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NAME
Common Medical Entrance Examination Set-XXIV (2078 –10 –29)
NAME
NAME Institute
In front of Singhdurbar, Putalisadak
Tel: - 01- 4231144
Model Questions
for
Common Medical Entrance
MBBS/BDS/BSc Nursing/BASLP
2078
(Set-XXIV)
Date: Magh 29th, 2078 (Saturday)
Venue: NAME
Duration – 3 hrs
Time – 12 PM
INSTRUCTIONS
.
There are 200 multiple-choice questions, each having four choices of which only
one choice is correct. Fill (
) the most appropriate one.
Note: According to new MEC evaluation system, there is a
deduction of 0.25 marks for every wrong answer.
1
percentile system with
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Common Medical Entrance Examination Set-XXIV (2078 –10 –29)
Ethnology is the science of
a) birds
b) human races
c) animal behaviour d) bird nests
Synthesis of amino acids to prove that amino acids were formed in Primitive Ocean
was experimentally proved by:
a) Sydney Fox
b) Oparin
c) Haldane
d) Stanley Miller
The 'Devonian Period' is considered to be as
a) age of fishes
b) age of amphibians c) age of reptiles
d) age of mammals
The extinct human ancestor, who ate only fruits and hunted with stones weapons
was:
a) Java man
b) Peking man
c) Australopithecus
d) Cro-Magnon man
Pyorrhoea is a disease of the
a) nose
b) gums
c) heart
d) lungs
Larva of sponge is known as:
a) Planula
b) Trochophore
c) Amphiblastula
d) Glochidium
Rostellum of tapeworm is found in:
a) Scolex
b) Neck
c) Proglottid
d) Strobila
Gastro-vascular cavity with compartments in-------------------------- class:
a) Hydrozoa
b) Anthozoa
c) Scyphozoa
d) Calcarea
In insects, ecdysone is secreted by:
a) Corpora allata
b) Prothoracic glands
c) Corpora cardiaca
d) Corpus callosum
The animal that possesses notochord throughout life is
a) fish
b) amphioxus
c) bird
d) snake
Pineal setae of Male Ascaris arise from
a) Cloaca
b) Rectum
c) Anus
d) Mouth
Respiration by peristomial gills and cloacal respiratory tree is performed by the
animals of
a) mollusca
b) echinodermata
c) protochordata
d) arthropoda
One of the following stage of Plasmodium, is NOT formed in human host?
a) sporozoites
b) gametocytes
c) cryptomerozoites d) merozoites
Which of the following is correct sequence in case of life cycle of P. vivax?
a) Microgametocyte  exflagellation  male gamete
b) Macrogametocyte exflagellation  female gamete
c) Microgametocyte  female gamete  exflagellation
d) Macrogametocyte  female gamete  exflagellation
Terminal duct of septal nephridia of Pheretima poured into:
a) Coelom
b) Intestine
c) Septal excretory duct
d) Supra-intestinal duct
Circum-pharyngeal connectives of Pheretima located in segments:
a) 1st and 2nd
b) 2nd and 3rd
c) 3rd and 4th
d) 4th and 5th
Caecilians belong to the order:
a) Anura
b) Caudata
c) Apoda
d) Urodela
In the buccal cavity of frog the internal nerves are
a) one
b) two
c) fused
d) absent
Grey crescent is the area
a) at the point of entry of sperm into ovum
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Common Medical Entrance Examination Set-XXIV (2078 –10 –29)
b) just opposite to the site of entry of sperm into ovum
c) at the animal pole
d) at the vegetal pole
Which of the following is correct matching pair of Pheretima?
a) Buccal cavity – calciferous glands
b) Pharynx – chromophil cells
c) Body wall – epineurium
d) Cuticle - chitinous
Name the digestive juice that lacks enzyme but helps in digestion.
a) Bile juice
b) Pancreatic juice
c) Ptyalin
d) Pepsin
Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the
confirmatory test for typhoid.
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae/Widal test
b) Salmonella typhi/Anthrone test
c) Salmonella typhi/Widal test
d) Plasmodium vivax/UTI test
Type of placenta found in human is called _________
a) Discoidal
b) Cotyledonary
c) Zonary
d) Diffuse
Oxy‐hemoglobin dissociation curve is:
a) Sigmoid
b) Hyperbolic
c) Parabolic
d) Straight line
The first branch of human arterial system is ............... artery:
a) Brachiocephalic
b) Coronary
c) Left common carotid
d) Left subclavian
What will happen if the diameter of the afferent arteriole is less than efferent
arteriole?
a) Dilute-urine
b) Concentrated-urine c) Noultrafiltration
d) Black urine
The corpus callosum in the brain of rabbit connects:
a) Two halves of cerebrum
b) Cerebrum and cerebellum
c) Two halves of cerebellum
d) Spinal cord and medulla
White matter consists of _____________
a) Neuron cell bodies
b) Unmyelinated axons and neuron cell bodies
c) Myelinated axons
d) Unmyelinated dendrites
Ejaculatory duct formed by the union of
a) Duct of prostate gland and vas deferens
b) Vas deferens and duct of seminal
vesicle
c) Spermatic duct and vas deferens
d) Urethra and duct of seminal vesicle
Which of the following is more susceptible to breast cancer?
a) Nulliparous women b) Multiparous women
c) Below 30 years
d) Males
Morphine is extracted from
a) Cajanus cajan
b) Cannabis sativa
c) unripe capsule of Papaver somniferum
d) Leaves of Raulwolfia serpentine
Cretinism is due to less secretion of
a) Parathyroid
b) Thyroid
c) Pituitary
d) Adrenal
The growth and maturation of ovum in mammals is caused by
a) FSH only
b) FSH & LH both
c) LTH
d) LH only
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Common Medical Entrance Examination Set-XXIV (2078 –10 –29)
Both B cells and T cells are derived from
a) lymph nodes
b) stem cells in bone marrow
c) thymus glands
d) liver
Cells of squamous epithelium are
a) tall with elongated nuclei
b) cube like
c) flat and tile like
d) columnar or cuboidal in shape
Which of the following cells of connective tissue secrete antibodies?
a) Mast cells
b) Reticular cells
c) Adipose cells
d) Plasma cells
Smooth muscles are not
a) spindle shaped
b) under control of ANS
c) very simple in structure
d) multinucleated
Ligament is
a) modified yellow elastic fibrous tissue
b) inelastic white fibrous tissue
c) modified white fibrous tissue
d) none of the above
The characters such as pointed elongated snout, strong and stout forelimbs, well
developed claws are observed in ------------ adaptation:
a) Arboreal
b) Aerial
c) Cursorial
d) Fossorial
Eel is -------------------------- fish:
a) Anadromous
b) Catadromous
c) Potamodromous
d) Ocenodromous
The plants having fruits belongs to
a) phanerogams
b) pomophytes
c) tracheophytes
d) spermophytes
Ubiquitous organism is
a) Angiosperms
b) Mosses
c) Bacteria
d) Algae
Prions have usually
a) protein coat without genetic material
b) protein coat left during transmission
c) genetic material enclosed by protein coat d) segment of genetic materials
Which spores are not found in algae and fungi?
a) Zygospores
b) Aplanospores
c) Endospores
d) Zoospores
Common spore formed in Spirogyra during adverse condition is
a) Zygospores
b) Akinetes
c) Zoospores
d) Zygote
Fungi grow on cattle dungs are
a) coprophilous
b) zoophilous
c) saxicolous
d) corticolous
In Funaria, which is not connected with spore dispersal?
a) foot
b) annulus
c) seta
d) peristome
Seedless vascular plant belongs to
a) Gymnosperms
b) Pteridophytes
c) Algae
d) Bryophytes
Haustorial pollen tube is found in
a) Pinus
b) rice
c) angiosperms
d) maize
Typical modified true tap root for storage is
a) conical
b) napiform
c) tuberous
d) fusiform
Blue berry and strawberry are
a) simple fruit
b) dry fruit
c) aggregate fruit
d) composite fruit
The fresh dry weight of living organisms in an area at a particular time is
a) standing crop
b) standing quality
c) biomass
d) standing state
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Common Medical Entrance Examination Set-XXIV (2078 –10 –29)
Somatic variation is not due to
a) tissue culture
b) amitosis
c) meiosis
d) mitosis
When natality and mortality is equal, the vitality index will be
a) one
b) more than one
c) less than one
d) uncertain
Edaphology is
a) texture of soil
b) profile of soil
c) ecology of soil
d) study of soil
The number of producers will be least in
a) grassland ecosystem
b) forest ecosystem
c) tree ecosystem
d) pond ecosystem
Cytoskeleton does not include
a) microfilaments
b) microtubules
c) endoplasmic reticulum
d) intermediate filaments
The cellular structure having independent replication is
a) endoplasmic reticulum
b) ribosome
c) Golgi body
d) centriole
Among the following events, first process in meiosis is
a) synapsis
b) chiasmata formation
c) crossing over
d) terminalization
Replication of DNA is essential in
a) before every cell division
b) after mitosis and meiosis
c) before meiosis
d) after every cell division
Linkage is against
a) law of dominance
b) law of independent assortment
c) law of segregation
d) law of allelism
Double helix structure of DNA was proposed in 1953 by
a) Crick and Meselson
b) Watson and
Chargaff
c) Rosalind and Watson
d) Watson and Crick
The prokaryotes have
a) duplex DNA in a chromosome
b) duplex naked DNA in a chromosome
c) single naked RNA
d) single naked duplex DNA
Okazaki segments are joined by
a) helicase
b) polymerase
c) DNA gyrase
d) DNA ligase
Degeneracy is not valid for
a) tryptophan
b) valine
c) serine
d) glutamic acid
First antibiotic was discovered by Alexander Fleming, who resided at
a) France
b) United States
c)England
d) Russia
First successful vaccine was developed for
a) measles
b) small pox
c) rabies
d) herpes
The associated structure with eukaryotic DNA to form chromosome is
a) nucleosome
b) centromere
c) basic amides
d) RNA
Root cap is dicot plants are produced from
a) tunica & corpus
b) calyptrogen
c) dermatogen
d) epiblema
Among them which is not an antitranspirant?
a) O2
b) ABA
c) CO2
d) aspirin
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Common Medical Entrance Examination Set-XXIV (2078 –10 –29)
Shoot plays active role in
a) active absorption
b) passive absorption
c) both active and passive absorption
d) none of the absorption
Which of the following substances does not pass across bio-membrane by simple
diffusion?
a) H+
b) H2O
c) CO2
d) K+
The two-pigment system in photosynthesis was observed due to
a) photophosphorylation
b) Hill reaction
c) Calvin cycle
d) Emerson effect
Reduction of NAD to NADH2 is not associated with
a) oxidative decarboxylation
b) EMP pathway
c) TCA cycle
d) ETS
Morphogenesis effect is due to
a) Gibberellins
b) Abscisic acid
c) Ethylene
d) Kinetin
The endosperm of gymnosperms develops from
a) female sporophyte
b) primary endosperm nucleus
c) secondary cell
d) female gametophyte
The perispermic seed bears food material as remnant of
a) nucellus
b) endosperm
c) female gamete
d) integument
Increasing the production of food plants means
a) silviculture
b) horticulture
c) yellow revolution
d) green revolution
When a carrot root is exposed to light it develops
a) anthocyanin
b) chloroplast
c) chromoplast
d) leucoplast
Industrial production of ethanol is assisted by
a) lichens
b) Agaricus
c) Asparagus
d) Saccharomyces
Which of the following is not true?
a) D2O freezes at a lower temperature than H2O
b) Reaction between H2and Cl2is much faster than D2and Cl2
c) Ordinary water gets electrolysed more rapidly than D2O
d) Bond dissociation energy of D2is greater than H2
In the case of the alkali metals
a) the cation is less stable than the atom
b) the cation is smaller than the atom
c) the cation and the atom have about the same size
d) the cation is larger than the atom
Which of the following on thermal decomposition yields abasic as well as acidic
oxide?
a) NaNO3
b) KClO3
c) CaCO3
d) NH4NO3
If the fluoride salts of group 2 metals are dissolved in water, then which of the
following will show high solubility?
a) BaF2
b) RbF2
c) CaF2
d) BeF2
Buckminster fullerene is
a) pure graphite
b) C-60
c) diamond
d) C-90
Concentrated nitric acid, upon long-standing, turns yellow-brown due to the
formation of
a) NO
b) NO2
c) N2O
d) N2O4
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Common Medical Entrance Examination Set-XXIV (2078 –10 –29)
Which of the following is observed when Cl2 reacts withhot and concentrated
NaOH?
a) NaCl, NaOCl
b) NaCl, NaClO2
c) NaCl, NaClO3
d) NaOCl, NaClO3
For which of the following electrolytic solution  m and  eq are equal?
a) BaCl2
b) KCl
c) Al2(SO4)3
d) CaCl2
In which case the percent increase in the rate will be maximum, when temperature
is increased form 298 to 308 K. In case of the reaction having activation energy is
a) 40 kJ
b) 50 kJ
c) 60 kJ
d) 20 kJ
On reduction with hydrogen 3.6g of an oxide of metal leaves 3.2g of metallic
residue. If the atomic mass of metal is 64, the formula of metal oxide is
a) M2O3
b) M2O
c) MO
d) MO2
The mole fraction of solute in 1 molal aqueous solution is
a) 0.0176
b) 1.8
c) 0.05
d) 0.98
Heat of neutralization of strong acid and strong base is −57.0 kJ. The amount of
heat released when 0.5 mol of HNO3 solution is added to 0.2 mol of NaOH solution
is
a) 11.40 kJ
b) 57.0 kJ
c) 28.5 kJ
d) 34.9 kJ
When zeolite, which is hydrated sodium aluminium silicate, is treated with hard
water, the sodium ions are exchanged with:
a) H+ ions
b) Ca2+ions
c) Mg2+ ions
d) Both Mg2+ and Ca2+
In Epsom salt, the number of molecules of water directly coordinated with Mg2+ ion
is:
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 7
Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this
anomalous behaviour in that graphite:
a) is non–a crystalline substance
b) is an allotropic form of diamond
c) has molecules of various molecular masses
d) has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of hexagonal rings of strongly bound carbon
atoms with weak interplate bonds
Diborane upon hydrolysis gives
a) Boric anhydride
b) Metaboric acid
c) Orthoboric acid
d) Boron oxide
Which of the following cannot result in the formation of NO?
a) N2+ O2(Electric arc) b) NH3 + O2 (Pt/1073 K)
c) NaNO3 /HCl
d) None of the above
Fire extinguisher contains H2SO4 and
a) NaHCO3 + Na2CO3
b) Na2CO3
c) NaHCO3 solution
d) CaCO3
Which is coinage metal?
a) Zinc
b) Calcium
c) Copper
d) Sodium
o
100. The standard free energy change for a gaseous reaction at 27 C is X kcal. If
equilibrium constant for a reaction is 100 and R is 2 cal K–1 mol–1.Then X is
a) –2.7636
b) –2.6736
c) +2.6746
d) +2.7636
7
NAME
Common Medical Entrance Examination Set-XXIV (2078 –10 –29)
101. Critical temperature of the gas refers to the temperature
a) at which it occupies a volume of 22.4 L
b) at which it gets liquefied at 1 atmosphere
c) below which it always exists as liquid
d) above which it always exists as gas
102. When N/P ratio of a nuclide of an element is greater than the N/P ratio of the stable
nuclide of the element, it disintegrates emitting
a) -particle
b) -particle
c) -rays
d) Neutrons
103. When an atom is in a magnetic field, the possible number of orientations for an
orbital of azimuthal quantum number 3 is
a) Three
b) One
c) Five
d) Seven
104. A molecule AB3 exhibits a dipole moment = 0, then the hybrid state of A (Z < 21)
should be
a) sp2
b) sp
c) sp3d
d) sp3
105. In which of the following compound Cl exhibits more than one oxidation states?
a) CaOCl2
b) CaCl2
c) Cl2O7
d) ICl3
106. Ksp of a substance XY is 10−2 mol2L−2. Molecular mass of the substance is 100. Its
solubility would be
a) 100 g L−1
b) 1 g L−1
c) 10 g L−1
d) 10-1 g L−1
107. One mole of SO3 was placed in a litre vessel at a certain temperature. When
equilibrium was established in the reaction,
2SO3(g) ⇌ 2SO2(g) + O2(g)
the vessel was found to contain 0.4 moles of SO3. The value of equilibrium constant
is
a) 0.13
b) 0.36
c) 0.68
d) 0.45
108. Which of the following will occur if a 0.1 M solution of a weak acid is diluted to 0.01
M at constant temperature?
a) [H+] will decrease to 0.01 M
b) pH will decrease
c) percentage ionisation will increase
d) Ka will increase
109. The weakest base among the following is

110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
a) H─
b) CH 3
c) CH3O─
d) Cl─
Which of these does not reflect the periodicity of the elements?
a) Bonding behaviour
b) Electronegativity
c) Ionization energy
d)Neutron/proton ratio
Oxygen has an oxidation state of +2 in the compound
a) H2O2
b) CO2
c) H2O
d) F2O
On electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid using platinumelectrodes, the product
obtained at the anode will be
a) hydrogen
b) oxygen
c) hydrogen sulphide d) Sulphur dioxide
Which of the following compounds contains 1°, 2°, 3° aswell as 4° carbon atoms ?
a) Neopentane
b) 2-methyl pentane
c) 2,3-dimethyl butane
d) 2,2,3-trimethyl pentane
Methoxyethane and propanol are the examples of isomerismof the type
a) structural
b) position
c) functional
d) tautomerism
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NAME
Common Medical Entrance Examination Set-XXIV (2078 –10 –29)
115. The organic reaction which proceed through heterolyticbond cleavage are called
a) ionic
b) polar
c) nonpolar
d) Both (a) and (b)
116. Methane, ethane and propane are said to form a homologousseries because all are
a) hydrocarbons
b) saturated compounds
c) aliphatic compounds
d) differ from each other by a CH2 group
117. The molecular formula of a compound in which double bondis present between C
&C :
a) CnH2n + 2
b) CnHn
c) CnH2n
d) CnH2n–2
118. Alcoholic solution of KOH is used for
a) Dehydrogenation
b) Dehalogenation
c) Dehydration
d) Dehydrohalogenation
119. Paraffins are soluble in
a) Distilled water
b) Benzene
c) Methanol
d) Seawater
120. Which of the following is not used in Friedel-Crafts reaction?
a) N–Phenyl acetanilide
b) Bromobenzene
c) Benzene
d) Chlorobenzene
121. Haloarenes are ortho and para directing due to
a) Resonance in aryl halide
b) – I effect of halogen atom
c) + I effect of halogen atom
d) Both (a) and (b)
122. The characteristic grouping of secondary alcohols is
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129.
In the commercial manufacture of ethyl alcohol from starchysubstances by
fermentation method. Which enzymesstepwise complete the fermentation reaction
a) Diastase, maltase and zymase
b) Maltase, zymase and invertase
c) Diastase, zymase and lactase
d) Diastase, invertase and zymase
Acetaldehyde reacts with
a) Electrophiles only
b) Nucleophiles only
c) Free radicals only
d) Both electrophiles and nucleophiles
Acetone reacts with iodine (I2) to form iodoform in thepresence of
a) CaCO3
b) NaOH
c) KOH
d) MgCO3
Dimerisation of carboxylic acids is due to
a) ionic bond
b) covalent bond
c) coordinate bond
d) intermolecular hydrogen bond
The major product of nitration of benzoic acid is
a) 3- Nitrobenzoic acid
b) 4- Nitrobenzoic acid
c) 2- Nitrobenzoic acid
d) 2, 4- dinitrobenzoic acid
Which of the following factors affect the basic strength ofamine?
(i) Inductive effect
(ii) Steric hinderance
(iii) Solvation effect
(iv) Solubility in organic solvents.
a) (i) and (iv)
b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Which of the following reagent can be used to convert benzene diazonium chloride
9
NAME
Common Medical Entrance Examination Set-XXIV (2078 –10 –29)
into benzene?
a) CH3OH
b) H3PO2
c) Br2–H2O
d) LiAlH4
130. Glucose does not react with
(a) Br2/H2O
b) H2NOH
c) HI
d) NaHSO3
131. If A = 3 + 4 and B = 7 + 24, the vector having the same magnitude as B and parallel
to A is
a) 5 + 20
b) 15 + 10
c) 20 + 15
d) 15 + 20
132. A man drops a ball downside from the roof of a tower of height 400 meters. At the
same time another ball is thrown upside with a velocity 50 meter/sec. from the
surface of the tower, then they will meet at which height from the surface of the
tower
a) 100 meters
b) 320 meters
c) 80 meters
d) 240 meters
133. At the highest point of the path of a projectile, its
a) Kinetic energy is maximum
b) Potential energy is minimum
c) Kinetic energy is minimum
d) Total energy is maximum
134. Which one of the following is not used to reduce friction?
a) Oil
b) Ball bearings
c) Sand
d) Graphite
135. A car of mass 800 kg moves on a circular track of radius 40 m. If the coefficient of
friction is 0.5, then maximum velocity with which the car can move is
a) 7 m/s
b) 14 m/s
c) 8 m/s
d) 12 m/s
136. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit around a planet is independent of
a) The mass of the planet
b) The radius of the planet
c) The mass of the satellite
d) All the three parameters (a), (b) and (c)
137. Two rings have their moments of inertia in ratio 2:1 and their diameters are in ratio
2:1. The ratio of their masses will be
a) 2:1
b) 1:2
c) 1:4
d) 1:1
138. A parrot sitting on the floor of a wire cage which is being carried by a boy, starts
flying. The boy will feel that the box is now
a) heavier
b) lighter
c) shows no change in weight
d) lighter in the beginning and heavier later
139. A drop of water breaks into two droplets of equal size. In this process, which of the
following statement is correct?
a) The sum of temperature of the two droplets together is equal to the original
temperature of the drop
b) The sum of masses of the two droplets is equal to the original mass of the drop
c) The sum of the radii of two droplets is equal to the radius of the original drop
d) The sum of the surface areas of the two droplets is equal to the surface area of the
original drop
140. If the metal bob of a simple pendulum is replaced by a wooden bob, then its time
period will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain the same
d) First increase then decrease
10
NAME
Common Medical Entrance Examination Set-XXIV (2078 –10 –29)
141.
One mole of monoatomic and one mole of diatomic gas are mixed together. The
value of Cv is
a) 2R
b) (3/2)R
c) R
d) R/2
To keep correct time, modern watches are fitted with a balance wheel made of
a) Platinum
b) Stainless steel
c) Invar
d) Tungsten
When water is heated from 0º C to 10º C, its volume
a) increases
b) decreases
c) does not change
d) first decreases and then increases
Amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a body through 1K is called its
a) Water equivalent
b) Thermal capacity
c) Entropy
d) Specific heat
Two identical samples of a gas are allowed to expand (i) isothermally (ii)
adiabatically. Work done is
a) More in the isothermal process
b) More in the adiabatic process
c) Neither of them
d) Equal in both processes
Two spheres made of same material have radii in the ratio 1: 2 Both are at same
temperature. Ratio of heat radiation energy emitted per second by them is
a) 1 : 2
b) 1 : 8
c) 1 : 4
d) 1 : 16
The bottom of a container filled with liquid appear slightly raised because of
a) Refraction
b) Interference
c) Diffraction
d) Reflection
A convex lens forms a real image of a point object placed on its principal axis. If
the upper half of the lens is painted black, the image will
a) Be shifted downwards
b) Be shifted upwards
c) Not be shifted
d) Shift on the principal axis
In the position of minimum deviation when a ray of yellow light passes through the
prism, then its angle of incidence is
a) Less than the emergent angle
b) Greater than the emergent angle
c) Sum of angle of incidence and emergent angle is 90°
d) Equal to the emergent angle
When the length of a microscope tube increases, its magnifying power
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Does not change
d) May decrease or increase
To demonstrate the phenomenon of interference, we require two sources which
emit radiation
a) Of the same frequency and having a define phase relationship
b) Of nearly the same frequency
c) Of the same frequency
d) Of different wavelengths
Light waves can be polarised as they are
a) Transverse
b) Of high frequency
c) Longitudinal
d) Reflected
Quality depends on
a) Intensity
b) Loudness
c) Timbre
d) Frequency
A source of sound of frequency 90 vibrations/ sec is approaching a stationary
observer with a speed equal to 1/10 the speed of sound. What will be the frequency
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
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155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
Common Medical Entrance Examination Set-XXIV (2078 –10 –29)
heard by the observer?
a) 80 vibrations/sec
b) 90 vibrations/sec
c) 100 vibrations/sec
d) 120 vibrations/sec
Standing stationary waves can be obtained in an air column even if the interfering
waves are
a) Of different pitches
b) Of different amplitudes
c) Of different qualities
d) Moving with different velocities
The capacitance of a spherical conductor with radius 1 m is
a) 1 microfarad
b) 9  109farad
c) 1.1  10-10farad
d) 9  10-9farad
If soap bubble is charged with negative charge, its radius
a) will decrease
b) will increase
c) will remain same
d) data is not sufficient
A hollow sphere of charge does not produce an electric field at any
a) inner point
b) outer point
c) surface point
d) none of the above
A steady current i is flowing through a conductor of uniform cross section. Any
segment of the conductor has
a) Zero charge
b) Only positive charge
c) Only negative charge
d) Charge proportional to current i
Kirchhoff's second law is based on the law of conservation of
a) Charge
b) Energy
c) Momentum
d) Sum of mass and energy
The tangent galvanometer, when connected in series with a standard resistance
can be used as
a) An ammeter
b) A voltmeter
c) A wattmeter
d) Both an ammeter and a voltmeter
Thermopile is used for
a) Collecting the heat energy
b) The measurement of radiant heat energy
c) The measurement of current
d) The change of atomic energy into heat energy
Field inside a solenoid is
a) Directly proportional to its length
b) Directly proportional to current
c) Inversely proportional to total number of turns
d) Inversely proportional to current
Two free parallel wires carrying currents in opposite direction
a) Attract each other
b) Repel each other
c) Neither attract nor repel
d) Get rotated to be perpendicular to each other
Magnetic permeability is maximum for
a) Diamagnetic substance
b) Paramagnetic substance
c) Ferromagnetic substance
d) All of these
When the number of turns in a coil is doubled without any change in the length of
the coil, its self inductance becomes
a) Four times
b) Doubled
c) Halved
d) Unchanged
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NAME
Common Medical Entrance Examination Set-XXIV (2078 –10 –29)
167. The peak value of 220 volts of ac mains is
a) 155.6 volts
b) 220.0 volts
c) 311.0 volts
d) 440 volts
168. The energy that should be added to an electron to reduce its de Broglie wavelength
from one nm to 0.5 nm is
a) Four times the initial energy
b) Equal to the initial energy
c) Twice the initial energy
d) Thrice the initial energy
169. A photon of energy 3.4 eV is incident on a metal having work function 2 eV. The
maximum K.E. of photo-electrons is equal to
a) 1.4 eV
b) 1.7 eV
c) 5.4 eV
d) 6.8 eV
170. The X-ray beam coming from an X-ray tube will be
a) Monochromatic
b) Having all wavelengths smaller than a certain maximum wavelength
c) Having all wavelengths larger than a certain minimum wavelength
d) Having all wavelengths lying between a minimum and a maximum wavelength
171. In Millikan oil drop experiment, a charged drop of mass 1.8  10-14 kg is stationary
between its plates. The distance between its plates is 0.90 cm and potential
difference is 2.0 kilovolts. The number of electrons on the drop is
a) 500
b) 50
c) 5
d) 0
172. What determines half -life of a radio-active element?
a) Atomic number
b) Mass number
c) Temperature
d) None of these
173. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. What is the potential energy
of the electron in this state?
a) 0 eV
b) -27.2 eV
c) 1 eV
d) 2 eV
174. A piece of copper and the other of germanium are cooled from the room
temperature to 80 K, then which of the following would be a correct statement?
a) Resistance of each increases
b) Resistance of each decreases
c) Resistance of copper increases while that of germanium decreases
d) Resistance of copper decreases while that of germanium increases
175. To obtain P-type Si semiconductor, we need to dope pure Si with
a) Aluminium
b) Phosphorous
c) Oxygen
d) Germanium
176. On increasing the reverse bias to a large value in a PN-junction diode, current
a) Increases slowly
b) Remains fixed
c) Suddenly increases
d) Decreases slowly
177. Select the correct statement
a) In a full wave rectifier, two diodes work alternately
b) In a full wave rectifier, two diodes work simultaneously
c) The efficiency of full wave and half wave rectifiers is same
d) The full wave rectifier is bi-directional.
178. Which of the planet is brightest?
a) Mercury
b) Venus
c) Mars
d) Jupiter
179. A star which appears blue will be
a) As hot as the sun
b) Cooler than the sun
c) Very cold indeed
d) Much hotter than the sun
180. One main characteristics of black hole is that, it
a) emits a photon
b) absorbs a photon
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Common Medical Entrance Examination Set-XXIV (2078 –10 –29)
c) changes photon into mass
d) charges all colours into black one
181. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.
a) 21
b) 23
c) 25
182. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.
d) 27
(X)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
183. Three different positions X, Y and Z of a dice are shown in the figures given below.
Which number lies at the bottom face in position X?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) Cannot be determined
184. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same
series as established by the five Problem Figures.
Problem Figures:
Answer Figures:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(1)
(2)
(3)
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
185. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
(4)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
186. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.
1. Yarn
2. Plant
3. Saree
4. Cotton
(5)
d) 5
d) 4
5. Cloth
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
b) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
c) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
d) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
187. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Iron, Lead and
Nitrogen?
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Common Medical Entrance Examination Set-XXIV (2078 –10 –29)
a)
b)
c)
d)
188. Each of the following questions has a group. Find out which one of the given
alternatives will be another member of the group or of that class.
Pathology, Cardiology, Radiology, Ophthalmology
a) Biology
b) Hematology
c) Zoology
d) Geology
189. Which one will replace the question mark ?
a) 94
b) 76
c) 16
190. Which one will replace the question mark ?
d) 73
a) 3
b) 2
c) 7
d) 6
191. Choose the word which is different from the rest.
a) December
b) February
c) March
d) July
192. First bunch of bananas has (1/4) again as many bananas as a second bunch. If the
second bunch has 3 bananas less than the first bunch, then the number of
bananas in the first bunch is
a) 9
b) 10
c) 12
d) 15
193. Mr. X, a mathematician, defines a number as 'connected with 6 if it is divisible by 6
or if the sum of its digits is 6, or if 6 is one of the digits of the number. Other
numbers are all 'not connected with 6'. As per this definition, the number of
integers from 1 to 60 (both inclusive) which are not connected with 6 is
a) 18
b) 22
c) 42
d) 43
194. A total of 324 coins of 20 paise and 25 paise make a sum of Rs. 71. The number of
25-paise coins is
a) 120
b) 124
c) 144
d) 200
195. A number consists of two digits whose sum is 11. If 27 is added to the number,
then the digits change their places. What is the number?
a) 47
b) 65
c) 83
d) 92
196. An enterprising businessman earns an income of Re. 1 on the first day of his
business. On every subsequent day, he earns an income which is just double of
that made on the previous day. One the 10th day of business, his income is
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NAME
Common Medical Entrance Examination Set-XXIV (2078 –10 –29)
a) Rs. 2
b) Rs. 2
c) Rs. 10
d) Rs. 102
If SHANKAR is coded as RAKNAHS then LEDNAK is coded as:
a) DELKAN
b) KANDLE
c) KANDEL
d) KATDAL
Sanjeev ranks seventh from the top and twenty eighth from the bottom in a class.
How many students are there in the class?
a) 33
b) 36
c) 35
d) 34
The length and breadth of a room are 8 m and 6 m respectively. A cat runs along all
the four walls and finally along a diagonal order to catch a rat. How much total
distance is covered by the cat?
a) 10
b) 14
c) 38
d) 48
1, 2, 3, 10, ?, 9802
a) 99
b) 199
c) 299
d) 999
9
197.
198.
199.
200.
10
Best of Luck
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