Download Following internal fixation for an intertrochanteric fracture which of

Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
1- Origin of bone is from:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ectoderm
Mesoderm
Endoderm
All of the above
2- Acute osteomyelitis is commonly caused by
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Staph aureus
S.pyogenes
H.influenza
Salmonella
3- Acute osteomyelitis usually begins at
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Epiphysis
Metaphysis
Diaphysis
All of the above
4- Tuberculosis of the spine most likely originates from
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Intervertebral disc
Cancellous vertebral body
Ligamentous structures
Paravertebral soft tissues
5- Melon seed bodies in joint fluid are characteristic of:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Rheumatoid arthritis
Tuberculosis arthritis
Septic arthritis
None of the above
6- Osteoid osteoma originates from :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Periosteum
Cortex
Medullary cavity
All of the above
7- Bone metastasis in males commonly arise from cancer of:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Lung
Prostate
Kidney
Thyroid
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9/12/2011
Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
8- Osteoblastic bone secondaries arise from cancer of:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Breast
Lung
Prostate
Adrenal
9- Multiple myeloma tumor calls resembles:
(A) Granulocytes
(B) Plasma cells
(C) Lymphcytes
(D) Chondrocytes
10-Osteomalacia predominantly affects the:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Spine
Pelvis
Skull bones
Metatarsals
11-A Gigli saw is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
An electrically driven circular bone saw
A pneumatically driven bone saw
A short straight bone saw
A long twisted wire saw
12- In Dupuytren’s contracture which of the following statements is correct:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
It is a contracture of the flexor tendons to the ring and little finger
It is a contracture of the palmar fascia
It may occur in the plantar fascia
There is an association with cirrhosis of the liver
13- A greenstick fracture:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Occurs chiefly in the elderly
Does not occur in children
Is a spiral fracture of the tubular bone
Is a fracture where part of the cortex is intact and part is crumpled or cracked
14- Spiral fracture is due to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Blunt trauma
Axial compression
Twist
Direct impact
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Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
15- The single most important factor in fracture healing is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Correct bone alignment
Accurate reduction
Immobilization
Organization of clot
16- Immobilization is not required in fracture involving:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Scapula
Wings of Ilium
Ribs
Proximal humerus in elderly
Pulmonary Embolism
17- Trendelenburg’s sign is used in the diagnosis of:
(A) Varicose Veins
(B) Congenital dislocation of the hip
(C) Carcinoma of the stomach
(D) Pulmonary embolism
18- The essential examination of the hip in order to cinch the diagnosis of
chronic slipped femoral epiphysis is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Measuring for shortening of the leg
Palpation of the femoral head
A-P plain x-ray view of the hip
Lateral x-ray view of the hip
19- Shenton’s line is a sign applicable to:
(A) The detection of the shortening of the leg on physical examination
(B) A radiological feature of the pelvis applied to diagnosis of congenital dislocation of
the hip.
(C) A radiological feature of the lungs applied to the diagnosis of pulmonary vein
thrombosis
(D) A physical sign applied to the diagnosis of adrenal deficiency.
20- Perth’s disease is common tp age group of :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1- 5
6- 10
11 – 15
16 – 20
21- The average duration of Perth’s disease is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1-2 years
3 -4 years
1- 6 months
6months – 1 year
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Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
22- The term delayed union is employed when the fracture fails to unite within:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1.5 times the normal union time
Twice the normal union time
2.5 times the normal union time
None of the above
23- What is true of the clavicle fracture ;
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Non-union is rare
Malunion is of no functional significance
Reduction even if achieved is difficult to maintain
All are true
24- The joint most likely to have recurrent dislocation:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ankle
Knee
Shoulder
Patella
25- Radial nerve palsy may occur in fracture of humerus involving :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Surgical neck
Shaft
Lower end
All of the above
26- Myositis ossificans commonly occurs around
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Shoulder
Elbow
Wrist
Knee
27- Volkmann’s ischemia commonly occurs following:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Fracture shaft humerus
Supracondylar fracture
Colles’ fracture
Monteggia fracture
28- Cubitus valgus of the elbow commonly follows fracture of :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Lateral condyle
Medial condyle
Capitalum
Lower third of humerus
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Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
29- The deformity of wrist in Colles’ fracture is called:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Madelung’s deformity
Dinner fork deformity
Buttonaire deformity
None of the above
30- Colles’ fracture can be complicated by the late rupture of:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Extensor pollicis longus
Abductor pollicis longus
Adductor pollicis longus
Flexor pollicis longus
31- What is true of Sudeck’s atrophy of hand?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Hand is painful and swollen
Osteoporosis of carpals and metacarpals
There is increased blood flow to para-articular areas
Cervical aympathectomy may be of help
All are true
32- The carpel bone most commonly fractured is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Triquetrum
Hamate
Capitate
Scaphoid
33- Which nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ulnar
Median
Radial
All of the above
34- The most common injury following pelvic fracture is of:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Bladder
Urethra
Rectum
Vagina
35- Limb shortening with adduction and internal rotation occurs in which type
of hip dislocation?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Anterior
Posterior
Central
All of the above
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Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
36- Normal neck-shaft angle femur is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
90°
120°
150°
170°
37- Fracture femoral neck can be diagnosed from:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Limb shortening
External rotation
Abduction
A and B
38- Which of the following if not true of intertrochanteric fracture of femur?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Limb shortening
Malunion
Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
Internal fixation is preferred
39- Spontaneous bleeding into joints in haemophilia occurs when factor VI level
is less than:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
50%
25%
10%
5%
40- Stenosing tenovaginitis commonly affects:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Abductor pollicis
Flexor pollicis
Opponens pollicis
All of the above
41- A sequestrum is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
A piece of soft dead tissue
A piece of dead skin
A dead tooth
A piece of dead bone
A retained swab
42- Union of a simple uncomplicated transverse fracture of the tibia in an adult
normally takes:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
6 weeks
8 weeks
12 weeks
18 weeks
26 weeks
6
Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
43- Bennett’s fracture is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Reversed Colles’ fracture
Fracture of the scaphoid bone in the wrist
Fracture of the radial styloid (chauffer’s fracture)
Fracture dislocation of the first metacarpal
Cause of mallet finger
44- Treatment of a severe comminuted fracture of the patella includes:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Physiotherapy alone
Insertion of a figure of eight tension band
Patellectomy
Insertion screws or wire
Skin traction
45- Malunion of a fracture is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
A fracture which unites in a position of deformity
Delayed union of a fracture
Non-union of a fracture
Followed by pseudoarthrosis
Due to tuberculosis
46- Volkmann’s contracture:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Affects the palmar fascia
Develops at the ankle in a case of chronic venous ulcer
Follows ischemia of the foreman
Is due to excessive scarring of the skin of the axilla following a burn
Follows ulnar nerve palsy
47- A benign tumor forming osteoid is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
A synovioma
A chondroma
An osteoma
A fibroma
An adenoma
48- Idiopathic scoliosis:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Lateral curvature of the spine
Rotation of the spine
Lateral curvature with rotation of the spine
Flexion deformity of the spine
Congenital disease with hemi vertebrae
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Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
49- Milwaukee brace can be used in:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Sacro-iliac strain
Derangement of the teeth
A patient with an above knee amputation
Scoliosis
Fractured clavicle
50- The name associated with joint neuropathy is that of :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Cushing
Osier
Moon
Charcot
Addison
51- What two nerves make up the internervous plane in the Smith-Peterson
anterior hip approach?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
there is no internervous plane
femoral nerve and inferior gluteal nerve
femoral nerve and superior gluteal nerve
obturator nerve and superior gluteal nerve
obturator nerve and inferior gluteal nerve
52- The ascending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery is at risk with
which of the following surgical approaches?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Stoppa approach
Kocher-Langenbach approach
Ilioinguinal approach
Watson-Jones approach
(E) Smith-Peterson approach
8
Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
53- A 74-year-old female falls from a standing height and sustains the fracture
shown in Figure A. The occurrence of this injury increases her risk of
sustaining a subsequent hip fracture for what amount of time?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Only until the humerus fracture is healed
1 year
5 years
10 years
Lifelong increase in risk
54-Which of the following factors has been shown to be the strongest predictor
of screw cutout of a dynamic compression hip screw used for an
intertrochanteric femur fracture?
(A) age of the patient
(B) intrinsic stability of the fracture
(C) tip-apex distance
(D) quality of reduction
(E) angle of the side plate
9
Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
55- Which of the following statements is true regarding treatment of
intertrochanteric hip fractures with an intramedullary nail versus a sliding
hip screw?
(A) The use of intramedullary nail has increased in the last ten years
(B) The use of sliding hip screws has increased in the last ten years
(C) Medicare reimbursement is more for a sliding hip screw
(D) Intramedullary nails have demonstrated superior outcomes in randomizedcontrolled studies
(E) Sliding hip screw is superior for treatment of reverse obliquity intertrochanteric
fractures
56- An 82-year-old female sustains an intertrochanteric hip fracture and is
treated with a sliding hip screw. What is the next appropriate step in
treating the failure seen in figure A?
(A) Non-weight bearing
(B) Valgus proximal femoral osteotomy
(C) Total hip arthroplasty
(D) Revision open reduction and internal fixation
(E) Proximal femoral resection
10
Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
57- Appropriate implants for treatment of the fracture seen in figure A include
all of the following EXCEPT
(A) Cephalomedullary nail
(B) Dynamic condylar screw
(C) Proximal femoral locking plate
(D) 95 degree blade plate
(E) Sliding hip screw
58- Anterior perforation of the distal femur from ante grade femoral nailing has
been attributed to what factor?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Non-anatomic reduction
Mismatch of the radius of curvature of implant and bone
Usage of too large an implant
Lateral patient positioning
Lateral proximal starting point
11
Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
59- Following internal fixation for an intertrochanteric fracture which of the
following factors has been shown to be associated with increased collapse or
sliding displacement of the fracture?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Use of a long intramedullary device
Use of a short intramedullary device
Use of extramedullary sliding hip screw device
Post operative weight bearing status
fracture that involved the lateral femoral wall
60- Which of the following are predictors of mortality after hip fractures?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
American Society of Anesthesiologist (ASA) classification
younger patients
fracture comminution
fixation device used
hip fracture type
61- A 55-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident and sustains the
injury seen in Figure A. What is the most appropriate treatment for this type
of injury?
(A) Total hip arthroplasty
(B) Bipolar hemi-arthroplasty
(C) Sliding hip screw
(D) Percutaenous screw fixation
(E) Cephalomedullary nail fixation
12
Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
62- All of the following implants offer adequate fracture fixation of the injury
shown in Figure A EXCEPT:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
trochanteric entry point cephalomedullary nail
piriformis fossa entry point cephalomedullary nail
dynamic hip screw
fixed angle blade plate
95 degree dynamic condylar screw
63- When treating a stable 2-part intertrochanteric hip fracture with a sliding
hip screw construct, how many screw holes are needed in the side plate for
successful fixation?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
One
Two
Three
Four
Five
13
Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
64- Increased hip intracapusular pressures can lead to diminished femoral head
perfusion. What leg position can decrease intracapsular hip pressures after
femoral neck fracture?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
flexion and internal rotation
extension and external rotation
flexion, abduction, and external rotation
extension, adduction, and internal rotation
there are no differences in hip pressures with any position
65- An intern who is taking primary call in the emergency room reports to you, the
attending physician, that he has been consulted for a 73 year old male in the ER
with a hip fracture. He says he has seen the AP pelvis x-ray and thinks it is a
"neck fracture". Which of the following x-rays should he be instructed to
obtain to best determine the classification of hip fracture in order to guide
surgical planning?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Cross table lateral of the hip with the leg externally rotated 10°
AP of the hip with the leg externally rotated 30°
Frog-leg lateral of the hip
Traction AP of the hip with the leg internally rotated 15°
Cross table lateral of the hip with the leg internally rotated 10°
66- A 69-year-old cyclist is involved in an accident and sustains a displaced
femoral neck fracture. What is the optimal treatment?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Open reduction internal fixation
Bipolar hemiarthroplasty
Unipolar hemiarthroplasty
Total hip arthoplasty
Nonoperative treatment
67- A 27-year-old man sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture and undergoes
urgent open reduction internal fixation. What is the most prevalent
complication after this injury?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Flexion contracture
Hip instability
Nonunion
Abductor lurch
Osteonecrosis
68- A 70-year-old woman trips on the grass while playing golf and sustains a
displaced comminuted femoral neck fracture. What is the optimal
treatment for this patient?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Open reduction internal fixation
Bipolar hemiarthroplasty
Total hip arthroplasty
Unipolar hemiarthroplasty
Traction and non operative treatment
14
Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
69- A 65-year-old male falls from a standing height and sustains the injury seen
in Figure A and undergoes the treatment seen in Figure B. Compared to a
total hip arthroplasty, this treatment is associated with which of the
following.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Increased blood loss
Lower incidence of revision surgery
Increased risk of peri-prosthetic fracture
Lower dislocation risk
Increased risk deep venous thrombosis
15
Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
70- A 30-year-old male sustains the following isolated injury after a motor
vehicle collision; an AP pelvis in the trauma bay is shown in Figure A. Of the
listed complications, what is the most likely complication at long term followup?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Avascular necrosis
Femoroacetabular impingement
Post-traumatic arthritis
Chondrolysis
Ipsilateral medial knee degenerative changes
16
Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
71- An 82-year-old female sustains a valgus-impacted sub capital femoral neck
fracture and undergoes cannulated screw fixation. She returns for her first
follow-up visit one week later after a fall and now has severe hip pain and is
unable to bear weight on the limb. Management should now consist of which
of the following?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Traction
Revision fixation of the femoral neck fracture
Hardware removal and placement of a sliding hip screw device
Hardware removal and calcar replacing hip hemiarthroplasty
Resection hip arthroplasty
72- The cricoids cartilage lies opposite which vertebral level?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
C3
C4
C5
C6
C7
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Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
73- In a posterolateral approach to the femur for fixation of an intertrochanteric
fracture, bleeding is encountered as vastus lateralis muscle is dissected from
the linea aspera. The bleeding vessels are most likely branches of which of
the following arteries?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Medial femoral circumflex
Transverse branch of the lateral femoral circumflex
Deep femoral
Superficial femoral
Descending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex
74- Which of the following signs or symptoms is LEAST likely to result from
herniation of the L4-L5 disk?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Weakness of the extensor digitorum longus
Pain radiating to the first web space of the foot
Decreased sensation on the medial aspect of the ankle
Decreased tibialis posterior reflex
Weakness of extensor hallucis longus
75- When posterolateral bone grafting is performed for nonunion of the tibia,
the structure at most risk for injury is the
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Posterior tibial nerve
Sural nerve
Superficial peroneal nerve
Lesser saphenous vein
Peroneal artery
76- All the following statements about the cubital tunnel are true EXCEPT that
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The proximal ulna forms one border
The medial epicondyle of the humerus forms one border
Osborne's fascia covers the tunnel
The ulnar nerve enters the flexor carpi ulnaris in the tunnel
It decreases in volume with elbow flexion
77- Which of the following features is most consistently seen in osteoporosis?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Increased serum alkaline phosphatase
Decreased serum calcium
Increased serum parathyroid hormone
Impaired mineralization of osteoid
Increased susceptibility to fractures
78- Heparin prevents thrombosis by the molecular action of
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Inhibiting activation of factor X
Inhibiting activation of factor VIII
Inhibiting activation of factor VIII and X
Enhancing the action of antithrombin III
Inhibiting platelet aggregation
18
Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
79- Osteogenesis imperfecta is associated with a defect in the synthesis of
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Type I collagen
Type II collagen
Type IV collagen
Chondroitin sulfate
Keratan sulfate
80- A 36-years-old man has had osteonecrosis of the femoral head for 1 year.
Histological examination of the marrow in the part of the femoral head that
had undergone creeping substitution would reveal
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Necrosis
Regeneration to normal marrow
Loose fibrous tissue with numerous vessels
Dense scarring with few blood vessels
Replacement by cartilage
81- In Paget’s disease, progressive osteolysis is most likely to be encountered in
the
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Vertebrae
Pelvis
Skull
Tibiae
Metatarsals
82- On histological examination, an aneurysmal bone cyst can most easily be
confused with
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
An osteogenic sarcoma
A nonossifying fibroma
A chondroblastoma
A hemangioendothelioma
A giant cell tumor
83- The best method to assess congruity of the hip joint following closed
reduction of a traumatic dislocation of the hip is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
AP radiograph of the pelvis
AP radiograph of the hip
CT of the pelvis
MRI of the pelvis
Polytomography of the pelvis
19
Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
84- An obese, 13-year-old boy complained of intermittent left knee pain of 6
weeks' duration. He denied swelling, giving way, or trauma. After
examination of the knee, the most appropriate next step in evaluation is
A) Examination of the left hip
B) Anteroposterior, lateral, tunnel, and Merchant radiographs of the left knee
C) Anteroposterior, lateral, tunnel, and Merchant radiographs of the left knee;
anteroposterior and frog lateral views of the pelvis.
D) An MRI scan of the left knee
E) Aspiration of the left knee
85- The most important aspect of treatment in the earliest stages of Legg-CalvéPerthes disease is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Frequent observation
Administration of anti-inflammatory medications
Restoration of motion in the hip
Containment of the femoral head within the acetabulum
Aspiration of the hip
86- A 2-year-old boy had the acute onset of pain and swelling in his left knee and
refused to walk. His temperature was 39°C (102.2 °F),WBC 16,000/mm³, and
ESR 90 mm/h. aspiration of the knee yielded cloudy fluid with a nucleated
cell count of 75,000/mm³ . What is the most likely cause of this infection?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Staphylococcus aureus
Haemophilus influenza
Streptococcus species
Pneumococcus species
Meningococcus species
87- The most common complication following treatment of acute slipped capital
femoral epiphyses is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Degenerative joint disease
Overgrowth of the greater trochanter
Avascular necrosis
Chondrolysis
Coxa magna
88- Klippel-Feil syndrome results from
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Congenital contracture of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
Failure of descent of the scapula
Failure of closure of the third branchial arch
Failure of segmentation of mesodermal somites
Arrested development of the cervical musculature
20
Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
89- Following 6 months of manipulation and casting, an infant with talipes
equinovarus has residual, fixed equinus and approximation of the navicular
to the medial malleolus. The midfoot is supple, but there is posterior
displacement of the fibular malleolus. Preferred treatment is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Continued manipulation and casting
Use of a Denis Browne splint 23 h per day
Use of a hinged ankle-foot orthosis
Medial and posterior release
Posterior, plantar, and lateral release
90 - The most appropriate treatment for a 6 year-old boy with a displaced
fracture of the lateral humeral condyle is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Closed reduction and application of an above-elbow cast
A collar and cuff
Skeletal traction
Open reduction and internal fixation
Excision of the fracture fragment
91 - The incidence of avascular necrosis of the femoral head following fracture
of the femoral neck in children is most directly related to the
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Age of the child
Displacement of the fracture
Time to treatment
Type of treatment
Location of the fracture line ( physeal, transcervical, cervicotochanteric)
92- Scapholunate advanced collapse (SLAC) typically involves all the following
areas EXCEPT the
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Radiolunate joint
Radial styloid
Radioscaphoid joint
Capitolunate joint
Scaphocapitate joint
93- The muscles most severely affected in Volkmann's ischemic contracture are
the
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis
Flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor pollicis longus
Flexor carpi ulnaris and pronator teres
Flexor digitorum profundus and flexor pollicis longus
Flexor digitorum profundus and flexor carpi ulnaris
21
Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
94- Acute lumbar disk herniation occurs most commonly in patients in the age
group
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Under 20 years
20 to 30 years
31 to 50 years
51 to 70 years
Over 70 years
95- Failure of total knee arthroplasties incorporating the latest prosthetic
designs is most often attributable to
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Malposition
Loosening
Infection
Subluxation
Errors in technique
96- Loosening of the tibial component following total knee arthroplasty has been
associated primarily with
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Poor surgical technique
Poor prosthetic design
Marked preoperative varus deformity
Marked preoperative valgus deformity
preoperative recurvatum deformity
97- The amount of blood loss a healthy 70-kg man must sustain before a
significant drop in systolic pressure occurs is approximately
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
500 mL
1000 mL
1500 mL
2000 mL
3000 mL
98- Optimal internal fixation of a femoral neck fracture is achieved by
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Three cancellous screws or pins
Five to seven cancellous screws or pins
A sliding hip screw
A sliding hip screw supplemented with pins
Ender's nails
22
Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
99- A 32-year-old unbelted driver involved in a head-on motor vehicle accident
had a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, a pulse of 110 beats per minute, and a
P o₂ of 90 mmHg in the emergency department. The patient had multiple
facial lacerations and bruising over his right clavicle. The chest radiograph
was unremarkable. A radiograph should now be obtained of the
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Skull
Face
Cervical spine
Abdomen
Pelvis
100- A posterior dislocation of the shoulder is most commonly associated with a
fracture of the
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Surgical neck of the humerus
Greater tuberosity
Lesser tuberosity
Neck of the scapula
Clavicle
23
Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
9/12/2011
Palestinian Board
Orthopaedic |Specialisation Examination
Friday,9th of December, 2011
Answering Sheet:
Fill in the blank boxes with the correct answer Candidate No
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Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
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Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
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Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
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Orthopedic
Board Certification Exam
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9/12/2011