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Q1: By encircling an abutment tooth 180 degrees, a removable partial denture clasp
assembly serves to
A- Prevent tooth movement away from the clasp
B- Increase the retention provided by the clasp
C- Increase the support derived from the abutment tooth
D- Decrease the applied occlusal torquing forces
Q2: Which of the following is contraindicated as a pre-prosthodontic regimen
to optimize soft tissue health?
A- Oral hygiene instructions
B- Prophylaxis
C- Daily rinses of chlorhexidine
D- Premedication with oral antibiotics
Q3: Diazepam-mediated effects include
A- Peripherally-acting muscle relaxation
B- Lowering seizure Threshold
C- Anterograde amnesia
D- Analgesia
Q4: primary drug for The treating oral candidiasis in patient with HIV is
A- Nystatin (Mycostatin)
B- Acyclovir (Zovirax)
C- Penciclovir (Denavir)
D- Chlorhexidine (Peridex)
primary drug for The treating oropharyngeal candidiasis in patient with HIV is
A- Nystatin (Mycostatin)
B- fluconazol
C- Penciclovir (Denavir)
D- Chlorhexidine
Q5: Which of the following represents the major cause of pulpal damage
associated with cavity preparation?
A- Vibration
B- Heat generation
C- Dentin desiccation
D- Adverse effects of local anesthesia
Q6: A new diagnostic test is evaluated against an independent “gold”
standard” in 100 subjects with the following results:
True positive = 48
True negative = 8
False positive = 12
False negative= 32
What is the negative predictive value of this new diagnostic test?
A- 20 percent
B- 40 percent
C- 60 percent
D- 80 percent
TN/TN+FN *100% = 8/8+32*100% = 20%
Q7: Adrenal suppression may result from which of the following regimens of
A- 20 mg for 2 weeks within 2 years
B- 2 mg for 2 weeks within 2 years
C- 10 mg for 1 week within 1 year
D- 1 mg for 1 week within 1 year
Q8: Which of the following 2 designs in tooth preparation can be used with
all-ceramic crowns?
A- Butt-joint shoulder or chamfer
B- Bevel or butt-joint shoulder
C- Bevel or feather edge
D- Chamfer or feather edge
Q9: The highest incidence of caries around Class II composite resin
restorations occurs on which of the following margins?
A- Occlusal
B- Facial proximal
C- Lingual proximal
D- Gingival proximal
Q10: Which of the following is the best treatment for a traumatically intruded
primary tooth which in not impinging on the permanent tooth bud?
A- Extraction
B- Allow tooth to spontaneously re-erupt
C- Reposition tooth orthodontically
D- Reposition tooth surgically
Q11: Which of the following is NOT correct concerning informed consent?
A- It must be obtained in advance of treatment
B- It must be in writing
C- It must include risks, benefits, and complications
D- It must include treatment options
Q12: When performing a pulpal evaluation, the dentist should ideally use
which of the following as controls?
A- Adjacent teeth only
B- Adjacent teeth and opposing tooth
C- Adjacent teeth and contralateral tooth
D- Opposing tooth and contralateral tooth
Q13: In recurring necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, which of the following is
most associated with exacerbation?
A- Occlusal trauma
B- Stressful episodes
C- Amount of suppuration present
D- Increase in gram positive organisms
Q14: The means by which dental patients are treated to eliminate the caries
process is called
A- Antibiotic prophylaxis
B- Primary prevention
C- Secondary prevention
D- Tertiary prevention
Q15: A fail-safe mechanism on an analgesia machine for nitrous oxide and
oxygen prevents the delivery of nitrous oxide greater than
A- 20 percent
B- 50 percent
C- 70 percent
D- 90 percent
Q16: A wear facet is seen on the mesio-buccal incline of the mesio-buccal
cusp of a mandibular first molar complete metal crown. This facet clould
have been formed during which jaw movements?
A- Working only
B- Protrusive or working
C- Protrusive or non-working
D- Non-working or retrusive
Q17: Which of the following drugs are categorized as tricyclic
A- Tranylcypromine (Parnate) and parglyline (Eutonyl)
B- Gabapentin (Neurontin) and tramadol (Ultram)
C- Imipramine and amitriptyline
D- Promethazine and hydroxyzine
Q18: What is the most likely pulpal diagnosis for a primary molar with deep
caries and a history of transient cold sensitivity with an intact periodontal
ligament space on radiographic examination?
A- Reversible pulpitis
B- Irreversible pulpitis
C- Pulpal necrosis
D- Calcification metamorphosis
Q19: In removing a torus palatinus, the practitioner inadvertently removed
the midportion of the palatine process of the maxilla. One would expect to
A- The nasolacrimal duct
B- The inferior nasal concha
C- An opening into the nasal cavity
D- An opening into the maxillary antrum
Q20: Smooth surface lesions resulting from flexure of the tooth structure are
known as which of the following?
A- Abrasion
B- Erosion
C- Abfraction
D- Attrition
Q21: Damage to biological systems from ionizing radiation is due primarily to
which of the following?
A- Trasmutation of a key atom
B- A direct hit on a key atom or molecule
C- Radiolysis of water molecules
D- Excitation of macromolecules
Q22: Which of the following clinical entities is most likely to be misdiagnosed
as an endodontic lesion?
A- Lateral periodontal cyst
B- Periodontal abscess
C- Tori or exostoses
D- Gingival cyst
Q23: A patient is complaining about bleeding and pain when they brush.
Which is the most appropriate initial response to initiate the patient’s oral
health behavior change?
A- “So you want healthy teeth and the gums but it hurts when you brush”
B- “No pain no gain. You want the benefits of brushing but it hurts”
C- “Keep brushing even if it hurts. You know you have to do it”
D- “I’d to hear that you are brushing every day when you come back”
Q24: Low-dose aspirin therapy prevents the formation of thromboemboli by
preferentially inhibiting which of the following?
A- Phospholipase A2 in the blood vessels walls
B- Prsotacyclin synthetase in the blood vessels walls
C- Tromboxane synthetase in the platelets
D- Vitamin K in the liver
Q25: What is the predominant method of financing dental care in Health
Maintenance Organizations (HMO)?
A- Fee for service
B- Capitation
mean every pt should buy from his own pocket
C- Usual, customary, and regular fee
D- Table of allowances
Q26: Billing for a full-mouth series of radiographs as if they were a number of
individual radiographs is an example of
A- Non-rendering services
B- Upcoding
C- Unbunding
D- Mischaracterization
Q27: Which of the following is the most likely cause of ankylosis of the
temporomandibular joint?
A- Neoplasm
B- Rheumatoid arthritis
C- Traumatic injury
D- Developmental abnormality
Q28: Which differential diagnostic method is best for determining whether
pathosis is endodontic or periodontic in nature?
A- Pulp vitality testing
B- Nature of symptoms
C- History of periodontal disease
D- Location of swelling, if present
Q29: Which action represents the most effective means of preventing caries
on overdenture roots?
A- Daily treatment with prescription fluoride gel
B- Coverage of roots with cast copings
C- Daily treatment with antimicrobial rinse
D- Placement of amalgam restoration in root canal orifice
Q30: Which type of enamel caries has a broad area of origin with a conical or
pointed extension towards the DEJ?
A- Pit and fissure caries
B- Smooth surface caries
C- Cusp tip caries
D- Root surface caries
Q31: What is the maximum recommended dose of acetaminophen that can be
prescribed in a 24 hour time period?
A- 2.5 grams
B- 3 grams
C- 3.5 grams
D- 4 grams
Q32: A patient on intravenously administered bisphosphonate therapy for 2
years has caious and non-restorable anterior teeth. Which is the best
treatment option?
A- Surgical extraction with primary closure
B- Endodontic therapy of retained roots
C- Discontinue bisphosphonates for 3 months before extraction
D- Surgical extraction, alveoloplasty, and primary closure
Q33: Which of the following represents the dentist primary responsibility
when caring for the elderly dental patient?
A- Speak slowly and simply to the patient
B- Involve a caretaker/surrogate in decision making
C- Provide long appointments so the patient will have to travel less often
Q34: Behcet disease has oral lesions which are most similar to which of the
A- Aphthous ulcers
B- Candidiasis
C- Herpangina
D- Herpes zoster
Q35: Although the results of a diagnosis test are NOT necessarily accurate,
they are consistent. This test has high
A- Generalizability
B- Specificity
C- Reliability
D- Validity
Q36: Which of the following conditions is associated with hypodontia?
A- Ectodermal dysplasia
B- Cleidocranial dysplasia
C- Apert Syndrome
D- Gardner syndrome
Q37: Cervical caries can be secondary to the effect of radiation on
A- Enamel
B- Dentin
C- Cementum
D- Salivary gland
E- Alveolar crestal bone
Q38: During an extraction under sedation, the patient aspirates the crown of
the tooth. Where would the crown most likely appear on a chest x-ray?
A- Esophagus
B- Right bronchus
C- Left bronchus
D- Infundibulum
Q39: Methods to prevent overheating of the bone implant site preparation
include the use of which of the following?
A- High speed handpiece
B- Chlorhexidine irrigation
C- High torque handpiece
D- Air cooling
Q40: When the isthmus of a MOD cavity preparation is extended beyond 1/3 of
the cusp-tip to cusp-distance, the restoration of choice is a
A- MOD amalgam
B- MOD inlay
C- MOD onlay
D- Full crown
Q41: What final process in coronary arteries causes myocardial infarction
rather than angina?
A- Atherosclerotic lesions
B- Arterial spasm
C- Thrombosis
D- Fatty deposits
Q42: Which of the following occurs with the use of dipherhydramine
A- Increased salivation
B- Bronchoconstriction
C- Antagonism of motion sickness
D- Increased capillary permeability
Q43: The maxillary and mandibular definitive casts have been articulated.
The maxillary cast was mounted without a face-bow transfer. If the dentist
were to increase the occlusal vertical dimension by 4 mm, it would be
necessary to
A- Open the articulator by 4 mm
B- Change the condylar guide settings
C- Obtain a new centric relation record
D- Increase the rest vertical dimension
Q44: The minimum required bony buccolingual ridge width in millimeters for
placement of 4.0 mm root form implants is which of the following?
A- 4
B- 6
C- 8
D- 10
Q45: What is the EXCEPTION to the 5 principles of the ADA Principles of
Ethics and Code of Professional Conduct?
A- Nonmaleficence
B- Competency
C- Justice
D- Veracity
Q46: An articulating paper mark on the lingual incline of the buccal cusp of
the mandibular molar represents which type of interference?
A- Working
B- Non-working
C- Protrusive
D- Retrusive
Q47: Which of the following is most likely to create complications when
making an acrylic resin temporary restoration for a large MOD onlay
A- Overextended resin removed
B- Undercuts in the preparation blocked out
C- Completion of polymerization outside the mouth
D- Occlusal surfaces left in slight infraocclusion
ANS:D SOME SUGGEST B, it is not c because it says outside the mouth, check it
Q48: Nitrous oxide/oxygen is contraindicated for patients
A- With anxiety
B- With special health care needs
C- With profound local anesthesia
D- In the first trimester of pregnancy
Q49: Administration of nitrous oxide/oxygen is contraindicated in which of
the following conditions?
A- Asthma
B- Hemophilia
C- Nasal congestion
D- Sickle cell anemia
Q50: A dentist administered a survey to patients to determine their
satisfaction with practice characteristics and services provided. The survey
was administered to patients seen during 1 month. Which type of study
design was used by the dentist?
A- Cross-sectional
B- Cohort
C- Case control
D- Clinical trial
Q51: A protrusive jaw relation record is made in order to set the
A- Horizontal condylar inclination of the articulator
B- Anterior guide table of the articulator
C- Lateral condylar guidance of the articulator
D- Lateral translation of the articulator
Q52: A protrusive jaw relation record is made in order to set the
A- Horizontal condylar inclination of the articulator
B- Anterior guide table of the articulator
C- Lateral condylar guidance of the articulator
D- Lateral translation of the articulator
Q53: For a patient with myasthenia gravis, which of the following
medications is acceptable?
A- Erythromycin
B- Clarithromycin
C- Imipenem
D- Penicillin
Q54: The gingival around teeth and the mucosa around implants have similar
A- Connective tissue attachments
B- Alignment of collagen fiber bundles
C- Non-keratinized junctional epithelia
D- Distribution of vascular structures apical to the junctional epithelia
Q55: 40-year-
old patient has 32 unrestored teeth. The only defects are deep-
stained grooves in posterior teeth. The grooves are uncoalesced. What is the
treatment of choice?
A- Periodic observation
B- Pit and fissure sealant
C- Preventive resin restoration
D- Application of topical fluoride
Q56: Which of the following conditions is most often characterized by a
painful response that subsides quickly with stimulus
A- Normal pulp
B- Nonvital pulp
C- Reversible pulpitis
D- Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis
ANS:A because it subsides quickly it is normal , if it took few time then it is
Q57: Which statement most accurately describes the finish line and margin of
A- The finish line should be placed in hard dentin when it is possible
B- The crown margin at the gingival crest accumulates the least amount of food
C- The location of the crown margin is more important than the fit and finish
D- The subgingival crown margin may be an etiologic factor in predisposing periodontitis
ANS:D some suggested A still arguing on this , check it
Q58: The diagnosis of pulpal status is predicated upon assessing the amount
or extent of
A- Decay
B- Pain
C- Inflammation
D- Pathologic resorption
ANS:C mosbey second edition page 5
Q59: The diagnosis of pulpal status is predicated upon assessing the amount
or extent of
A- Decay
B- Pain
C- Inflammation
D- Pathologic resorption
Q60: Clicking of the dentures during speech most often indicates which of
the following?
A- Inadequate denture retention
B- Decreases occlusal vertical dimension
C- Insufficient interocclusal space
D- Improper buccolingual position of the teeth
Q61: A person best exemplifies active listening by doing which of the
A- Rephrasing the listener’s understanding of the speaker’s communication
B- Using direct eye contact
C- Gathering pertinent information from the speaker quickly and succinctly
D- verifying that the speaker has heard what the listener has said
Q62: Which of the following is the drug of choice for a 5-year-old child with
pain following routine extraction?
A- Aspirin
B- Clindamycin
C- Acetaminophen
D- Codeine
Q63: Which of the following conditions is rarely a symptom of combination
A- Hyperplastic/redundant soft tissues
B- Resorption in the anterior maxilla
C- Increased occlusal vertical dimension
D- Downgrowth of the maxillary tuberosities
Q64: Which of the following represents the most frequent cause of failure of
dental amalgam restorations?
A- Moisture contamination
B- Improper cavity design
C- Improper condensation
D- Inadequate trituration
ANS:A failure is due to moisture contamination , fracture is due to improper cavity design
Q65: Which primary tooth, if lost prematurely, will most frequently result in
space loss?
A- Maxillary canine
B- Maxillary first molar
C- Mandibular second molar
D- Mandibular first molar
Q66: Which of the following explains why proper contouring of the axial
surface of complete cast restorations is extremely important?
A- Retention
B- Occlusal wear
C- Effect on gingival tissue health
D- Ability to provide caries resistance
Q67: Gastric regurgitation causes which of the following in the teeth?
A- Erosion
B- Abrasion
C- Attrition
D- Abfraction
Q68: A 52-year-old female presents with red, glossy, and swollen gingival.
She has denuded and red areas on both buccal mucosae. The lesions have
been present for months and vary from time to time in severity. Which of the
following represents the most probable diagnosis?
A- Vitamin deficiency
B- Linear gingival erythema
C- Erosive lichen planus
D- Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
Q69: Hyperplastic palatal tissue (papillomatosis) is best treated by
A- Chemical cauterization
B- Radical excision
C- Temporary cessation of denture use
D- Supraperiosteal dissection or electrosursery
Q70: Stridor is diagnostic for
A- Laringospasm
B- Bronchospasm
C- Hypotension
D- Hypothermia
Q71: Which of the following represents the function of occlusal (night)
A- Reduce mobility
B- Prevent bruxism
C- Increase attachment level
D- Redistribute forces on the teeth
ANS:D it doesn’t prevent bruxism, it eliminates its effects on teeth by distributing forces
Q72: The difference between a 330 carbide bur and 245 carbide bur is
A- The 245 creates sharp line angles whereas the 330 bur creates rounded line angles
B- The head of a 245 bur is narrower than the head of a 330 bur
C- The head of a 245 bur is longer than the head of a 330 bur
D- The 245 is tapered
Q73: Which of the following refers to a decreased occlusal vertical
A- Vertical dimension that leaves the teeth in a clenched, closed relation in normal position
B- Occluding vertical dimension that results in a excessive interocclusal clearance when the mandible is
in rest position
C- Insufficient amount of interarch distance because of the bony ridges
D- Condition in which the patient cannot open mandible because of temporomandibular joint pathology
Q74: Which of the following is NOT an indication for removal of a third molar?
A- The presence of bony pathology
B- History of repeated pericoronal infections
C- Prevent crowding and displacement of the incisor teeth
D- Advanced, generalized periodontal disease that endangers the second molar
Q75: The decision to reduce a cusp and restore it should be based primarily
upon which principle?
A- Outline form
B- Retention form
C- Resistance form
D- Convenience form
Q76: A patient says, “I have been avoiding coming to see you because there
is an ugly, red sore spot on the roof of my mouth”. Which of the following
responses by the dentist best exemplifies a reflective response?
A-“Has you diet changed lately”
B-“You really shouldn’t worry about it”
C-“Don’t be afraid, I’ll take a careful look”
D-“You should have had something like that looked at right away”
E-‘It sounds as if you’re quite concerned about this condition”
Q77: Filtration is used in dental x-ray machines to remove
A- Scatter radiation photons
B- High energy electrons
C- Long wavelength photons
D- Low energy electrons
Q78: In examining a maintenance patient, the dentist observes residual
calculus, bleeding on probing, and probing depths less than 5 mm. The
dentist should do which of the following?
A- Scaling and root planing
B- Osseous surgery
C- Continued maintenance
D- Open flap debridement
ANS:D some suggested a , but it is a secondary visit , it means dentist failed to
eliminate all the calculus at the first visit , maybe because improper access or
visualization , so the suggested tt here to open flap for debridement
Q79: Which of the following sealer components interferes with composite
resin polymerization?
A- Zinc oxide
B- Zinc stearate
C- Polyvinyl resin
D- Eugenol
Q80: Which of the following is LEAST important in determining the outline
form a class III composite restoration?
A- Convenience for access
B- Extension for prevention
C- Size, shape, and location of caries
D- Esthetics
Q81: A 9 year old presents with acute gingival pain of four days duration.
There are small, round ulcers on the interproximal gingival and buccal
mucosa. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A- Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
B- Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
C- Apthous stomatitis
D- Gingival abscess
Ans:B or A , STILL NOT CONFIRMED , NUG is not seen in childs nor in buccal
mucosa , and herpes the interdental papillae is intact , so check this please
Q82: Compared to permanent molars, primary molars have
A- Comparatively higher pulp horns
B- Thicker enamel caps
C- Less pronounced cervical constrictions
D- Deeper occlusal fissures
Q83: If there is insufficient space between the maxillary tuberosity and the
retromolar pad, then the dentist should
A- Open the articulator to gain space
B- Avoid covering the pad with the mandibular base
C- Avoid covering the macillary tuberosity
D- Surgically reduce the occlusal aspect of the tuberosity
Q84: Which of the following factors has the LEAST effect on the prognosis of
a periodontally involved tooth?
A- Degree of mobility
B- Suppuration from the pocket
C- Amount of attachment loss
D- Degree of furcation involvement
Q85: Which of the following represents the purpose of periapical palpation?
A- To evaluate the gingival involvement of pulpal disease
B- To determine if the periapical inflammatory process has penetrated the cortical bone
C- To improve the tactile skills of the clinician relative to periapical disease
D-To massage localized swelling of the alveolar tissue to promote drainage
Q86: In treating a tooth with both endodontic and periosontic involment,
which of the following would the dentist perform first?
A- Antibiotic regimen
B- Endodontic therapy
C- Periodontic therapy
D- Endodontic and periodontic therapies should be performed simultaneously
ANS:B endo first
Q87: Pressure on the midpalatine suture will improve
A- Denture retention only
B- Denture stability only
C- Both denture retention and denture stability
D- Neither denture retention nor denture stability
ANS:D it is a relief area
Q88: The incisal guide table is designed to
A- Allow selective grinding of anterior teeth
B- Prevent overclosure of the vertical dimension
C- Prevent posterior cusps from exceeding the condyle angle
D- Protect the function and arrangement of anterior teeth
Q89: Pseudomembranous colitis can occur most readily after prolonged oral
administration of which of the following drugs?
A- Erythromycin
B- Penicillin V
C- Clindamycin
D- Sulfisoxazole
E- Azithromycin
Q90: Trough the bloodborne Pathogen Standard, the Occupational Safety and
Health Administration (OSHA) directs all health-care workers, in carrying out
infection control, to use universal precautions.
- Based on these OSHA guidelines, patients identified as carriers of bloodborne pathogens require special infection-control considerations
A- Both statements are true
B- Both statements are false
C- The first statement is true, the second is false
D- The first statement is false, the second is true
Q91: Which finding would most likely suggest a non-odontogenic toothache?
A- Pain intensified by heat
B- Local anesthesia does not eliminate pain
C- Dull, aching, throbbing pain
D- Pain intensity changing over time
Q92: A patient complains of pain, trismus, fever and dysphagia associated
with and impacted third molar. The best course of action for this patient is
A- Curettage utilizing local anesthesia
B- Prescription of a nonsteroideal anti-inflamatory agent
C- Referral to an oral an maxillofacial surgeon
D- Immediate extraction of the offending tooth
Q93: For the porcelain veneer preparation, the standard amount of tooth
reduction in the middle one third of the facial surface is
A- 0.3 mm
B- 0.5 mm
C- 0.8 mm
D- 1.0 mm
Q94: What should the dentist use to begin managing an apprehensive 5 year
old child?
A- Voice control
B- Oral sedation
C- Tell-show-do technique
D- Nitrous oxide/oxygen conscious sedation
Q95: Sensitivity to cold and pressure 2 weeks after cementation of a
posterior crown is most likely related to
A- Occlusal trauma
B- Luting agent
C- Vertical root fracture
D- Food impaction
Q96: Which form external root resorption is associated with pulpal necrosis?
A- Inflamatory
B- Replacement
C- Surface
D- Idiopathic
Q97: When designing a clinical study, one uses the power of the statistical
test to accomplish which of the following?
A- Measure validity
B- Set the alpha level
C- Reject the null hypothesis
D- Determine sample size
What is the strongest point of statistics?
A. P value
B. Reject null hypothesis
C. Validity
D. Reject alternative hypothesis
In a clinical trial, what would the power of statistical test be used for
a-determine the alpha
b-determine validity
c-determine size of sample group
Q98: Which type of root resorption results in ankylosis?
A- Inflamatory
B- Replacement
C- Internal
D- External
Q99: - Which of the following can have prodromal symptoms which mimic
dental pulp pain?
A- Cytomegalovirus infection
B- Herpangina
C- Herpes zoster
D- Primary herpetic stomatitis
Q100: The drug of choice for marked bradycardia is which of the following?
A- Atropine
B- Epinephrine
C- Propanolol
D- Calcium chloride
Q101: Diagnostic radiology is based on which of the following ineractions of
X-radiation with matter?
A- Thompson effect
B- Pair production
C- Photoelectric effect
D- Photonuclear disintegration
Q102: Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the connective tissue
graft procedure?
A- Good gingival color match
B- Requirement of two Surgical sites
C- High predictability for root coverage
D- Palatal donor site can be completely sutured closed
Q103: Rubella embryopathy is an example of which of the following causes of
mental retardation?
A- Generic
B- Cultural
C- Acquired
D- Chromosomal
Q104: Which part of the cutting edge of the curet should be adapted to the
line angle of the tooth?
A- Lower third
B- Middle third
C- Upper third
D- Entire cutting edge
Q105: After a patient places an aspirin directly on his oral tissue for an
extended period time, the tissue become white. Which of the following
accounts for this change in color?
A- Edema
B- Necrosis
C- Acanthosis
D- Hyperkeratosis
E- Vasoconstriction
Q106: The complement cascade is activated by the
A- B-cells
B- T-cells
C- Lymphokines
D- Immune complex
Q107: Primary dentition calcification begins at
A- 2 months in utero
B- 4 months in utero
C- 8 months in utero
D- Birth
Q108: Which is the best approach for a a patient who becomes very
uncomfortable when a planned surgical procedure is discussed?
A- Explain post-operative instruction only after the procedure
B- Explain post-operative instructions, obtain informed consent, and help the patient to resolve anxiety
before the procedure
C- Explain and obtain only informed consent before the procedure, and apologize for making the patient
D- Explain and obtain informed consent before the procedure and explain post-operative instructions
after the procedure
Cause post operative instruction is discuss after not befor procedure
ANS:B you need to relax the patient first , some suggested D , I ll do with b
Q109: A patients with a large composite resin restoration placed 1 year ago
reports sensitivity in the tooth. Which of the following is the most likely
A- Trauma
B- Fracture of the restoration
C- Microleakage of the restoration
D- Pulpal reaction to the phosphoric acid
Q110: Angioedema is associated with which of the following medications?
A- Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
B- Calcium channel blockers
C- Beta-blockers
D- Diuretics
Q111: Periodontal maintenance following completion of active periodontal
A- Should only be done by periodontist
B- Should be tailored to the needs of the individual patient
C- Is not a cost-effective approach for ongoing patient care
D- Requires strict adherence to a 6-month interval
Q112: Which pigmented lesion of the oral cavity will resolve spontaneously?
A- Varix
B- Hematoma
C- Ephelis
D- Oral melanocic macule
Q113: - Naltrexone (Revia) can be used
A- To treat strong pain
B- In opioid rehabilitation program
C- To treat diarrhea
D- To manage muscle tremors
Q114: What is the optimal average amount of fluoride, in ppm, for public
drinking water of most communities?
A- 0.5
B- 0.7
C- 1.0
D- 1.2
Q115: Which of the following is the most important factor in determining
patient satisfaction with dentures?
A- Dentist-patient relationship
B- Bone height for denture fit
C- Patient personality traits
D- Technical quality of the denture
E- Cultural definitions of esthetics
Q116: After receiving an inferior alveolar nerve block the patient develops a
needle track infection. Which of the following anatomic spaces might have
been involved?
A- Temporal
B- Submandibular
C- Pharyngeal
D- Pterygoid
Q117: Which of the following conditions describes steatorrhea, increased
pulmonary mucous retention, chronic respiratory infections, and functional
disturbance in secretory mechanisms of various glands including elevated
sodium chloride in the sweat?
A- Lead poisoning
B- Cystic fibrosis
C- Juvenile onset diabetes
Q118: Which of the following is the diameter, in millimeters, of a 21 mm long,
#35 K-file at D16?
A- 0.35
B- 0.41
C- 0.67
D- 0.74
A file has two designated points called D0 and D16. D0 is the starting point of the file and D16 is the point
where the cutting/abrasive part or in other words the flutes/blades end. Distance between these two points
is fixed at 16 mm. Doesn’t matter however long the file is, the distance between D0 and D16 is always 16 mm.
Now, the diameter at D0 is hundredth part of the size of file. So here file #35 would have diameter at D0 as
0.35 mm. If not specifically mentioned the general taper of the file is 0.02mm per mm. So as you move
upwards to D16 from D0, each mm adds 0.02 mm in diameter.
Total 16 mm adds 0.2 * 16= 0.32mm and the diameter at D0 was already 0.35mm so at D16 would be 0.35 +
0.32 = 0.67 mm.
Q119: Which of the following agents is active against herpes simplex virus,
varicella-zoster virus, and cytomegalovirus?
A- Amantadine (Symmetrel)
B- Zidovudine (Retrovir)
C- Ribavirin (Virazole)
D- Valacyclovir (Valtrex)
Q120: Which of the following would be the best orthognathic surgical option
for a patient that has an 8mm anterior open bite?
A- LeFort I osteotomy
B- Intraoral vertical oblique osteotomy
C- Sagittal split osteotomy
D- Sliding genioplasty
Q121: Some metal elements used in ceramic restorations have been known
to cause reactions in patients. The most common causative element is
A- Cobalt
B- Nickel
C- Chromium
D- Beryllium
Q122: Which of the following analgesics has the greatest margin of safety for
a patient with renal disease?
A- Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B- Flurbiprofen
C- Ibuprofen (Motrin)
D- Ketoprofen
E- Keterolac (Toradol)
Q123: - The epithelium of a free autogenous gingival graft undergoes
degeneration at the recipient site
- Genetic information as to the nature of the epithelium overlying the
connective tissue is contained within the graft connective tissue
A- Both statement are true
B- Both statement are false
C- The first statement is true, the second is false
D- The first statement is false, the second is true
Q124: Three months ago, an epidemiologist conducted clinical examinations
to assess the dental caries experience of elementary school children. The
study could best described as
A- Retrospective
B- Case- control
C- Cross-sectional
D- Prospective
Q125: Which of the following is used primarily as filter material in a dental Xray machine?
A- Oil
B- Lead
C- Aluminum
D- Tungsten
E- Molybdenum
Q126: In arranging the patient’s maxillary anterior teeth, the dentist should
create a pleasant, natural-looking smile line. This can be done by contouring
the incisal edge to follow the
A- Lower lip when smiling
B- Upper lip when smiling
C- Lower lip without smile
D- Upper lip without smile
Q127: Which of the following is NOT a clinical presentation of oral
A- Erythematous patch
B- White, hyperplastic patch
C- White, curd-like patch
D- Ulcerative patch
Q128: In conducting a patient interview, the dentist should begin by asking
questions that are general, because it provides the patient with a greater
opportunity to express his or her concerns and emotions
A- Both statement and the reason are correct and related
B- Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
C- The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
D- The Statement in NOT correct, but the reason is correct
E- NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct
Q129: -What pathogenic microbiota is most likely associated with a failing
A- Gram-positive facultative cocci
B- Gram-negative facultative cocci
C- Gram-negative anaerobic rods
D- Gram-positive anaerobic rods
Q130: What is true regarding wheelchair transfers?
A- A wheelchair-bound patient is often the best source of how to do the transfer
B- The patient should be asked to remove his/her catheter and collection bag before attempting the
C- The patient’s belt should not be used during transfer process
D- Sliding board transfers continue to be the best approach
Q131: Which of the following is NOT true regarding orthodontic tooth
A- Blood flow within the PDL is altered after force application
B- Pulpal tissue activates a neural response
C- Chemical changes in the compressed PDL stimulate cellular differentiation
D- Oxygen tension is increased in some areas of the PDL and decreased in other areas.
Q132: The dentist places a MOD amalgam restoration on tooth 30. The
patient bites down immediately after carving, and the marginal ridge
fractures easily. Which amalgam properties contributed to this failure?
A- Creep
B- Resilience
C- Edge strength
D- Setting time
Q133- Which of the following is NOT an internal line angle found in a distoocclusal (DO) class II cavity preparation?
A- Axio pulpal
B- Axio gingival
C- Distoaxial
D- Mesio facial
Q134- When used for intravenous conscious (moderate) sedation, midazolam
(Versed) produces
A- Amnesia
B- Analgesia
C- Antitussive activity
D- Cardiovascular depression
Q135- Perforation at which of the following sites has the poorest prognosis?
A- At the apex
B- 3mm coronal to the apex
C- 3mm apical to the gingival sulcus
D- 3mm coronal to the gingival sulcus
Q136- Auxilliary resistance from features in fixed dental prostheses such as
boxes and grooves should ideally be located?
A- Facially
B- Lingually
C- Occlusally
D- Proximally
Q137- If a local anesthetic without a vasoconstrictor is required, then which
of the following local anesthetics should be used?
A- Procaine
B- Benzocaine
C- Lidocaine
D- Articaine
E- Mepivacaine
Q138- Which of the following causes speech problems in a patient with cleft
A- Inability of the tongue to close the nasopharyngeal air flow
B- Inability of the soft palate to close the nasopharyngeal air flow
C- Poorly aligned teeth that make articulation difficult
D- Poor nasal resonance because of oroantral fistula
Q139- Which of the following is a disadvantage of using an elastomeric
material for making an interocclusal registration?
A- The material offers too much resistance to the jaw closure
B- The fragility of elastomeric records requires handing with extreme care
C- There is a potential for inaccurate mounting of casts due to rebound of the material
D- The material lacks adequate long term stability
Q140- Which of the following represents the initial consideration in the
treatment planning progress?
A- Medical/systemic evaluation
B- Periodontal evaluation
C- Radiographic evaluation
D- Elimination of pain and discomfort
Q141- Which of the following dental treatments require antibiotic prophylaxis
fot those at risk for infective bacterial endocarditis?
A- Local anesthesic injections
B- Shedding of primary teeth
C- Mucosal or lip lacerations
D- Periapical surgery
Q142- An HIV-infected patient’s viral load is 100,000 and T cell count is 30.
Which of the following statements is true?
A- There is no contraindication to providing treatment
B- The virus is under control suggesting improved ability to resist infection
C- The virus is almost under control and there is low risk for infection
D- The T cell count is low, putting the patient at risk for infection and complications
Q143- What is the most common form of wound healing after a periodontal
flap surgery?
A- Long junctional epithelium
B- New connective tissue attachment
C- Connective tissue adhesion
D- Regeneration of the new periodontal ligament, cementum and bone
Surgery =regeneration
Srp=new attachment
Q144- Which of the following statements most describes the purpose of using
sodium hypochlorite during biomechanical preparation?
A- Dissolves necrotic tissue
B- Reduces hemorrhage
C- Produces cavitation
D- Chelates inorganic tissue
Q145- The purpose of electronic pulp testing is to differentiate
A- Various stages of pulpitis
B- Normal pulp from diseased pulp
C- Between pulpitis and periodontitis
D- Between responsive and unresponsive pulpal nerves
Q146- A Patient who has been wearing a maxillary denture for 15 years
notices multiple, reddened, nodular lesions on his palate. The lesions are soft
and painless. The most likely diagnosis is
A- Torus palatinus
B- Epulis fissuratum
C- Nicotinic stomatitis
D- Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
Q147- Which of the following best describes the outcome of and intrapulpal
anesthetic injection?
A- Provides anesthesia by back-pressure
B- Control intrapulpal hemorrhage
C- Does not create any period of discomfort during injection
D- Usually provides anesthesia after 30 seconds of depositing anesthetic
Q148- Smokeless tobacco has NOT been associated with which of the
A- Tooth abrasion
B- Gingival recession
C- Verrucous carcinoma
D- Nicotine stomatitis
E- Squamous cell carcinoma
Q149- Opiates do NOT produce which of the following effects?
A- Diuresis
B- Euphoria
C- Mental clouding
D- Cough suppression
E- Respiratory depression
Q155:A 6-year-old patient exhibits defiant behavior at a recall examination.
Which of the following techniques is indicated for the examination?
A- Conscious sedation
B- General anesthesia
C- Physical restraint
D- Voice control
Ans: D
Q156: Which of the following is the most frequent cause of porosity in a
porcelain restoration?
A- Moisture contamination
B- Excessive firing temperature
C- Rapid cooling
D- Inadequate porcelain condensation
Ans: D
Q157: A 21-year-old male has a painless, compressible and fluctuant, slowly
growing enlargement of the anterior midline of the neck. Which of the following
is the most likely diagnosis?
A- Squamous cell carcinoma
B- Branchial cleft cyst
C- Thyroglossal duct cyst
D- Epidermoid cyst
Ans: c
Q158: Which of the images below can best be used to visualize the integrity of
the zygomatic arches?
A- Panoramic
B- Waters view
C- Lateral oblique
D- CT scan
Ans: D
Q159: Dens invaginatus is most commonly associated with which tooth?
A- Maxillary central incisor
B- Mandibular central incisor
C- Maxillary lateral incisor
D- Mandibular lateral incisor
Ans: c
Q160: Which of the following anatomic structures CANNOT be seen on
periapical radiographs?
A- Mental foramen
B- Hamular process
C- Mandibular foramen
D- Anterior nasal spine
E- Intermaxillary (median palatine) suture
Ans: C
Q161: A child watches her older brother receive dental treatment. The dentist
notices that the next time the child is in the dental chair her behavior is greatly
improved. This is an example of
A- Classical conditioning
B- Primary reinforcement
C- Modeling
D- Cognitive coping strategy
Ans: C
Q162: Each of the following is a property of sodium hypochlorite EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A- Chelating agent
B- Lubricating agent
C- Solvent of necrotic tissue
D- Antimicrobial agent
Ans: A
Q163: Patients with Sjogren syndrome are at increased risk for developing
A- Carcinoma
B- Sarcoma
C- Lymphoma
D- Leukemia
Ans: C
164. Which of the following is the best initial treatment for a patient with
localized aggressive periodontitis?
A- Dental prophylaxis plus subgingival irrigation
B- Dental prophylaxis
C- Scaling and root planing
D- Scaling and root planing plus systemic antibiotics
Ans: D
165. The strength of a soldered connector is best increased by
A- Using a higher carat solder
B- Electroplating the joint with gold prevent corrosion
C- Increasing its dimension in a direction parallel to the applied force
D- Increasing its dimension in a direction perpendicular to the line applied force
E- Increasing the with of the joint by having a space of at least 0.5 inch between
the parts to be soldered
Ans: C
166.Which of the following odontogenic lesions occurs most frequently
A- Ameloblastoma
B- Odontoma
C- Ameloblastic fibroma
D- Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
Ans: b
Less recurrence tumor
Compound odontoma
167: A radiograph of a 12-year-old child’s asymptomatic permanent maxillary
right central incisor reveals an obliterated root canal. Which of the following is
the treatment of choice?
A- Extraction
B- Apicoectomy
C- Endodontic therapy
D- Periodic observation
Ans: D
168: Microscopic suprabasal intraepithelial bullae and acantholysis characterize
which of the following diseases?
A- Pemphigus vulgaris
B- Erythema multiforme
C- Lupus erythematosus
D- Mucous membrane pemphigoid
Q169: A patient with syphilis is highly infectious during which of the following
A- Secondary stage only
B- Tertiary stage only
C- Primary and secondary stages
D- Primary, secondary, and tertiary stages
Ans: A
Q170: Rising with a new mouthrinse results in a statistically significant decrease
in the Gingival Index (GI) score, but does NOT result in improved oral health for
the patient. This finding suggest which of the following?
A- Non-clinical significance
B- Double-blind study
C- Improper study desing
D- Bias
Ans: A
Q171: Which of the following agents is available in the form of troches for the
topical treatment of oral candidiasis?
A- Ketoconazole (Nizoral)
B- Intraconazole (Sporanox)
C- Clotrimazole (Mycelex)
D- Fluconazole (Diflucan)
Q172: Upon mastication, a patient has severe pain in a mandibular first molar.
Clinical examination reveals furcal bone loss, a sinus tract that is draining
through the sulcus, normal interproximal bone height, and no response to
vitality testing. The treatment of choice is
A- Root canal treatment only
B- Periodontal therapy only
C- Periodontal therapy first, then root canal treatment, should the lesion not
D- Root canal treatment first, then periodontal therapy, should the lesion not
Q173: Which of the following is NOT one of the major classes of drugs used to
treat angina?
A- Thiazides it is a diuretic
B- Beta-blockers
C- Nitrates and nitrites
D- Calcium channel blockers
Q174: Which of the following can best determine asymptomatic apical
A- Ice test
B- Radiographs
C- Electric pulp test
D- Transilumination
Ans: B
- Asymptomatic Apical Periodontitis is inflammation and destruction of the apical
periodontium that is of pulpal origin. It
appears as an apical radiolucency and does not present clinical symptoms (no pain on percussion or
Q175: Infections arising from the periapical region of mandibular third molars
perforate through the lingual cortex to the
A- Pterygomaxillary space
B- Submental space
C- Sublingual space
D- Submandibular space
Ans: D
Q176: What is the best indicator of periodontal stability over time for the
patient on periodontal maintenance therapy?
A- Plaque control
B- Bleeding on probing
C- Probing depths
D- Attachment levels
Ans: B
Q177: Hypotensive effect and itching from oxycodone is due, in part, to its
A- Allergenicity
B- Release of histamine
C- Antispasmodic effect
D- Cardiac depressant effect
E- Excitation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone
Ans: b
Q178: A 45-year-old patient has undergone scaling and root planing in all 4
quadrants. The oral hygiene of the patient is excellent but generalized 5 mm
and 6 mm pockets remain that bleed upon probing. What is the next step and
the best treatment for the patient?
A- Periodontal surgery
B- Maintenance therapy
C- local drug delivery
D- additional round of scaling and root planning
Ans: a
Q179: A dentist considers using nitrous-oxide conscious sedation for a patient.
This type of sedation will be contraindicated, however, if the patient has a
history of which of the following?
A- Psychosis mean mental disorder
B- Chronic pain
C- Hypertension
D- Dental anxiety
E- Depression
Ans: A
Q180: A patient’s measured stimulated salivary flow volume is 0.5 ml/minute.
The term that best describes this condition is
A- Xerostomia
B- Normal salivary flow
C- Hyposalivation
D- Hypersalivation
q181:Which of the following is NOT true regarding topical fluoride?
A- Promotes remineralization of surface enamel
B- Inhibits bacterial plaque glycolysis
C- Has a direct antibacterial effect on plaque
D- Enhances enamel pit and fissure coalescence
‫ التحام‬coalescence mean
and that can be seen only if pt take systemic f
Q182:A diabetic child is experiencing insulin shock in a dental office. In
managing this emergency, the dentist should immediately
A- Administer oxygen
B- Have the child drink a glass of orange juice
C- Administer xylitol by mouth
D- Administer insulin
Q183 : An extended course of cortisone therapy can produce
A- Osteoporosis
B- Osteopetrosis
C- Osteoclerosis
D- Osteochondritis
Q184: Which of the following symptoms or clinical findings would indicate that a
tooth has an irreversible pulpitis?
A- Spontaneous toothaches
B- Sensitivity to sweets
C- Radiographic evidence of pulpitis
D- Sensitivity to palpation of the mucoperiosteum
Q185: A patient with hypertension arrives for a scheduled crown preparation
appointment with a blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 90
bpm. The initial response by the dentist should be to
A- Call the patient’s physician
B- Reschedule the patient
C- Have the patient take nitroglycerin
D- Wait 15 minutes to re-take vital signs
Q186:A 55-year-old patient with a history of angina pectoris requires extraction
of several teeth. Which of the following should NOT apply to this patient?
A- Preoperative sedation
B- Preoperative sublingual nitroglycerin
C- Preoperative prophylaxis with an antibiotic
D- Limiting the local anesthetic with epinephrine 1:100,000 to 4 ml
Q187:According to ADA recommendations, a professionally applied topical
neutral sodium fluoride application should remain in contact with teeth for
A- 1 minute
B- 2 minute
C- 3 minute
D- 4 minute
Q188: Repeated fracture of a metal ceramic partial fixed dental prosthesis
is primarily caused by
A- Insufficient retention form
B- Improper firing schedule
C- Failure to use a metal conditioner
D- Inadequate framework design
Q189: Which of the following is most likely to result from prolonged use of
antibiotics in children?
A- Candidiasis
B- Histiocytosis X
C- Ulceromembranous stomatitis
D- Lichen planus
Q190: Which of the following mesial root surfaces is unlikely to be
thoroughly cleaned with the use of floss?
A- Maxillary central incisor
B- Mandibular fist premolar
C- Maxillary first premolar
D- Mandibular first molar
Q191: A
posterior tooth has a large carious lesion extending
subgingivally. Which of the following is the best initial treatment?
A- Endodontic therapy
B- Crown lengthening surgery
C- Caries excavation
D- Crown fabrication
Q192: Which characteristic is most frequently associated with
A- Maxillary location
B- History of radiation therapy with 42.50 Gy (4,250 rads)
C- History of bisphosphonate usage
D- Mandibular location
ANS:mostly d
Q193: What is the most likely cause for hemorrhage 3 day after removal of a
mandibular third molar?
A- Vascular fragility
B- Platelet deficiency
C- Prothrombin deficiency
D- Fibrinolysis
Ans: D
Q195: The primary etiologic factor associated with periodontal
attachment loss in a furcation is the presence of
A- Occlusal trauma
B- Accessory root canals
C- Oral biofilm
D- Cervical enamel projections
Q196: A patient has received a new mandibular removable dental prosthesis. Soon
afterward, the throat of this patient becomes sore. Which of the following has
probably caused this soreness?
A- An overextension of the distofacial flange
B- An overextension of the distolingual flange
C- An impingement of the lingual bar upon the patient’s lingual frenum
D- An insufficient relief provided for the lingual bar
Q197: An 82-year-old presents as new dental patient. The son provides paperwork
that names the patient’s guardian. How will that impact the dentit’s approach to
A- Does not impact care if a first degree relative has brought the patient to the
B- The guardian must be consulted for consent to treat the patient
C- The patient may provide consent to care
D- The guardianship applies to consent involving only irreversible procedures
Q198: The access opening for a maxillary central incisor of a 14-year-old patient is
triangular in shape
A- To establish straight line access
B- Due to the shape of the crown
C- To include any remnants of pulp horns within the access opening
D- To facilitate the final restoration of the access opening
Q199: 20mg doxycycline hyclate’s primary mechanism of action is
A- Breackdown of the phospholipid bilayer
B- Inhibition of DNA gyrase
C- Inhibition of the 50s ribosomal subunit
D- Inhibition of collagenase
Q200: Which of the following would be the first step to perform during
a reevaluation appointment?
A- Establish a plan for maintenance intervals
B- Identify need for additional therapy
C- Update medical history
D- Determine plaque index
Q201: A patient has a 7-years-old chipped porcelain veneer on tooth 9
and desires to have the veneer repaired instead of replaced. Which of the
following should be done to the porcelain before repairing with
A- Pumice, etch, bonding resin, silanate
B- Sandblast, etch, bonding resin
C- Silanate, pumice, bonding resin
D- Micro-etch, etch, silanate, bonding resin
Q202: Beclomethasone (Beconase AQ) is used for bronchial asthma
because it
A- Has a short duration of action
B- Stimulates beta adrenergic receptors in the lung
C- Produces little adrenal suppression when administered by inhalation
D- Is only effective orally
E- Is less potent than cortisol
Ans: A
Q203: What would be found in a patient with untreated acromegaly?
A- Excessive mandibular growth
B- Excessive maxillary growth
C- An anterior deep bite
D- A posterior open bite
Q204: When designing a clinical study, one uses the power of the statistical test to
accomplish which of the following?
A- Measure validity
B- Set the alpha level
C- Reject the null hypothesis
D- Determine sample size
Q205: A dental office employee wishes to verify that instruments have been sterilized.
Which of the following methods is most accurate?
A- Place indicator tape on the instruments
B- Use biological monitors
C- Examine the sterilizer packages for color changes
D- Observe the temperature gauge on the sterilizing unit
Q206: Phenytoin is most often recommended for controlling which of the following
A- Status epilepticus
B- Tonic-clonic (grand mal)
C- Absence epilepsy (petit mal)
D- Myoclonic seizure in childhood
Q207: What is the easiest method for examining a 12-month-old child?
A- Child in the dental chair and parent at chairside
B- Parent in the dental chair and the child sitting on parent’s lap
C- Dentist and parent in a knee-to-knee position whit the child’s head on dentist’s lap
D- Dentist and parent in a knee-to-knee position with the child’s head on parent’s lap
Q208: Which of the following has been most strongly implicated in the cause of aphthous
A- Cytomegalovirus
B- Allergy to tomatoes
C- Herpes simplex virus
D- Staphylococcal organisms
E- Human leukocyte antigens
Q209: Which of the following represents the best way to increase a patient’s pain
A- Stress that pain does not signify damage
B- Tell the patient that the procedure will be completed soon
C- Tell the patient that he/she should be able to tolerate the pain
D- Increase the patient’s sense of control over the denture of the pain
Q210: A normal stimulated salivary flow rate for an adult patient should be
A- .01 mL per minute
B- 0.1 mL per minute
C- 1.0 mL per minute
D- 10 mL per minute
Q211: The decision to replace an existing amalgam restoration should be made as soon as
the restoration exhibits
A- Creep
B- Recurrent caries
C- Corrosion and tarnish
D- Ditching around occlusal margings
Q212: A child’s behavior problem can be managed by desensitization if the basis of the
problem is
A- Pain
B- Fear
C- Emotional
D- The parents
Q213: Drug-induced hypnosis can be produced by depressing which of the following?
A- Cerebellum
B- Hypothalamus
C- limbic system for emotion
D- Reticular activating system
Q214: Surgical flap access therapy is indicated and most beneficial when used
A- For those early to moderate defects not resolved with initial therapy
B- As the initial treatment for patients having extremely heavy subgingival calculus
C- To eliminate pocketing more rapidly so the patient can proceed with treatment
D- To improve plaque control effectiveness in patients having difficult achieving good plaque
Q215: Auxiliary resistance from features in fixed dental prostheses such as boxes and grooves should
ideally be located?
A- Facially
B- Lingually
C- Occlusally
D- Proximally
Q216: Informed consent reflects which of the following ethical principles?
A- Justice
B- Autonomy
C- Beneficence
D- Nonmaleficense
Q217: Which of the following most closely resembles normal parotid gland histologically?
A- Pleomorphic adenoma
B- Monomorphic adenoma
C- Acinic cell carcinoma
D- Adenoid cystic carcinoma
Q218: A developmentally-disabled patient should be treated with
A- Flattery
B- Deference
C- Consistency
D- Permissiveness
How should u act in the following cases:
1-Autistic kid =TSD
2-disabled kid =consistency
3-developmentally-disabled patient =consistency
4- disable and uncooperative =home using
5- mentally retarded child=premissive
Q219: Which of the following premolars is most likely to have three canals?
A- Maxillary first
B- Maxillary second
C- Mandibular first
D- Mandibular second
Q220: A 14-year-old female has gingival tissues that bleed easily on gentle probing. The color
of the gingiva ranges from light red to magenta. Probing depths range from 1 - 3mm. Some of
the interdental papillae are swollen. Which of the following represents the most likely diagnosis?
A- Gingivitis
B- Localized aggressive periodontitis
C- Herpetic gingivostomatitis
D- Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
Q221: A 65-year-old white male smokes 2 packs of cigarretes per day. He had a heart attack six
weeks ago and continues to have chest pains even while at rest. He is transported to the office by
wheelchair because be becomes extremely short of breath with even mild exertion. The physical
status that best describes the above patients is
A- P.S.I
Q222: A displaced fracture of the mandible courses from the angle to the third molar. This
fracture is potencially difficult to treat with a closed reduction because of
A- Injury to the neurovascular bundle
B- Malocclusion secondary to the injury
C- Compromise of the blood supply to the mandible
D- Distraction of the fracture segments by muscle pull
Q223: Which of the following is the most reliable method for determining the pulp
responsiveness of a tooth with a full coverage crown?
A- Radiographic examination
B- Electric pulp test
C- Thermal test
D- Palpation
Q224: Which of the following statements is true about setting expansion of plaster, stone, and
improved stone (Type IV)?
A- The setting expansion of improved stone is the highest
B- Increasing the spatulation decreases expansion
C- Increasing the water/power ratio decreases the setting expansion
D- Adding water to surface during setting decreases expansion
Q225: The water supply of a community has 0.28 ppm fluoride. Which of the following
procedures is appropiate for a 4-year-old child exhibiting moderate caries risk?
A- Prescribing a fluoride mouthrinse
B- Prescribing a systemic fluoride supplement
C- Applying fluoride topically at each visit
D- Additional fluoride is unnecessary
Q226: Which of the following type(s) of amalgam alloy provide the best clinical durability?
A- High copper spherical only
B- Conventional spherical only
C- High cooper admixture and high cooper spherical
D- High cooper admixture and conventional spherical
Q227: What is the minimum amount of bone needed between 2 adjacent implants?
A- 1mm
B- 2mm
C- 3mm
D- 4mm
Q228: Which of the following would be LEAST likely to lead to the development of root
surface caries on facial surfaces?
A- Low salivary flow
B- Elevated levels of sucrose consumption
C- Streptococcus sanguis dominating adjacent plaque
D- History of head/neck radiation therapy
Q229: A dentist has planned in-office-bleaching and porcelain laminate veneers for a patient’s
maxillary anterior teeth. What would be the best sequence of treatment?
A- Bleaching, 2 week delay, tooth preparation, bonding procedures
B- Bleaching and tooth preparation, 2-5 day delay, bonding procedures
C- Tooth preparation, 2 week delay, bleaching, and bonding procedures
D- Tooth preparation, 2 week delay, bonding, and then bleaching procedures
Q230: Which of the following has been most strongly implicated in the cause of aphthous
A- Cytomegalovirus
B- Allergy to tomatoes
C- Herpes simplex virus
D- Staphylococcal organisms
E- Human leukocyte antigens
Q231: A patient with Stage I medication related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ) with
exposed bone in the maxilla is best treated with
A- Radiation therapy
B- Hyperbaric oxygen
C- Debridement of the area
D- Chlorhexidine rinses
Q232: If a particular test is to correctly identify 95 out of 100 existing disease cases, then that
test would have a
A- Specificity of 95%
B- Sensitivity of 95%
C- Positive predictive value of 95%
D- Validity of 95%
Q233: Disadvantages of oral sedation include which of the following?
A- Multiple drugs needed for proper sedation
B- High incidence and severity of adverse reactions
C- Unpredictable absorption of drugs from the GI tract
D- Short duration of action
Q234: Which of the following directly image the TMJ disc?
A- TMJ tomography
B- TMJ arthrography
C- Panoramic radiography
D- Transcranial radiography
E- Magnetic resonance imaging
Q235: Which of the following explains why the fovea palatini are not used as landmarks for
determining the precise posterior border of maxillary denture base?
A- They have no relation to the vibrating line area
B- They are inconsistent in their relationship to the vibrating line
C- They are opening of mucous glands that should not be covered y the denture border
D- They are located on the horizontal hard palate
Q236: Which of the following might precipitate an asthma attack?
A- Narcotic analgesics
B- Nonsteroidal antiinflamatory drugs
C- Corticosteroids
D- Sympathomimetic amine
Q237: Which of the following factors does NOT impact the development of xerostomia in an
aging population?
A- Chronological age
B- Medications
C- Radiation therapy to the head and neck
D- Systemic disease
Q238: Infections arising from the periapical region of the mandibular first premolars perforate
through the lingual cortex to the
A- Pterygomaxillary space
B- Submental space
C- Sublingual space
D- Submandibular space
Q239: A ‘W” in front of the rubber dam clamp number indicates that the rubber dam clamp
A- Is made from work-hardened metal
B- Has a non-reflective surface
C- Has a wing
D- Is wingless
Q240: A dentist will make impressions for a patient who has an excessive salivary flow. To
decrease the flow, this dentist might appropriately prescribe which of the following drugs?
A- Propantheline (Pro-Banthine)
B- Salsalate (Disalcid)
C- Pilocarpine (Salagen)
D- Neostigmine (Prostigmin)
Q241: The best time perform oral surgery on a patient receiving dialysis 3 times per week is
A- Day of dialysis
B- 1 day before dialysis
C- 1 day after dialysis
D- 2 days after dialysis
Q242: The mother of an 8-year-old patient insists on staying in the room during treatment. In
the past, she seemed to be very overprotective of her child with her body language and
comments. Which were disruptive to treatment. How could the dentist best address this patient’s
A- “You seem really concerned, perhaps you need to be talking with someone about this”
B- I know you care, however you are causing your child to be more upset, no less”
C- “I’m sorry, but I need you to stay in the waiting room so we can get his work done”
D- “I know you are concerned. Please stay in the room, and try to be as positive and quiet as
Q243: The purpose of scaling is to remove acquired deposits on the teeth.
Scaling can be performed on both enamel and root surfaces
A- Both statements are true
B- Both statements are false
C- The first statement is true, the second is false
D- The first statement is false, the second is true
Q244: Mandibular hypoplasia, coloboma of the lower eyelid, and malformations of the prinna
of the ear are fracture of which of the following diseases?
A- Apert Syndrome
B- Cleidocranial dysplasia
C- Mandibulofacial dysostosis (Treacher Collins Syndrome)
D- Crouzon syndrome (craniofacial dysostosis)
Q245: What percent of hydrogen peroxide should be used for debriding and intraoral wound?
A- 3 percent
B- 10 percent
C- 20 percent
D- 37 percent
Q246: During clinical evaluation of a complete crown on a mandibular right first molar, a
premature contact causes the mandible to deviate to the patient’s left. One would expect to see
the interfering contact marked on which surfaces of the crown?
A- Mesial marginal ridge
B- Buccal inclines
C- Mesial inclines
D- Lingual inclines
Q247: At 90 kVp and 15mA at a BID distance of inches, the exposure time for a film is 0.5
seconds. In the same situation, which of the following should represent the exposure time at 16
A- 0.25 seconds
B- 1.0 second
C- 2.0 seconds
D- 4.0 seconds
ANS:C (0.5*4=2.0 SEC)
Q248: A 55-year-old male patient, who is currently prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) 5 mg daily,
requires surgical therapy. What is the most appropiate pre-surgical laboratory test?
A- Fibrinogen time
B- Partial thromboplastin time
C- International normalized ratio
D- Bleeding time
Q249: Dental phobia is classified as a personality disorder
Dental anxiety can result from the pairing of previously innocuous stimuli with an unpleasant
A- Both statements are true
B- Both statements are false
C- The first statement is true, the second is false
D- The first statement is false, the second is true
Q250: Causality (cause and effect) may NOT be inferred from which of the following studies?
A- Cross-sectional
B- Cohort
C- Case-control
D- Clinical trial
Q251: One advantage of using a fiber-reinforced post for restoring an endodontically treated
tooth is that it
A- Has a modulus of elasticity similar to stainless steel
B- Has a modulus of elasticity similar to dentin
C- Is highly radiopaque and easy to visualize on a radiograph
D- Is stronger and more resistant to fracture than a cast metal post
Q252: Which of the following represents the 3 essential factors for the initiation of the carious
A- Bacteria, polysaccharides, and enamel
B- Bacteria, suitable carbohydrate, and susceptible tooth *
C- Lactobacilli, easily fermentable carbohydrate, and susceptible tooth
D- Lactobacilli, suitable substrate, and enamel
Q253: Each of the following is a common cause of denture gagging EXCEPT one. Which is the
A- Inadequate posterior palatal seal
B- Excessive vertical dimension
C- Bulkiness of denture
D- Excessive anterior guidance
Q254: Which of the following is a interference during working movements for a posterior
complete crown restoration?
A- The lingual inclines of mandibular teeth contact the buccal inclines of maxillary teeth
B- The lingual inclines of mandibular teeth contact the lingual inclines of maxillary teeth
C- The buccal inclines of mandibular teeth contact the buccal inclines of maxillary teeth
D- The buccal inclines of mandibular teeth contact the lingual inclines of maxillary teeth
Q255: Which permanent teeth are least often congenitally missing?
A- Lateral incisors
B- Canines
C- Premolars
D- Third molars
Q256: Adolescents undergoing orthodontic treatment often have problems with home oral
hygiene regimens. The MOST effective management plan is to
A- Educate the patient about the importance of oral hygiene when wearing braces
B- Develop a plan of contingent reinforcement for brushing and flossing
C- Refuse to continue treatment unless oral hygiene improves
D- Have parents remind adolescents to brush
E- Provide limited praise for small progress made at each visit
Q257: The most dominant emotional factor in management of 4-to-6-year-old children is fear of
A- Pain
B- The unknown
C- The dentist
D- Being separated from parents
Q258: Which of the following substances is contraindicated for a patient taking ginseng?
A- Penicillin
B- Digitalis
C- Aspirin
D- Alcohol
Q259: Excessive trituration of amalgam should be avoided because it will
A- Cause excessive expansion
B- Cause the amalgam to set prematurely
C- Remain soft for too long
D- Cause the amalgam to lose its anatomy in 24 hours
Q260: Which of the following is most likely the major consideration prior to performing a
A- Amount of attachment loss
B- Measurement probe depth
C- Level of the alveolar crest
D- Width of the attached gingiva
Q261: In which of the following mandibular fracture cases should the intermaxillary fixation be
released earliest?
A- A high condylar fracture
B- A fracture through the site of an impacted third molar
C- An angle fracture and contralateral parasymphyseal fracture
D- A jaw in which the treatment has been delayed by the management of other injuries
Q262: A panoramic radiograph of a 55-year-old female reveals generalized widening of the
periodontal ligament space and bilateral resorption of the mandibular angles. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A- Fibrous dysplasia
B- Progressive systemic sclerosis
C- Osteosarcoma
D- Marfan syndrome
Q263: A new patient presents with severe chronic periodontitis and has a history of two heart
attacks. The patient is not sure when the heart attacks occurred or the severity. The dentist’s next
step in treatment should be to
A- Complete gross scaling to decrease the bacterial load
B- Have the patient rinse with chlorhexidine gluconate (Peridex)
C- Request a consult from the patient’s physician prior to any treatment
D- Confine the treatment to simple restorative procedures
Q264: Which hematologic disorder represents a malignancy of plasma cell origin?
A- Burkitt lymphoma
B- Hemophilia
C- Thalassemia
D- Multiple myeloma
Q265: Plaque microorganisms produce extra-cellular substances that separate one bacterial cell
from another and that form a matrix for further plaque accumulation. This “matrix” is made up
of dextrans and
A- Levans
B- Mucoproteins
C- Disaccharides
D- Monosaccharides
Q266: Which of the following represents a common side effect of the alkylating-type anticancer
drugs such as mechlorethamine (Mustargen)?
A- Ototoxicity
B- Nephrotoxicity
C- Bone marrow depression
D- Accumulation of uric acid
Q267: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a modified Widman Flap procedure?
A- Submarginal incision
B- Replaced flap
C- Inverse bevel incision
D- Flap margin placement at the osseous crest
Q268: A furcation radiolucency in a 5-year-old child’s primary molar is most due to
A- Trauma
B- Pulpal necrosis
C- Normal anatomy
D- Eruption of a premolar
Q269: Which of the following neuralgias is correctly associated with its cranial nerve?
A- Tic douloureux – XII
B- Bell palsy – VII
C- Auriculotemporal syndrome – VI
D- Eagle syndrome – X
Q270: Gingivectomy is NOT indicated when the base of the pocket is located
A- Apical to the alveolar crest
B- Below the free gingival groove
C- Coronal to the cementoenamel junction
D- Apical to the cervical convexity of the tooth crown
Q271: Compared with high noble alloys for metal-ceramic restorations, base metal alloys are
best used for which of the following?
A- Optimum esthetics
B- Single crowns
C- Long-span bridges
D- Patients with allergies to metals
Q272: The pathogenic microorganisms of chronic periodontitis includes each of the following
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A- Porphyromonas gingivalis
B- Prevotella intermedia
C- Tannerella forsythensis
D- Actinomyces viscosus
Q273: What is the indicated treatment for a primary molar with a carious pulp exposure and a
furcation radiolucency?
A- Formocresol pulpotomy
B- Indirect pulp cap
C- Extraction
D- Direct pulp cap
Q274: Regeneration of the periodontal attachment apparatus include
A- Cementum, bone, and periodontal ligament
B- Dentin, cementum, and periodontal ligament
C- Cementum, junctional epitelium, and bone
D- Junctional epithelium, gingival fibers, and periodontal ligament
Q275: Which of the following is NOT true regarding paraphrasing?
A- Paraphrasing is restating the patient’s views in one’s own words
B- Paraphrasing is agreeing with and accepting the other person’s position
C- The secret to good paraphrasing is voicing patient values
D- Paraphrasing is attempt to understand and acknowledge another’s perspective
Q276: Patients with low health literacy are
A- Less likely to ask questions during their dental visits
B- More likely to fail to show for dental appointments
C- Likely to look over written materials and say they don’t understand
D- High school graduates
Q277: A normal unstimulated salivary flow rate for an adult dentate patient should be
A- 0.01 mL per minute
B- 0.1 mL per minute
C- 1.0 mL per minute
D- 10.0 mL per minute
Q278: Which teeth are the most susceptible to recurrence of periodontal disease after active
periodontal treatment is completed?
A- Maxillary premolars because of lateral occlusal forces
B- Mandibular premolars because of non-working interferences
C- Maxillary molars becauses of anatomy of their furcations
D- Mandibular molars because of increased number of cervical enamel projections
Q279: In attempting to correct a single tooth anterior crossbite with a removable appliance,
Which of the following is the most important for the dentist to consider?
A- Making periodic adjustments
B- Incorporating maximum retention
C- Patient’s overbite
D- Making sure there is adequate space
Q280: Which of the following represents the most significant finding regarding ectodermal
A- Multiple osteomas
B- Supernumerary teeth
C- Multiple impacted teeth
D- Sparse hair
Q281: During a routing examination, the dentist sees a large radiolucency at the apex of the
maxillary right first premolar. The tooth is not painful, does not respond to pulp testing, and has
no evidence of a sinus tract. The most probable diagnosis is
A- Asymptomatic apical periodontitis
B- Symptomatic apical periodontitis
C- Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis
D- Chronic apical abscess
Q282: A 32-year-old male patient reports a history of having been hospitalized for psychiatric
evaluation, and is currently taking taking lithium carbonate on a daily basis. Which of the
following diseases does this patient most likely have?
A- Parkinsonism
B- Schizophrenia
C- Bipolar disorder
D- Psychotic depression
E- Paranoia with delusions
Q283: To achieve ideal overjet and overbite in an adult patient with a 16 mm pretreatment
overjet, orthodontic treatment would most likely require
A- Orthodontic tooth movement only
B- Orthognatic surgical treatment only
C- Combined orthodontic/surgical treatment
D- Premolar extraction therapy only
Q284: Which term refers to a physician or dentist performing an operation for which there was
no consent?
A- Assault
B- Nonmaleficence
C- Disclosure
D- Battery
Q285: Which of the following is the best choice to avoid the effect of metamerism?
A- Select a porcelain shade using light only
B- Select the shade that looks optimal under multiple light sources
C- Avoid fluorescent lighting when selecting a porcelain shade
D- Add additional layer of opaque porcelain prior to placing body porcelain
Q286: What is the LEAST likely reason for postoperative sensitivity after a Class I occlusal
composite restoration is placed?
A- Gap formation which allows bacterial penetration into the dentin tubules
B- Gap formation which allows an outward flow of fluid from through the dentin tubules
C- Direct toxic effects of a 15 second acid etc on the pulp
D- Cuspal deformation due to contraction forces of polymerization shrinkage
Q287: Subgingival margin of crown is indicated when
A- Surrounding soft tissue is thick bio-type
B- Porcelain laminate veneer is planned
C- An all-ceramic crown is planned
D- Cemental hypersensitive is suspected
Q288: Which area of the mouth has the LEAST amount of keratinized tissue on the buccal
A- Maxillary incisors
B- Maxillary premolars
C- Mandibular incisors
D- Mandibular premolars
Q289: Pain referred to the ear derives most often from which teeth?
A- Maxillary molars
B- Maxillary premolars
C- Mandibular molars
D- Mandibular premolars
Q290: Most dens invaginatus defects are found in which of the following types of teeth?
A- Maxillary central incisor
B- Maxillary lateral incisor
C- Mandibular first premolar
D- Maxillary first premolar
Q291: The patient should sign the informed consent for surgery
A- At the time of filling out history and insurance forms
B- After medical history and physical examination
C- After formulation by dentist of a surgical treatment plan
D- After a full discussuion of the surgical treatment plan
Q292: Metastatic disease to the oral region is most likely to occur in Which of the following
A- Tongue
B- Posterior maxilla
C- Posterior mandible
D- Floor of the mouth
Q293: Which of the following is the single most important factor affecting pulpal response to
tooth preparation?
A- Heat
B- Remaining dentin thickness
C- Desiccation
D- Invasion of bacteria
Q294: A 16-year-old patient has a long history of mild pain in the area of the mandibular left
first molar. Radiographs reveal deep caries in the tooth with an irregular radiopaque lesion apical
to the mesial root.
Which of the following represents the most likely diagnosis?
A- Periradicular granuloma
B- Condensing osteitis
C- Asymptomatic apical periodontitis
D- Periapical cyst
Q295: Distinctly blue color of the sclera is a feature of Which of the following conditions?
A- Gardner syndrome
B- Osteogenesis imperfecta
C- Hypohydrotic ectodermal dysplasia
D- Stuge-weber angiomatosis
Q296: Glossitis and angular cheilitis are oral manifestations of what type of nutrient deficiency?
A- Calcium
B- Vitamin D
C- Iron
D- Zinc
Q297: Blocking the synthesis of prostaglandins does NOT produce which of the following
A- Antipyresis
B- Increased gastric mucous production
C- Decreased platelet aggregation
D- Decreased renal blood flow
Q298: A patient has only the mandibular anterior teeth remaining. The treatment plan calls for a
maxillary complete denture and mandibular removable partial denture. Which of the following is
desirable in the occlusal scheme?
A- Bilateral simultaneous contact of anterior and posterior teeth in centric relation position
B- Canine guidance with posterior disclusion during excursive movements
C- Bilateral balanced contact during excursive movements
D- Unilateral group function during excursive movements
Q299: An edentulous patient is to be treated using maxillary and mandibular complete dentures.
The patient is healthy and the ridges are well healed. A maxillary torus is present and extends
beyond the area of the proposed posterior palatal seal. Which of the following represents the
treatment of choice?
A- Removal of torus, followed by fabrication of maxillary and mandibular complete dentures
B- Extension of maxillary denture base onto the moveable soft palate to achieve adequate seal
C- Fabrication of a maxillary denture with an open/horshoe palate which avoids the torus
D- The use of relief over the area of the torus during maxillary and mandibular denture
Q300: Leukemia is suspected when a patient demonstrates which of the following sighs or
A- Red sclera
B- Pale conjuntivea
C- Splinter hemorrhage under the finger nails
D- Spontaneous gingival bleeding
Q301: A patient’s mandibular canal is positioned lingually to her mandibular third molar. In
what direction would the canal appear to move on a radiograph, if the X-ray tube were moved
inferiorly (i.e., if the x-ray beam were pointing superiorly)?
A- Apically
B- Mesially
C- Distally
D- Occusally
302: The prostaglandin analog misoprostol (Cytotec) is most commonly used in treating gastric
ulcers associated with
A- Chronic use of anti-inflamatory drug
B- Chronic use of tobacco products
C- Hypersecretory conditions such as Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
D- Hyperactivity of the gastrin-secreting chief cells
Q304: What is the most common side effect when administering nitrous oxide and oxygen?
A- Allergic reaction
B- Respiratory depression
C- Tachycardia
D- Nausea
Q305: Xray shows caries on distal and mesial on one primary tooth, pulp is not involved,
cannot detect lesion clinically, how do you tx?
a) MOD amalgam
b) MO and DO composite
c) MOD composite
d) Stainless steel crown
Q309: Diazepam-mediated effects include
A- Peripherally-acting muscle relaxation
B- Lowering seizure Threshold
C- Anterograde amnesia
D- Analgesia
Q310: Which of the following is related to reciprocal anchorage in orthodontic therapy?
A- Tipping a tooth
B- Extraoral force
C- Equal and opposite forces
D- Bodily movement of a tooth
Q311: A 6-year-old patient exhibits defiant behavior at a recall examination. Which of the
following techniques is indicated for the examination?
A- Conscious sedation
B- General anesthesia
C- Physical restraint
D- Voice control
Q312: Nitrous oxide/oxygen is contraindicated for patients
A- With anxiety
B- With special health care needs
C- With profound local anesthesia
D- In the first trimester of pregnancy
Q313: Diagnostic radiology is based on which of the following interactions of X-radiation with
A- Thompson effect
B- Pair production
C- Photoelectric effect
D- Photonuclear disintegration
Q314: Each of the following would be included in a differential diagnosis of the palatal
pigmentation EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A- Lentigo ‫نمشة‬
B- Melanotic macula ‫اللطخة الميالنية‬
C- Melanocytic nevus ‫وحمة‬
D- Melanotic neuroectodermal tumor
Q315: Paresthesia of the inferior alveolar nerve is most often seen after the fracture of which
area of the mandible?
A- Angle
B- Condyle
C- Symphysis
D- Coronoid process
Q316: Which of the following does NOT produce a pharmacologic decrease in saliva
A- Atropine (AtroPen)
B- Scopolamine (Trasderm-Scop)
C- Pilocarpine (Salagen)
D- Glycopyrrolate (Robinul)
Q317: 1- The patient
A- Is at increased risk for bleeding
B- Is at increased risk for hepatocellular carcinoma
C- Is a potential carrier for hepatitis A
D- Had a disease that does not involve a bloodborne pathogen
2- Which side-effect of sertraline (Zoloft) has implications for the patient’s oral health?
A- Gingival inflammation
B- Salivary hypofunction
C- Tissue hyperplasia
D- Aphthous ulcers
3- The patient states that “all of my teeth are sensitive to hot and cold, and my gums bleed
whenever I brush my teeth”. The initial treatment should involve each of the following EXCEPT
one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A- Full-mouth scalling and root planning
B- Prescription for a desensitizing toothpaste
C- 4 quadrants of periodontal surgery
D- Home care instruction, then follow up visit
4- The most likely cause of the V-shaped radiolucency between the roots of the teeth 2 and 4
would be
A- An idiopathic bone cavity
B- A maxillary sinus pseudocyst
C- Maxillary sinus
D- A radicular cyst
5- Which would NOT be included in a differential diagnosis of the right mandibular
A- Keratocystic odontogenic tumor
B- Ameloblastoma
C- Periapical (radicular) cyst
D- Lateral periodontal cyst
6- Which side-effect of sertraline (Zoloft) has implications for the patient’s oral health?
A- Gingival inflammation
B- Salivary hypofunction
C- Tissue hyperplasia
D- Aphthous ulcers
7- The best initial management for the mandibular radiolucency would be
A- Radiographic follow-up in 6 months
B- Endodontic therapy on tooth 31
C- Incisional biopsy
D- Block resection
8- The technique to image the lingual opacity was
A- An occlusal radiograph
B- A modified panoramic image
C- An axial plane cone beam CT
D- A modified periapical radiograph
9- What is the Angle Classification of the molar relationships?
A- Left Class I, Right Class II
B- Left Class I, Right Class III
C- Left Class II, Right Class I
D- Left Class II, Right Class III
E- Left Class III, Right Class I
10- An exaggerated curve of the occlusal plane and loss of the image clarity of the roots of the
anterior teeth is indicative of a
A- Normal finding
B- Panoramic positioning error
C- Film processing error
D- Developmental disorder
11- Preventive oral health behavior is influenced by each of the following factors EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A- Public policy
B- Social context
C- Psychological factors
D- Access to preventive measures
12- What is the most likely cause of the chalky-white appearance of the enamel of this patient’s
A- Fluorosis
B- Ectodermal dysplasia
C- Amelogenesis imperfecta
D- Dentinogenesis imperfecta
13- Which is true about the position of tooth 27?
A- Missing premolar on the mandibular left has allowed more space for the left canine
B- Mandibular incisors have shifted to the right blocking out the right canine
C- Posterior teeth have drifted mesially more on the mandibular right than the left
D- Right canine has ankylosed whereas the left canine has undergone normal eruption
14- The lesion between teeth 30 and 31 is treated by enucleation and curettage. Each of the
following are risks with this procedure EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A- Devitalization of teeth 30 and 31
B- Damage to the lingual nerve
C- Post-operative infection
D- Damage to the inferior alveolar nerve
E- Lesion recurrence