Download 1. Rules of evidence control the A. amount of evidence that may be

1. Rules of evidence control the
A. amount of evidence that may be admitted during a civil trial.
B. documents that can be considered during jury trial.
C. length of criminal court proceedings, but not civil court proceedings.
D. processes and procedures for question and answer sessions.
2. Which of the following statements is true of the Affordable Care Act?
A. It includes a provision for military service members who served in Afghanistan.
B. It makes it mandatory for patients to carry health insurance.
C. It offers parents supplementary coverage for dependents with chronic illness.
D. It requires health care facilities to maintain health records for at least 10 years.
3. A coder would assign a Q code as a temporary code for
A. procedures or services only.
B. holistic treatments for spinal procedures.
C. procedures, services, and supplies.
D. durable medical equipment only.
4. The Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS) pays
A. subsidies to contain health care costs in rural facilities.
B. 65% of the schedule C rate for all surgeries.
C. an established rate for outpatient services in specific hospitals.
D. a percentage of the national average for the same surgery performed in a
different geographic location.
5. Bones inside the nose are called
A. turbinates.
B. ethmoids.
C. maxillae.
D. septal mucosa.
6. The root word OBSTETR/O means
A. birth.
B. cesarean.
C. midwife.
D. pregnancy.
7. Which of the following procedures would be performed to treat prostate cancer?
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)
C. Meniscectomy
D. Arthroscopy
8. Epithelial tissue that secretes its products directly into the bloodstream is made of
A. endoplasmic reticulum.
B. extracellular matrix.
C. columnar epithelial cells.
D. endocrine gland cells.
9. A physician is called to the intensive care unit for a patient with second-degree burns
sustained on 55% of his body while cooking in the kitchen where he works. The
physician sees the patient in the critical care unit for two hours, leaves the unit, and
returns later the same day to provide an additional hour of critical care. What ICD-10CM and CPT codes would be assigned?
A. T31.50, 99291, 99292 × 4
B. Z30.09, 99293, 99294 × 2
C. R53.81, 99291, 99293 × 5
D. L91.8, 99291 × 2, 99292 × 4
10. Another name for XXY syndrome is
A. Turner's syndrome.
B. Cooley's anemia.
C. Klinefelter syndrome.
D. Huntington's chorea.
11. The study of tissue disease using macroscopic or microscopic analysis is called
A. microbiology.
B. cytopathology.
C. histopathology.
D. immunology.
12. The suffix –centesis means
A. calculus or stone.
B. abnormal condition.
C. separation, breakdown, destruction.
D. a surgical puncture for fluid removal.
13. The retention period is the amount of time that
A. insurance billing documents must be retained in filing cabinets.
B. HIM employee files must be retained upon termination or resignation.
C. records must be kept.
D. medications must be kept in the medical office.
14. Providers that receive reimbursement after health care services have been provided
are being compensated under the _______ system.
A. UCR
B. prospective payment
C. retrospective payment
D. capitation
15. Usually, a comprehensive EHR includes
A. customizable XHRLT processes for ambulatory surgery centers.
B. coaxial cable connections between mainframe servers only.
C. secure standalone cluster controllers for hospitals in rural environments.
D. software, hardware, implementation, and future program upgrades.
16. Which of the following statements is true of the olfactory nerve?
A. It conveys the fluid from lymph glands to other areas of the body.
B. It's found in the nose and allows the senses to detect and distinguish odors.
C. It's susceptible to erosion due to Peyronie's disease.
D. It's located in the mitral valve and helps to circulate blood throughout the heart.
17. A new patient is seen in a clinic for complaints of shortness of breath, fever,
difficulty swallowing, runny nose, and cough. The physician performs a detailed history,
detailed examination, and medical decision making of low complexity. The physician
also obtains a chest x-ray and lab workup. Based on the results of the diagnostic tests, the
physician renders a diagnosis of upper respiratory tract infection and lymphadenopathy.
What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 99202, D63.1, J45.909
B. 99213, R06.82, F10.229
C. 99215, M19.011, R13.10
D. 99203, J06.9, R59.0
18. A patient is diagnosed with severe sepsis and septic shock after experiencing a
severe drop in blood pressure. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned?
A. R65.10
B. R65.21
C. T81.12
D. T79.4
19. Another name for third-party contractors who have access to medical information is
A. business associates.
B. covered entities.
C. healthcare vendors.
D. insurance administrators.
20. A patient is diagnosed with acne. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned?
A. L72.3
B. L70.0
C. L73.1
D. L74.2
21. According to HIPAA, a patient's information may be released for
A. paternity testing.
B. determining premiums based on a patient's past medical history.
C. transferring electronic medical records to remote locations.
D. research.
22. According to the CMS National Physician Fee Schedule, what is the conversion
factor for basic life support mileage?
A. $36.0666
B. $34.5741
C. $28.8457
D. $32.4726
23. What happens when HIPAA rules conflict with state law?
A. The interpretation of HIPAA rules is left to the physician's discretion.
B. The Supreme Court's decision becomes final in binding arbitration.
C. Conflicting state rules are overridden by federal law.
D. State laws overrule federal law.
24. Prescribing combination drugs that contain multiple medications to cut down on the
number of pills
patients take on a daily basis
A. increases the likelihood of compliance.
B. compounds the drugs' effectiveness.
C. supports good body function.
D. decreases the frequency of drug interactions.
25. A 55-year-old patient was injured while working as a carpenter on a construction
site. While framing the roof of a two-story house, he fell and hit his head. He was
diagnosed with a concussion to the left side of his head, and underwent a right frontal
parietal craniotomy with removal of a subdural hematoma. During the patient's period of
recovery, he was given a medication that resulted in a rash on his abdomen. The
physician conducted an expanded problem focused history and exam, with
straightforward medical decision making. What CPT code(s) should be assigned?
A. 99292, 99291
B. 99251
C. 99253
D. 99252
26. Codes beginning with the letter K are related to the _______ system.
A. sensory
B. endocrine
C. circulatory
D. digestive
27. Which modifier indicates a staged or related procedure performed during the
postoperative period?
A. -54
B. -59
C. -57
D. -58
28. What is the CPT code for a three-view x-ray of the mandible?
A. 70200
B. 70240
C. 70150
D. 70100
29. The code for an ESWL would be found in the
A. Urinary and Male Genital Systems of CPT.
B. Chemotherapy section of HCPCS.
C. Digestive System of CPT.
D. Cardiovascular System of CPT.
30. A patient is seen in follow-up two weeks after undergoing cholecystectomy. During
the follow-up examination, the physician notes that the abdominal wound has not yet
healed. The patient undergoes a split-thickness autograft due to a nonhealing left lower
abdominal wound that's 10 square centimeters. Which CPT and ICD-10-CM codes would
be assigned?
A. 15200, L85.64
B. 15350, L52.64
C. 15250, L34.74
D. 15100, L76.82
31. A physician creates an opening in the kidney and inserts a catheter to drain urine.
This procedure is called a
A. nephrostomy.
B. nephrological analysis.
C. nephrectomy.
D. nephrotomy.
32. The hammer-shaped bone in the middle ear is called the
A. cochlea.
B. malleus.
C. stapes.
D. incus.
33. Electronic documents with a standard preset format are called
A. archives.
B. templates.
C. cloned documents.
D. cache documents.
34. A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain. She was
previously diagnosed with type I diabetes. She also complains of watery eyes,
congestion, pressure in the sinuses, and difficulty breathing. Her final diagnoses are right
lower quadrant abdominal pain, type I diabetes, acute sinusitis, and asthma. What CPT
and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned?
A. 99221, R10.31, E10.9, J01.90, J45.909
B. 99221, R17.41, E17.9, J01.90, J45.909
C. 99222, R18.91, E16.9, J01.91, J45.919
D. 99223, R14.31, E15.9, J01.90, J45.929
35. The regulations in HIPAA apply to three groups of individual and corporate entities,
each involved in electronic medical records transfer. These groups are collectively
referred to as
A. protected personnel.
B. health care administrators.
C. covered entities.
D. provisional health care data collectors.
36. A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of postnasal drip, frequent
nosebleeds, headaches, and difficulty breathing. She is diagnosed with a deviated nasal
septum, hypertrophy of the turbinate, and inflammation of the ethmoid sinuses. The
physician performs an endoscopic ethmoidectomy of the left nasal sinus, septoplasty, and
turbinate excision. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 31255-LT, 30520-51, 30130-51, J34.2, J34.3, J32.2
B. 31255, 30520, 30130, J34.2, J34.3, J32.2
C. 31230, 30520, J34.2, J34.3, J32.2
D. 31230-51, 30520-LT, J34.2
37. The codes for pacemakers and implantable defibrillators would be found in what
section of CPT?
A. 33437–33537
B. 33533–33799
C. 33200–33205
D. 33202–33273
38. An echocardiogram shows that the wall of a patient's artery has dilated. The dilation
has resulted in a saclike swelling. This swelling is called a/an
A. benign tumor.
B. cyst.
C. aneurysm.
D. mesenteric venous thrombosis.
39. What is the code for excision of Meckel's diverticulum?
A. 44800
B. 44820
C. 44850
D. 44700
40. A female patient is diagnosed with breast cancer of the lower-inner quadrant of the
right breast. The patient undergoes a modified radical mastectomy of the right breast in
an attempt to circumvent the spread of the cancer to any secondary anatomical sites. The
procedure was performed in three stages. In addition to the radical mastectomy, the
physician also performed a right breast biopsy to treat the breast tumor in the lower-inner
quadrant. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 19307-RT, 19101-RT, C50.211
B. 19307-58-RT, 19101-59-RT, C50.311
C. 11602, 15240, C50.312
D. 15852-58, Z48.01
41. The outcome of delivery code should be
A. assigned to both the maternal and newborn records.
B. assigned to the newborn record only.
C. assigned to the maternal record when a delivery occurs.
D. omitted from the maternal record for stillborn delivery.
42. Codes for plastic repair of the perineum are found in which code range?
A. 57000–57010
B. 56800–56810
C. 57150–57180
D. 57000–57426
43. What is the CPT code description for 64483?
A. Injection, anesthetic agent, sphenopalatine ganglion
B. Injection(s) anesthetic agent and/or steroid, transforaminal epidural, with
imaging guidance (fluoroscopy or CT); lumbar or sacral, single level
C. Transforaminal epidural injection under ultrasound guidance
D. Injection(s) anesthetic agent and/or steroid, transforaminal epidural, with
imaging guidance (fluoroscopy or CT); lumbar or sacral, multiple levels
44. The HIPAA Privacy Rule indicates that
A. practitioners should disclose only the minimum amount of health information
necessary for the purpose of the disclosure.
B. restrictions on information disclosure exist only for patients with life-threatening
illnesses.
C. physicians may release medical information at their own discretion.
D. the level of information disclosure permitted is based on the nature of the
procedure.
45. The prefix sub- means
A. above.
B. lateral.
C. horizontal.
D. under.
46. Another name for Medicare Advantage is
A. Medicare Part A.
B. Medicare Part D.
C. Medicare Part C.
D. Medicare Part B.
47. The method that physicians use to bill for each service or visit individually rather
than on a pre-paid basis is called
A. pre-paid care.
B. managed care.
C. fee-for-service.
D. capitation.
48. Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) allows
A. mediating disputes with a judge in the presence of the bailiff.
B. resolving medical malpractice suits by submitting pretrial depositions.
C. lawyer-to-lawyer mediation during trial recess.
D. litigants to resolve disputes prior to or after the start of litigation.
49. What CPT code would be assigned for a colpocentesis?
A. 57020
B. 57859
C. 57135
D. 57600
50. Coders can use the Microsoft Office suite to create spreadsheets in
A. Lotus 1-2-3.
B. PowerPoint.
C. Word.
D. Excel.
51. A patient who has paralysis of all four limbs is called
A. quadriplegic.
B. paraplegic.
C. tetraplegic.
D. hemiplegic.
52. The portion of health insurance that an insured pays before he or she is entitled to
receive benefits from an insurance plan is called the
A. deductible.
B. capitation.
C. OPPS reimbursement.
D. coinsurance.
53. A health care practitioner who knowingly submits false statements to obtain federal
health care reimbursement is guilty of
A. Medicaid omission.
B. Health Insurance Privacy and Portability misuse.
C. DHS claim misrepresentation.
D. Medicare fraud.
54. Data stored in a health care facility must
A. comply with HIPAA rules and must be maintained securely.
B. conform to the physician's expectations for data storage.
C. adhere to OIG policies and procedures.
D. be organized in accordance with state standards for electronic data interchange.
55. A 65-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for 48 hours to receive treatment
from her physician. This patient would be covered under
A. Medicare Part A.
B. Medicare Part B.
C. Medicare Part C.
D. Medicare Part D.
56. A female patient is seen for her annual gynecological examination. During the
examination, the physician performs a test to detect cervical cancer. This test is called
a/an
A. mycobacterial culture.
B. carcinoembryonic antigen test.
C. immunoassay test.
D. Pap smear.
57. The largest salivary glands are called the _______ glands.
A. submandibular
B. amylase
C. parotid
D. sublingual
58. The suffix –stasis means
A. kinetic.
B. breakdown.
C. stopping and controlling.
D. flow.
59. Which of the following anatomical locations would contain the diaphysis?
A. Metatarsal
B. Septum
C. Diaphragm
D. Tibia
60. A patient comes to the ambulatory surgery center for a fusion of the cervical spine.
Prior to the beginning of the surgery, the patient suffers an allergic reaction to the
anesthesia shortly after it's administered. Because of this reaction, the surgery is not
performed. What code would be assigned as the first-listed diagnosis?
A. The anesthesia administration
B. The observation code
C. The allergy code
D. The reason that the surgery was scheduled to be performed
61. A patient receives two venous pressure clamps for hemodialysis. What HCPCS
Level II code is assigned?
A. A4751 × 2
B. A4751
C. A4918 × 2
D. A4918
62. To calculate fees under the RBRVS system, Medicare devised a formula that takes
into account
A. services, geographic location, and a national conversion factor (CF).
B. physician locale, length of time spent in surgery, and available health care
personnel.
C. national conversion rate, physician insurance premium, and similar surgeries
performed in the same hospital.
D. geography, surgical points allocated, and hospital case mix.
63. If patients choose to obtain copies of their medical records, under the terms of
HIPAA, providers can
A. complete employee paperwork.
B. reschedule office visits to allow time to update medical records.
C. charge a reasonable fee for providing copies of those records.
D. also fulfill requests for prescription data.
64. What is the code description for 65101-LT?
A. Enucleation of eye, without implant, performed on the left side of the body
B. Biopsy of cornea performed on the lower third of the cornea
C. Removal of ocular implant performed laterally
D. Fine needle aspiration of orbital contents on the left third of the orbit
65. Businesses that provide support services, like administration, to individual
physicians are called
A. physician-hospital organizations.
B. management services organizations.
C. integrated provider organizations.
D. medical foundations.
66. Categorically needy and medically needy patients may qualify for
A. Medicare Advantage.
B. Champus.
C. Medicaid.
D. CHAMPVA.
67. A patient has a Foley catheter inserted prior to a planned surgical procedure. How is
this coded?
A. 52601
B. 52630
C. 51702
D. 55520
68. A physician who cares for a patient throughout an entire pregnancy, from beginning
to end, is providing
A. puerperal obstetric care.
B. routine global obstetric care.
C. antenatal global supervision.
D. comprehensive prenatal management.
69. A patient is seen in the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain in the left
lower quadrant. It's determined that the patient is experiencing inflammation of the
pancreas, which is also called
A. pancreatolysis.
B. pancreaticoduodonal arcade.
C. pancreatonia.
D. pancreatitis.
70. A qualifying circumstance indicates a
A. condition that reduces the average recovery time for a particular type of surgery.
B. situation that may extend a patient's length of stay in the hospital setting.
C. condition that impacts the outcome of surgery.
D. situation that makes anesthesia administration more difficult.
71. Superficial injuries such as abrasions or contusions are
A. coded when associated with more severe injuries of the same site.
B. not coded when associated with more severe injuries of the same site.
C. coded only when debridement is performed.
D. queried to determine if the injuries are confined to the same site.
72. During a routine examination, a male patient is diagnosed with an elevated PSA.
The physician performs a biopsy of the prostate with a rectal ultrasound to pinpoint the
source of the problem. Which CPT and ICD-10-CM codes would be assigned?
A. 55700, 76872-26, R97.2
B. 55725, 76000-26, R93.6
C. 55734, 73200-26, R97.2
D. 55720, 74000-26, R97.3
73. Which one of the following statements accurately represents the practice known as
unbundling?
A. Codes listed as separate procedures are assigned individually.
B. Codes that should be grouped into one code are broken into separate codes to
maximize physician reimbursement.
C. ICD-10-PCS codes are broken into separate codes for congruent assignment.
D. Combination codes are assigned separately in ICD-10-CM.
74. The covering on the brain and spinal cord in the dorsal cavity is called the
A. meninges.
B. ganglia.
C. sheath.
D. peritoneum.
75. Under HIPAA, health care facilities must
A. keep records of patients who refill prescriptions more than once within a threemonth timeframe.
B. maintain a clean, safe working environment.
C. follow up with patients who repeatedly miss scheduled appointments for
mandatory services.
D. choose a privacy officer in accordance with HIPAA policies and procedures.
76. The study of disease is called
A. physiology.
B. neurology.
C. urology.
D. pathology.
77. A patient who was involved in a motor vehicle accident is taken to the hospital by
ambulance and admitted to the hospital in critical care. The physician sees the patient for
74 minutes in critical care. The physician leaves to attend to other patients in the ICU and
the NICU of the same hospital. Five hours later, the physician returns to the patient and
continues to treat the patient in critical care for an additional 30 minutes. The patient
spends a total of 104 minutes in critical care. What codes are assigned?
A. 99292, 99292, 99293
B. 99291, 99292
C. 99292, 99293
D. 99291, 99291
78. The process of removing tissue for histopathology is called
A. debridement.
B. excision.
C. shaving.
D. biopsy.
79. The Female Genital System subsection covers which CPT code range?
A. 56300–56499
B. 56607–56809
C. 56203–56303
D. 56405–58999
80. The _______ nerve sends visual data to the occipital lobe of the brain.
A. optic
B. trochlear
C. oculomotor
D. abducens
81. When coding burns, coders should
A. assign the code for chronic burns.
B. assign separate codes for each burn site.
C. assign the code for third-degree burns.
D. classify all burns as acute burns.
82. The voluntary program that's financed through a combination of payments from
general federal revenues and premiums paid by beneficiaries who elect to participate is
called
A. TRICARE.
B. Medicare Part B.
C. Medicaid.
D. CHAMPVA.
83. The abbreviation INH indicates what route of drug administration?
A. Inhaled and intravenous administration
B. Inhaled and intrathecal administration
C. Inhalant solution
D. Intrathecal injection
84. A patient comes to the emergency room after having dinner at a restaurant, where
she began to experience chest tightness during the meal. She is seen for a cardiology
consultation in the outpatient setting for a diagnosis of chest tightness. Which CPT and
ICD-10-CM codes would be assigned?
A. 99244, R07.59
B. 99243, R25.96
C. 99242, R17.52
D. 99245, R07.89
85. What diagnosis code would be assigned for a patient diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes
mellitus with diabetic nephropathy?
A. E11.21
B. E11.01
C. E11.9
D. E11.22
86. The foramen ovale is found in which anatomical location?
A. Liver
B. Heart
C. Pancreas
D. Fibula
87. Anti-inflammatory drugs applied to the skin to relieve skin disorders are called
A. topical corticosteroids.
B. astringents.
C. keratolytics.
D. antiseptics.
88. The concept of meaningful use pertains to
A. electronic health record implementation.
B. medical office protocol and document organization.
C. categorization of patient information.
D. resource management in the inpatient setting.
89. Adding codes not substantiated by the medical record and assigning separate codes
to services that should be bundled into one code are considered to be
A. permissible under special coding circumstances.
B. authorized to maximize physician reimbursement.
C. modifiable according to current CCI coding edits.
D. fraud and abuse of the health care reimbursement system.
90. The ampulla, isthmus, interstitium, and fimbria are examples of
A. bones in the ankle.
B. membranes in the abdomen.
C. implantation sites of ectopic pregnancy.
D. incision sites for pacemaker insertion.
91. The concept of confidentiality can be substantiated based on the right of
A. totality.
B. easement.
C. constitutionality.
D. privacy.
92. In relation to HIPAA regulations regarding the manner in which information can be
disclosed, which of the following statements is true?
A. Protected health information must be disclosed only when the patient is unable
to testify in a court proceeding.
B. Protected health information may be disclosed in a judicial or administrative
proceeding if the request is made through an order from a court or administrative
tribunal.
C. Protected health information may never be disclosed.
D. Protected health information may be disclosed only within a deposition.
93. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned for a patient with acute tubule-interstitial
nephritis?
A. Z02.6
B. L50.0
C. B96.2
D. N10
94. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned for unilateral primary osteoarthritis of
the right hip?
A. M16.30
B. M16.11
C. M16.10
D. M16.12
95. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) standards were
developed to
A. protect patient confidentiality when health information is transferred
electronically.
B. ensure that coders could easily access each medical record.
C. determine the structure of insurance carrier payments for health care
practitioners.
D. define XLTM standards for health records management.
96. Which modifier indicates the decision for surgery?
A. -57
B. -32
C. -74
D. -82
97. A patient receives an injection of nandrolone decanoate. What HCPCS Level II code
would be assigned?
A. J2320
B. J3530
C. J2323
D. J2300
98. If a physician provides preoperative management only to a patient prior to surgery,
which modifier would be added to the surgery code?
A. -44
B. -91
C. -56
D. -32
99. What CPT code range is used to code for a limited lymphadenectomy?
A. 38700–38780
B. 39501–39599
C. 38562–38564
D. 37501–37650
100. A coder assigns a HCPCS Level II code to a patient's medical record. The code
description reads as follows: Enteral feeding supply kit; syringe fed, per day, includes but
not limited to feeding/flushing syringe, administration set tubing, dressings, tape. Based
on this description, which HCPCS Level II code was assigned?
A. B4278
B. B4125
C. B4034
D. B4072
101. Health care practitioners must maintain records of privacy policy practices and
procedures for
A. 10 months.
B. 2 years.
C. 6 years.
D. 20 years.
102. A patient is prescribed a medication that narrows the blood vessels and raises her
blood pressure. The medication is most likely a
A. vasoconstrictor.
B. tranquilizer.
C. cardiotonic.
D. cardiogenic.
103. What is the ICD-10-CM code for unspecified acute pericarditis?
A. I30.89
B. I30.79
C. I30.9
D. I30
104. The atrioventricular (tricuspid) valve is located in the
A. brain.
B. lung.
C. fibula.
D. heart.
105. To conform to the HIPAA Privacy Rule, which of the following safeguards must
be maintained in health care facilities?
A. Reasonable administrative, technical, and physical safeguards
B. Hazardous waste protection safeguards
C. ICD-7 provisional safeguards
D. Immunization and injection safeguards
106. Modifier -23 indicates that
A. the patient received general anesthesia for a procedure that would ordinarily be
performed with local or no anesthesia.
B. two surgeons performed a procedure.
C. a procedure was performed bilaterally.
D. a physician reviewed and interpreted a radiology procedure.
107. A coder searching for codes pertaining to tissue expanders would find them in what
section of CPT?
A. 12000–12300
B. 15000–15999
C. 11960–11971
D. 16200–16799
108. A 35-year-old male is brought to the emergency department with memory
disturbance after being accidentally exposed to lead paint. What ICD-10-CM codes
should be assigned?
A. T57.0X1A, R10.9
B. T23.009A, R23.8
C. T56.0X1A, R41.3
D. T42.4X1A, R40.0
109. A nurse sustains an accidental needle pinprick to the right third finger while
administering an injection. If an employee has an occupational exposure, what must
happen?
A. The guidelines for OSHA should be included in the employment file.
B. Hospital administrators must maintain the nurse's medical record for the
remainder of her employment plus an additional 30 years.
C. An in-service meeting should be held for all employees who may potentially be
exposed to the same occupational hazard.
D. The employee should contact the proper authorities.
110. A patient has a disorder in which the bone marrow produces an overabundance of
white blood cells. What is this disorder called?
A. Leukemia
B. Coagulation
C. Hemophilia
D. Septicemia
111. A group of doctors who belong to the same network and provide discounted
services to enrollees is called a/an
A. Health Maintenance Organization (HMO).
B. Preferred Provider Organization (PPO).
C. Managed Care Organization (MCO).
D. Individual Practice Association (IPA).
112. A tethered health record allows patients to
A. use a secure portal to access their own records.
B. compare their health records to the records of patients with similar diagnoses.
C. restructure insurance copayments.
D. amend the diagnoses listed in the health record.
113. Code J9165 is assigned for intravenous diethylstilbestrol diphosphate. According to
the code description, what dosage was administered?
A. Up to 0.5 mg
B. 50 mg
C. 20 mg
D. 250 mg
114. Provision of security against a hurt, loss, or damage with specific cash payments is
called
A. protection.
B. secured loss.
C. copayment.
D. indemnity.
115. A 7-year-old patient is seen in follow-up after an earlier diagnosis of excessive
daytime sleepiness. The physician obtains a sleep study and then reviews and interprets
the results. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned?
A. 95811-TC, J14.0
B. 95812-26, H40.0
C. 95815-TC, G45.0
D. 95810-26, R40.0
116. A patient is seen for 167 minutes of critical care. What CPT codes would be
assigned?
A. 99291, 99292 × 5
B. 99291, 99292 × 3
C. 99291, 99292 × 2
D. 99291, 99292 × 4
117. A coder would assign modifier -53 to report
A. repeat procedures.
B. dental procedures.
C. procedures cancelled due to the patient's condition.
D. anesthesia administration.
118. The anatomical location of the calyx is the
A. arm.
B. brain.
C. kidney.
D. spine.
119. A patient is seen in the physician's office after the results of an earlier mammogram
demonstrated microcalcification in the right breast as well as a breast lesion. The lesion is
excised using needle localization. The patient's final diagnosis is fibrosclerosis of the
right breast. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned?
A. 19126-LT, M25.1
B. 19123-RT, H16.11
C. 19125-RT, N60.31
D. 19120-RT, L10.11
120. In 2012, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) reported that
A. 28 percent of hospital-based physicians were using handwritten documentation
to record each patient's treatment.
B. 72 percent of office-based physicians were using electronic health records.
C. 34 percent of diseases were preventable.
D. 56 percent of patients were accessing their electronic health records online.
121. Another term for disease evolution is
A. remission.
B. morphology.
C. exacerbation.
D. pathogenesis.
122. A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of right knee pain. He states
that he was playing baseball the previous evening and accidentally fell when sliding into
first base. The physician obtains an expanded problem focused history and examination,
as well as a two-view x-ray of the right knee. The physician reviews the x-ray, as well as
the notes in the medical record, and renders a diagnosis of osteoarthritis of the knee. The
physician performs a patellofemoral arthroplasty to repair the knee. What ICD-10-CM
and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 27447-RT, M17.11
B. 27477, M17.12
C. 27477-RT, D17.39
D. 27506-RT, N17.11
123. In what CPT code range is Surgical Pathology found?
A. 88515–88598
B. 88300–88309
C. 88400–80499
D. 88000–80299
124. Another name for diazepam is
A. Norflex.
B. Myolastan.
C. Valium.
D. Flexeril.
125. A patient is diagnosed with lymphocytic lymphoma. Another patient is seen several
weeks later and is diagnosed with histiocytic lymphoma. Both of these diagnoses are
examples of _______ lymphoma.
A. Burkitt's
B. basic
C. Hodgkin's
D. non-Hodgkin's
126. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of ongoing headaches. The headaches
began one week prior and have persisted ever since. A lumbar spinal tap is performed to
pinpoint the source of the patient's headaches. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are
assigned?
A. 62141, G46.8
B. 62272, G46.9
C. 62270, G74.3
D. 62270, G44.1
127. Which of the following is true about HIPAA national standards?
A. The national standards do not apply to data exchanged within a claim
clearinghouse.
B. The national standards do not apply to surgical procedures in the inpatient
setting.
C. The national standards apply to any electronic data interchange.
D. The national standards apply only to data exchange within a specified
geographical region.
128. A patient sustains a fracture of the femur while playing football in a nearby park.
What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned?
A. S72.001A
B. S72.009A
C. S72.003A
D. S49.006A
129. Placing a catheter into the aorta or directly into an artery or vein is called
A. third order placement.
B. nonselective catheter placement.
C. brachiocephalic manipulation.
D. selective catheter placement.
130. A patient undergoes a sigmoidoscopy. The coder would assign CPT code
A. 45852.
B. 45397.
C. 45919.
D. 45330.
131. A patient is diagnosed with breast cancer and undergoes a partial mastectomy.
What CPT code would be assigned?
A. 19304
B. 19307
C. 19301
D. 19305
132. Code 71030-TC indicates a/an
A. complete chest x-ray, two views, technical component only.
B. complete chest x-ray, four views, technical component only.
C. incomplete chest x-ray, two views, technical and professional component.
D. incomplete chest x-ray, three views, technical and professional component.
133. A change in the tissues and cells within a specific area on or in the body is called a
A. neoplasm.
B. cyst.
C. lesion.
D. tumor.
134. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of nausea, vomiting, fever, dizziness,
and intermittent confusion. The physician conducts a detailed history and examination
and reviews the patient's lab results. The patient is diagnosed with pyelonephritis and is
scheduled for an ultrasound to review the state of the kidneys and other organs. What
CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned?
A. 73256-TC, M11
B. 71010-26, B12
C. 76775-26, N10
D. 76775-TC, N15
135. The main term represents the most basic aspect of a disease or condition. For
example, the main term of a diagnosis involving a broken arm is
A. break.
B. arm.
C. fracture.
D. broken.
136. A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain, nausea,
and intractable vomiting. Unable to pinpoint the source of the patient's complaints, the
physician decides to admit the patient to the hospital. After conducting a complete history
and examination, the patient's final diagnosis is determined to be chronic duodenal ulcer.
The patient remains hospitalized for three days. The physician sees the patient on the day
of discharge. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 99291, D63.1
B. 99234, N17.9
C. 99238, K26.7
D. 99223, I48.91
137. Releasing genetic information is forbidden under the terms of HIPAA because it
may
A. indicate susceptibility to a future illness, without the patient actually being
diagnosed with the condition.
B. allow immediate family members to have access to a patient's medical records.
C. require physicians to fulfill contractual obligations for treatments provided in
ambulatory surgery centers.
D. not be successfully transmitted to all health care facilities.
138. Which one of the following requirements is outlined in the guidelines established
in HIPAA's Privacy Rule?
A. Physicians must not disclose patient information to consulting physicians.
B. Hospital administrators must encrypt data within older data files.
C. Managers must secure medical records immediately following patient
admission.
D. Patients must receive notice if their information will be used or disclosed to
third parties.
139. Information about a patient can becan be released for research under the terms of
HIPAA, only if
A. the patient signs an authorization immediately upon admission.
B. the patient has authorized the release and only a limited amount of information
is released.
C. the research is critical for technological development.
D. researchers obtain authorization from the admitting physician.
140. Which of the following anesthesia modifiers indicates a normal, healthy patient?
A. P4
B. P2
C. P3
D. P1
141. A physician reimbursement structure based on pre-established payments for a
specific period of time is called
A. bundled payment.
B. case mix methodology.
C. RBRVS.
D. capitation.
142. A patient receives a blood glucose monitor. What HCPCS Level II code would be
assigned?
A. E4752
B. E0562
C. E0976
D. E0607
143. The administrative and clinical functions that health care practitioners routinely use
to capture, manage, and collect medical revenue is referred to as the
A. health information revenue hierarchy.
B. medical revenue retrieval process.
C. revenue management process.
D. revenue cycle.
144. What is the full code description for 25515?
A. Open treatment of radial shaft fracture, includes internal fixation, when
performed, and open treatment of distal radioulnar joint dislocation (Galeazzi
fracture/dislocation), includes internal fixation, when performed, includes repair of
triangular fibrocartilage complex
B. Closed treatment of radial shaft fracture; without manipulation
C. Closed treatment of ulnar shaft fracture; without manipulation
D. Open treatment of radial shaft fracture, includes internal fixation, when
performed
145. When is code 58120 assigned?
A. The code is assigned for a patient undergoing dilatation and curettage.
B. The code is assigned for permanent pacemaker insertion.
C. The code is assigned as an add-on code.
D. The code has been deleted and cannot be assigned.
146. A patient comes to the physician's office complaining of neck irritation. The
physician examines her neck and notes that she has a 15 cm neck scar. Upon further
examination, the physician notes that the neck scar requires extensive debridement and
retention sutures. The physician performs a dermabrasion to treat the neck scar and then
closes the complex wound with the sutures. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 13132, 13133 × 3, H81.09, L92.9
B. 13132, L76.82
C. 13132, 13133 × 2, L90.5
D. 13133-51, 13131-79, L60.0
147. The root word ENTER/O means
A. tooth.
B. secretion.
C. intestine.
D. stomach.
148. What is Medicare Part D?
A. The component of Medicare Part A that covers outpatient surgeries
B. Supplemental coverage for war veterans and their dependents
C. Add-on coverage for prescription drugs provided through insurance companies
approved by Medicare
D. Add-on coverage for dental procedures
149. Physicians typically refer to anatomical locations using directional terms, which
are often
A. used primarily by chiropractors.
B. used to describe surgical incisions.
C. referenced horizontally.
D. paired in opposites.
150. A physician obtains cells from the bone marrow cavity using a needle and a
syringe. How would this procedure be coded?
A. 37328
B. 36575
C. 35092
D. 38220