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Head of the Department
of Anesthesiology and
Reanimatology N1 „V.Ghereg”
Associate professor, S.Şandru
(Anesthesiology and Reanimatology)
(SA) 1.Analgesia includes:
a) Muscle relaxation
b) Lack of pain sensation
c) Supressed counsiousness
d) Lack of tactile sensation
e) Lack of thermal sensation
(SA)2. Anesthesia includes:
a) Selective suppresion of pain sensation
b) Suppressed consiousness
c) Suppression of all types of sensation
d) Preserved tactile sensation
e) Preserved thermal sensation
(MA)3. Monitoring during anesthesia includes
a) Puls oxymetry
b) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
c) Capnometry
d) Cardiac output mesurement
e) Electroencephalography
(MA)4. The common hemodynamic responce to a nociceptive stimulus include:
a) Hypothermia
b) Tachycardia
c) Tahyphylaxis
d) Arterial hypertension
e) Cardiac arrest
(SA) 5. Capnography means:
a) Cardiac output measurement
b) Registration of the O2 hemoglobin saturation
c) Measurement of the global lung ventilation
d) Graphycal registration of CO2 concentration in an air sample
e) A method of mesuring body oxygen metabolism
(SA)6. Which statement is not correct
a) Brainstem spinal anesthesia
Monocomponent Halotane anesthesia
Combined intravenous-inhalation anesthesia
Combined spinal epidural anesthesia
General anesthesia with muscle relaxation and mechanical ventilation
(MA) 7.Ketamine is resposible for:
a) Minimal depression of the rticular formation
b) Muscle relaxation
c) Hallucinations
d) Cardio-vascular depression
e) Increase in blood pressure
(SA) 8. In the preoperative assesment the most informative respiratory parameter is:
a. Vital capacity
b. Functional residual capacity
c. Tiffeneau test (forced vital capacity)
d. Total lung capacity
e. Respiratory rate
(SA)9. Morphine/Fentanyl analgesic potency is:
a. 1:10
b. 1:50
c. 1:100
d. 1:200
e. 1:400
(MA) 10. Fentanyl (F) differs from Morphine(M) by:
a. In equianalgesic dooses F. causes less respiratory depression
b. F doese not cause Rigid_Chest Syndrome
c. F. causes less histamine release
d. In equianalgesic dooses F. causes more severe cardio-vascular depression
e. F is a more potent analgetic
(SA) 11. In the list below the most potent systemic analgesic is:
a. Morphine
b. Codeine
c. Fentanyl
d. Promedolum
e. Omnoponum
(MA) 12. Ataractics are used for:
a. Reducing the effect of opioids and hypnotic drugs
b. Preventing of postural hypotension
c. Preventing anxiety
d. Inducing calmness/ataraxia
e. Sedation
(SA) 13.The physiologic effect of 10 mg I/V Droperidol in a supine position patent
a. Increase in PaCO2.
b. An evident beta-blocking effect
c. An evident increase in heart rate
d. Nausea and vomitimg
e. Increase in respiratory rate
(SA) 14. Which of the followin statements concerning barbiturates is not correct?
a. Hypnotic doses causes a transitory pulmonary hypoventilation
b. High doses can lead to miocardium depression
c. Decrease muscular tonus
d. Increase respiratory minute volume
e. Cause sedation
(MA) 15. Barbiturates depress:
a. Baroreceptor reflex
b. Hypothalamus
c. Conduction trough autonomic nerves
d. Myocardial contactility
e. Respiratory center
(MA)16. Skeletal muscle cell depolarisation is due to:
a. Increase in intracellular sodium concentration
b. Decrease in intracellular sodium concentration
c. Decrease in intracellular potasium concentration
d. Increase in intracellular potasium concentration
e. Decrease in intracellular clorine ion concentration
(MA) 17. Intravenous Ketamine produces:
a. General anesthesia
b. Analgesia
c. Moderate increase in blood pressure
d. Dicrease in cardiac output
e. Hypotension
(MA) 18. Tissue uptake (absorbtion) of a local anesthetic depends on:
a. Tissue solubility
b. Tissue blood flow (vascularisation)
c. Anesthetic concentration
d. Heart rate
e. Respiratory rate
(MA) 19. Findings in local anesthetic Lidocaine overdosage include:
a. Cough
b. Sentral nervous system excitation (activation)
c. Loss of counsciousness
d. Convulsion
e. Sharp abdomenal pain
(MA) 20. High doses of Diazepamum will cause:
a. Respiratory depression
b. Muscle relaxation
c. Anxiolysis
d. Decreased blood pressure
e. Increase in respiratory minute volume
(MA) 21. Midazolamum causes:
a. Amnesia
b. Hypnosys
c. Anticonvulsant effect
d. Anticoagulation effect
d. Hypercoagulation
(MA) 22. Elderly patent shows:
a. Dcreased cardiac output
b. Increase in total lung capacity
c. Lower tolerance to anesthetic drugs
d. Increased glomerular filtration rate
e. Increased cardiac output
(SA)23. What is the amount of Lidocaine in 100 milliliters of 1% solution:
a. 10 mg
b. 100 mg
c. 1 gr
d. 10 gr
e. 100 gr
(SA) 24. The natural opioid in the list below is:
a. Procaine
b. Lidocainea
c. Cocaine
d. Bupivacaine
e. Novocaine
(SA) 25. Epidural anesthesia means:
a. Administration of lidocaine via intramuscular way
b. I/V administration of lidocaine
c. Administration of lidocaine în the cerebrospinal fluid
d. Administration of lidocaine în the epidural space
e. Administration of lidocaine în the paravertebral zone
(SA) 26. Why for EKG monitoring during anesthesia usually is being used the II-nd lead
of EKG?
a. Does not rquire grounding
b. Better shows the ventricular (QRS) complex
c. Better shows the P wave
d. The electrode position is left arm - left leg
e. Technically is easier to be performed
(MA) 27. The following statements concerning the intervertebral disk(s) are correct:
a. Can be damaged by the needle for spinal anesthesia
b. Represents about 25% of the vertebral column lengtht
c. Annulus fibrosus is thicker anteriorly
d. Can be removed not influencing intervertebral space
e. Ensure a constant intracranial pressure
(MA) 28. Ligamentum flavum (LF) at L-2, 3 level:
a. Consists of two converging parts
b. Its thickness is 9 mm
c. Between LF and dura mater there is a space of 4 to 8 mm wide
d. It is 38 mm wide
e. It is binded to dura mater
(SA) 29. The drug of choice in treating convulsion after a local anesthetic overdose:
a. Droperidolum
b. Diazepamum
c. Fentanyl
d. Ketamine
e. Nitroglycerin
(SA)30. The most common complication of a lumbar puction is:
a. Sepsis
b. Headache
c. Tachycardia
d. Malignant hyperthermia
e. Polyuria
(MA) 31. The advantages of a closed anesthesia breathing circuit are:
a. The required volum of anesthetic gases is low
b. Conserve heat
c. Conserve humidity of the inhaled gases
d. Minimal environment pollution
e. No need for unidirectional valves
(MA) 32. Epinefrine (adrenaline) is added the local anesthesic solution because provide the
following advantages:
a. Increase in the anesthesia block length
b. Decrease the systemic absorbtion of the anesthetic
c. Decrease the hemorhage during the operation
d. Increase anesthesia risk
e. Facilitate the detection of intravascular injection of the anesthetic
(MA) 33. The gas blend exhaled by the anesthetised patient is partially or totally reinhaled in:
a. Open anesthesia circuit
b. Semi-open anesthesia circuit
c. Semi-closed anesthesia circuit
d. Closed anesthesia circuit
e. All listed above
(SA) 34. Dillutional hypoxia can happen during inhalation anesthesia with:
a. Diethyl Ether
b. Halotane
c. Nitrous Oxyde
d. Isoflurane
e. Sevoflurane
(CM) 35. Local anesthesia can be provided by:
a. Local/topic application of the anesthetic
b. Inhalation of halotane
c. I/V morphine
d. Tissue infiltration with lidocaine
e. Local application of cold
(MA) 36. The most common complications of epidural anesthesia are:
a. Arterial hypotension
b. Arterial hypertension
c. Bradicardia
d. Tachycardia
e. Allergic reactions
(CM) 37. Sodium thiopental can produse:
a. Respiratory center depression
b. Arterial hypertension
c. Arterial hypotension
d. Activate parasympathetic nervous system
e. Activate sympathetic nervous system
(MA) 38. Succinylcholine:
a. Produce postsinaptic membrane depolarization
b. Produce postsinaptic membrane hyperpolarization
c. Acts for approximately 5 min
d. Acts for approximately 30 min
e. Causes hyperpotassemia
(SA) 39. Pipercuronium bromide (Arduan):
a. Is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent
b. Is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent
c. Induce hyperpotassemia
d. Produce muscle pains
e. Acts for approximately 5 min
(MA) 40. The following statements concerning Fentanyl are correct:
a. Is more potent than Morphine
b. Is less potent than Morphine
c. Duration of analgesia is 60 minutes
d. Duration of analgesia is from 20 to 30 minutes
e. Is used for weaning patient from anesthesia
(MA) 41. The following statements concerning Droperidolum are correct:
a. Is an anxiolytic
b. Is a neuroleptic (antipsychotic)
c. Produce antiemetic effect
d. Shows analgesic effect
e. Has extrapyramidal side-effects
(MA) 42. Sodium Thiopental cause:
a. Hypnosis
b. Respiratory center depression
c. Arterial hypertencion
d. Arterial hypotencion
e. Can produce bronchospasm
(MA) 43. Ketamine produces:
a. Dissociative anesthesia
b. Hallucinations during the weaning from anesthesia
c. Moderate incerease in blood pressure
d. Decrease in cardiac output
e. Arterial hypotencion
(MA) 44. The following statements concerning Nitrous oxide are correct:
a. Can be used as sole anesthetic (monoanesthesia)
b. The effect develops slowly
c. Cause airways irritation
d. Provide analgesia
e. Provide hypnosys
(MA) 45. The following anesthetics can be used for anesthesia induction:
a. Halotane
b. Isoflurane
c. Sevoflurane
d. Nitrous oxide
e. Propofol
Acute cardiac failure
(SA)1. Relation “Higher end dyastolic volume – higher stroke (systolic) volume” is known
a. „ Frank-Starling” law (mechanism)
b. „ Otto Frank” law
c. „Starling-Pappenheimer-Staverman” law
d. „ Laplace” law
e. „ Hilton” law
(SA)2. Cardiiac output is:
a. Blood volume ejected by heart during systole
b. Blood volume ejected by heart during 1 minute
c. Blood volume circulating in the body
d. Blood volume against body surface area
e. Blood volume against body weight
(SA)3. What CVP value in a hypotensive patient requests volume replacement
a. -2 mmHg
b. <10 mmHg
c. <6 mmHg
d. 0 mmHg
e. >20 mmHg
(SA)45. By W. Shoemaker, the optimal CVP value for a ventricle with normal compliance
a. 14-16 mmHg
8-10 mmHg
<6 mmHg
>20 mmHg
>25 mmHg
(SA) 5. By W. Shoemaker, the maximum (accepted) CVP value for a ventricle with normal
compliance is:
14-16 mmHg
8-10 mmHg
<5-6 mmHg
>20 mmHg
>25 mmHg
(SA)6. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) reflects:
a. Left atrium filling
b. Right atrium filling
c. Left ventricle filling
d. Right ventricle filling
e. Pulmonary circulation filling pressure
(SA) 7. The optimal PCWP (Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure) for a healthy heart is :
a. <12 mmHg
b. >20 mmHg
c. 18-20 mmHg
d. 6-10 mmHg
e. 12-16 mmHg
(SA) 8. In a patient with increased systemic vascular resistance and high blood pressure the
drug of choice is:
a. Vasodilator
b. Vasopressor
c. Diuretic
d. Adrenergic Beta-blocker
e. Fluids
(SA)9. In a patient with hypotension and decreased systemic vascular resistance the drug
of choice is a:
a. Norepinefrine
b. Dopmine
c. Dobutamine
d. Adrenergic Beta-blocker
e. Nitroglycerine
(MA)10. High systemic vascular resistance can be seen in:
a. Cardiogenic shock
b. Hypovolemic shock
c. Septic shock
d. Neurogenic shock
e. Anaphylactic shock
(MA)11. High systemic vascular resistance can be seen in:
Hypovolemic shock
Adrenal insufficiency
Anaphylactic shock
Pain, anxiety
(MA) 13. Systemic Vascular Resistance is decreased in:
a. Septic shock
b. Acute pancreatitis
c. Cirrhirosis of the liver
d. High spinal trauma
e. Hypovolemic shock
(MA) 14. Cardiac failure with an elevated cardiac output can be present in:
a. Chronic anemia
b. Arteriovenous fistula
c. Acute myocardial infarction
d. Hypercapnia
e. Hyperthyroidism
(MA) 15. The most coomon causes of left ventricle failure include:
a. Acute myocardial infarction
b. Aortic dissection
c. Air embolisation
d. Mitral valve insufficiency
e. Aortic valve stenosis
(MA) 16. The most coomon causes of right ventricle failure include:
a. Aortic valve stenosis
b. Thrombus pulmonary embolism
c. Air embolization
d. Amniotic fluid embolization
e. Mechanical ventilation with excessive positive pressure
(MA) 17. The most common causes of global cardiac failure are:
a. Hypervolemia
b. Arrhythmia (Ventricular tachycardia , 3rd degree AV block)
c. Myocarditis
d. Hypertrophic and dilated cardiomyopathy
e. Cardiac tamponade
(MA) 18. Dyastolic acute cardiac failure can develop through following mechanisms:
a. External compression
b. Increased myocardium stiffness
c. Interventricular interference
d. Hypertrophic and dilated cardiomyopathy
e. Compromised pump function of the heart
(MA) 19. Dyastolic cardiac failure by external compression mechanism can be produced
a. Pricardial calcification or effusion
b. Tension pneumothorax
c. Massive pleurisy
d. Massive acute myocardial infarction
e. Controlled (artificial) lung ventilation
(CM) 20. Dyastolic cardiac failure by ventricular interference can be produced by:
a. Massive myocardial infarction with involvement of interventricular septum
b. Pulmonary hypertension
c. Mitral valve insufficiency
d. Artificial lung ventilation with excessive PEEP
e. Tricuspidal valve insufficiency
(MA) 21. Oxygen transport is dependent on:
a. Hemoglobine level
b. Carbon dioxyde partial pressure in arterial blood (PaCO2)
c. Hemoglobine saturation with O2 of the arterial blood (SaO2)
d. Oxygen partial pressure in arterial blood (PaO2)
e. Cardiac output
(MA)22. Cardiac output is dependent on:
a. Preload
b. Afterload
c. Heart rate and rithm
d. Contractility
e. Tidal volume
(MA) 23 Preload is:
a. The myocardium sarcomere length at the end of diastole
b. End- diastolic ventricular volume
c. End -diastolic myocardium wall stress
d. Is influenced by venous return, dependent on volemic status and venous capacity
e. Myocardium wall stress during systole
(MA) 24. Afterload is:
a. Myocardium wall tension during systole
b. End-diastolic myocardium sarcomere length
c. End-diastolic ventricular volume
d. The pressure the ventricle must overcome to eject blood
e. Resistance to the blood flow in the major vessels
(MA) 25. The final value of afterload is influenced by:
a. Pleural pressure
b. Impedance and resistance
c. Preload with it components
d. Partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood
e. In clinical conditions the only component which is measured în order to monitor afterload
is vascular resistance (systemic or pulmonary)
(MA) 26. Concerning the relation between Heart Rate (HR) and Cardiac Output (CO):
a. In a healthy heart the maximal CO is acheived at a HR of 140 bpm
b. CO gradually decrease by a HR of 180 bpm (short ventricular diastole do not let it to fill)
c. HR over 180 bpm can lead to ventricular fibillation
d. In cardiac failure CO begin to diminish at a HR over 120 bpm
e. In a healthy heart the maximal CO is acheived at a HR lower than 45 bpm
(MA) 27. In a hypotensive patient (BP=100/40 mmHg, BPmed= 80 mmHg), with a heart
rate of 110 bpm, warm skin and a short capillary refill there is:
a. Increased cardiac output
b. Low cardiac output
c. Decreased systemic vascular resistance
d. Increased systemic vascular resistance
e. High pulse pressure (i.e. 60 mmHg) points on increased stroke volume
(MA) 28. In a hypotensive patient (BP= 80/65 mmHg, BPmed= 75 mmHg), with a heart
rate of 110 bpm, warm skin and delyed capillary refill there is:
a. Increased cardiac output
b. Low cardiac output
c. Decreased systemic vascular resistance
d. Increased systemic vascular resistance
e. High stroke volume
(MA) 29. The management of a patient undergoing cardiac surgery includes :
a. Hyperbaric oxygen treatment
b. Respiratory support
c. Nutritional support
d. Analgesia and sedation
e. Prophylactic medication (antibiotics, anticoagulants, antiagregants)
(MA) 30. Bradycardia requires treatmen when:
a. HR ≤35 bpm, irrespective to blood pressure (BP)
b. HR ≤60 bpm, irrespective to BP
c. HR ≤50 bpm, and hypotension
d. HR ≤90 bpm, and hypotension
e. HR ≤65 bpm, irrespective to blood pressure
(MA) 31. În case of bradicardia the patinet should be re-evalated for:
a. Potasium blood level
b. Hyperthiroidism
c. Hypothiroidism
d. Chronic beta-mimetic therapy
e. Cronic beta blockers, cardiac glycosides, calcium channel blockers
(MA) 32. In a patent with cardiac failure with arterial hypotension or low systemic
vascular resistance are to be administered vasopressors. The target values for Systolic
Arterial Pressure (SAP) and Systemic Vascular Resistance (SVR) will be:
a. SAP = 70 mmHg
b. SAP = 100 mmHg
c. SVR >2400 dyne·s·cm-5/m2
d. SVR >1600 dyne·s·cm-5/m2
e. SAP > 140 mmHg
(MA) 33. Vasodilators are indicated in case of:
a. High systemic vascular resistance (>2400 dyne·s·cm-5/m2)
b. Systemic vascular resistance of 1600 dyne·s·cm-5/m2
c. Critically ill patent with arterial hypertension (Systolic BP>140 mmHg)
d. Systolic BP of 100 mmHg
e. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 55 mmHg
(MA) 34. If high systemic vascular resistance (>2400 dyne·s·cm-5/m2) or arterial
hypertension (SAP>140 mmHg or BPmed >100 mmHg) are present, vasodilators are to be
a) Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)
b) Nicardipine
c) Adrenaline (Epinephrine)
d) Sodium Nitroprusside
e) Efedrine
Acite Respiratory Failure
(SA)1.The anterior edge of Epiglottis binds to:
a. Thyroid cartilage
b. Crycoid cartilage
c. Vocal cords
d. Arytenoid cartilage
e. Corniculate-cuneiphorme cartilages
(SA) 2.Non-respiratory functions of the lung are:
a. Blood filter
b. Participation to the acid -base balance
c. Participation to the hydro -ionic balance
d. Conversion of the angiotensine I to angiotensine II
e. All listed above
(SA) 3. PaO2/FiO2 ratio in ARDS:
a. <500
b. <300
c. <200
d. >200
e. >300
(SA) 4. Diagnosis of the Hypercapnic Respiratory Failure is based on:
a. Increase in PaCO 2
b. Alteration of neurological status
c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Skin Hyperemia
e. All listed above
(SA) 5. PaO 2 is the acronime for:
a. Oxygen saturation of the arterial blood
b. Partial pressure of O2 in arterial blood
c. O 2 content in arterial blood
d. Fraction of inspired O2
e. Partial pressure of O2 in venous blood
(MA) 6. Coditions that can lead to ARDS are:
a. Pulmonary contusion
b. Sepsis
c. Pleuritis
d. Shock satates
e. Pneumonia
(SA) 7. FiO 2 is the acronym for:
a. Oxygen saturation of the arterial blood
b. Partial pressure of O2 in arterial blood
c. O 2 content in arterial blood
d. Fraction of inspired O2
e. Partial pressure of O2 in venous blood
(MA) 8. In hyperventilation it can be found:
a. Hypercapnia
b. Hypocapnia
c. Respiratory alcalosis
d. Respiratory acidosis
e. Hypoxemia
(SA) 9. Normal range for PaO2 is:
a. 95-100 mmHg
b. 85-90 mmHg
c. 75-80 mmHg
d. 65-70 mmHg
e. <60 mmHg
10. (SA) Respiratory center is located in:
a. Cerebral cortex
b. Hypothalamus
c. Cerebellum
d. Brain stem
e. Spinal cord
(SA)11. In hypoventilation it can be found:
a. Hypocapnia
b. Respiratory acidosis
c. Respiratory alcalosis
d. Metabolic acidosis
e. Inreased tidal volume
(MA)12. Respiratory compensation mechanism in metabolic acidosis
can include:
a. Decrease in PaCO2
b. Incerase in P aCO2
c. Incerased respiratory rate
d. Decreased respiratory rate
e. All listed above
(MA)13. Hypercapnia is a consequence of:
a. Alveolar hyperventilation
b. Alveolar hypoventilation
c. Increase in dead space
d. Increased O2 concentration in breating air
e. Increased CO2 concent ration in the inhaled blend (reinhalation)
(MA)14. Advantages of mechanical ventilation are:
a. Keeping O2 and CO2 values in arterial blood in the normall range
b. Decrease work of breathing
c. Decrease venous return
d. Decrease O2 consumption
e. Increase venous return
(MA) 15. Objectives for tracheal intubation are:
a. To performe mechanical ventilation
b. Securing airways
c. Performing extracorporeal oxygenation
d. Deliveryng high O2 concentration to the patient
e. To prevent airway obstruction
(MA)16. Causes of hypoxemia are:
a. Reduced O2 concentration in the inhaled air
b. Ventilation-perfusion mismatching
c. Right to left blood shunting
d. Impaired diffusion trouhg alveolar -capillary membrane
e. Decraesed O2 consumption at the tissue level
(MA)17. Tissue hypoxia can lead to:
a. Inhibition of the aerobic metabolism
b. Increased lactic acid production
c. Metabolic alcalosis
d. Metabolic asidosis
e. Convertion to anaerobic metabolism
(MA)18. Complications of the mechanical ventilation include:
a. Barotrauma
b. Ventilator-associated pneumonia
c. Polyuria
d. Pulmonary volutrauma
e. Ventilator- induced lung injury
(MA) 19. Criteria for weaning the patient from ventilator include:
a. PaO2>70mmHg on FiO2<0,4
b. PaCO2 >60 mmHg
c. SaO2>95% on FiO2<0,4.
d. PaO2/FiO2 >200.
e. Improvemment on X - ray examination
(MA) 20. The drugs used in airway obstruction are:
a. Terbutaline
b. Theophilline
c. Salbutamol
d. Dexamethasone
e. Dopmine
(MA) 21. The consequences of hyperventilation are:
a. Hypocapnia
b. Respiratory acidosis
c. Respiratory alcalosis
d. Metabolic acidosis
e. Hypoxemia
Nutrition, Fluids and Electrolytes
(MA)1. The indications for „washed” red cell transfusion include:
a. History oh hemolytic transfusion reactions
b. Congenital deffect of IgA
c. History of sever transfusion reactions
d. IgM defficite
e. Hystroy of anaphylactic shock
(MA)2. Fresh frosen plasma is used for:
a. Correction of microvascular hemorrhage if the Prothrombinic Time is 1,5 fold higher
than normal
b. Correction of microvascular hemorrhage if the Protrombinic Time is 2 fold higher than
c. Emergency reversal of cumarinic anticoagulants (warfarin)
d. Volume replacement
e. Correction of hypoalbuminemia
(MA)3. The following statements concerning Dextranes are correct:
a. Increase the circulating blood volume
b. Are appropriate for parenteral nutrition
c. Are usefull for correcting microvascular hemorrhage
d. Can act as an antigen
e. The dose limit is 1,5 g/kg body weight per day
(MA)4. The following are electrolyte solutions:
a. Ringer’s solution
b. Ringer’s lactate solution (Hartmann’s)
c. Normal Saline
d. Hydroxyethyl starch
e. 10% Glucose solution
(MA)5. For nutritional therapy/parenteral nutrition are appropriate:
a. Infesol
b. Fresh frosen plasma
c. Aminosteril
d. 5% Glucose solution
e. 10% Glucose solution
(SA)6. Carbohydrates intake should cover:
a. 20-30% of daily caloric requirements
b. 30-40% of daily caloric requirements
c. 10-20% of daily caloric requirements
d. 50-60% of daily caloric requirements
e. 70-80% of daily caloric requirements
(SA)7. Fat intake should cover:
10-20% of daily caloric requirements
25-30% of daily caloric requirements
35-40% of daily caloric requirements
45-50% of daily caloric requirements
55-60% of daily caloric requirements
(MA)8. Fat emulsions used for parenteral nutrition include:
a. Aminosteril
a. Infezol
b. Intralipid
c. Lipofundin
d. Aminoplasmal
(MA) 9. Aminoacide solutions used for parenteral nutrition include:
a. Intralipid
b. Aminosteril
c. Aminoplasmal
d. Lipofundin
e. Infezol
(SA)10. The daily flud reuiremets in an adult are:
a. 10-20 ml/kg of body weight
b. 20-30 ml/kg of body weight
c. 30-40 ml/kg of body weight
d. 40-50 ml/kg of body weight
e. 50-60 ml/kg of body weight
Shock states
(MA)1. Abnormalities indicating for Systemic Inflammatory Responce Syndrom (SIRS)
a. Heart rate > 90bpm
b. Respiratory rate > 20 breaths/min or PaCO2<32 mmHg
c. Arterial hypotension (systolic BP<90mmhg
d. White blood cell count >12000 cells/mm3 or < 4000 cells/mm3
e. Body temperature > 38 C or < 36 C
(SA)2. The drug of choice for treating the hypotension in septic shock is:
a. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
b. Norepinephrine (Noradrenalin)
c. Mezaton
d. Dobutamine
e. Vasopresine
(SA)3. The drug of choice for incereasing myocardial contractility in a septic schock
patient with compromised contractility will be:
a. Mezaton
b. Naoradrenaline
c. Dobutamine
d. Izoprenaline
e. Adrenaline
(MA)4. Drugs for Septic shock treatment include:
a. Normal saline
b. Dobutamine
c. Noradrenaline
d. Hydrocortisone
e. Nitroglycerine
(CS)5. The target hemoglobin concentration in septic shock treatment should be:
a. > 60 g/l
b. > 70 g/l
c. > 80 g/l
d. > 90 g/l
e. > 100 g/l
(SA)6. Sodium bicarbaonate will be used in a septic shock patient if PH is lower than:
a. 7,4
b. 7,35
c. 7,3
d. 7,2
e. 7,10
(MA)7. Resuscitation goals for the first 6hrs of the septic shock resuscitation include:
a. CVP 8-12 mmHg
b. SvO2 (sperior vena vena cava) or mixed ≥70%
c. Mean arterial pressure ≥ 65 mm Hg
d. Urine output ≥0,5 ml/kg/hr
e. Systolic arterial pressure ≥120 mm Hg
(SA)8. The drug of choice for the correction of hypotension (SBP < 70-80 mmHg) in
cardiogenic shock is:
a. Adrenaline
b. Mezaton
c. Dopamine
d. Dobutamine
e. Noradrenaline
(MA)9. For the treatment of cardiogenic shock in a patent with acute myocardial
infarction can be used the following drugs
a. Fentanyl
b. Nitroglycerine
c. Noradrenaline
d. Dopamine
e. Dobutamine
(MA)10. Cardiogenic schock findings include:
a. Tachycardia
b. Low systemic vascular resistance
c. Bradycardia
d. Decreased cardiac output
e. Arterial hypotension
(SA)11. The drug of choice for trating hypotension in anaphylactic shock is:
a. Noradrenaline
b. Mezaton
c. Adrenaline
d. Dopamine
e. Dobutamine
(MA)12. Findings in anaphylactic shock will include:
a. Generalized vasoplegia
b. Bronchospasm
c. Increased capillary permeability
d. Hipervolemia
e. High cardiac output
(MA)13. Tratment of neurogenic shock can include:
a. Adrenalina
b. Normal saline
c. Nitroglycerine
d. Ringer’s lactate sol.
e. Noradrenalina
(SA)14. Treatment of hypovolemic shock will start with:
a. Normal saline or Ringer’s lactate
b. Adrenaline
c. Noradrenaline
d. Dextrane 40
e. Mezaton
Coma states
1.(SA) Which of the following drugs is used for treatin convulsions caused by a local
a. Droperidol
b. Diazepam
c. Fentanyl
d. Ketamine
e. Propofol
2.(MA) Cerebral edema can by caused by the following conditions:
a. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
b. Cerebral contusion
c. Transient ischemic attack
d. Hemorrhagic stroke
e. Hypoalbuminemia
3.(MA) Causes of an increased Intracranial Pressure can be:
a. Hyperventilation
b. Hypercapnia
c. Systemic hypertension
d. Hypoxia
e. Hyperoxia
4.(MA) Glsgow Coma Scale includes:
a. Oculomotor reflex
b. Verbal response
c. Eye response
d. Vestibulary response
e. Motor response
5.(MA) Which of the following can be usefull in brain death diagnosis:
a. Advanced coma (3 points by GCS)
b. Miotic pupils
c. Mydriatic pupils
d. Apnea test
e. Atropin test
6.(SA) Which of the conditions listed below can lead to coma:
a. Sever disturbances of electrolit balance
b. Hypoglicemia
c. Hyperglicemia
d. Hypoxia
e. All listed above
7. (SA) Cerebral blood flow is influenced by:
a. PaO2
b. Body temperature
c. PaCO2
d. Systemic blood pressure
e. All listed above
8.(MA) Which of the following increases Cerebral Blood Flow (CBF) and Intracranial
Pressure (ICP):
a. Hyperventilation
b. Hypoxemia
c. Convulsions
d. Hypercapnia
e. Hypothhermia
9.(MA) Which of the following decreases Cerebral Blood Flow (CBF) and Intracranial
Pressure (ICP):
a. Analgesia and sedation
b. Hyperthermia
c. Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP)
d. Respiratory alcalosis
e. Acidosis
10.(MA) Mydriatic pupils are common for:
a. Posoning with organophosphates
b. Anoxia states
c. Advanced coma
d. Use of mydriatic drugs
e. Intravenous perfusion of adrenomimetics
11.(MA) Components of the management of increase Intracranial Pressure (ICP) are:
a. Patient ventilation
b. Systemic blood pressure control
c. Horisontal position of the patient
d. Anti-convulsantts
e. High PEEP values
12. (MA) Druds used for osmotic therapy include:
a. Dextrane 70
b. Normal Saline
c. 3% NaCl solution
d. Manitolum
e. Loop diretics
13. (MA) Glucocorticoid side effects include:
a. Hypoglicemia
b. Immunosuppression
c. High gastrointestinal hemorrhage
d. Systemic hypotension
e. Hyponatriemia
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