Download e) all answers are correct

FINAL TEST CONTROL
on “Base care of patients” for the students of the 1st course
of faculty on preparation of experts for overseas countries
for I semester of 2016-2017 academic year
1. Medical institutions outpatient types are:
a) all kinds of clinics, antenatal clinics, emergency hospital, clinics
b) health centers, nursing hospital, all kinds of clinics, outpatient clinics
c) outpatient clinics, ambulant clinic, dispensary, antenatal clinics
d) ambulance hospital dispensaries;
e) hospital nursing care, all kinds of clinics, outpatient clinics
2. Hospital (stationary) medical institutions include:
a) the district, town, regional and republican hospitals, hospitals,
dispensaries, with a hospital
b) dispensaries with hospital, city hospitals, ambulatories, health centers
c) hospital clinics, hospitals
d) hospitals
e) city hospitals
3. Dispensary is a therapeutic and preventive medical facility:
a) can only be outpatient clinics
b) may only be inpatient establishment
c) may be both
d) all answers are correct
4. Hospital is:
a) health care setting, provider of medical care in day care patients
b) health care setting, provider medical care at home and in a day-care patients
c) health care setting, provider medical care in a day and night of stay of
patients under the supervision of medical staff
d) health care setting, provider medical care at home
e) health care setting, provider medical care in outpatient clinics, under the
supervision of medical staff
5. Nomenclature of hospitals are:
a) health centers with a hospital, clinic with day hospital, scientific and
practical centers
b) hospitals, hospitals for disabled veterans or military personnel, clinics
with hospital, medical unit at the hospital, the scientific and practical
centers
c) hospital, scientific and practical centers, dispensaries, health centers with a
hospital
d) clinic with day hospital, scientific and practical centers
e) hospitals, hospitals for disabled veterans or of servicemen, with a hospital
dispensaries
6. The functions of a modern hospital according to the WHO definition:
a) reduction, prevention, education, research
b) educational, therapeutic, rehabilitation
c) emergency aid, patronage discharged patients, training
d) training, research and development
e) reduction, prevention
7. The main structural parts of the hospital are:
a) management, technical department, material supply department,
emergency room, garage
b) medical diagnostic and administrative managerial
c) management, accounting, clinical departments, laundry
d) management
e) management, accounting, clinical departments
8. Clinical examination is:
a) examination and treatment of patients in the clinics
b) registration of patients with certain diseases
c) active monitoring of patients suffering from certain diseases, and the
health of certain population groups
d) examination of the patients in the hospital
e) examination, registration and treatment of patients with certain diseases
9. Specify the most complete and accurate list of the pathways of nosocomial
infection:
a) the airborne, parenteral;
b) nutritional, parenteral;
c) nutritional, parenteral, airborne;
d) contact-household, airborne, nutritional, parenteral pas
e) contact-household, parenteral, nutritional
10.Nosocomial infection is:
a) any disease, occurred in a patient who is in hospital
b) any clinically significant disease of microbial origin in a patient as a
result of his admission to the hospital or seeking medical help, except for
hospital staff
c) any clinically significant disease of microbial origin in a patient as a
result of his admission to the hospital or seeking medical help,
regardless of the symptoms of the disease while in the hospital or in the
first few days after discharge, and the disease is an employee as a result
of his work in the facility
d) any disease that develop in patients after discharge from hospital
e) employer disease as a result of his work
11.Antiseptic is:
a) a set of measures designed to prevent the introduction of infection into the
wound
b) a set of measures aimed at the destruction of microorganisms in the
wound or in the body as a whole
c) the full exemption of a substance or object by microorganisms
d) a set of measures aimed at the destruction of microorganisms in the body
as a whole
e) all answers are true
12.Aseptic is:
a) a set of measures aimed at the destruction of microorganisms in the
wound or the body as a whole
b) full exemption of a substance or object from microorganisms
c) a set of measures aimed at preventing implementiong infection in the
wound by disinfecting all wound contacted items
d) a set of measures aimed at the destruction of microorganisms in the
wound or in the body as a whole;
e) full exemption of a microorganisms from the substance or object
13.Disinfection is:
a) destruction of infectious agents in the environment with special
means
b) a set of measures aimed at the destruction of microorganisms in the
wound
c) the complete release of a substance or article by using microorganisms
exposure to physical or chemical factors
d) full exemption of a substance or object of microorganisms with exposure
to physical
e) the complete liberation of a substance or article by using the
microorganisms of exposure to chemical agents
14.Physical methods for disinfecting medical devices are:
a) boiling, autoclaving, the use of dry air
b) autoclaving, the use of dry hot air (drying cabinet), use disinfectant
solution
c) the use of disinfectant solution, boiling
d) autoclaving, boiling
e) the use of dry hot air (drying cabinet), use disinfectant solution
15.Chemical methods of disinfection are:
a) use of chemical agents in the form of solutions
b) use of ionizing radiation
c) use of chemical agents in the form of solutions and gases
d) use of chemical agents in the gases
e) all answers are correct
16.The aim of the nursing process is:
a) the appointment of adequate treatment of the patient
b) is to provide an independence of the patient's recovery and
redressing basic needs of the organism
c) choosing the right tactics of the patient, depending on the diagnosis
d) choosing the right tactics of the patient and the appointment of adequate
treatment of the patient
17.What are the stages of the nursing process:
a) evaluation of the effectiveness of care, care planning
b) collection of information, planning of care
c) evaluation of the effectiveness of care, care planning; collection of
information, formulation of nursing diagnoses
d) evaluation of the effectiveness of care, care planning; gathering
information production of nursing diagnoses and evaluation of the
effectiveness of treatment;
e) formulation of nursing diagnoses
18.Short-term objectives of nursing care are established for the term:
a) up to 3 days
b) up to 1 week
c) up to 2 weeks
19.Dependent nursing interventions are:
a) nurses actions that are doing on request or under medical supervision
b) actions carried out by a nurses initiative
c) nursing actions that are doing demand by a physician
d) nursing actions that are doing under the supervision of a senior nurse
20.Independent nursing interventions are:
a) nurses actions that are doing on request or under medical supervision
b) actions carried out by a nurse initiative, without direct ask of a
doctor
c) nursing actions that are doing under the supervision of a senior nurse
21.Dependent nursing interventions include:
1) assisting the patient in self-care;
2) injection of drugs;
3) the change of dressings;
4) issuance of tablets of drugs;
5) monitoring the patient's reaction to the treatment.
It is true: a) 1,2,4; b) 1,2,3; c) 2, 3,4.
22.Independent nursing interventions include:
1) assisting the patient in self-care;
2) injection of drugs;
3) the change of dressings;
4) gastric lavage;
5) monitoring the patient's reaction to the treatment.
It is true: a) 1,5; B) 2,4; B) 2,4,5
23.Subjective data include:
a) the patient's complaints
b) blood pressure; body temperature
c) the patient's body weight
d) general information about the patient
e) the patient's complaints, general information about the patient
24.Objective data includes:
a) the patient's complaints, general information about the patient
b) the level of blood pressure, body temperature, patient body weight
c) the patient's body weight
d) general information about the patient
e) the body temperature
25.The tasks of nurses include:
a) providing patient care
b) diagnosis of the disease
c) the appointment of treatment
d) to establish a diagnosis and prescription of treatment
e) diagnosis and care for the patient
26.The duties of the ward nurse include:
1) be able to adequately diagnose and prescribe treatment;
2) own all the manipulations necessary for patient care;
3) to keep order and cleanliness in the department;
4) to inform the doctor about the state of the patients;
5) accurate and proper management of medical records.
It is true: a) 2,3,4,5; b) 2,3,4; c) 1,2,3: d) 1,2,3,4,5.
27.By the nurse does not include obligations:
a) the provision of primary health care to patients with a sudden
deterioration
b) overseeing the work of junior staff
c) selecting the power mode of the patient
d) appointment of adequate treatment of the doctor's diagnosis
e) the choice of diet and appointment of adequate treatment
28.The duties of junior nurses includes:
a) maintenance of sanitary and anti-epidemic regime in the research institute
b) providing emergency medical care to patients with a sudden deterioration
c) conduct daily wet cleaning of the wards, toilets and other utility rooms
d) carrying out health education among patients
e) the maintenance of sanitary and anti-epidemic regime by-division,
carrying out daily wet cleaning of the wards, toilets and other utility
rooms
29.It is the responsibility of the patient include:
a) the adoption of measures to preserve and strengthen their health
b) voluntary consent to medical intervention
c) respect for the medical staff
d) implementation of medical prescriptions
e) the adoption of measures to preserve and strengthen their health;
respect for health workers; implementation of medical prescriptions.
30. Visiting patients is prohibited:
a) during working of the medical staff
b) during the quiet hours
c) during outbreaks of infectious diseases
d) during the quiet hours; during epidemics of infectious diseases.
e) at any time
31.The science of the doctor's duty is:
a) medical deontology
b) medical ethics
c) medical ethics and deontology
32.Pharmacological iatrogenic is the result of:
a) the adverse effects on the patient during its examination
b) adverse effects of medication on the patient
c) a combination of several factors
d) adverse effects psychogenic factors
e) adverse effects as a result of manipulation
33.Types of iatrogenic diseases:
a) psychogenic
b) manipulation
c) pharmacological
d) combined
e) all answers are true
34. How often do we need to wet cleaning of hospital:
a) 1 every two days
b) 1 per day
c) two times daily
d) 3 times a day
e) is not carried out at all
35.General cleaning of premises should be carried out:
a) 1 to 3 times of the day
b) 1 time per week
c) two times a week
d) at least 2 times per month
e) 1 time per month
36.The need for sanitary treatment of the patient is solved:
a) by the doctor on duty
b) by the average medical personnel
c) by the relatives of the patient
d) by the patient
e) by junior medical staff
37.Select the correct concentration "Hlormix" means to swipe-of wet cleaning:
a) 0.01%;
b) 0.02%;
c) 0.03%;
d) 0.05%.
e) 0.3%;
38.To disinfect the toilets and baths are used:
a) "Hlormix"
b) "Septotsid"
c) 10% bleach solution
d) 5% bleach solution
e) 3% bleach solution
39.The structure of a reception consists of:
a) registry
b) the examination room
c) the post of nurse
d) sanitary inspection
e) registry; the examination room; sanitary inspection
40. Work receptionist should take place in the following sequence:
a) registration of patients, sanitary and hygienic processing, medical
examination
b) registration of patients, medical tests, sanitary and hygienic
processing;
c) sanitary and hygienic processing, medical tests, registration of patients
d) randomly;
e) registration of patients, medical tests
41.Types of sanitizing patients:
a) placed
b) partial, complete
c) trial
d) partial
e) general
42.The first medical examination of the patient at admission is carried out:
a) in the intensive care unit
b) in the department of functional diagnostics
c) in the receiver department
d) in the therapeutic unit
e) in the surgical department
43.Types of patient admissions to the hospital:
a) planned hospitalization; emergency hospitalization
b) another hospitalization
c) emergency hospitalization
d) hospitalization for self-treatment
e) planned hospitalization; emergency hospitalization; hospitalization
for self-asking
44.The duties of a nurse receptionist include:
a) monitor the sanitary regime
b) the patient's support to the doctor's office and holding sanitary processing
of the patient
c) transportation and support the patient to the profile department
d) registration of medical records department
e) all answers are true
45. In the case of the serious condition of the incoming patient care is provided
to him:
a) only after the medical documentation
b) before the registration of the patient, and if necessary, the patient is
delivered to the intensive care unit
c) only after registration of medical records, and while the patient is in office
d) assistance will be provided in any branch of the patient without
registration
e) denied the medical care provision in the absence of relevant departments
46.Specify the department, where the patient is first subjected to sanitary
treatment:
a) diagnostic
b) physiotherapy
c) a receiver
d) therapeutic
e) neurological
47. There were found head lice of the patient referred for hospitalization at the
emergency department. Your actions:
a) refuse patient hospitalization
b) to wash the patient with soap and water in the bath, send clothes and
linens in patient pest chamber
c) to sanitize patient comprising shearing head hair, head hair
pediculicides lubrication means subsequent shampooing with warm
10% acetic acid solution
d) to carry out cleaning of the patient with soap in the shower and admitted
to hospital
e) to hospitalize a patient in a hospital without sanitizing
48.In case of lice nurse makes a note on the title page of history:
a) R
b) P
c) L
d) X
e) there is no correct answer
49.The spread of nosocomial infections contribute to:
a) violation of the rules of aseptic and antiseptic
b) the emergence of insects in the department (cockroaches, bedbugs, etc.)
c) the appearance of the department patients with head lice
d) all answers are true
e) there is no correct answer
50. The main cause of bedsores is:
a) the activity of microorganisms that live on human skin
b) lack of patients skin care
c) anatomical features of subcutaneous fat
d) the activity of microorganisms that live on human skin and
anatomical features of subcutaneous fat
e)there is no right answer
51. Wipe dry armpit before the body temperature measurement is recommended
to:
a) for reasons of hygiene
b) that the thermometer was in a stable provisions
c) not to get lower measurement
d) not to get higher measurement results
e) on the patient's wishes
52.The body temperature measured by the patient in the rectum of 37,1 ° C.
This can be described as:
a) the normal temperature
b) moderate heat
c) subfebrile temperature
d) excessively high
e) high
53.Name the places in which you can measure body temperature:
1) the rectum
2) inguinal fold
3) the popliteal fossa
4) armpits
5) the external auditory meatus
It is true: a) 1,2,4; b) 3, 4, 5; c) all answers are correct; d) no correct
answer;
54.The temperature recorded sheet:
a) a graphical representation of the temperature curve, medical purposes
b) a graphical representation of the temperature curve, curves, heart
rate, respiratory rate, blood pressure, weight, urine output
c) a graphical representation of the temperature curve, curves, heart rate,
respiratory rate, the results of medical rounds
d) blood pressure, weight, urine output
e) body weight, urine output; a graphical representation of the temperature
curve, medical purposes
55.Specify actions for nursing, which should be applied in the first stage of
fever:
a) drink the patient with hot tea; heat shield the patient or to impose
with heaters;
b) the heat shield of the patient, to impose its heaters
c) change the bed linen
d) to put a cold compress on the forehead
e) to pound alcoholic solution
56.Specify actions for nursing, which should be applied in the second stage of
fever (stage maximum preservation of body temperature)
1) warm the patient to impose heaters
2) to monitor the heart rate and respiration, blood pressure levels
3) monitor the condition of the central nervous system
4) to carry out oral care
5) to pound alcoholic solution
It is true: a) 2,3.4; b) 1,2; c) 2,5; d) 1,3; e)3.
57. Tachypnea is:
a) rapid shallow breathing (more than 20 in 1 min)
b) a decrease in breathing (less than 1 minute at 12)
c) rapid shallow breathing (more than 22 in 1minute)
d) Cheyne-Stokes
e) Kussmaul breathing
58.Bradypnea this:
a) rapid shallow breathing (more than 20 in 1 min);
b) a decrease in breathing (less than 1 minute at 12).
c) Cheyne-Stokes
d) Kussmaul breathing
e) breath Biotta
59.Name the most common causes of hemoptysis:
a) chest injuries; lung cancer
b) rupture of varicose - esophageal varices
c) acute bronchitis
d) bronchial asthma
e) mucosal break cardiac esophagus
60.When gastric bleeding released blood:
a) has the form of "coffee grounds", acidic
b) it is acidic
c) does not fold
d) has an alkaline reaction
e) scarlet
61. Quincke position is:
a) the position of the patient lying in bed with a raised foot end
b) the position of the patient lying in bed with the raised headboard
c) the patient sitting position, legs stretched forward, throwing back in his
chair
d) position, lying on its side
e) position, lying on his side with his feet pressed against his stomach
62.Specify the particular pain of myocardial infarction:
a) squeezing chest pain, intense, removed only drug (morphine),
duration of more than half an hour
b) a dull, aching pain in the heart, low intensity
c) intense pain, only removed the drug (morphine)
d) low-intensity pain; duration of more than half an hour
e) the duration of 5-7 minutes
63.The patient has been an increase in nocturnal diuresis. It is:
a) oliguria
b) polyuria
c) nocturia
d) anuria
e) enuresis
64.Acute vascular insufficiency includes:
a) shock; fainting
b) a shock; collapse; fainting
c) a coma
d) syncope
e) hypertension
65.Anasarca is:
a) the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity
b) accumulation of fluid in the pericardial cavity
c) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavit;
d) swelling of the whole body with simultaneous accumulation of fluid in
serous cavities;
e) swelling of the feet and ankles
66.Normal pulse rate:
a) 50-60 for 1 minute
b) 60-100 for 1 minute
c) 40-90 for 1 minute
d) 60-90 for 1 minute
e) to 100-120 for 1 minute
67.In diseases of the cardio - vascular system prescribed diet:
a) P
b) O
c) D
d) N
e) B
68.Features of care of patients with chronic heart insufficiency:
a) give the horizontal position with his head down
b) to restrict salt and fluid, a sitting position with the lowered feet,
control of water balance, monitoring of pulse and blood pressure
c) the salt and the liquid limit
d) a dietary table D
e) monitoring of pulse and blood pressure; control of water balance
69.First aid for fainting:
a) give the exalted positio
b) give the horizontal position, give to smell ammonia, spray face with
cold water;
c) to give ammonia smell
d) rub the skin of the body with alcohol
e) seat the patient, to give ammonia smell
70.Strict bed mode provides:
a) are allowed to walk on the ward and in the dressing-room
b) are not allowed to actively move in the bed
c) is allowed to move freely in bed, but do not leave it
d) are allowed to sit in bed, walk in the ward
e) are allowed to move freely in and out of the bed
71.Basic life support with clinical death:
1) intravenous strofantin giving
2) chest compressions
3) intravenous prednisolone giving
4) artificial respiration
5) intramuscular kordiamina giving
It is true: a) 2,4, b) 1,2; c) 1,3; d) 4,5;
72.Signs of effectiveness chest compressions:
1) dilated pupils
2) the appearance of pulsations on carotid arteries
3) the occurrence of respiratory movements
4) pupillary constriction
5) the disappearance of cyanosis
It is true: a) 1,5; b) 1,2,5; c) 2,3,4; d) 2,3,4,5; e) 1,2,3,4;
73.The special arrangements for the care of patients with diseases of the
urination include:
a) monitoring of urine output
b) thermometry
c) the provision of personal hygiene
d) monitoring of urine output; bladder catheterization
e) the control of blood pressure and heart rate
74.Daily diuresis is:
a) the amount of urine during the day
b) the difference between the received fluid per day and dedicated uring
c) the selected amount of urine for 12 hours
d) the ratio of accepted and discharged liquid per day
e) the ratio of the discharged liquid and adopted for 12 hours
75.Normally, during the day stands out:
a) 500-800 ml of urine
b) 500-1000 ml of urine
c) 1000-2000 ml of urine
d) 2,000 ml of urine
e) 200-500 ml of urine
76.Frequent urination is called:
a) pollakiuria
b) nocturia
c) polyuria
d) oliguria
e) strangury
77.Painful difficult urination is called:
a) pollakiuria
b) nocturia
c) polyuria
d) oliguria
e) strangury
78.Anuria is selection in the urine per day less than:
a) 100 ml
b) 300 ml
c) 500 ml
d) 1000 ml
e) 2000ml
79.The research method in which the contrast medium is injected through a
urinary catheter into the ureter, is called:
a) retrograde urography
b) excretory urography
c) renoradiografy
d) radiography of the kidneys
e) MRI with contrast
80.The research method in which the contrast agent is administered intravenous
is called:
a) retrograde urography
b) excretory urography
c) radiography of the kidneys
d) renoradiografiya
e) MRI with contrast
81.Clinical death is a condition:
a) reversible
b) irreversible
c) partially reversible
d) reversible in its duration of 7-8 minutes
e) is irreversible, its duration at 30 and 40 minutes
82.Duration of resuscitation should be more than:
a) 10 minutes
b) 20 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 90 minutes;
e) 120 minutes
83.Resuscitation performed (inspiration: heart massage) is:
a) 1: 5
b) 1:10
c) 2:15
d) 2:10
e) 2:30
84. Specify the most complete and accurate list of nutrients that are part of the
food, which is prepared from triat diet:
a) proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins and water
b) proteins, carbohydrates, fat, water, minerals
c) proteins, fats, carbohydrates, minerals, vitamins and water
d) minerals, vitamins, water
e) the proteins, fats, carbohydrates, minerals and vitamins
85."O" Diet is for patients:
a) with hypertension, myocardial infarction
b) in the first days after surgery on abdominal, urological, gynecological
operations
c) complies with the power of a healthy person not engaged in physical labor
d) underweight
e) obesity
86."T" diet designed for patients with:
a) diabetes
b) tuberculosis
c) cirrhosis
d) hypertension
e) asthma
87. The main types of parenteral nutrition are:
a) full, the combined partial (incomplete)
b) optimal, support, periodic
c) complete, partial (incomplete), accessories
d) complete, incomplete
88.Parenteral nutrition is carried out:
a) introduction of food through the probe to duodenum;
b) introducing special hydrolysates, solutions, emulsions intravenously
c) introducing special solutions, fat emulsions, protein hydrolysates with a
probe through the anus into the sigmoid colon
d) the introduction of food into the stomach by gavage
89.Diarrhea is called:
a) the allocation of unformed feces once a day
b) isolating the feces issued twice a day
c) frequent (more than three times a day), and liquid feces
d) frequent (more than two times a day)
e) regular feces
90.Constipation is a delay feces:
a) 1 day
b) 2 days
c) 3 days
d) 4 days
e) 7 days
91.Specify the indications for cleansing enema:
a) constipation; preparation for abdominal surgery
b) diarrhea; preparation for abdominal surgery
c) preparation for abdominal surgery
d) intestinal bleeding
e) flatulence
92.During cleansing enema the patient should be based on:
a) on the back
b) on the abdomen
c) on the side
d) random
e) there is no correct answer
93.By reducing the temperature of the water introduced with the help of an
enema intestinal peristalsis:
a) weakening
b) is amplified
c) does not change
94.By the methods of enteral administration of drugs include everything except:
a) orally
b) subbukalnay
c) sublingual
d) intramuscular
e) rectally
95.By the parenteral administration of drugs include everything except:
a) intramuscular
b) intravenous
c) intracavitary
d) subcutaneous
e) sublingual
96.When the distribution of medicines for internal use requires:
a) movable table, drugs (according to specifications)
b) assignment sheets
c) a pair of scissors, tweezers, pipette, graduated cups, water-bottle
d) container for the used materials
e) all answers are correct
97.Possible post-injection complications:
a) necrosis
b) fat embolism, air embolism
c) postinjection abscess
d) hematoma
e) all answers are correct
98. The most severe variant of drug allergy:
a) acute urticaria
b) angioedema
c) anaphylactic shock
d) nodal erythema
e) allergic rhinitis
99.Contraindications for intravenous administration:
a) the inability to puncture the vein
b) introduction of oily substances and insoluble
c) n allergic reaction to the drug
d) skin lesions and subcutaneous fat of any nature at the injection site
e) all answers are correct
100.
The vial with an oil solution must be heated in a water bath to a
temperature of:
a) 25 ° C
b) 50 ° C
c) 38 ° C
d) 40 ° C
e) 90 ° C