Download مع تحيات الحكيم: م . بعل Chapter 10: Blood. ( )1

‫ بعل‬. ‫ م‬:‫مع تحيات الحكيم‬
Chapter 10: Blood.
( )1- The process by which white blood cells move into and out of the
blood vessels is called?
a- passive transport.
b- Endocytosis.
c- Phagocytosis.
d- Diapedesis.
( ) 2-A decrease in the oxygen-carrying ability of the blood?
a- is caused from carbon dioxide.
b- leads to thrombocytosis.
c- can lead to an immediate death.
d- is called, in any form, anemia.
( ) 3-The doctor pricks your finger, takes some blood and does a
WBC count. The count indicates 12,500 cells/cubed millimeter. This
is known as leukocytosis. What could you conclude?
a- A low WBC count, caused by certain drugs and anti-cancer agents.
b- You've received a blood transfusion, and are having a transfusion reaction.
c- You are perfectly healthy and no infections in the blood.
d- A highWBC count, indicating a bacterial or viral infection.
( ) 4-While blood typing, the sample is mixed with anti-A serum and
anti-B serum. There is no agglutination. You could conclude?
a- The sample is type O.
b- The sample is type AB.
c- The sample is type B.
d- The sample is type A.
( ) 5- Type O blood is known as
a- The least common blood type among US white population.
b- The universal donor.
c- The universal recipient.
( ) 6- The major function of the water in plasma is?
a- for osmotic balance, pH buffering and clotting of blood.
b- for transport of oxygen and help transport carbon dioxide.
c- a solvent for carrying other substances.
d- for regulation of membrane permeability.
( ) 7-Formed elements of the blood?
a- produce contents of plasma.
b- are megakaryocytes.
c- carry salts and buffer the pH of blood.
d- Include erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets.
٢
( ) 8-The normal pH of blood?
a - 6,-6, 6, 4.
b- is generally slightly acidic.
c- 8,-1, 8, 0.
d- Is about 7.4.
( ) 9-An inadequate hemoglobin content in RBC?
a- can lead to pernicious anemia.
b- Is called hemorrhagic anemia.
c- can be a result of heavy menstrual flow or bleeding ulcer, and called
irondeficiency
anemia.
d- causes sickle-cell anemia.
( ) 10-When a huge number of immatureWBCs are produced in the
bone marrow, it can cause the body to become easy prey for bacteria
and viruses. This is called?
a- leucopenia.
b- anemia.
c- leucopenia.
d- leukemia.
e- leukocytosis.
( ) 11-Erythropoietin controls?
a- production of bone marrow.
b- how much oxygen the RBCs can carry.
c- The kidney by monitoring the amount of oxygen in the blood.
d- The rate of erythrocyte production.
( ) 12-Characteristics of RBC include?
a- Multinucleate when immature, live about 100 days, carry oxygen.
b- Are generated in reticulocyte, take 8 days to form, live 100-120 days.
c- arise from a type of stem cell called hemocytoblast, multinucleate and about
100RBC: 1WBC.
d- anucleate when mature, contain hemoglobin, live 100-120 days.
( ) 13-The rapid sequence of vascular spasms, platelet plug
formation and coagulation is known as?
a- hemostasis.
b- erythropoiesis.
c- hematopoiesis.
d- hemophilia.
( ) 14-A cerebral embolus can be caused from?
a- a clot that breaks away, and attempts to flow through a vessel in the brain that
is too narrow.
b- a freely flowing clot moving throughout the heart.
c- a stroke.
d- a clot remaining in an unbroken blood vessel.
( ) 15-A transfusion reaction is rarely fatal, but can cause /have
these characteristics?
a- fever, chills and nausea.
b- agglutination, causing blockage of small vessels.
c- all of the above.
d- lysing of RBC, releasing hemoglobin into the blood.
( ) 16-During hemostasis, hairlike molecules of protein form, this
protein is?
a- thromboplastin.
b- fibrin.
c- serotonin.
d- Elastin.
( ) 17-A hereditary bleeding disorder, commonly called the
"bleeders disease''?
a- hemophilia.
b- hemocytosis.
c- thrombocytopenia.
d- hematocrit.
( ) 18-A measure of the percent of RBC in whole blood?
a- hemocytometer.
b- Often called the buffy coat.
c- hematocrit.
d- 55%.
( ) 19-A normal salt content in the blood is normal, what is the
function of the salts?
a- to help fight foreign invaders.
b- Osmotic balance, pH buffering and regulation of membrane permeability.
c- blood clotting.
d- solutes carry other substances to the capillaries.
( ) 20-The most numerous white blood cell, which are active
phagocytes and increase rapidly during acute infections?
a- monocyte.
b- basophil
c- eosinophil
d- neutrophil
e- lymphocyte.
( ) 21-Blood does each of the following except?
a- transport nutrients.
b- increase fluid loss.
c- regulate body temperature.
d- regulate pH.
( ) 22-Each of the following occurs when blood clots after a cut
except?
a- thrombin converts fibrin into fibrinogen.
b- thromboplastin converts prothrombin into thrombin.
c- platelets release clotting factor.
d- fibrin filaments trap cells to produce a clot.
( ) 23-Approximately 55 percent of blood is?
a- lymph.
b- plasma.
c- red blood cells.
d- white blood cells.
( ) 24-The fluid that leaks into the tissues from the blood is?
a- useless.
b- plasma.
c- harmfull
d- lymph.
( ) 25-Each of the following is true of red blood cells except that
they?
a- contain hemoglobin.
b- live about 30 days.
c- are anucleate.
d- are formed in the red marrow.
( ) 26-Unlike red blood cells, white blood cells?
a- have a nucleus.
b- contain hemoglobin.
c- are biconcave.
d- live for one week.
( ) 27- The term that is unrelated to the others is?
a- phagocytosis.
b- blood clotting.
c- leukocytes.
d- antibodies.
( ) 28- A protein in the plasma which contributes to the osmotic
pressure of blood?
a- elastin.
b- prothrombin.
c- Albumin.
d- Thrombin.
( ) 29- In a normal hematocrit, the buffy coat accounts for?
a- all of the white blood cells and plasma.
b- approximately 10 percent of whole blood.
c- The top portion of the centrifuged blood.
d- approximately 1 percent of blood volume.
( ) 30- Although it carries much oxygen, it is more attracted to
pesticides and carbon monoxide?
a- white blood cells.
b- plasma.
c- Thrombin.
d- Hemoglobin.
( ) 31- Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are alike in that they?
a- are granulocytes.
b- are the only phagocytic leukocytes.
c- lack a defined nucleus.
d- release histamine.
( ) 32- The largest of all WBCs is the?
a- Neutrophil
b- Eosinophil
c- Monocyte.
d- Lymphocyte.
e- Basophil
( ) 33- The WBC which increases during allergic reactions and
parasitic worm infections?
a- Lymphocytes.
b- Basophils.
c- Neutrophils.
d- Eosinophils.
e- Monocytes.
( ) 34- Fragments of megakaryocytes which rupture into pieces and
responsible for clotting?
a- RBC.
b- antibodies.
c- platelets.
d- WBC.
( ) 35- When oxygen levels are low, the _______ is stimulated to
release-----------------?
a- bone, oxygen.
b- kidney, erythropoietin.
c- bone, erythropoietin.
d- Liver, calcitonin.
( ) 36- Hematopoiesis primarily occurs in?
a- liver.
b- Flat bones & epiphyses of long bones.
c- kidneys.
d- Irregular bones.
( ) 37- A woman with blood type O has a baby with type O. The
father?
a- Could be A, B or O; but in no way AB.
b- Could possibly be AB.
c- Must be type O.
d- Is Rh.
( ) 38- The WBC which has a very thin rim of cytoplasm, thus
having a large spherical nucleus is?
a- Basophil
b- Eosinophil
c- Neutrophil
d- Monocyte.
e- Lymphocyte.
( ) 39- Active macrophages that work in long-term cleanup of
tissues?
a- Neutrophil
b- Eosinophil
c- Lymphocyte.
d- Basophil
e- Monocyte.
( ) 40- The WBC which releases histamine at sites of inflammation?
a- Lymphocyte.
b- Eosinophil
c- Basophil
d- Monocyte.
e- Neutrophil
‫ بعل‬. ‫ م‬:‫مع تحيات الحكيم‬
Chapter 11: The Cardiovascular System. ‫ بعل‬. ‫ م‬:‫مع تحيات الحكيم‬
( ) 1- The tissue which forms a loose-fitting sac around the heart is
the?
a- endocardium
b- parietal pericardium
c- visceral pericardium
d- myocardium
e- epicardium
( ) 2- The layer of serous membrane that covers the heart that lies
closest to the sternum is the?
a- endocardium
b- parietal pericardium
c- myocardium
d- visceral pericardium
e- epicardium
( ) 3- Heart muscle is also called?
a- visceral pericardium
b- epicardium
c- endocardium
d- myocardium
e- endothelium
( ) 4-What is the specific name of the tissue that lines all the
chambers of the heart?
a- endothelium
b- endocardium
c- simple cuboidal epithelium
d- simple squamous epithelium
( ) 5- Blood flows from the right ventricle into the?
a- pulmonary trunk
b- pulmonary veins
c- coronary artery
d- right atrium
e- superior vena cava
( ) 6- Blood returning from the pulmonary part of the circulatory
system enters the _______ of the heart?
a- left ventricle
b- left atrium
c- right ventricle
d- right atrium
e- sinus venosus
( ) 7- The tricuspid valve prevents flow of blood from the?
a- pulmonary trunk to the right ventricle
b- right ventricle to the pulmonary arch
c- right atrium into the left atrium
d- right ventricle to the right atrium
e- left ventricle to the left atrium
( ) 8- The mitral valve is on the same side of the heart as the?
a- superior vena cava
b- aortic semilunar valve
c- tricuspid valve
d- pulmonary semilunar valve
e- opening of the coronary sinus
( ) 9- The cusps of the atrio-ventricular (A/V) valves are anchored to
the papillary muscles by the?
a- pericardium
b- chordae tendinae
c- intercalated discs
d- fossa ovalis
e- coronary sinus
( ) 10-What is the first branch off the base of the aorta?
a- brachiocephalic artery
b- left common carotid artery
c- left subclavian artery
d- right common carotid artery
e- coronary artery
( ) 11- Blood vessels carrying blood away from the heart are called?
a- veins
b- capillaries
c- coronaries
d- arteries
e- lymphatics
( ) 12- What is the heart's pacemaker?
a- medulla oblongata
b- Atrio-Ventricular (A/V) node
c- Sino-Atrial (S/A) node
d- Cranial nerve X - Vagus nerve
e- both a and d above are correct
( ) 13- When considering the heart sounds (frequently given as lub,
dup), we should realize that?
a- the first sound is caused by contraction of the Purkinje fibers, the second by
contraction of the papillary muscles
b- the first sound is caused by closure of the A/V valves, the second by closure of
the semilunar valves
c- the first sound is caused by closure of the tricuspid valve, the second by
closure of the mitral valve
d- they are caused by contraction of the ventricles, followed by contraction of
the atria
e- the first sound is caused by closure of the mitral valve, the second by closure
of the tricuspid valve
( ) 14- The correct sequence of parts that function to carry cardiac
impulses is?
a- S/A Node ===> A/V Node ===> Atrioventricular bundle ===> Purkinje fibers
b- S/A Node ===> Purkinje fibers ===> A/V Node ===> Atrioventricular
bundle
c- A/V Node ===> Atrioventricular bundle ===> Purkinje fibers ===> S/A Node
d- Atrioventricular bundle ===> S/A Node ===> A/V Node ===> Purkinje
fibers
e- A/V Node ===> S/A Node ===> purkinje fibers ===> Atrioventricular bundle
( ) 15- What is the portion of the ECG that indicates ventricular
repolarization?
a- R spike
b- QRS complex
c- P-Q interval
d- P wave
e- T wave
( ) 16-The product of the stroke volume and the heart rate is known
as the?
a- cardiac reserve
b- end-systolic volume
c- blood pressure
d- cardiac output
e- end-diastolic volume
( ) 17- What is the circulatory route that runs from the digestive
tract to the liver called?
a- systemic circuit
b- hepatic portal system
c- renal portal system
d- pulmonary circuit
e- coronary circuit
( ) 18- You are not an athlete and you are not physical fit. If you
suddenly partake in physical exercise, then the increased demands of
such vigorous exercise on your body are met primarily by?
a- increased stroke volume
b- increased heart rate
c- increased blood volume
d- all of a, b and c above are correct
e- only b and c above are correct
( ) 19- The umbilical vein carries?
a- Metabolic wastes and carbon dioxide from the fetus to the placent
b- oxygen and foods from the fetus to the placenta
c- from the navel directly into the inferior vena cava
d- oxygen and foods from the placenta to the fetus
( ) 20- Which of the following fetal structures carries the most
oxygenated blood?
a- umbilical arteries
b- foramen ovale
c- ductus arteriosus
d- umbilical vein
e- ductus venosus
( ) 21- What serous membrane encloses the heart?
a- cutaneous membrane
b- pericardium
c- peritoneum
d- pleura
e- synovial membrane
( ) 22- This heart valve prevents the return of blood to the right
atrium from the right ventricle?
a- mitral valve
b- aortic semilunar valve
c- bicuspid valve
d- tricuspid valve
e- pulmonary semilunar valve
( ) 23- Which on of the following blood vessels carries oxygen-rich
blood?
a- pulmonary trunk
b- Coronary sinus
c- pulmonary vein
d- superior vena cava
e- inferior vena cava
٥
( )24- Identify the final portion of the intrinsic conduction system of
the heart which carries the wave of depolarization over the ventricles
causing them to contract from the heart apex toward the atria?
a- atrioventricular bundle
b- Purkinje fibers
c- bundle branches
d- atrioventricular node
e- sinoatrial node
( )25- Which one of the following blood vessels returns blood to the
left side of the heart or left atrium?
a- coronary sinus
b- pulmonary artery
c- superior vena cava
d- pulmonary vein
e- aorta
( ) 26- Blood exits the right ventricle in which one of the following
blood vessels?
a- pulmonary vein
b- coronary artery
c- aorta
d- pulmonary trunk
e- superior vena cava
( ) 27- Which of the following is involved in anchoring the AV valve
flaps to the walls of the ventricles?
a- Purkinje fibers
b- chordae tendinae
c- cuspidors
d- fenestrations
e- adhesions
( ) 28- Which of the following indicates atrial depolarization in an
electrocardiogram?
a- QT interval
b- U wave
c- P wave
d- T wave
e- QRS complex
٦
( ) 29-Which of the following would not lead to an increase in
cardiac output?
a- release of epinephrine into the bloodstream
b- an increase in sympathetic stimulation
c- an increase in stroke volume
d- an increase in heart rate
e- a decrease in venous return
( ) 30- Exchanges of nutrients, gases, wastes, etc. between blood and
tissue cells occurs at?
a- capillaries
b- venules
c- veins
d- arterioles
e- arteries
( ) 31- Which of the following blood vessels is NOT part of the
systemic circulation?
a- inferior vena cava
b- carotid arteries
c- pulmonary artery
d- aorta
e- coronary artery
( ) 32- During fetal existence, this short blood vessel connects the
pulmonary trunk to the aorta allowing blood to bypass the fetal lungs
which are nonfunctional?
a- umbilical vein
b- ductus venosus
c- foramen ovale
d- ductus arteriosus
e- umbilical artery
( ) 33-Most often, systemic arterial blood pressure is measured in
this artery using the auscultatory method using a stethoscope and
sphygmomanometer?
a- carotid artery
b- brachial artery
c- femoral artery
d- radial artery
e- aorta
( ) 34- Which of the following conditions is characterized by a rapid
uncoordinated shuddering of the heart muscle?
a- tachycardia
b- bradycardia
c- fibrillation
d- angina pectoris
e- myocardial infarction
( ) 35- Which of the following would NOT cause an increase in the
heart rate?
a- release of epinephrine into the blood
b- exercise
c- sympathetic stimulation
d- an increase in body temperature
e- stimulation of the vagus nerve
( )36-Which of the following drugs acts in a similar way to the
vagus nerves to slow and steady the heart resulting in a stronger
heartbeat?
a- digitalis
b- angiotensin II
c- thyroxine
d- epinephrine
e- renin
( ) 37- Compared to an artery, the wall of a vein differs in which of
the following ways?
a- It contains smooth muscle
b- It consists of three coats
c- The outer coat is composed largely of collagen fibers
d- The middle coat is thin
e- It is lined by a thin layer of endothelium
( )38- This unique feature connects the anterior and posterior blood
supplies of the brain providing more than one route for blood to
reach brain tissue in a given area?
a- circle ofWillis
b- bundle branches
c- coronary circulation
d- ductus arteriosus
e- hepatic portal circulation
( ) 39- Which of the following is NOT true during ventricular
systole?
a- intraventricular pressure rises
b- chordae tendinae prevent AV valve flaps from flipping up into the atria
c- semilunar valves close
d- the atria are relaxed
e- AV valves close
( ) 40- Which of the following does not aid the return of venous
blood to the heart from the lower extremities?
a- valves in veins
b- the large lumen of veins
c- the muscle "pump''
d- the respiratory "pump''
e- gravity
‫ بعل‬. ‫ م‬:‫مع تحيات الحكيم‬
Chapter 12: The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses
‫ بعل‬. ‫ م‬:‫مع تحيات الحكيم‬
( ) 1- The most important nonspecific defense of the body is?
a- cilia and mucus b- Sweat glands c- antibodies d- The skin
( ) 2- White blood cells that engulf and destroy bacteria are?
a- phagocytes b- antibodies c- T-lymphocytes d- B-lymphocytes
( ) 3- A person who has recovered from mumps is protected from
contracting the
disease again by a?
a- slow production of antibodies b- secondary immune response
c- lack of antibodies d- primary immune response
( ) 4- Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be spontaneously
killed by?
a- mucous membrane cells b- Natural Killer Cells c- macrophage d- antibodies eNeutrophils
( ) 5- The body's second line of defense?
a- antibodies
b- Spleen
c- Mucous
d- MALT (mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue)
e- The inflammatory response
( ) 6- The rejection of tissue transplants is brought about by?
a- killer T-cells
b- helper T-cells
c- macrophages
d- NK cells
e- suppressor T-cells
( ) 7- The immune cells involved in allergic reactions, especially in the
lining of
the nasal passages?
a- release macrophages
b- produce phagocytes
c- mast cells
d- cause asthma
( ) 8- Two indications that the body is fighting an infection are
increased?
a- pain and fever
b- white blood cells and fever
c- red blood cells and pain
d- white and red blood cells
( ) 9- The scientist who developed the first successful polio vaccine
was?
a- Salk
b- Sabin
c- Pasteur
d- Jenner
( ) 10- The substance produced by virus-infected cells that helps other
cells resist
viral infection is?
a- an antigen
b- a marker protein
c- a receptor protein
d- interferon
e- an antibody
( ) 11- A mass of linked viruses and antibodies are engulfed and
destroyed by?
a- plasma cells
b- T-cells
c- phagocytes
d- B-cells
e- agglutination
( ) 12- An infection may spread throughout the body, causing
swelling and
tenderness of the?
a- joints
b- nerve endings
c- skin
d- liver
e- lymph nodes
( ) 13- The sneezing, runny nose, and watery eyes that make a person
having
allergies feel so miserable result from?
a- lysozyme
b- interferon
c- histamines
d- antibodies
( ) 14- The antibodies that are often given to travelers to protect them
from
tropical diseases produce?
a- secondary immunity
b- passive immunity
c- active immunity
d- permanent immunity
( ) 15- Each of the following is true of antibodies except that?
a- They are released by plasma cells
b- each antibody binds to three antigens
c- They have two identical binding sites
d- They are shaped like the letter Y
( ) 16- The response in which the rapid loss of material from a
cancerous cell
causes it to rupture and die is known as?
a- blood-mediated immunity
b- primary immune response
c- secondary immune response
d- cell-mediated immunity
( ) 17- Lysozyme?
a- Is the substance produced by the body to break down the cell walls of bacteria
b- Is a substance used to create antibody-mediated clonal cells
c- Is an organelle found in most cells to destroy invading organisms.
d- Is a chemical which causes the hypothalamus to “reset” its temperature higher
than 98.6‫ ؛‬F.
( ) 18- Each of the following is an autoimmune disease except?
a- acquired immune deficiency syndrome
b- rheumatoid arthritis
c- juvenile onset diabetes
d- rheumatic fever
( ) 19- Each of the following is involved in the formation of antibodies
except?
a- plasma cells release antibodies into the blood
b- suppressor T-cells grow and divide very rapidly
c- an antigen activates some of the body's B-cells
d- activated B-cells produce many plasma cells
( ) 20- The immune system's loss of its ability to distinguish "self"
from
"nonself" results in ________?
a- autoimmune diseases
b- cell-mediated immune deficiency diseases
c- immune-deficiency diseases
d- immune response diseases
( ) 21- The first line of defense against the invasion of pathogens?
a- antibodies
b- skin
c- white blood cells
d- vaccines
( ) 22- Interferon is?
a- a chemical producing antibodies
b- a chemical which inhibits the production of viruses
c- a substance produced by virus-infected cells that helps other cells resist viral
infection
d- very similar to a vaccine
( ) 23- The immune cells involved in allergic reactions, especially in
the lining of
the nasal passages, causing sneezing and runny noses?
a- produce phagocytes
b- inhibit production of myeloid stem cells
c- are mast cells
d- are macrophages
( ) 24- The inflammatory response?
a- is the body's second line of defense, after the skin
b- works with the phagocytic response
c- works with antibodies
٤
d- Acts in response to production of mast cells
( ) 25- Two indications that the body is fighting an infection are
increased?
a- red blood cells and pain
b- white and red blood cells
c- white blood cells and fever
d- pain and fever
( ) 26- When antibodies are present in the fluids of the blood?
a- it is called cell-mediated immunity
b- it creates anitigen specific response
c- lymphocytes work on viruses, or lyse foreign cells
d- it is called humoral immunity, or antibody-mediated immunity
( ) 27- The injection of weakened pathogens to produce immunity is
a(n)?
a- vaccination
b- cellular mediated antigen response
c- antigens
d- self-antigen production
( ) 28- The basic functional unit of the immune system is?
a- antibody
b- B-lymphocyte
c- killer T-cell
d- marker protein
( ) 29- Each of the following is involved in the formation of antibodies
except
that?
a- plasma cells release antibodies into the blood
b- an antigen activates some of the body's B-cells
c- activated B-cells produce many plasma cells
d- suppressor T-cells grow and divide very rapidly
( ) 30- The most common overreactions of the immune system are
known as?
a- histamines
b- allergies
c- asthma
d- antihistamines
( ) 31- The substance produced by the body that breaks down the cell
walls of
bacteria is?
a- interferon
b- mucus
c- lysozyme
d- hormone
( ) 32- An antibody has two identical ?
a- receptor proteins
b- antigen binding sites
c- marker proteins
٥
d- killer T-cell binding sites
( ) 33- A form of natural passive immunity, in which no
immunological memory
is established?
a- placenta or breast milk
b- vaccine
c- infection or contact with a pathogen
d- gamma globulin
( ) 34- Antibodies are soluble proteins secreted by?
a- Helper T-cells
b- Activated T-cells
c- Activated B-cells and B cell clone descendants
d- suppressor T-cells
( ) 35- Slowing or stopping the activity of a B cell or T cell is done by?
a- Killer T-cell
b- Helper T-cell
c- Memory Cell
d- Suppressor T cell
( ) 36- A substance capable of provoking an immune response, not
normally
present in the body?
a- monokines
b- antigens
c- antibody
d- B-cells
( )37- After having the chicken pox, these cells would remain in the
body,
enabling it to respond quickly and efficiently to subsequent infections
of meetings
with the same anitigen?
a- Suppressor T cells
b- Memory cells
c- Macrophages
d- Memory B cells
( ) 38- An antibody producing machine, which produces a huge
number of
immunoglobulin?
a- Memory cells
b- Mast cells
c- Stem cells
d- plasma cells
( ) 39- When the liver and spleen gather up nutrients such as iron and
zinc, so
that bacteria cannot multiply, what is happening in the body?
a- interferon is being produced
b- complement fixation is working to find foreign cells
c- The body has a fever
d- gastric juices are clogging the ducts of the liver and spleen
( ) 40- Edema causes?
a- redness to an injured area
b- pain and swelling, thus temporarily limiting joint movement
c- The infected area to become hot, thus increasing metabolic rate
d- Clotting proteins to enter an area
‫ بعل‬. ‫ م‬:‫مع تحيات الحكيم‬
Chapter 13: The Respiratory System
‫ بعل‬. ‫ م‬:‫مع تحيات الحكيم‬
( ) 1- Air in the larynx on its way to the lungs would enter which of
the following next?
a- pharynx
b- primary bronchus
c- trachea
d- bronchiole
e- esophagus
( ) 2- This partition separates the nasal cavity from the oral cavity
below?
a- epiglottis
b- nasal septum
c- palate
d- concha
e- thyroid cartilage
( ) 3- What is the maximum volume of air that can be expelled from
the lungs called?
a- residual volume
b- expiratory reserve volume
c- inspiratory reserve volume
d- vital capacity
e- tidal volume
( ) 4- What is the term for difficult or labored breathing?
a- dyspnea
b- cyanosis
c- apnea
d- eupnea
e- hypoxia
( ) 5- What muscular passageway serves as a common passageway
for food and air?
a- pharynx
b- trachea
c- glottis
d- larynx
e- esophagus
( ) 6- Which of the following is NOT true about the lungs?
a- They are divided into lobes
b- They contain elastic connective tissue in their walls
c- They receive air by way of primary bronchi
d- They are covered by visceral pleura
e- They are located in the mediastinum
( )7- Air in the conducting zone airways that is not in position to
contribute to gas exchange between the alveoli and the blood is
termed?
a- dead space volume
b- expiratory reserve volume
c- tidal volume
d- residual volume
e- alveolar air
( ) 8- Respiratory distress syndrome in an infant is characterized
by?
a- an expanded barrel chest
b- inadequate surfactant production
c- excessive production of mucus
d- loss of elasticity by the lungs
e- chronic inflammation
( ) 9- How is the bulk of the carbon dioxide transported in the
blood?
a- as the bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) in plasma
b- as carbon monoxide(CO) in the plasma
c- dissolved in the plasma
d- inside red blood cells
e- combined with hemoglobin
( ) 10-Which of the following is NOT true during inspiration?
a- intrapulmonary volume increases
b- the diaphragm contracts, moves inferiorly and flattens out
c- The external intercostal muscles contract lifting the rib cage and thrusting the
sternum forward
d- intrapleural pressure becomes equal to atmospheric air pressure
e- intrapulmonary air pressure decreases
( ) 11- Where is the center which sets the basic rhythm of inspiration
and expiration located?
a- cerebellum
b- cerebrum
c- pons
d- medulla
e- corpus callosum
( ) 12- The main stimulus for increasing the breathing rate and
depth involves?
a- an increase in blood pH
b- a decrease in body temperature
c- an increase in the level of oxygen in the blood
d- an increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood
e- a decrease in the level of oxygen in the blood
٣
( ) 13- In addition to the respiratory system, what other system
shares the responsibility of supplying cells of the body with oxygen
and disposing of carbon dioxide?
a- reproductive system
b- lymphatic system
c- cardiovascular system
d- urinary system
e- digestive system
( ) 14- Which of the following is NOT a protective mechanism of the
respiratory system?
a- gastric juice
b- sneezing
c- coughing
d- cilia mucus sweeping
e- ''dust cells"
( ) 15- Air must pass through this slit-like opening between the vocal
cords in the larynx to enter the trachea?
a- concha
b- palate
c- sinus
d- alveolus
e- glottis
( ) 16- Which of the following would increase the pH of blood
leading to alkalosis?
a- exercising
b- holding your breath
c- falling asleep
d- hyperventilating
e- rebreathing air in a brown paper bag
( ) 17- The serous membrane associated with each lung is the?
a- synovial membrane
b- peritoneum
c- pleura
d- pericardium
e- cutaneous membrane
( ) 18- Which of the following respiratory system disorders or
defects is INCORRECTLY paired with its brief description?
a- asthma - hypersensitivity to an irritant
b- cystic fibrosis - over secretion of mucus
c- emphysema - loss of elasticity by the lungs
d- sudden infant death syndrome - inadequate production of surfactant
e- cleft palate - bones forming the hard palate fail to fuse medially
( ) 19- Which of the following is not involved in conducting air to the
lungs?
a- larynx
b- trachea
c- esophagus
d- bronchus
e- pharynx
( ) 20- Each of the following is directly connected to the pharynx
except the?
a- nasal cavity
b- auditory tubes
c- oral cavity
d- trachea
e- larynx
( ) 21- Pick the correct order for the path followed by Trevor (an
oxygen molecule) as he travels from the outside to the lungs?
1. Primary bronchi
2. Laryngopharynx
3. Nasal cavity
4. External nares
5. Glottis
6. Oropharynx
7. Secondary bronchi
8. Larynx
9. Nasopharynx
10. Trachea
a- 6,3,9,4,5,2,8,10,1,7 b- 4,9,3,6,2,5,8,1,10,7 c- 6,9,2,3,5,4,10,8,1,7
d- 4,3,9,6,2,5,8,10,1,7 e- 4,3,9,6,5,2,8,10,7,1
( ) 22- The nose?
a- 1.moistens the air
b- 2.warms the air
c- 3.filters the air
d- 4.contains the olfactory receptors
.Only (1) and (3) above are correct
.Only (2) and (4) above are correct
.All of (1), (2), (3), and (4) above are correct
.Only (4) above is correct
.Only (1), (2), and (3) above are correct
( ) 23- The "Adam's Apple" is the common name for the?
a- arytenoid cartilage
b- hyoid bone
c- epiglottis
d- thyroid cartilage
e- pharynx
( ) 24- What prevents food from entering the trachea?
a- epiglottis
b- saliva
c- glottis
d- vocal cords and false vocal cords
e- Soft palate
( ) 25- Place the following in their correct order from the outside to
inside?
1. lungs
2. pleural cavity
3. visceral pleura
4. parietal pleura
a- 3,2,4,1 b- 2,3,4,1 c- 4,2,3,1 d- 2,1,4,3 e- 1,2,3,4
( ) 26- Pleurisy results from an accumulation of fluid in the?
a- pleural cavity
b- nasal passages
c- auditory tubes
d- primary bronchi
e- alveoli
( ) 27- Inhalation results when the?
a- diaphragm relaxes and the intercostal muscles contract
b- intercostal muscles and diaphragm contract and make the chest cavity bigger
c- air pressure within the lungs increases drawing air into the lungs from the
outside
d- intercostal muscles relax and the diaphragm contracts
e- lungs expand and make the chest cavity bigger
( ) 28-What supplies the force responsible for normal expiration?
a- diaphragm contracting
b- external intercostal muscles contracting
c- elastic recoil of the diaphragm
d- internal intercostal muscles contracting
e- both a and d above are correct
( ) 29- The tidal volume is air?
a- exhaled during normal breathing
b- forcefully exhaled
c- inhaled during normal breathing
d- forcefully inhaled
e- both a and c above are correct
٦
( ) 30- The volume of air, over the tidal volume, that can be forced
into the lungs is called the?
a- residual air
b- inspiratory reserve volume
c- expiratory reserve volume
d- reserve air
e- vital capacity
( ) 31-What is (approximately) the average vital capacity for
humans?
a- 6,000 ml b- 1,200 ml c- 3, 100 ml d- 4, 300 ml e- 4, 800 ml
( ) 32- Where would carbon dioxide concentration be the highest?
a- pulmonary vein blood
b- renal vein blood
c- pulmonary artery blood
d- renal artery blood
e- hepatic portal vein blood
( ) 33- Oxygen and carbon dioxide cross the lung membrane surface
through?
a- osmosis
b- differences in atmospheric pressure
c- tidal air
d- active transport
e- diffusion
( ) 34-What is the form of hemoglobin that is responsible for
carrying oxygen?
a- carbamino-hemoglobin
b- carboxyhemoglobin
c- deoxygenated hemoglobin
d- reduced hemoglobin
e- oxyhemoglobin
( ) 35- Where are the respiratory control centers located?
a- cerebrum
b- hypothalamus
c- medulla
d- pons
e- both c and d above are correct
( ) 36- The condition whereby the respiratory alveoli become
enlarged and may be replaced by fibrous tissue is known as?
a- pleurisy
b- pneumonia
c- emphysema
d- bronchitis
e- tuberculosis
( ) 37- The glottis is the?
a- space between the vocal cords
b- just above the larynx and esophagus
c- point where the trachea divides
d- moveable lid covering the opening into the larynx
e- pointed end of the lungs
( ) 38- How is oxygen carried in the trachea?
a- as a gas
b- as oxyhemoglobin
c- in solution in body fluids (e.g. mucin)
d- as a result of peristaltic actions
e- by buffering compounds like KCl (potassium chloride)
( ) 39- The largest amount of carbon dioxide is carried in the blood
in the form of?
a- carbamino-hemoglobin
b- dissolved carbon dioxide (gas bubbles) in the blood plasma
c- oxyhemoglobin
d- carbonic acid
e- bicarbonate ions
( ) 40- Which of the following is a substance found in cigarette
smoke that interferes with the ability of the blood to transport
oxygen?
a- nicotine
b- asbestos
c- carbon monoxide
d- nitrogen
e- hydrogen cyanide
‫ بعل‬. ‫ م‬:‫مع تحيات الحكيم‬
Chapter 14: The Digestive System and Body Metabolism
‫ بعل‬. ‫ م‬:‫مع تحيات الحكيم‬
( ) 1- An assailant stabs a man in the upper abdomen with a
butcher knife. The man's stomach is perforated. The first layer of
tissue in the stomach wall to be cut was the?
a- muscularis mucosa
b- serosa
c- lamina propria
d- submucosa
e- mucosa
( ) 2- A wave of muscular contraction moving from the oropharynx
towards the stomach is termed a[n]?
a- peristalsis
b- segmentation contraction
c- swallowing action
d- antiperistalsis
e- both a and c above are correct
( ) 3- Teeth that bite off pieces of food are the?
a- wisdom teeth
b- bicuspids
c- molars
d- premolars
e- incisors
( ) 4- The glands that frequently become inflamed when one gets the
mumps are called the _______ glands?
a- parotid
b- submandibular
c- sublingual
d- sustentacular
e- both b and c above are correct
( ) 5- The soft palate separates the oral cavity from the?
a- nasopharynx
b- larynx
c- nasal cavities
d- hard palate
e- laryngopharynx
( ) 6- The pyloric sphincter?
a- is located in the jejunum
b- opens to let food into the stomach
c- opens to let food into the duodenum
d- increases the surface area for absorption
e- both a and d above are correct
٢
( ) 7- Chief cells of the gastric glands secrete?
a- mucus
b- HCl
c- pepsinogen
d- trypsin
e- both [a] and [c] above are correct
( ) 8- The cells that secrete hydrochloric acid are the _______ cells?
a- parietal
b- zymogen
c- Kupffer
d- chief
e- mucous neck
( ) 9- The finger-like projections of the small intestinal mucosa,
which are so important in nutrient absorption, are the?
a- rugae
b- plicae circulares
c- lacteals
d- villi
e- Krypts of Lieberkuehn
( ) 10- The terminal portion of the small intestine is the?
a- caecum
b- duodenum
c- ileum
d- jejunum
e- colon
( ) 11- A small blind tube attached to the caecum just below
(inferior) to where the ileum attaches is the?
a- sigmoid colon
b- ascending colo
c- transverse colon
d- appendix
e- rectum
( ) 12- Clusters of lymphoid tissue found in the walls of the ileum
are called?
a- Brunner's glands
b- plicae circulares
c- ileocaecal valve
d- Peyer's patches
e- Krypts of Lieberkuehn
( ) 13- Bile is carried to the duodenum by the?
a- Haustra
b- bile duct
c- cystic duct
d- pancreatic duct
e- common hepatic duct
( ) 14- One of your digestive glands secretes enzymes that are
capable of digesting carbohydrates, lipids and proteins. The gland is
the?
a- parotid gland
b- adrenal gland
c- liver
d- pancreas
e- cardiac gland
( ) 15- A digestive organ that provides a strongly acidic
environment is the?
a- stomach
b- jejunum
c- ileum
d- oral cavity
e- colon
( ) 16- Pepsin initiates the chemical digestion of?
a- proteins
b- lipids into fatty acids and glycerol
c- all hormones
d- complex carbohydrates - such as starches
e- steroids
( ) 17- The stomach lining is protected from the stomach acid by?
a- mucus
b- lipase
c- intrinsic factor
d- gastrin
e- pepsinogen
( ) 18- Gastrin, secreted by the gastric and duodenal mucosa, acts
to?
a- change pepsinogen into pepsin
b- increase the secretions of the gastric glands
c- inhibit the production of hydrochloric acid
d- slow down the muscular contractions of the stomach wall muscles
e- initiate the digestion of lipids
( ) 19- Trypsin acts to break down?
a- maltose
b- polypeptides
c- cellulose
d- cholesterol
e- triglycerides
( ) 20- Fat digestion in adult humans occurs in the?
a- mouth
b- duodenum
c- liver
d- stomach
e- ileum
( ) 21- Which part of the alimentary canal penetrates the
diaphragm?
a- pharynx
b- large intestine
c- esophagus
d- stomach
e- small intestine
( ) 22-Which of the following does not contribute to the extensive
surface of the small intestine at which the bulk of chemical digestion
and nearly all food absorption occurs?
a- rugae
b- length and coiling of the tube
c- microvilli
d- villi
e- plicae circulares
( ) 23- These chisel-shaped teeth are adapted for cutting?
a- premolars
b- incisors
c- canines
d- molars
e- bicuspids
( ) 24- What is the main digestive function occurring in the
stomach?
a- protein digestion
b- emulsification of fats
c- starch digestion
d- fat digestion
e- absorption of the end-products of digestion
( ) 25- Which of the following is not an enzyme contained in
pancreatic juice?
a- lipase
b- trypsin
c- pepsin
d- chymotrypsin
e- amylase
( ) 26- Food in the stomach on its way through the alimentary canal
would next enter the?
a- ascending colon
b- esophagus
c- duodenum
d- ileum
e- Jejunum
( ) 27-Which of the following is NOT a major nutrient (makes up
the bulk of what we eat)?
a- lipids
b- vitamins
c- carbohydrates
d- water
e- proteins
( ) 28-Which of the following is the body's most concentrated
source of energy?
a- protein
b- vitamins
c- glucose
d- fat
e- glycogen
( ) 29- The formation of muscle proteins from food you have eaten is
an example of?
a- peristalsis
b- deglutition
c- anabolism
d- catabolism
e- emulsification
( )30-When cells oxidize amino acids for energy their _______
groups are removed and, ultimately, in the liver, converted to the
waste _______ which is flushed from the body in urine?
a- amine group; creatinine
b- carboxyl group; urea
c- amine group; uric acid
d- carboxyl group; creatine
e- amine group; urea
( ) 31- Which of the following is NOT an important role of the liver?
a- store glycogen
b- excretion of urea
c- produce blood proteins
d- phagocytosis
e- manufacture bile
( ) 32- In general, which of the following is probably the most
important factor involved in determining a person's basal metabolic
rate (BMR)?
a- surface area in relation to body volume
b- emotional state
c- amount of thyroxine produced by the thyroid gland
d- gender of the individual
e- Age of the individual
( )33- This hormone, produced by the duodenum, causes an
increase in the output of bile by the liver and pancreatic juice rich in
bicarbonate ions?
a- gastrin
b- histamine
c- secretin
d- somatostatin
e- cholecystokinin
( ) 34- What substance, produced by gastric glands, is needed for the
absorption of vitamin B12 from the small intestine?
a- pepsinogen
b- hydrochloric acid
c- histamine
d- intrinsic factor
e- gastrin
( ) 35-What organ produces enzymes capable of digesting all of the
major categories of organic compounds?
a- stomach
b- pancreas
c- gall bladder
d- salivary gland
e- liver
( ) 36- Ketosis and acidosis are consequences of the incomplete
oxidation of?
a- carbohydrates
b- proteins
c- glucose
d- starch
e- fats
( ) 37- Which of the following is not one of the four basic layers or
tunics of the wall of the alimentary canal?
a- muscularis externa
b- serosa
c- mucosa
d- mesentery
e- submucosa
( ) 38-Which of the following is not an enzyme associated with
protein digestion?
a- pepsin
b- trypsin
c- chymotrypsin
d- lipase
e- carboxypeptidase
( ) 39- Proteins of plant origin (i.e. beans, corn, rice)?
a- are complete
b- are incomplete
c- contain all of the essential amino acids
d- are the highest quality proteins
e- meet all of the body's requirements for tissue maintenance and growth
( ) 40-Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the large
intestine?
a- Its longitudinal smooth muscle occurs in three bands
b- It has numerous goblet cell in it mucosa
c- It is relatively large in diameter
d- It has finger-like projections called villi in its mucosa
e- Its wall exhibits pocket-like sacs called haustra
‫ بعل‬. ‫ م‬:‫مع تحيات الحكيم‬
Chapter 15: The Urinary System.
‫ بعل‬. ‫ م‬:‫مع تحيات الحكيم‬
( ) 1- What enzyme produced by the kidneys helps to regulate blood
pressure?
a- renin
b- aldosterone
c- urochrome
d- erythropoietin
e- creatine
( ) 2- Blood in an afferent arteriole would enter which of the
following next?
a- interlobular artery
b- efferent arteriole
c- peritubular capillaries
d- arcuate artery
e- glomerulus
( ) 3- The filtrate forced through the capillary walls in the kidneys
enters which of the following first?
a- distal convoluted tubule (DCT).
b- glomerular capsule
c- loop of Henle
d- collecting duct
e- proximal convoluted tubule (PCT).
( ) 4-Which of the following is not normally in the filtrate forced
from the glomerular capillaries and, therefore, does not appear in
urine?
a- proteins
b- glucose
c- water
d- amino acids
e- urea
( ) 5- Which of the following is normally present in the filtrate
forced from the glomerular capillaries but does not normally appear
in the urine?
a- blood cells
b- water
c- proteins
d- glucose
e- urea
( ) 6- Which of the following is not located in the renal medulla?
a- interlobar artery
b- renal pyramid
c- glomerular capsule
d- collecting duct
e- renal column
( ) 7- From first to last, the correct order in which the filtrate would
pass through the structures listed is?
a- collecting duct-glomerular capsule-PCT-loop of Henle-DCT
b- glomerular capsule-collecting duct-PCT-loop of Henle-DCT
c- glomerular capsule-PCT-loop of Henle-DCT-collecting duct
d- glomerular capsule-DCT-loop of Henle-PCT-collecting duct
e- glomerular capsule-loop of Henle-PCT-DCT-collecting duct
( ) 8- The metabolism of nucleic acids yields this nitrogenous waste
that appears in blood and urine?
a- uric acid
b- urochrome
c- urea
d- ammonia
e- creatinine
( ) 9- The regulation of blood pH by the elimination of excess acids
or alkaline substances from the body is accomplished by the?
a- renal mechanism
b- bicarbonate buffer system
c- protein buffer system
d- respiratory system
e- phosphate buffer system
( ) 10-Which of the following substances is not normally found in
urine?
a- urochrome
b- urea
c- uric acid
d- water
e- red blood cells
( ) 11-Which of the following would not apply to the location of the
kidneys?
a- ventral cavity
b- thoracic cavity
c- retroperitoneal
d- abdominal cavity
e- lumbar region
( ) 12- Podocytes are?
a- Cells of the wall of the glomerular capillaries
b- cells that line the urinary bladder
c- Cells of the inner layer of the glomerular capsule
d- kidneys cells that produce renin
e- phagocytic cells in the kidneys
( ) 13- A high specific gravity of urine indicates?
a- diabetes insipidus
b- alkalosis
c- acidosis
d- excessive fluid intake
e- kidney inflammation
( )14- Starting at the tip of a medullary pyramid, the correct
sequence of structures that urine passes through on its way out of the
body is?
a- renal pelvis-calyx-ureter-urinary bladder-urethra
b- renal pelvis-calyx-urethra-urinary bladder-ureter
c- ureter-calyx-renal pelvis-urinary bladder-urethra
d- calyx-renal pelvis-ureter-urinary bladder-urethra
e- calyx-renal pelvis-urethra-urinary bladder-ureter
( ) 15- Which of the following is an indicator of the disease diabetes
insipidus?
a- ketones in the urine
b- glucose in the urine
c- acidosis
d- a huge volume of dilute urine
e- hunger
( ) 16- What are the structural and functional units of the kidneys
involved in forming urine?
a- calyces
b- medullary pyramids
c- renal columns
d- nephrons
e- renal pelvises
( ) 17-Which of the following terms refers to the formation of a
large volume of urine?
a- oliguria
b- polyuria
c- anuria
d- ptosis
e- dysuria
( ) 18- Which of the following terms refers to an inflammation of the
urinary bladder?
a- pyelitis
b- cystitis
c- ptosis
d- urethritis
e- glomerulonephritis
( ) 19-Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidneys?
a- produce urea
b- produce renin
c- excrete urea
d- maintain acid-base balance
e- maintain water and electrolyte balance
( ) 20-Which of the following substances enters the renal tubule by
both filtration and secretion?
a- glucose
b- amino acids
c- creatine
d- urea
e- water
( ) 21- Each kidney is surrounded by a layer of fibrous tissue, the?
a- renal fat pad
b- hilus
c- renal fascia
d- renal capsule
e- renal pelvis
( ) 22- The notch on the medial surface of the kidney, through
which the blood vessels enter and leave the kidney, is called the?
a- renal cortex
b- renal pelvis
c- ureter
d- calyx
e- hilus
( ) 23- The expansion of the ureter into the substance of the kidney
forms the?
a- renal fascia
b- renal capsule
c- renal fat pad
d- renal pelvis
e- hilus
( ) 24- What is the outermost portion of the kidney?
a- renal pelvis
b- renal pyramid
c- renal calyx
d- renal medulla
e- renal cortex
( ) 25- Cortical tissue that extends between the medullary or renal
pyramids is termed the?
a- nephrons
b- renal medulla
c- renal papillae
d- medullary rays
e- renal columns
( ) 26- If you dissected a medullary or renal pyramid, what would
you find inside?
a- the vas deferens
b- the glomeruli
c- the collecting tubules
d- the calyx
e- an Egyptian King's tomb
( ) 27-What is the functional unit of the kidney?
a- nephron
b- renal medulla
c- glomerulus
d- renal corpuscle
e- renal cortex
( ) 28- The portion of the nephron closest to the collecting duct is
called the?
a- distal convoluted tubule
b- proximal convoluted tubule
c- Loop of Henle
d- glomerulus
e- Bowman's capsule
( ) 29- The beginning of the nephron is dilated to form the?
a- glomerulus
b- renal calyx
c- renal pelvis
d- proximal convoluted tubule
e- Bowman's capsule
( ) 30- Urine formation requires which of the following?
a- Glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion
b- Glomerular filtration and tubular secretion only
c- a lot of patience
d- Tubular secretion, tubular filtration and glomerular reabsorption
e- Glomerular reabsorption and tubular filtration only
( ) 31- The uptake of substances from the lumen of the nephrons is
known as?
a- tubular secretion
b- tubular filtration
c- does not occur
d- tubular reabsorption
e- tubular distension
( ) 32- The filtrate materials found in the nephron first leave the
blood at the?
a- urinary bladder
b- Loop of Henle
c- contractile vacuole
d- nephridium
e- glomerulus
( ) 33-Where does most reabsorption of substances from the
glomerular filtrate occur?
a- in the distal convoluted tubule
b- in the loop of Henle
c- in the collecting tubule
d- in the proximal convoluted tubule
e- in the Bowman's Capsule
( ) 34- Which of the following can enter the urine by tubular
secretion?
a- H+
b- K+
c- Creatinine
d- All of a, b and c above are correct about tubular secretion
e- Only a and b above are correct about tubular secretion
( ) 35-What does renin do?
a- It forms paracasein with a milk protein in the stomach
b- It catalyses the formation and release of angiotensin
c- It is concerned with lipid digestion in the stomach
d- It reduces blood pressure
e- It is concerned with carbohydrate digestion in the stomach
( ) 36- The cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
a- secrete aldosterone
b- secrete renin
c- are located in the proximal convoluted tubule
d- both a and c above are correct about the juxtaglomerular cells
e- both b and c above are correct about the juxtaglomerular cells
( ) 37- Aldosterone is secreted in response to?
a- low extracellular sodium (Na+) ion concentrations
b- high extracellular potassium (K+) ion concentrations
c- increased plasma angiotensin
d- all of a, b and c above are correct about aldosterone
e- only a and c above are correct about aldosterone
( )38-Which endocrine gland is primarily concerned with sodium
(Na+) and potassium (K+) ion balance in the body?
a- Parathyroids
b- thyroids
c- adrenal cortex
d- corpus luteum
e- adrenal medulla
( ) 39- Just before the final exam in Anatomy and Physiology, to
relax yourself and ease your tensions, you drank ten pints of beer.
The production and release of ADH [Antidiuretic Hormone or
Vasopressin] would?
a- be carried out by the kidney
b- decrease
c- be controlled by the anterior pituitary
d- increase dramatically
e- remain the same
( ) 40- ADH stimulates tubular reabsorption of?
a- water.
b- Na+ ions.
c- K+ ions.
d- all of a, b and c above are correct about ADH.
e- only b and c above are correct about ADH.
‫ بعل‬. ‫ م‬:‫مع تحيات الحكيم‬
Chapter 16: The Reproductive System.
‫ بعل‬. ‫ م‬:‫مع تحيات الحكيم‬
( ) 1- Gonads are?
a- found only in the male
b- found only in the female
c- secondary sex organs
d- primary sex organs
e- both a and c above are correct
( ) 2- The cells forming the outer layer (i.e. that closest to the
basement membrane) of the seminiferous tubule are the?
a- spermatogonia
b- sustentacular cell
c- spermatids
d- interstitial cells
e- secondary spermatocytes
( ) 3- The spermatozoa complete their maturation in the?
a- ductus deferens
b- epididymis
c- seminal vesicles
d- rete testis
e- ejaculatory duct
( ) 4-Which structures in the testes produce spermatozoa?
a- seminiferous tubules
b- sustentacular cells
c- spermatogenesis
d- interstitial cells
e- inguinal canals
( ) 5-Why are the testes are located in the scrotum?
a- The temperature in the abdominal cavity is too high
b- They would become tangled in their ducts if they were in the abdominal
cavity
c- There is no room for them in the abdominal cavity
d- They must be located closer to the penis
e- They can move more freely during spermatogenesis
( ) 6- The spermatic cord contains?
a- spermatic artery, spermatic vein, spermatic nerve, ductus deferens,
epididymis
b- spermatic artery, spermatic vein, spermatic nerve, seminal vesicle
c- spermatic artery, spermatic vein, spermatic nerve, ductus deferens
d- spermatic artery, spermatic vein, spermatic nerve, epididymis
e- ovarian artery, ovarian vein, ovarian nerve, inguinal canal
( ) 7- The spermatic cord leaves the scrotum through the?
a- acoustic tube
b- gubernaculum
c- ductus deferens
d- eustachian tube
e- inguinal canal
( ) 8- Vasectomy does not affect the male secondary sexual
characters because?
a- the bulbourethral glands are not affected
b- the interstitial cells are untouched
c- the semen will still contain spermatozoa
d- the testes are found in the scrotum
e- the ductus deferens produces the male sex hormones
( ) 9 - From the ejaculatory duct, sperm can pass directly into the?
a- seminal vesicle
b- epididymis
c- seminiferous tubule
d- urethra
e- ductus deferens
( ) 10 - What is the cone-shaped, terminal portion of the penis?
a- prepuce
b- external auditory canal
c- epididymis
d- glans penis
e- foreskin
( ) 11- Erectile tissue becomes turgid due to the?
a- contraction of skeletal muscle
b- a bony structure
c- blood sinuses filling with blood
d- elastic cartilage
e- elastic connective tissue
( ) 12-The largest of the accessory glands of the male reproductive
system is the?
a- Bartolini's glands
b- seminal vesicles
c- seminal receptacles
d- prostate glands
e- bulbourethral glands
( ) 13- The interstitial cells?
a- produce ova
b- produce spermatozoa
c- secrete estrogens
d- dissolve any spermatozoa that are not ejaculated
e- secrete testosterone
( ) 14- The hormone directly responsible for the development of the
male secondary sexual characters is called?
a- cortisol
b- testosterone
c- FSH
d- epinephrine
e- LH
( ) 15- In oogenesis, the secondary oocyte is liberated into the?
a- fallopian tube
b- vagina
c- fimbriae
d- uterus
e- abdominal cavity
( ) 16- What is the rupture of the Graafian follicle and the release of
its contents called?
a- placentation
b- mastication
c- menstruation
d- ovulation
e- fertilization
( ) 17- The finger-like structures around the internal opening of the
uterine or Fallopian tube are known as the?
a- cervix
b- fundus
c- cilia
d- endometrium
e- fimbriae
( ) 18- The soft, vascular mucosal lining of the uterus is the?
a- peritoneum
b- corpus luteum
c- mesentery
d- endometrium
e- fundus
( ) 19- The tubular portion of the uterus, that extends downwards
into the upper part of the vagina, is known as the?
a- myometrium
b- epimetrium
c- peritoneum
d- cervix of the uterus
e- endometrium
( ) 20- Ovulation depends on?
a- declining levels of FSH and a sudden surge in the levels of LH
b- low levels of both FSH and LH
c- very low estrogen levels and high progesterone levels
d- high levels of FSH and low levels of LH
e- low levels of both progesterone and estrogen
( ) 21- The usual site of implantation is the?
a- uterus
b- uterine tube
c- ovary
d- vestibule
e- vagina
( ) 22- One of the "sperm-forming factories" inside each testis is
called a?
a- urethra
b- seminiferous tubule
c- ejaculatory duct
d- vas deferens
e- epididymis
( ) 23- This nonmotile cell, produced by meiosis, develops into a
motile sperm by losing excess cytoplasm and developing a tail?
a- secondary spermatocyte
b- interstitial cell
c- spermatogonium
d- spermatid
e- primary spermatocyte
( )24- Developing follicles produce this hormone which stimulates
thickening of the endometrium during each menstrual cycle and
enlargement of female reproductive organs and breast development
in a young woman?
a- LH
b- progesterone
c- estrogen
d- testosterone
e- FSH
( ) 25- Starting at the site of sperm production, the correct sequence
of structures sperm pass through to reach the outside is?
a- ejaculatory duct-epididymis-rete testis-vas deferens- urethra
b- rete testis-epididymis-vas deferens-ejaculatory duct- urethra
c- rete testis-epididymis-ejaculatory duct-vas deferens- urethra
d- ejaculatory duct-rete testis-epididymis-vas deferens- urethra
e- epididymis-rete testis-vas deferens-ejaculatory duct- urethra
( ) 26- This structure begins embedding itself in the endometrium of
the uterus about 7 days after ovulation?
a- fetus
b- zygote
c- blastocyst
d- four-cell stage
e- morula
( ) 27-What hormone produced by the blastocyst prods the
glandular corpus luteum to continue producing its hormones to
maintain the endometrium?
a- testosterone
b- follicle stimulating hormone
c- progesterone
d- human chorionic gonadotropin
e- oxytocin
( ) 28- During embryonic development ectoderm, one of the three
primary germlayers, gives rise to which of the following?
a- nervous system
b- muscles
c- skeleton
d- kidneys
e- lining of the digestive tract
( ) 29- All body systems are present in at least rudimentary form by
the end of this week of development?
a- 8 b- 16 c- 2 d- 12 e- 40
( ) 30- Which of the following is NOT true about the placenta?
a- Consists of choronic villi in cooperation with tissues of the mother's uterus
b- removes wastes from the blood of the embryo and fetus
c- produces hormones including estrogen and progesterone
d- delivers oxygen and nutrients to the blood of the embryo and fetus
e- forms from the inner cell mass
( ) 31- Sperm maturation occurs in which of the following locations?
a- vas deferens
b- ejaculatory duct
c- urethra
d- seminiferous tubule
e- epididymis
( ) 32- Since the reproductive system structures of males and
females are identical during early development, what determines
whether male accessory reproductive organs are formed?
a- absence of testosterone
b- presence of LH
c- presence of FSH
d- absence of FSH
e- presence of testosterone
( ) 33- Female reproductive capabilities end, and reproductive
organs begin to atrophy during?
a- cryptorchidism
b- parturition
c- menopause
d- menses
e- menarche
( ) 34- What is a mature follicle that is ready to undergo ovulation
called?
a- corona radiata
b- corpus luteum
c- blastocyst
d- Graafian follicle
e- antrum
( ) 35- This male hormone, or androgen, is necessary for sperm
production and causes the appearance of male secondary sex
characteristics starting at puberty?
a- testosterone
b- LH
c- progesterone
d- FSH
e- estrogen
( ) 36- Which of the following is NOT a male reproductive function?
a- implantation
b- ejaculation
c- erection
d- spermatogenesis
e- testosterone production
( ) 37- Enlargement of the prostate gland can interfere with a male's
reproductive function and urination because it surrounds part of this
tubular structure?
a- epididymis
b- vas deferens
c- urethra
d- ureter
e- uterine tube
( ) 38- Acrosomal enzymes are needed for?
a- maintenance of the corpus luteum
b- sperm motility
c- implantation
d- maintenance of the endometrium of the uterus
e- sperm penetration of an "egg''
( ) 39-Which of the following events occurring during the
menstrual cycle is caused by an increase in estrogen in the blood?
a- increase in blood supply and glandular secretion of the endometrium
b- ovulation
c- degeneration of the corpus luteum
d- sloughing off of the endometrium
e- thickening of the endometrium
( ) 40-Which of the following methods of contraception works
mainly by preventing ovulation?
a- coitus interruptus
b- intrauterine device
c- birth control "pill''
d- diaphragm
e- tubal ligation
‫ بعل‬. ‫ م‬:‫مع تحيات الحكيم‬