y from the surface and y   , u  U .
Calculate the displacement thickness and momentum thickness in terms of  and work out
the shear stress at the surface.
Q.10 (a)
(b)
A pipe line of 0.6 m diameter is 1.5 km long. In order to augment the discharge, another line
of the same diameter is introduced parallel to the first in the second half of the length.
Neglecting minor losses, find the increase in discharge if f = 0.04. The head at inlet is 30 m.
A pipeline conveys 0.008 33 m3/s water from an overhead tank to a building. The pipe is
2 km long and 0.15 m diameter; f = 0.03. It is desired to increase the discharge by 30% by
installing another pipeline in parallel with this over half the length. Suggest a suitable
diameter of the pipe to be installed. Is there an upper limit on discharge augmentation by
this arrangement?
26
BTAE
TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT
BAS-009
Introduction to Aeronautics
Maximum Marks : 100
Weightage : 30%
Course Code: BAS-009
Last Date of Submission : May 31, 2010
Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
Q.1
What do you understand by an aircraft and airplane? Describe various categories of aircraft and
classification of airplanes.
Q.2
Define ISA. Calculate pressure, density and temperature at altitudes of 9.5 km and 18.5 km.
Explain the advantages of using indicated air speed over true air speed with an example in each
case.
Q.3
(a)
Determine the location of aerodynamic centre in terms of chord of an airfoil, form wing
tunnel data as below
At C l = 0, Cmc/4 = 0.04
At  = 8 o , Cmc/4 = 0.10 , Cl = 1.0 , Cd = 0.06
(b)
Illustrate with sketches / plots, the effect of sweep back on the lifting
characteristics of a wing as compared with that for a straight wing.
Q.4
An aircraft is flying at a certain altitude at a Mach No of 0.85. The outside air temperature is 232 K.
At a given point on the upper surface of the wing, pressure and temperature are 20100 N/m2 and
221K. What is the pressure coefficient at this point? If this pressure coefficient is average for the
upper surface and if average pressure coefficient for lower surface is half in magnitude and of
opposite in sign, determine the air foil lift coefficient. If wing area is 327 m2, determine the lift.
Q.5
An airplane weighing 100 000 N has wing span = 19.5 m, wing plan form area = 45 m2 with each
of the two jet engines developing 16.5000 N of thrust. Assuming CDO = 0.02 and e = 0.80, plot
the variation of power and thrust with velocity. Hence obtain Pmin and Tmin required for straight and
level flight. Can you verify your answer?
Q.6 Determine maximum range and endurance of an airplane weighing 12000 N. It is powered by 300
HP engine, has wing span of 7.4 m and wing area of 9.00 m2. Take CDO = 0.025, e = 0.85 and p
=0.80 Fuel, Weight factor is 0.15 AUW & c =0.2 kg/hphr
Q7. An airplane weighing 250 000 N has wing plan form area = 83 m2 and wing aspect ratio of 9 and
parasite drag coefficient of 0.18. Its trailing vortex drag is 10% more than the minimum. Take the
thrust power development to be as 2.6 MW at all speeds. Calculate maximum speed and maximum
rate of climb at sea level.
27
Q8. Plot the climb performance hodograph for a twin jet airplane with following data at sea level
W = 1,00,000 N wing span = 19.5 m. S = 45 m2 T = 2  16,500 N, CDO = 0.02, e = 0.85. Hence
determine
Q9.
Q10.
(i)
V for best climb,
(ii)
max R/C,
(iii)
Vmax . level
Determine the tip-speed of a propeller used on an airplane flying at a speed of 560 kmph. The
RPM of the propeller is 1050 and its advance ratio was found to be 2.10. Could you find the
diameter of the propeller from this data?
Write short notes on
(i)
Mcritical, MDD and prevailing methods to reduce/postpone the same, using laminar flow
(ii)
Fixed pitch, variable pitch and constant speed propeller.
(6 digits NACA aerofoil) and super critical aerofoil. What is crest critical Mach number?
Also describe ‘transonic area rule’.
SOET – IGNOU/P.O.4H/January 2010
Printed and Published on behalf of Indira Gandhi National Open University by Director, SOET.
Laser Typesetting by SOET, IGNOU, New Delhi.
Printed at: M/s Sahyog Press Pvt Ltd, A -128, Mangol Puri, Industrial Area, Phase- II, Delhi -110041
28