Download OSTEOLOGY

"APPROVED"
Head of the Normal Anatomy Department
Associate professor
D. Volchkevich
Discussed at a meeting of the department
"03" january 2014, protocol № 10
TESTS ON HUMAN ANATOMY FOR PRE-EXAM TESTING OF STUDENTS
OSTEOLOGY
1.
2.
3.
4.
1. Which of the following bones concern to an axial skeleton?
Bones of the skull;
Bones of the inferior limb;
Bones of a vertebral column;
Bones of a thorax;
1.
2.
3.
4.
2. Which from the listed bones concern to an additional skeleton?
Bones of a skull;
Bones of the upper extremity;
Bones of a thorax;
Bones of the lower extremity;
1.
2.
3.
4.
3. What is taken into consideration in the classification of bones?
The form (structure);
Function;
Age;
Development;
1.
2.
3.
4.
4. Specify, which processes are available for vertebrae:
Coracoid process;
Processus spinosus;
Processus coronoideus;
Articular process;
1.
2.
3.
4.
5. Which stages of development a primary bone passes through?
Connective tissue;
Cartilaginous tissue;
Bone tissue;
Mixed;
1.
2.
3.
4.
6. Name kinds of osteogenesis:
Endesmal;
Enchondral;
Perichondral;
Periostal;
1.
2.
3.
4.
7. Which structures are present in typical vertebrae?
Arch;
Pedicles;
Articular process;
Mastoid process;
1.
2.
3.
4.
8. Specify anatomical structures, characterizing cervical vertebrae:
Foramen in transverse processes;
Bifurcated spinous process;
Anterior and posterior tubercles on transverse processes;
Foveae costales;
1.
2.
3.
4.
9. Which vertebrae have rudimentary ribs?
Cervical vertebrae;
Sacrum (sacral vertebrae);
Lumbar vertebrae;
Thoracic vertebrae;
1.
2.
3.
4.
10. Specify anatomical structures, in reference to thoracic (II-IX) vertebrae:
Foveae costales superiores et inferiores;
Processus transverso-costarius;
Foveae costales processus transverses;
Processus mamillares;
11. Specify, which vertebrae have full costal facets and half-costal
facets on a body simultaneously:
1. I thoracic vertebra;
2. X thoracic vertebra;
3. XI thoracic vertebra;
4. XII thoracic vertebra;
1.
2.
3.
4.
12. Specify, which vertebrae have half-costal facets on a body:
I thoracic vertebra;
X thoracic vertebra;
XI thoracic vertebra;
XII thoracic vertebra;
1.
2.
3.
4.
13. In which place of spinal column there is a promontorium?
At a level of connection of IV and V lumbar vertebrae;
At a level of connection of V lumbar vertebrae with the sacrum;
At a level of body of V lumbar vertebrae;
At a level of I sacral vertebrae;
1.
2.
3.
4.
14. On which part of the sacrum the auricular surface can be found?
On dorsal surface;
On lateral parts;
At a level of jugular notch of a sternum;
At a level of the middle of body of a sternum;
2
1.
2.
3.
4.
15. Specify the location of the angle of sternum:
Junction of the manubrium with the body of a sternum;
Junction of the manubrium of a sternum with xiphoid process;
At a level of jugular notch of the manubrium of a sternum;
Ahead of a sternum;
1.
2.
3.
4.
16. Which parts are allocated on each rib?
Body;
Head;
Neck;
Arch;
1.
2.
3.
4.
17. Which ribs have no crest on their heads?
I rib;
X rib;
XI rib;
XII rib;
1.
2.
3.
4.
18. Which ribs have no articular surface on their tubercles?
I rib;
X rib;
XI rib;
XII rib;
1.
2.
3.
4.
19. Where the sulcus of subclavian artery passes on the first rib?
Behind of tubercle of anterior scalene muscle;
At the front of tubercle of anterior scalene muscle;
On tubercle of anterior scalene muscle;
At the front of tubercle of the I rib;
1.
2.
3.
4.
20. Which bones concern to shoulder girdle?
1st rib;
Clavicle;
Humerus;
Scapula;
1.
2.
3.
4.
21. At what level does the scapula located?
From I to V ribs;
From V to X ribs;
From II to VII ribs;
From VII to XII ribs;
1.
2.
3.
4.
22. Which parts of scapula can be distinguished?
Coracoid process;
Tuberculum supraglenidale;
Tuberculum infraglenoidale;
Cavitas glenoidalis;
3
1.
2.
3.
4.
23. Where the cavitas glenoidalis is localized on scapula?
On acromion;
At the superior angle of scapula;
On coracoid process;
On lateral angle of scapula;
1.
2.
3.
4.
24. Where the tuberculum conoideum is placed on the clavicle?
On the superior surface;
On the anterior surface;
On the inferior surface;
On the posterior surface;
25. Which anatomical structures are located on the proximal end of the
humerus?
1. Condylus;
2. Sulcus n. radialis;
3. Caput;
4. Epicondylus lateralis;
1.
2.
3.
4.
26. Specify localization of the sulcus for radial nerve:
On posterior surface of the medial epicondyle of the humerus;
On posterior surface of the lateral epicondyle of the humerus;
On anterior surface of the humerus below deltoid tuberosity;
On posterior surface of the humerus below deltoid tuberosity;
1.
2.
3.
4.
27. Specify localization of the sulcus for ulnar nerve:
On posterior surface of the humerus below deltoid tuberosity;
On anterior surface of the humerus below deltoid tuberosity;
On posterior surface of the medial epicondyle of the humerus;
On posterior surface of the lateral epicondyle of the humerus;
1.
2.
3.
4.
28. Which anatomical structures are located on the distal end of the humerus?
Fossa coronoidea;
Tuberculum minus;
Capitulum;
Sulcus intertuberculares;
1.
2.
3.
4.
29. Which anatomical structures are located on the proximal end of the ulna?
Caput;
Olecranon;
Incisura trochlearis;
Processus styloideus;
1.
2.
3.
4.
30. Which anatomical structures are located on the proximal end of the radius?
Incisura ulnaris;
Caput;
Collum;
Processus styloideus;
4
1.
2.
3.
4.
31. The pisiforme bone is:
Spongy sesamoid;
Short spongy;
Mixed;
Mixed short;
1.
2.
3.
4.
32. Which bones of the wrist are in its proximal row?
Os capitatum;
Os scaphoideum;
Os lunatum;
Os triquetrum;
1.
2.
3.
4.
33. Which bones of the upper extremity have articular circumference?
Humerus;
Ulna;
Clavicle;
Radius;
1.
2.
3.
4.
34. Which from the listed bones have styloid process?
Humerus;
Ulna;
Radius;
Temporal bone;
1.
2.
3.
4.
35. Which bones concern to the pelvic girdle?
Sacrum;
Pubic bone;
Femur;
Iliac bone;
1.
2.
3.
4.
36. Which bones take part in formation of acetabulum?
Iliac bone;
Ischium;
Pubic bone;
Sacrum;
1.
2.
3.
4.
37. Specify, which bones have auricular articular surface?
Sacrum;
Ischium;
Pubic bone;
Iliac bone;
1.
2.
3.
4.
38. Name the borders separating the greater pelvic from the lesser one:
Linea arcuata;
Pecten ossis pubis;
Upper edge of pubic symphysis;
Promontorium;
5
39. Which anatomical structures are located on the proximal end of the
femur?
1. Lateral epicondyle;
2. Head;
3. Medial epicondyle;
4. Intercondylar fossa;
1.
2.
3.
4.
40. Which anatomical structures are located on the distal end of the femur?
Crista intertrochanterica;
Epicondylus medialis;
Caput;
Facies poplitea;
1.
2.
3.
4.
41. Specify, which bones of the inferior extremity has the malleolus:
Tibia;
Talus;
Fibula;
Calcaneus;
1.
2.
3.
4.
42. Which anatomic structures are placed on distal end of the tibia?
Tuberositas tibiae;
Malleolus medialis;
Malleolus lateralis;
Linea m. solei;
1.
2.
3.
4.
43. Which bones of the tarsus form its distal row?
Medial cuneiform bone;
Navicular bone;
Lateral cuneiform bone;
Cuboid bone;
1.
2.
3.
4.
44. Which anatomical structures are located on the talus?
Head;
Sustentaculum tali;
Trochlea tali;
Sulcus tali;
1.
2.
3.
4.
45. Which anatomical structures are located on the calcaneus?
Head;
Medial malleolar surface;
Tuber calcaneus;
Sulcus of the tendon of the long peroneal muscle;
1.
2.
3.
4.
46. Specify the bones forming the brain skull:
Frontal bone;
Sphenoid bone;
Ethmoid bone;
Occipital bone;
6
1.
2.
3.
4.
47. Which anatomical structures form roof of the skull?
Squama of temporal bone;
Squama of occipital bone;
Squama of frontal bone;
Parietal bones;
1.
2.
3.
4.
48. What parts can be found on the frontal bone?
Squama;
Corpus;
Pars orbitalis;
Pars nasalis;
49. Which anatomical structures are located on the external surface of frontal
squama?
1. Linea temporalis;
2. Crista frontalis;
3. Incisura ethmoidalis;
4. Glabella;
1.
2.
3.
4.
50. The specific human features in the structure of a frontal bone are:
Glabella;
Arcus superciliares;
Tubera frontalia;
Incisura supraorbitalis;
1.
2.
3.
4.
51. Specify surfaces, which are available on the body of the sphenoid bone:
Facies superior;
Facies posterior;
Facies anterior;
Facies lateralis;
1.
2.
3.
4.
52. Which parts are distinguished on the occipital bone?
Pars basilaris;
Corpus;
Pars lateralis;
Squama occipitalis;
53. Which anatomical structures are located on the lateral parts of occipital
bone?
1. Sulcus sinus transverse;
2. Canalis hypoglossalis;
3. Processus jugularis;
4. Condylus occipitalis;
54. Which anatomical structures are present on the anterior surface of the
pyramid of the temporal bone?
1. Aperture of the musculotubarius canal;
2. Fossa jugularis;
3. Fossula petrosa;
4. Eminentia arcuata;
7
55. Which anatomical structures are present on the posterior surface
of the pyramid of the temporal bone?
1. Trigeminal impression;
2. Sulcus of the sigmoid sinus;
3. Porus acusticus internus;
4. Tegmen tympany;
56. Which anatomic structures are present on the inferior surface of the
pyramid of the temporal bone?
1. Fossa subarcuata;
2. Foramen of the tympanic canal;
3. Carotid foramen;
4. Jugular fossa;
1.
2.
3.
4.
57. Which processes does the temporal bone have?
Styloid process;
Mastoid process;
Frontal process;
Zygomatic process;
1.
2.
3.
4.
58. Which canals pass through the pyramid of the temporal bone?
Canalis opticus;
Canalis facialis;
Canalis condylaris;
Canalis caroticus;
1.
2.
3.
4.
59. Name the inlet aperture of the carotid canal:
Foramen caroticum internum;
Foramen jugulare;
Foramen caroticum externum;
Fossula petrosa;
60. Which parts of the temporal bone pass through the three stages of
development in the ontogenesis?
1. Pars petrosa;
2. Pars tympanica;
3. Pars squamosa;
4. Pars cerebralis;
1.
2.
3.
4.
61. Name the outlet opening of the facial canal:
Sulcus n. petrosi majoris;
Fossa subarcuata;
Meatus acusticus internus;
Foramen stylomastoideum;
1.
2.
3.
4.
62. Specify the inlet opening of the facial canal:
Porus acusticus externus;
Meatus acusticus internus;
Foramen stylomastoideum;
Foramen caroticum internum;
8
1.
2.
3.
4.
63. Which parts are found on the ethmoid bone?
Lamina perpendicularis;
Lamina orbitalis;
Labyrinthus ethmoidale;
Lamina cribrosa;
1.
2.
3.
4.
64. Which nasal concha are processes of the ethmoidal bone?
Concha nasalis suprema;
Concha nasalis superior;
Concha nasalis media;
Concha nasalis inferior;
1.
2.
3.
4.
65. Which anatomical structures are present on the ethmoid bone?
Foramen caecum;
Concha nasalis inferior;
Crista galli;
Sulcus lacrimalis;
1.
2.
3.
4.
66. Which processes does the maxilla have?
Processus palatinus;
Processus zygomaticus;
Processus alveolaris;
Processus frontalis;
1.
2.
3.
4.
67. Which surfaces does the body of the maxilla have?
Facies anterior;
Facies infratemporalis;
Facies nasalis;
Facies orbitalis;
1.
2.
3.
4.
68. Specify anatomical structures through which the hiatus maxillaris opens:
Meatus nasi superior;
Fossa pterygopalatina;
Meatus nasi inferior;
Meatus nasi medius;
1.
2.
3.
4.
69. Which cavities does the frontal bone form?
Nasal cavity;
Oral cavity;
Orbit;
Fossa sphenopalatina;
70. Which structures are present on the perpendicular plate of the palatine
bone?
1. Sulcus palatinus major;
2. Sinus maxillaris;
3. Crista ethmoidalis;
4. Crista conchalis;
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1.
2.
3.
4.
71. Which processes does the palatine bone have?
Processus palatinus;
Processus orbitalis;
Processus sphenoidalis;
Processus pyramidalis;
1.
2.
3.
4.
72. Which anatomical structures are located on the lacrimal bone?
Sulcus ethmoidalis;
Crista lacrimalis posterior;
Crista anterior;
Processus maxillaris;
1.
2.
3.
4.
73. Which anatomic structures are located on the body of the mandibula?
Linea oblique;
Fossa pterygopalatina;
Fossa digastrica;
Linea mylohyoidea;
1.
2.
3.
4.
74. The specific human features in a structure of the mandibula are:
Processus condilaris;
Protuberantia mentalis;
Angulus mandibule is 130-110°;
Spinae mentales;
1.
2.
3.
4.
75. Which anatomical structures are located on the branch of the mandible?
Os mentale;
Processus coronoideus;
Processus condilaris;
Lingula mandibulae;
1.
2.
3.
4.
76. Which bones develop from visceral arches?
Maxilla;
Mandibula;
Palatine bone;
Concha nasalis inferior;
1.
2.
3.
4.
77. Which bones concern to the bones of a facial skull:
Os lacrimale;
Vomer;
Os occipitale;
Os nasale;
1.
2.
3.
4.
78. Which bones take part in formation of anterior cranial fossa?
Sphenoid bone;
Frontal bone;
Parietal bone;
Ethmoidal bone;
10
1.
2.
3.
4.
79. Which bones take part in the formation of middle cranial fossa?
Frontal bone;
Occipital bone;
Sphenoid bone;
Temporal bone;
1.
2.
3.
4.
80. Which bones take part in the formation of posterior cranial fossa?
Sphenoid bone;
Zygomatic bone;
Temporal bone;
Occipital bone;
1.
2.
3.
4.
81. Which bones limit jugular foramen?
Sphenoid bone;
Occipital bone;
Temporal bone;
Parietal bone;
1.
2.
3.
4.
82. Which openings are present at the floor of middle cranial fossa?
Fissura orbitalis inferior;
Foramen jugulare;
Foramen ovale;
Fissura orbitalis superior;
1.
2.
3.
4.
83. Which foramens open into infratemporal fossa?
Fissura pterygomaxillaris;
Fissura orbitalis superior;
Fissura orbitalis inferior;
Canalis palatinus major;
1.
2.
3.
4.
84. Which bones form pterigopalatine fossa?
Os palatinus;
Os sphenoidale;
Os zygomaticum;
Maxilla;
85. With which cavity does the pterigopalatine fossa communicate by means
of foramen rotundum?
1. Cavitas nasi;
2. Fossa cranii media;
3. Fossa digastrica;
4. Orbita;
1.
2.
3.
4.
86. Where does the aperture of the frontal sinus open?
Meatus nasi medius;
Meatus nasi superior;
Fossa cranii anterior;
Orbita;
11
87. Through which opening does the fossa pterygopalatina communicate with
the orbit?
1. Fissura orbitalis inferior;
2. Fissura orbitalis superior;
3. Fissura pterygomaxillaris;
4. Foramen sphenopalatinum;
88. Through which opening does the fossa pterygopalatina communicate with
the nasal cavity?
1. Foramen ovale;
2. Foramen sphenopalatinum;
3. Canalis pterygoideus;
4. Fissura pterygomaxillaris;
89. Through which foramen does the fossa pterygopalatina communicate with
basis cranii externa?
1. Foramen sphenopalatinum;
2. Foramen ovale;
3. Canalis pterygoideus;
4. Fissura pterygomaxillaris;
1.
2.
3.
4.
90. Which bones form the inferior wall of the orbit?
Maxilla;
Os sphenoidale;
Os palatinum;
Os zygomaticum;
1.
2.
3.
4.
91. Which bones form the medial wall of the orbit?
Os sphenoidale;
Os ethmoidale;
Os lacrimale;
Maxilla;
1.
2.
3.
4.
92. Which bones form the lateral wall of the orbit?
Os frontale;
Maxilla;
Os sphenoidale;
Os zygomaticum;
1.
2.
3.
4.
93. Which structures can be found on walls of the orbit?
Foramen ethmoidale posterius;
Canalis opticus;
Canalis nasolacrimalis;
Canalis pterygoideus;
1.
2.
3.
4.
94. Which bones take part in formation of the nasal septum?
Os nasale;
Vomer;
Os lacrimal;
Os ethmoidale;
12
1.
2.
3.
4.
95. Which structures are opened in the superior nasal meatus?
Apertura sinus frontalis;
Apertura sinus sphenoidalis;
Cellulae posteriores labirinti ossis ethmoidales;
Foramen sphenoalatinum;
1.
2.
3.
4.
96. Which structures are opened in middle nasal meatus?
Hiatus sinus maxillaris;
Cellulae anteriores labirinti osus ethmoidalis;
Canalis nasolacrimalis;
Foramen rotundum;
1.
2.
3.
4.
97. Which bones form the upper wall of the nasal cavity?
Os nasale;
Pars nasalis os frontale;
Lamina cribrosa ossis ethmoidale;
Ala minoris os sphenoidale;
1.
2.
3.
4.
98. Which bones take part in formation of the lateral wall of the nasal cavity?
Os lacrimale;
Os ethmoidale;
Os sphenoidale;
Maxilla;
1.
2.
3.
4.
99. Which parts does the hyoid bone have?
Corpus;
Cornua majora;
Cornua minora;
Caput;
100. What is typical for the newborn skull?
1. Prevalence of a brain skull above facial one in the ratio 8:1;
2. Air cavities are not developing;
3. Expressiveness of the tubers, crests and lines;
4. Presence of fonticuli.
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Key to the test on “Osteology”
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