Download Practice Exam for Anatomy Lectures 1-6 and 9

Practice Exam for Anatomy Lectures 1-6 and 9-10
1. This type of cartilage lines the hip joint and is the most common form of
cartilage
a. Fibrocartilage
b. Hyaline
c. Elastic
d. Hyaline + dense connective tissue
e. A and d
2. This type of cartilage makes up the annulus fibrosis and pubic symphysis
a. Fibrocartilage
b. Hyaline
c. Elastic
d. Hyaline + dense connective tissue
e. A and d
3. This type of cartilage makes up the epiglottis
a. Fibrocartilage
b. Hyaline
c. Elastic
d. Hyaline + dense connective tissue
e. A and d
4. These accessory glands are part of the GI system:
a. Pancreas
b. Sweat glands
c. kidney
d. liver
e. a and d
f. a, c, and d
5. Circumduction causes what action?
a. Extension
b. Flexion
c. Abduction
d. Adduction
e. A and b
f. C and d
g. A,b,c, and d
6. Subcutaneous connective tissue is part of what system?
a. Appendicular
b. Muscular
c. Integumentary
d. Skeletal
7. In this type of muscle architecture the fascicles (bundled muscle fibers) are
parallel.
a. Fan-like
b. Parallel fibered
c. Pennate
8. The latissimus dorsi muscle represents what type of muscle architecture
a. Fan-like
b. Parallel fibered
c. Pennate
9. Muscle contraction pulls insertion point toward origin
a. True
b. False
10. Biceps brachii causes what action of the arm and forearm?
a. Both extend
b. Flex, extend
c. Extend, flex
d. Both flex
11. Biceps femoris causes what action of the thigh and leg?
a. Both extend
b. Flex, extend
c. Extend, flex
d. Both flex
12. Superficial fascia does/doesn’t have fat and deep fascia does/doesn’t have
fat?
a. Does, does
b. Does, doesn’t
c. Doesn’t does
d. Doesn’t, doesn’t
13. If ______ nerve (s) innervates a muscle, and the nerve (s) becomes lesioned, it
will lose its functional ability.
a. All
b. Both
c. One
d. Three
e. None
14. The sacrum is fused with 5 sacral and how many coccygeal?
a. 5
b. 3
c. 4
d. 2
15. These are levers for muscle attachment:
a. Superior articular process
b. Inferior articular process
c. Spinous process
d. Transverse process
e. A and b
f. C and d
16. These restrict movement:
a. Superior articular process
b. Inferior articular process
c. Spinous process
d. Transverse process
e. A and b
f. C and d
17. This cervical vertebrae allows for the “yes” motion:
a. C2
b. Axis
c. C1
d. C3-C7
18. These vertebrae have good rotation, but poor flexion/extension and how
many are there?
a. Thoracic, 5
b. Lumbar, 5
c. Thoracic, 12
d. Lumbar, 12
e. Cervical, 7
19. These vertebrae have good flexion/extension and how many are there?
a. Thoracic, 5
b. Lumbar, 5
c. Thoracic, 12
d. Lumbar, 12
e. Cervical, 7
20. Rotation between vertebrae is minimized by:
a. Nucleus pulposus
b. Hyaline cartilage
c. Concentric lamellae
d. Elastic cartilage
21. This is the only ligament of the vertebrae that prevents hyperextension:
a. Posterior longitudinal ligament
b. Anterior longitudinal ligament
c. Lateral longitudinal ligament
d. Medial longitudinal ligament
22. This ligament contributes to the prevention of hyperflexion:
a. Posterior longitudinal ligament
b. Anterior longitudinal ligament
c. Lateral longitudinal ligament
d. Medial longitudinal ligament
23. This ligament is pale yellow and contributes to the posterior wall of the
vertebral canal, what is its function?
a. Prevent hyperextension
b. Prevent hyperflexion
c. Prevent hypoextension
d. Prevent hypoflexion
24. These ribs connect indirectly to the sternum via the true ribs. What number
ribs are they?
a. 11 and 12
b. 9 and 10
c. 8 and 10
d. 1 and 2
25. how many bones are in the cranium?
a. 21
b. 22
c. 23
d. 24
e. 25
26. This is the only true joint securing the shoulder girdle to the axial skeleton:
a. Acromioclavicular joint
b. Gleno-humeral joint
c. Sternoclavicular joint
d. None of the above
27. This bone transmits the shock from the upper limb to the axial skeleton:
a. Clavicle
b. Scapula
c. Acromium
d. Sternum
e. Corocoid process
28. What contributes to the acetabulum?
a. Ilium
b. Ischium
c. Pubis
d. B and C
e. A, B, and C
29. The function of this bone is for ankle stability. Where does it articulate with
the femur?
a. Lateral condyle
b. Medial condyle
c. Capitulum
d. Trochlea
30. The _____ articulates with the tibia and is where the weight of the body flows
to the foot.
a. Talus
b. Calcaneus
c. Navicular
d. A and B
31. The point where the two hip bones come into contact anteriorly is a joint.
What type of joint is it?
a. Fibrous
b. Synovial
c. Cartilaginous
32. The joints that hold our teeth in are:
a. Fibrous
b. Synovial
c. Cartilaginous
33. This type of joint allows for flexion and extension, example is knee:
a. Plane
b. Hinge
c. Saddle
d. Condyloid
e. Ball-socket
f. Pivot
34. The hip joint is this type of joint:
a. Plane
b. Hinge
c. Saddle
d. Condyloid
e. Ball-socket
f. Pivot
35. The function of the acromioclavicular joint is to:
a. Hinge
b. Allow flexion/extension
c. Allow circumduction
d. Allow abduction and adduction
e. Allow gliding/sliding
36. What type of joint is the atlantoaxis?
a. Plane
b. Hinge
c. Saddle
d. Condyloid
e. Ball-socket
f. Pivot
37. This joint has the same function as the saddle joint, but motion is greater in
one plane:
a. Carpometacarpal joints
b. Metacarpophalangeal joints
c. Proximal interpharangeal joints
d. Distal interpharangeal joints
38. In the previous question, what is the type of joint?
a. Plane
b. Hinge
c. Saddle
d. Condyloid
e. Ball-socket
f. Pivot
39. This joint is biaxial and allows for abduction, addution, flexion, and
extension:
a. Carpometacarpal joints
b. Metacarpophalangeal joints
c. Proximal interpharangeal joints
d. Distal interpharangeal joints
40. In the previous question, what is the type of joint?
a. Plane
b. Hinge
c. Saddle
d. Condyloid
e. Ball-socket
f. Pivot
41. These are thickened bands of the joint capsule and an example is the medial
or tibial collateral ligament of the knee:
a. Extrinsic ligaments
b. Intrinsic ligaments
c. Both
d. None
42. These are separate from the joint capsule and an example is the lateral or
fibular collateral ligament of the knee
a. Extrinsic ligaments
b. Intrinsic ligaments
c. Both
d. None
43. What is one of the main ways that large joints, like the knee, receive arterial
blood supply?
a. Branches of arteries from nearby muscles
b. Branches of veins
c. Anastomoses
d. Anastomeres
44. Hilton’s Law states that joints are innervated by branches of nerves that
supply tendons and ligaments that cross more than one joint.
a. True
b. False – supply muscles
45. This joint allows for circumduction:
a. Sternoclavicular joint
b. Acromio-clavicular joint
c. Gleno-humeral joint
46. This joint allows for rotation of the scapula:
a. Sternoclavicular joint
b. Acromio-clavicular joint
c. Gleno-humeral joint
47. This joint allows for many movements and limited circumduction of the
shoulder joint:
a. Sternoclavicular joint
b. Acromio-clavicular joint
c. Gleno-humeral joint
48. This joint consists of hyaline cartilage, no articular disc and allows for
hinging:
a. Knee joint
b. Hip joint
c. Elbow joint
d. Wrist joint
49. This joint allows for hinging between the arm and forearm
a. Radiohumeral joint
b. Ulnarhumeral joint
c. Proximal radioulnar joint
d. Distal radioulnar joint
50. This joint allows for supination and pronation:
a. Proximal radioulnar joint
b. Distal radioulnar joint
c. Both
51. This joint has a strong joint capsule, synovial capsule with no menisci or disc:
a. Ulnarhumeral
b. Radiohumeral
c. Radiocarpal
d. Intercarpal
e. Radioulnar
52. The thumb is not part of the common joint capsule of this joint:
a. Ulnarhumeral
b. Radiohumeral
c. Radiocarpal
d. Intercarpal
e. Radioulnar
53. This prevents bone-on-bone action as part of a primarily hinge joint:
a. Nucleus pulposus
b. Annulus fibrosis
c. Cartilage – i.e. menisci of the knee joint
d. Elastin
54. Example of a hinge joint of the lower extremities
a. Hip joint
b. Interphalangeal joints
c. Ankle joint
d. Knee joint
e. A,b,c,d
f. C,d
g. B,c,d
55. This only has one hinge joint:
a. thumb
b. index finger
c. ring finger
d. little finger
56. All muscle of the body comes from the mesoderm
a. True
b. False – the epiglottis and iris muscles do not
57. Paraxial mesoderm becomes organized into somitomeres. Somitomeres 1-7
become:
a. Sclerotome
b. Myotome
c. Pharyngeal arches
d. Dermatome
58. Which type of somite will develop into muscle?
a. Sclerotome
b. Myotome
c. Pharyngeal arches
d. Dermatome
59. The upper and lower limbs are innervated by the ______ primary ramus that
supplies the _______ division.
a. Dorsal, hypaxial
b. Dorsal, epaxial
c. Ventral, hypaxial
d. Ventral, epaxial
60. What is the sequence of events that leads to formation of myofibrils?
a. Myoblasts, fused mesenchymal cells, myofilaments which organize
into myofibrils
b. Myoblasts, myofilaments fuse to form myotube which organizes into
myofibrils
c. Mesenchymal cells, myoblasts which fuse to form myofilaments,
myotube that organizes into myofibrils
d. Mesenchymal cells, myoblasts which fuse to form myotubes,
myofilaments which organize into myofibrils
61. The extensor muscles of the neck and vertebral column are innervated by the
dorsal rami. Which partition of the myotome is this derived from?
a. Dorsal epaxial division
b. Ventral hypaxial division
c. Epimere
d. Hypomere
62. The type of muscle fibers that differentiates from lateral splanchnic
mesoderm arises from:
a. Striation
b. Fusion of single cells
c. Differentiation of single cells
d. Growth of single cells
e. A and b
f. C and d (the type of muscle is cardiac muscle)
63. Part of the mesoderm, that is derived from the myotomes, migrates to the
limb buds. The posterior condensation develops into:
a. Extensor, supinator, and abductor musculature
b. Extensor, pronator, and adductor musculature
c. Flexor, supinator, and abductor musculature
d. Flexor, pronator, and adductor musculature
64. Part of the mesoderm, that is derived from the myotomes, migrates to the
limb buds. The anterior condensation develops into:
a. Extensor, supinator, and abductor musculature
b. Extensor, pronator, and adductor musculature
c. Flexor, supinator, and abductor musculature
d. Flexor, pronator, and adductor musculature
65. Smooth muscle comes from:
a. Ectoderm
b. Endoderm
c. Splanchnic mesenchyme
d. Splanchnic ectoderm
66. DMD is an x-linked recessive disorder and is the less severe form of the
disease because some dystrophin is made.
a. True
b. False (BMD is the less severe form, DMD does not form any dystophin
at all – dystrophin acts by linking the actin to the extracellular matrix)
67. This forms from the mesenchyme during the 5th week of embryological
development:
a. Ossification centers
b. Cartilage formation
c. Bone formation
d. Notochord formation
68. Paired condensations from the surrounding of the neural tube and notochord
with sclerotomes form what eventually?
a. Annulus fibrosis
b. Arch of vertebrae
c. Spinal chord
d. Nucleus fibrosis
69. The remnants of the notochord forms what?
a. Annulus fibrosis
b. Arch of vertebrae
c. Spinal chord
d. Nucleus fibrosis
70. By the end of what week will there be 3 primary ossification centers and by
what year will bony vertebrae be completely ossified?
a. Week 6, age 20
b. Week 6, age 25
c. Week 8, age 20
d. Week 8, age 25
e. None of the above
71. This type of Spina Bifida will often be diagnosed at birth due to a tuft of hair
at the site where there was failure of the halves of embryonic neural
vertebral arch to fuse.
a. Spina bifida with meningocele
b. Spina bifida occulta
c. Spina bifida with meningomyelocele
d. Spina bifida with myeloschisis
72. This type of Spina Bifidia is characteristic because of no neuro tube folding
present at all:
a. Spina bifida with meningocele
b. Spina bifida occulta
c. Spina bifida with meningomyelocele
d. Spina bifida with myeloschisis
73. This type of Spina Bifida is characteristic because of a cyst like sac with a
displaced spinal cord:
a. Spina bifida with meningocele
b. Spina bifida occulta
c. Spina bifida with meningomyelocele
d. Spina bifida with myeloschisis
74. This type of Spina Bifida is characteristic because of a cyst like sac without a
displaced spinal cord:
a. Spina bifida with meningocele
b. Spina bifida occulta
c. Spina bifida with meningomyelocele
d. Spina bifida with myeloschisis
75. This disease can occur because of hemivertebra:
a. Spina bifida
b. Scoliosis
c. Myopathic scoliosis
d. Spina bifida occulta