Download Mechatronics Final Comp Exam

Mechatronics Level 2 Comprehensive Final Exam
Name ________________________________
Date _____________
(MECH 2100)
1.
The system shown below is what type of system?
a. Open Loop
b. Closed Loop
c. Positive
Feedback Loop
d. Negative
Feedback Loop
2.
In the block diagram what is the role of the feedback element?
a. Amplify the control signal
b. Measure the variance of the plant
c. Measure the controlled variable
and convert to a feedback signal
d. Act as a disturbance
3.
What element is being controlled in the process below?
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
Pressure
Level
Temperature
Disturbance
What are the 4 main parts of an optical sensor? A light source, a light detector, a signal
conditioner, and?
a. Generator
b. Alternator
c. Optical Disk
d. Optical Ram
5. Which style sensor would I use if I needed to measure small changes in a small band of
temperature range?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Thermistor
RTD
Thermocouple
Temp Probe
6.
What does P I D mean in a controller?
a. Pressure Indicator Delimiter
b. Proportional Integral Derivative
c. Non-linear and Stepped
d. Stepped and Non Stepped
7.
What are the Ziegler Nichols methods of turning?
a. Continuous Curve and Reaction Curve
b. Bi Linear and Continuous
c. Non-linear and Stepped
d. Stepped and Non Stepped
8.
What information in the curve below would be used for tuning the PID controller?
Process reaction rate, slope of a curve and?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Process Variable Change
Dead Time
None of the Above
Item a and b
9. In the system below what could be the issue if the level continues to rise beyond the
controlled point?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Set Point Failure
Disturbance Increases
Motor Failure
Liquid Level Sensor Failure
(MECH 2200)
10. Which statement below is true about star topology and bus topology networks?
a. Bus topology is not used anymore in industrial networks.
b. In bus topology, there is one bus called the trunk.
c. In star topology is more efficient in amount of cables than the bus topology.
d. In star topology if a bus cables goes down, the entire network goes down.
e. In bus topology if the switch goes down, the entire network goes down.
11. What is the maximum number of nodes you can have in one segment of a PROFIBUS
network?
a. 128 Nodes
b. 256 Nodes
c. 512 Nodes
d. 032 Nodes
e. 064 Nodes
12. Your network is exceeding a cable length of 1000m. You have or install on additional
part to be able to have a network of this length. What is this part called?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Amplifier
Reporter
Repeater
Randomizer
None of the above
13. A PROFIBUS network is composed of one master station and 9 slave devices. What
method of network access do they use?
a. Peer-to-peer
b. Token Passing
c. Collision Detection
d. Polling
e. TCP/IP
14. Which of the following networks in NOT a deterministic network?
a. Ethernet TCP/IP
b. Ethernet/IP
c. PROFINET
d. PROFIBUS-DP
e. None of the above is a deterministic network
15. The network access control scheme used in
the master/slave protocol of the figure on the
right is known as:
a. Analog Detection
b. Peer-to-peer
c. Polling
d. Collision Detection
e. Token Passing
16. The typw of network connection topology
shown in the figure to the right is:
a. Tree
b. Ring
c. Delta
d. Bus
e. Star
17. Which of the following networks are Ethernet-based? (Two answers are correct)
a. PROFINET
b. FIELDBUS
c. EtherCAT
d. PROFIBUS-DP
e. PROFIBUS-FMS
18. The set of rules that govern how devices communicate with each other in a network is
referred to as:
a. Deterministic Network Law
b.
c.
d.
e.
Constitution
Assembly Language
Node
Protocol
19. In a token passing network access control scheme a node can transmit on the network
a. Only at the start of a scan cycle.
b. When the master device.
c. At all times.
d. Only when it has possession of a token.
e. Only at the end of a scan cycle.
20. What is the minimum detectable current change if the analog input module has an 8-bit
resolution and the input current range is 4-20 mA?
a. 39 µA
b. 2 µA
c. 1 µA
d. 78.1 µA
e. 62.5 µA
21. What is the position of a linear potentiometer of its sensitivity is 0.5mA/cm, its operating
range is 0-32 cm and 4-20 mA if the output is 7.5 mA?
a. 7.75 cm
b. 9.5 cm
c. 23.5 cm
d. 7 cm
e. 2.13 cm
22. What is the minimum detectable level change if the water level sensor is connected to a
4-bit resolution analog input module and operates in the range 0 to 5 meters?
a. 4.22 mm
b. 1.22 mm
c. 20 cm
d. 31.25 cm
e. 1.25 m
23. A function take inputs of the Boolean data type. Which of the following can be an input
for the function?
Figure A
Figure B
Figure C
Figure D
Figure E
24. The function that can be seen in the timing diagram below, is of which of the STEP 7
timers? (the timer value is set to 1 ms)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Pulse Timer (SI)
This diagram shows the function of an up counter.
On-delay timer (SD)
RETENTIVE On-delay Timer(SS)
Off-delay Timer (SF)
(MECH 2300)
25. What is the hexadecimal address of the last register of memory if the memory size is 8
KB?
a. FFFF
b. 1FFF
c. 3FFF
d. 7FF
e. 111FF
26. In a microcomputer system, the data bus is 8-bit wide. What is the minimum width of the
address bus in bits that is required to address a memory chip that has a capacity of 3
KB?
a. 3-bits wide
b. 10-bits wide
c. 11-bits wide
d. 12-bits wide
e. 13-bits wide
f. 1024-bits wide
……
28. How much space in Kbyte does the chip in the figure on the right have?
a. 16 Kbyte
b. 32 Kbyte
A0
D0
c. 64 Kbyte
d. 128 Kbyte
e. 256 Kbyte
A15
D31
f. 480 Kbyte
……
27. Which of the following states of the /RD and /WD signals on a memory chip means that
data should be loaded from the data bus onto the memory?
a. /RD=0, /WR=0
b. /RD=1, /WR=0
c. /RD=1, /WR=1
d. /RD=0, /WR=1
e. These two signals have no meaning.
/CS /OE /WR
29. What does it mean to make a “Dry Run” when using the CNC milling machines?
a. Running a scan on the machine tools to make sure they are ordered correctly
b. Running the program on the machine without actually touching the work piece
nor using coolant
c. Milling the work piece without using any coolant
d. Milling the work piece at the maximum possible spindle speed and feed rate with
no coolant to increase production capacity.
e. Stimulating the program on the computer while the machine is turned off
30. Which of the following materials are CNC milling tools made from? (Two answers are
correct)
a. Brass
b. High Speed Steel
c. Aluminum
d. Carbide
e. Copper
31. Which expression does not show a standard CNC command?
a. N091
b. G90
c. G91
d. O03
e. F150
32. In a CNC code, the expression G91 is used. Which statement describes the purpose of
this command?
a. It is a command to choose linear traverse motion
b. It is a command to choose a coordinate system
c. It is a miscellaneous command
d. It is a command to choose a tool
e. It is a command that shows the location of the code block in the program
(MECH 2400)
33. Which component has to be maintained most often in a small DC machine?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Armature
Brushes
Permanent Magnets
Bearings
Commutator
34. The stator shown in the figure is that of which type of
machines?
a. A Split Phase Induction Motor
b. A Synchronous Motor
c. A Permanent Magnet Stepper Motor
d. A Brushless dc Motor
35. The rotor shown below is that of which motor?
a. A Squirrel Cage Induction Motor
b. A dc Motor
c. A Brushless dc Motor
d. A Capacitor Start Single Phase
Induction Motor
e. A Permanent Magnet Stepper Motor
36. The rotor shown below can be of which type of motors?
a. Single phases induction motor
b. Series dc Motor
c. Shunt dc Motor
d. Permanent Magnet dc Motor
e. Synchronous Motor
37. Which electric machine is best suited to be attached to a turbine for regeneration of
electricity?
a. The dc Series Machine
b. The Reluctance Machine
c. The Synchronous Machine
d. The Stepper Motor
e. The Brushless dc Machine
38. What is the purpose of the components shown at the right?
a. To protect pneumatic cylinders from overloads.
b. It is used as a speed sensor.
c. It is a contactor that controls the power going to a
motor by energizing this equipment’s coils.
d. To protect motors from overloads.
e. It is used as a limit switch.
39. An asynchronous motow consumes reactive power and causes a poor powere factor.
Which basic electical component can be used for power factor correction?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
A pure inductance
A pure capacitance
A pure resistance
A series connection of an inducotr and a resistor
None of the above
40. In the National Electric Code, what does the term ‘Locked rotor current ‘for an induction
motor refer to? (one answer is correct)
a.
b.
c.
d.
The leakage current during lockout /tagout procedure
The in-rush current of the motor
The current drawn when the rotor is at rated speed and frequency
The current drawn when the rotor is synchronized with the magnetic field in the
stator
e. The current generated when the motor is run as a generator
f. The current drawn when the motor is run as a generator
g. This is an old quantity that is not used anymore because design class E is obsolete
The circuit in the figure shows the control part of a circuit for three motors, where 1M,
2M, and 3M are motor starters.
41. In the circuit above, If the overload device OL1 is tripped, then:
a. Only motor starter coil 1M is de energized.
b. All motor starter coils are de energized.
c. All continue running normally, but a pilot light is turned on.
d. Motor starters turn off in the sequence 3M then 2M then 1M with 5 second delays
between one another.
e. Motor starters turn off in the sequence 1M then 2M then 3M with 5 second delays
between one another.
42. What happens after the Start push button is pressed then released?
a. All motor starters are energized in the sequence 1M then 2M then 3M with 5
second time delays between one another.
b. All motor starters are energized in the sequence 3M then 2M then 1M with 5
second time delays between one another.
c. Nothing happens, because the Start button must be continuously pressed.
d. A short circuit occurs between 2M and 3M causing the circuit to fail.
e. None of the above
43. If all the motors were running, then the stop button was pressed, what would happen?
a. All the motors turn off immediately and together.
b. Motors turn off in the sequence 1M, then 2M, then 3M with a time delay of 5
seconds between one another.
c. Motors turn off in the sequence 3M, then 2M, then 1M with a time delay of 5
seconds between one another.
d. Nothing happens
44. The circuit below shows a starting circuit for a three phase motor that is used to reduce
the inrush current. What is the motor starting method employed in the figure?
a. Across-the-line starting
b. Autotransformer starting
c. Wye-delta starting
d. Part winding starting
e. Reactor insertion starting
f. Resistor insertion starting
(MECH 2500)
45. In the design below what will the value of Force, F be?
a. 20 lb.
b. 200 lb.
c. 10 lbs.
Rx = 60 lb.
d. 100 lb.
46. What is the stress in the bar in the system below?
a. 20,000
b. 20 psi
c. 200 psi
d. 2000 psi
47. What is the value of the Force, F
Ry = 80 lb.
psi
2,000
lb.
.2”
.5”
needed to move the block in the
system below? Coefficient of static friction (μs = .5). Weight = 115.5 lb.
a. 200 lb.
b. 5 lb.
c. 2000 lb.
30 °
d. 50 lb.
48. What is the torque value that gear B needs to withstand in the system below?
10 HP AC Motor
3 phase
1725 RPM
Gear
A
B
Teeth Dia Pitch P.A.
18
8
20⁰
30
8
20⁰
a.
b.
c.
d.
15 in-lb.
15 ft-lb.
150 in-lb.
150 ft-lb.
49. What size V belt should be used to poser the system below? Rated power of motor is 80
HP; operating conditions dictate a Service Factor of 1.0. Required speed of motor is
1100 RPM.
a. 3V
b. 5V
c. 8V
d. 1V
V-Belt Drive
50. Which statement below is true in regard to gears?
a. Spur gears are quieter than helical gears.
b. Helical gears can transmit higher torques than spur gear of comparable size.
c. Spur gears are harder to manufacture.
d. Spur gears create axial loading on bearings.
51. Which style bearing would be best suited to handle the loads in a helical gear system?
a. Single row redial
b. Tapered roller bearing
c. Sleeved journal bearing
d. Needle bearing
52. Which clutch would you choose to handle 20 HP at 1725 rpm? Choose from the
selection below.
a. SF-120
b. SF-500
c. SF-650
d. SF-1000FM
53. Describe the fit of the shaft and bearing shown below.
a. Interference
b. Transition fit
c. Clearance fit
d. Two stage fit
fit
Shaft Diameter: 2.00” ± .002”
Bearing Diameter: 2.003-2.004””
54. What would the shear stress on the bolt be as shown below? Bolt diameter is ¾ “.
300 lb.
2
300
7 lb.
psi
b. 132.5 psi
c. 680 psi
d. 1360 psi
55. Calculate the force needed to compress the shown spring by 2 cm (L0 –Ln = 2 cm). The
spring has a spring constant of 4.25 N/mm.
a. 4.7 N
b. 8.5 N
c. 55 N
d. 85 N
56. What is the value of the force F that is needed to balance the system shown below to be
in a static state of equilibrium?
a. 5 N
F
b. 7.5 N
5N
c. 10 N
d. 15 N
3F
2m
a. 1
(MECH 2600)
57. Identify the 6 keys to an “effective kaizen team”
a. Project selection, individual work, Data Driven, No- Brainers, Keep it
simple stupid (KISS), say thanks
b. Project selection, owner involvement, Data Driven, No- Brainers, complex
solutions, say thanks
c. Project selection, owner involvement, Data Driven, No- Brainers, Keep it
simple stupid (KISS), KPI
d. Project selection, owner involvement, Data Driven, No- Brainers, Keep it
simple stupid (KISS), say thanks
e. None of the above
58. Barriers in a company are generally classified in the following categories:
a. Cultural, Process, Physical
b. Mental. Process, Physical
c. Procedure, Process, Mental
d. Cultural, Physical, Management
59. The KPI calculated from the time a customer places an order to when the order is
delivered to the customer is:
a. Total cycle time
b. Total production time
c. Cycle time effectiveness
d. Run Time
60. What does PDCA stand for
a. Plan, Do, Check, Act
b. Process, Do, Check, Act
c. Plan, Do, Clarify, Act
d. Plan, Do, Check, Access
e. None of the above
61.
62. Name the 6 fundamentals of Kaizen
a. Philosophy, Approach, Continuous, Incremental, Improvement,
Performance
b. Philosophy, Analysis, Continuous, Incremental, Improvement,
Performance
c. Philosophy, Approach, Continuous, Incremental, Improvement, Prediction
d. Philosophy, Approach, Cause, Incremental, Improvement, Performance
e. None of the Above
63. For the ‘Ball Point Pen Factory’ did you give a power point presentation?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Not Sure
d. Can’t Remember
64. Another name for error proofing a system is?
a. Bad operator check system
b.
c.
d.
e.
Quality proofing
Poka-yoke (mistake proofing)
Error trouble system mistake changing fix
None of the above