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Spinal Anatomy
1. The zygapophyseal facets at C4 and C5 form what degree angle with the
horizontal plane?
a. 15
b. 45
c. 60
d. 75
2. The parotid gland’s parasympathetic nerves travel through which of the
following ganglia?
a. Ciliary ganglion
b. Otic ganglion
c. Submandibular ganglion
d. Pterygopalatine ganglion
3. The trochlear nerve can be viewed on the brainstem exiting just inferior to
which of the following?
a. Inferior colliculus
b. Superior colliculus
c. Posterior commissure
d. Gracile tubercle
4. The sacral plexus lies on the anterior surface of which muscle?
a. Psoas major
b. Iliacus
c. Obturator internus
d. Piriformis
5. The lambdoidal suture separates the parietal bone from the ____ bone
a. Temporal
b. Frontal
c. Occipital
d. Sphenoid
6. The gray rami communicantes of a spinal nerve is composed of ____
neurons
a. Postganglionic sympathetic
b. Postganglionic parasympathetic
c. Preganglionic parasympathetic
d. Preganglionic sympathetic
7. The thoracodorsal nerve supplies which muscle?
a. Deltoideus
b. Trapezius
c. Serratus anterior
d. Latissimus dorsi
8. Which of the following is not a neuroglial cell of the peripheral nervous
system?
a. Astrocytes
b. Neurolemmocytes
c. Schwann cells
d. Satellite cells
9. myelin is present in which neural structure?
a. Substantia nigra
b. Lower motor neuron
c. Dorsal root ganglia
d. Sympathetic ganglia
10. Which nerve is found in the superior orbital fissure?
a. Maxillary
b. Mandibular
c. Ophthalmic
d. Facial
11. The ligament of the knee that attachés to the lateral side of the medial
condyle of the femur is
a. Medial collateral ligament
b. Lateral collateral ligament
c. Anterior cruciate ligament
d. Posterior cruciate ligament
12. The second branch of cranial nerve II exits the skull via the
a. Foramen rotundum
b. Foramen ovale
c. Jugular foramen
d. Cribriform plate
13. The supraspinous ligament is known as what ligament in the cervical
spine?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Alar ligament
Ligament nuchae
Ligament flava
Apical ligament
14. Which structure attaches the vertebral arch to the vertebral body?
a. Spinous process
b. Pedicle
c. Lamina
d. Transverse process
15. The ligament that lines the anterior portion of the spinal canal is
a. Posterior longitudinal
b. Anterior longitudinal
c. Ligamentum flavum
d. Intertransversarii
16. Which nerve supplies the cremasteric muscle and transmits cutaneous
sensations from the upper anterior thigh?
a. Ilioinguinal
b. Obturator
c. Femoral
d. Genitofemoral
17. How many pairs of sacral nerves are present in most humans?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
18. The head of the third rib articulates with the superior costal demifacets of
a. T2
b. T3
c. T4
d. T5
19. Neurons of the dorsal root ganglia are derived from the
a. Neural crest
b. Neural tube
c. Endoderm
d. Mesoderm
20. The posterior longitudinal ligament is continuous with which of the
following?
a. Posterior atlanto occipital membrane
b. Anterior atlanto occipital membrane
c. Basilar membrane
d. Tectorial membrane
21. Cranial nerve VII and VIII exit the skull via the
a. Foramen ovale
b. Foramen rotundum
c. Internal acoustic meatus
d. Hypoglossal foramen
22. Which ligament is a component of the posterior boundary of the neural
canal?
a. Supraspinous
b. Flava
c. Posterior longitudinal
d. Anterior longitudinal
23. Dorsal root ganglion neurons are classified as
a. Bipolar
b. Multipolar
c. Unipolar
d. Apolar
24. Which nerve is responsible for elbow extension?
a. Radial
b. Musculocutaneous
c. Median
d. Axillary
25. The sacrotuberous ligament restricts which pelvic movement?
a. Abduction
b. Adduction
c. Extension
d. Flexion
26. Which peripheral nerve receives fibers from the second lumbar spinal
nerve?
a. Sciatic
b. Pudendal
c. Subcostal
d. Femoral
27. Absence of myelin at regular intervals along a nerve fiber is which of the
following?
a. Neurilemma
b. Perikangon
c. Node of ranvier
d. Axon hillock
28. The sphenomandibular ligament attaches the spine of the sphenoid to the
___ of the mandible
a. Lingual
b. Neck
c. Head
d. Angle
29. Which of the following is known as the check ligament?
a. Alar ligament
b. Apical ligament
c. Transverse ligament
d. Ligamentum flavum
30. The filum terminale is which of the following?
a. Collection of spinal roots occupying the vertebral canal below the
cord
b. Cone shaped lower end of the spinal cord at the level of upper
lumbar vertebrae
c. A prolongation of spinal cord from conus medullaris to the back of
the coccyx
d. The end of each dentate ligament
31. The ligament that holds the dens to the posterior portion of the atlas is the
a. Apical ligament
b. Alar ligament
c. Transverse ligament
d. Ligament nuchae
32. The denticulate ligaments are formed by the
a. Pia mater and dura mater
b. Arachnoid mater
c. Pia mater only
d. Dura mater only
33. Where are the joints of Lushka located on the C2 to C7?
a. A body
b. Pedicle lamina junction
c. Inferior articular processes
d. Superior articular processes
34. Which of the following nuclei is not associated with cranial nerve VII?
a. Inferior salvatory nuclei
b. Superior salivatory nuclei
c. Pterygopalatine nuclei
d. Submandibular nuclei
35. Which ligament is a continuation of the posterior longitudinal ligament and
connects the occiput to the axis?
a. Membrana tectoria
b. Alar ligament
c. Nuchal ligament
d. Apical ligament
36. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are neurotransmitters of which nerve type
and division?
a. Postganglionic sympathetic
b. Postganglionic parasympathetic
c. Preganglionic sympathetic
d. Preganglionic parasympathetic
37. The dorsal scapular nerve supplies all of the following except?
a. Subscapularis muscle
b. Levator scapulae muscle
c. Rhomboid major muscle
d. Rhomboid minor muscle
38. Which of the following nerves does not provide innervation to an eye
muscle?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Trochlear nerve
Occulomotor nerve
Optic nerve
Abducens nerve
39. Which nerve transmits cutaneous sensation from the dorsum of the foot?
a. Femoral
b. Saphenous
c. Tibial
d. Superficial peroneal
40. The ligament that connects lamina to lamina within the vertebral column is
the
a. Transverse ligament
b. Posterior longitudinal ligament
c. Ligament nuchae
d. Ligament flava
41. The articulation of the first costal cartilage with the sternum is classified as
which joint
a. Symphysis
b. Syndesmosis
c. Synchondrosis
d. Synovial
42. The lambdoidal suture is made of which two skull bones?
a. Occipital and parietal bones
b. Parietal and temporal bones
c. Frontal and parietal bones
d. Both parietal bones
43. Dermatomal sensation of the inguinal ligament area is which of the
following nerve levels?
a. T8
b. T10
c. L1
d. L3
44. The carotid tubercle is found on which cervical vertebra
a. 1
b. 4
c. 6
d. 7
45. The outermost meningeal layer surrounding the spinal cord is the
a. Ependymal layer
b. Dura mater
c. Pia matera
d. Arachnoid mater
46. The cerebellar nuclei from medial to lateral would be
a. Fastigial, emboliform, dentate, globus
b. Globus, fastigial, dentate, emboliform
c. Fastigial nuclei, globus, emboliform, dentate
d. Dentate, emboliform, globus, fastigial
47. Which cranial nerve nucleus is located in the mesencephalon
a. Spinal trigeminal
b. Oculomtor nucleus
c. Nucleus ambiguous
d. Hypoglossal
48. Which of the following is true of the dorsal columns?
a. Involves pain and temperature
b. Lower limbs are situated more lateral to upper ones
c. Lower limbs are situated medial to upper ones
d. Are mainly motor in function
49. ____ is located in the epidural space of the neural canal
a. cerebrospinal fluid
b. denticulate ligament
c. internal vertebral venous plexus
d. anterior spinal artery
50. The most superficial layer of the cerebral cortex is which of the following?
a. Multiform
b. Exterior granular
c. Molecular
d. Exterior pyramidal
51. Which of the following is formed by the union of the inferior sagittal sinus
and the great cerebral vein?
a. Straight sinus
b. Superior sagittal sinus
c. Sigmoid sinus
d. Occiputal sinus
52. The jugular notch is located on which structures?
a. Clavicle
b. First rib
c. Corpus sterni
d. Manubrium sterni
53. Area 22 of the brain is also known as ____ and is situated in ____
a. Broca’s, parietal lobe
b. Wernicke’s, temporal lobe
c. Wernicke’s, parietal lobe
d. Broca’s temporal lobe
54. The foramen found between the lateral and third ventricles is known as
which of the following?
a. Foramen of winslow
b. Foramen of magendie
c. Foramen of lushka
d. Foramen of Monroe
55. Which of the following arteries connects the internal carotid artery with the
posterior cerebral artery in the circle of willis?
a. Anterior communicating arteries
b. Posterior communicating arteries
c. Superior cerebellar arteries
d. Anterior cerebral arteries
56. The pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions are associated with
which parasympathetic cranial nerve?
a. III
b. VII
c. IX
d. X
57. Bifid spinous processes are typically found on which vertebrae?
a. Cervical
b. Thoracic
c. Lumbar
d. Sacral
58. Which of the following does not travel through the cavernous sinus?
a. CN III
b. CN IV
c. CN VI
d. CN VII
59. The fusion of ___ forms the intermediate sacral crest
a. Costal elements
b. Articular processes
c. Transverse processes
d. Spinous process
60. The foramen ovale is most accurately located in which of the following?
a. Junction of anterior and medial points of sphenoid
b. Greater wing of sphenoid bone
c. Posterior angle of the sphenoid
d. Between the greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid bone
61. The meninges are supplied directly by which of the following?
a. Posterior spinal arteries
b. Anterior spinal arteries
c. Radicular arteries
d. Sculcal arteries
62. The intermediate mass joins the right and left portions of which of the
following?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Thalamus
c. Pons
d. Corpus callosum
63. Which anatomical landmark separates the pre-central and post-central
gyrus?
a. Optic chiasm
b. Central sulcus
c. Lateral sulcus
d. Lateral recess of the 4th ventricle
64. The structure separating cerebrum from the cerebellum is which of the
following?
a. Choroids plexus
b. Falx cerebelli
c. Tentorium cerebelli
d. Falx cerebri
65. The superior orbital fissure is an anatomical configuration of which of the
following bones?
a. Frontal bone
b. Ethmoid bone
c. Lacrimal bone
d. Sphenoid bone
66. The production of cerebrospinal fluid is a function of which type of cell?
a. Astroglial
b. Ependymal
c. Microglial
d. Oligodendroglia
67. A structure that is comprised within the epithalamus is which of the
following?
a. Suprachiasmatic nucleus
b. Mammillary body
c. Pituitary gland
d. Pineal gland
68. White matter forms from which of the following?
a. Marginal layer
b. Mantle layer
c. Ependymal layer
d. Neural crest
69. The most posterior region of the thalamus is
a. Preoptic region
b. Supraoptic region
c. Mammillary region
d. Tuberal region
70. The cribriform plate is unique to which skull bone?
a. Lacrimal bone
b. Ethmoid bone
c. Palatine bone
d. Sphenoid bone
71. Which is the vertebral prominens
a. C2
b. C5
c. C7
d. T1
72. The primary motor center of the cerebral cortex is
a. Broca’s area
b. Posterior central lobe
c. Precentral gyrus
d. Postcentral gyrus
73. Which of the following muscles does not attach to the spinous process of
C2?
a. Rectus capitis posterior major
b. Rectus capitis posterior minor
c. Obliquus capitis inferior
d. Semispinalis cervicus
74. The Edinger-Westphal nucleus is the parasympathetic nucleus to which
cranial nerve?
a. X
b. IX
c. VII
d. III
75. How many pairs of vertebrosternal ribs are there?
a. 5
b. 7
c. 9
d. 12
76. The blood brain barrier is formed by all of the following except?
a. Arachnoid layer
b. Subarachnoid cisterns
c. Choroid plexus epithelium
d. Intracerebral capillary endothelium
77. The principle motor area of the brain can also be referred to as which of
the following?
a. Area 3, 1, 2
b. Area 4
c. Area 6
d. Area 8
78. Which of the following bones contains the fovea dentalis?
a. Third cervical vertebra
b. Axis
c. Occipus
d. Atlas
79. Which of the following is unique to the 6th cervical vertebra?
a. Foramen transversarii
b. Bifid spinous processes
c. Carotid tubercle
d. Uncinate processes
80. The anterior spinal artery branches from which of the following?
a. Vertebral
b. Basilar
c. Interior carotid
d. Posterior cerebral
81. Neuroglial cells are cells that provide which of the following?
a. Color vision
b. Night vision
c. Nutrition
d. Support
82. The Edinger-wesphal nucleus is associated with which of the following
cranial nerve?
a. Olfactory
b. Occulomotor
c. Optic
d. Trochlear
83. Which of the following is most posterior and medial?
a. Fasciculus cuneatus
b. Fasciculus gracilis
c. Spinal thalamic tract
d. Corticospinal tract
84. Production of cerebrospinal fluid is a function of which structure?
a. Arachnoid granulations
b. Choroid plexus
c. Subarachnoid space
d. Ependymal cells
85. In the brainstem, which of the following separates the fasciculus gracilus
and the fasciculus cuneatus?
a. Dorsal intermediate sulcus
b. Dorsal median sulcus
c. Dorsal lateral sulcus
d. Frenulum of the superior medullary velum
86. Which nerve supplies the gluteus maximus muscle?
a. Superior gluteal
b. Inferior gluteal
c. Femoral
d. Sciatic
87. The structure that separates the scala vestibuli from the scala media is the
a. Semicircular canal
b. Tectorial membrane
c. Basilar membrane
d. Reissner’s membrane
88. The malleus is attached to the
a. Oval window
b. Tympanic membrane
c. Basilar membrane
d. Round window
89. The only muscle of mastication that is not innervated by the trigeminal
nerve would be the
a. Masseter
b. Buccinator
c. Internal pterygoid
d. Temporalis
90. A lesion of the left lateral geniculate body results in
a. Bitemporal heteronymous hemianopsia
b. Bilateral homonymous hemianopsia
c. Right homonymous hemianopsia
d. Left homonymous hemianopsia
91. The olfactory and optic nerves are most associated with which vesicles of
the brain?
a. Rhombencephalon
b. Mesencephalon
c. Myelencephalon
d. Prosencephalon
92. Taste to the anterior two third of the tongue is supplied by which cranial
nerve?
a. X vagus
b. IX glossopharyngeal
c. V trigeminal
d. VII facial
93. Which of the following muscles attaches to the vertebral border of the
scapula below its spine?
a. Rhomboid major
b. Rhomboid minor
c. Pectoralis minor
d. Serratus anterior
94. The latissimus dorsi muscle receives innervation from which of the
following?
a. Axillary nerve
b. Suprascapular nerve
c. Long thoracic nerve
d. Thoracodorsal nerve
95. Which muscle originates on the spinous process of C2, is directed
obliquely and inserts superiorly on the transverse process of C1
a. Obliquus capitis superior
b. Obliquus capitis inferior
c. Rectus capitis posterior major
d. Rectus capitis posterior minor
96. ____ is not part of the erector spinae group
a. spinalis thoracis
b. iliocostalis lumborum
c. longissimus capitis
d. splenius cervicis
97. ____ is not classified as a suprahyoid muscle
a. stylohyoid
b. digastric
c. mylohyoid
d. sternohyoid
98. Which of the following anatomical points of the ear is most anterior?
a. Tragus
b. Concha
c. Scaphoid fossa
d. Antihelix
99. Which of the following muscles is not considered a transverospinalis
muscle?
a. Spinalis
b. Rotators
c. Multifidus
d. Semispinalis
100.
a.
b.
c.
d.
101.
The posterior chamber of the eye lies between the __ and the ___
Cornea, lens
Cornea, iris
Lens, neural retina
Iris, lens
The lateral rectus muscle of the eye is innervated by which nerve?
a. CN VI – abducens
b. CN IV – trochlear
c. CN III – Oculomotor
d. CN II – optic
102.
Which muscle originates from C3 to C6 transverse process and
inserts on the basilar part of the occiput?
a. Rectus capitis anterior
b. Semispinalis capitis
c. Anterior scalenus
d. Longus capitis
103.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which muscle is derived from epimere segments of myotome?
Sternothyroid
Multifidus
Latissimus
Platysma
a.
b.
c.
d.
Optic radiations have synapses in which of the following?
Lateral fissure
Parieto-occipital fissure
Calcarine fissure
Longitudinal cerebral fissure
104.
105.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The correct order of the optic pathway (from eye to brain) is
Optic nerve, optic tract, optic chiasm, lateral geniculate, superior
colliculus, medial meniscus, calcarine fissure of the occipital bone
Optic nerve, optic chiasm, optic tract, calcarine fissure of occipital
lobe, lateral geniculate, superior colliculus, medial lemniscus
Optic nerve, optic chiasm, optic tract, lateral geniculate, superior
colliculus, medial lemniscus, calcarine fissure of occipital lobe
Optic tract, optic chiasm, optic nerve, lateral geniculate, superior
colliculus, medial lemniscus, calcarine fissure of occipital lobe.
106.
Which of the following muscles is not considered an erector spinae
muscle?
a. Spinalis
b. Longissimus
c. Multifidus
d. Iliocostalis
107.
a.
b.
c.
d.
108.
C4?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which area of the retina is composed entirely of cones?
Ora serrata
Fovea centralis
Pigmented layer
Optic disc
Which muscle originates on the transverse process of C1 through
Rhomboideus major
Splenius cervicus
Scalenus posterior
Levator scapulae
109.
Which of the following muscles does not attach to the spinous
process of C2?
a. Rectus capitis posterior major
b. Rectus capitis posterior minor
c. Obliquus capitis inferior
d. Semispinalis cervicis
110.
The structure that contains hair cells which generate hearing is
called the
a. Article
b. Saccule
c. Organ of corti
d. Semicircular canals
Answers
1. B
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. D
8. A
9. B
10. C
11. D
12. A
13. B
14. B
15. A
16. D
17. D
18. A
19. A
20. D
21. C
22. B
23. C
24. A
25. D
26. D
27. C
28. A
29. A
30. C
31. C
32. C
33. A
34. A
35. A
36. A
37. A
38. C
39. D
40. D
41. C
42. A
43. C
44. C
45. A
46. C
47. B
48. C
49. C
50. C
51. D
52. D
53. B
54. D
55. B
56. B
57. A
58. D
59. B
60. B
61. C
62. B
63. B
64. C
65. D
66. B
67. D
68. A
69. C
70. B
71. C
72. C
73. B
74. D
75. B
76. B
77. B
78. C
79. C
80. A
81. D
82. B
83. B
84. B
85. A
86. B
87. D
88. B
89. B
90. C
91. D
92. D
93. A
94. D
95. B
96. D
97. D
98. A
99. A
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
D
A
D
B
C
D
C
107.
108.
109.
110.
B
D
B
C