Download TESTS FOR EXAMINATIN 1. Which thoracic vertebrae have

TESTS FOR EXAMINATIN
1. Which thoracic vertebrae have complete costal facets on their bodies?
1 - I, XI, XII;
2 - VI, VII, XII;
3 - I;
4 - XI, XII.
2. What anatomical mass is defined in sacral bone?
1 - body;
2 - transversal process;
3 - base;
4 - posterior arch.
3. Coccygeal vertebra has:
1 - basis;
2 - transverse process;
3 - spinous process;
4 - superior articular process.
4. Choose the member of pairs of veritable (true) ribs:
1 - 10;
2 - 8;
3 - 11;
4 - 7.
5. What process is defined in the scapula?
1 - acromion;
2 - ulna process;
3 - coronary process;
4 - upper articular process.
6. What process are defined in ulna bone?
1 - ulna process;
2 - acromion;
3 - xyphoid process;
4 - radial process.
7. What anatomical structure is located on distal end of femoral bone?
1 - head;
2 - ragged line;
3 - lesser trochanter;
4 - lateral epicondyle.
8. Obturator foramen is formed:
1 - branch of pubic bone with sciatic bone;
2 - pubic, ileac and sciatic bone;
3 - branch of pubic bone with acetabulum;
4 - branch of sciatic bone with acetabulum.
9. Choose anatomical mass which located on proximal end of femoral bone?
1 - fossa of the head of femoral bone;
2 - intercondylar fossa;
3 - intercondylar groove;
4 - medial condyle.
10. Between lesser and greater trochanters located:
1 - intercondylar fossa;
2 - rough line;
3 - intertrochahteric line;
4 - neek of the femoral bone.
11. Point out anatomical formation characteristic for cervical vertebrae:
1 - fossa of the rib;
2 - presence of holes in the transverse processes;
3 - massive body;
4 - presence of mastoid process.
12. Where is the sulcus of the rib located?
1 - in the region of the rib’s angle;
2 - along the superior margin;
3 - on the external surface;
4 - along the inferior margin.
13. Point out anatomical formation of the sternum:
1 - head;
2 - neck;
3 - xyphoid process;
4 - small tubercle.
14. Where is the sulcus of subclavian artery located?
1 - behind the tubercle of anterior scalene muscle;
2 - in front of the tubercle of anterior scalene muscle;
3 - on the tubercle of the first rib;
4 - along the inferior surface of the first rib.
15. What eminence is located on the inferior surface of the clavicle?
1 - small tubercle;
2 - conoid tubercle;
3 - articular tubercle;
4 - coronoid tubercle.
16. Choose the place of attachment of the deltoid muscle:
1 - anatomical neck;
2 - deltoid tuberosity;
3 - surgical neck;
4 - intertubercular groove.
17. Choose the anatomical structure that is located on the proximal end of
humerus:
1 - head of humerus;
2 - radial fossa;
3 - trochlea humeri;
4 - fossa of the ulna process.
18. What anatomical formation is located on the distal end of radius?
1 - coracoid process;
2 - head of radius;
3 - neck of radius;
4 - styloid process.
19. Rough line passes:
1 - between lesser and greater trochanters;
2 - along the posterior surface of femoral bone;
3 - along the middle surface of femoral bone;
4 - is located in intercondylar fossa.
20. What bone does not form the pelvic bone?
1 - ilium;
2 - sacrum;
3 - pubic bone;
4 - ischium.
21. Point out the fossa of pelvic bone:
1 - supraspinatus fossa;
2 - popliteal fossa;
3 - coronoid fossa;
4 - ilium fossa.
22. What anatomical structure is located on proximal end of tibia?
1 - acromion;
2 - xyphoid process;
3 - anterior intercondylar area;
4 - coracoid process.
23. What anatomical structure is located on the distal end of tibia?
1 - tuberosity of tibia;
2 - medial malleolus;
3 - lateral malleolus;
4 - head.
24. What bone of tarsus does not form its distal row?
1 - medial cuneiform bone;
2 - navicular bone;
3 - talus;
4 - cuboid bone.
25. What anatomical formation is missing on talus?
1 - head;
2 - neck;
3 - articular surface for junction with cuboid bone;
4 - body.
26. What is located on the distal end of fibula?
1 - head;
2 - apex of the head;
3 - articular surface of the head;
4 - lateral malleolus.
27. Name the number of bones, which are included in the distal row of tarsus bones:
1 - 1;
2 - 8;
3 - 4;
4 - 5.
28. What anatomical structure does the fibula bone have?
1 - medial intercondylar tubercle;
2 - anterior intercondylar area;
3 - head;
4 - line of the soleus muscle.
29. Name the part of frontal bone:
1– basilar part;
2 - body;
3 - orbital part;
4 - lateral part.
30. Name the part of occipital bone:
1 - basilar part;
2 - body;
3 - pterygoid canal;
4 - sulcus of petrosal sinus.
31. Which canal does not relate to sphenoid bone?
1 - pterygoid canal;
2 - hypoglossal canal;
3 - optic canal;
4 - superior orbital fissure.
32. Name the bone of the skull that contains pneumatic cavity:
1 - sphenoid;
2 - occipital;
3 - parietal;
4 - palatine bone.
33. What anatomical formation is located on the inferior surface of the pyramid of temporal bone?
1 - external acoustic opening;
2 - foramen of tympanic canaliculus;
3 - external carotid foramen;
4 - foramen of musculotubal canal.
34. What canal passes through the pyramid of temporal bone?
1 - optic canal;
2 - facial canal;
3 - condylar canal;
4 - mastoid canaliculus.
35. Name the process of maxilla:
1 - palatine process;
2 - acromion;
3 - coracoid process;
4 - styloid process.
36. What anatomical formation is located on the body of mandibula:
1 - oblique line;
2 - pterygoid fossa;
3 - head of mandibula;
4 - intertrochanteric groove.
37. Name the opening of posterior cranial fossa:
1 - stylomastoid foramen;
2 - jugular foramen;
3 –foramen lacerum;
4 - round foramen.
38. Name the opening that opens into the infratemporal fossa:
1 - foramen magnum;
2 - incisival canal;
3 - inferior orbital fissure;
4 - condular canal.
39. Name the opening in the wall of the orbit:
1 - hypoglossal canal;
2 - mastoid canal;
3 - nasolacrimal canal;
4 - pterygoid canal.
40. What ligaments joins the arches of vertebrae?
1 - yellow ligament;
2 - tectorial membrane;
3 - posterior longitudinal ligament;
4 - nuchal ligament.
41. What ligament consolidate the shoulder joint?
1 - coraco-acromial ligament;
2 - coracoclavicular ligament;
3 - upper transverse ligament of scapula;
4 - coracohumeral ligament.
42. What movements are possible in elbow joint?
1 - abduction and adduction;
2 - flexion and extension;
3 - rotation of ulna;
4 - circular movements.
43. Denote joint, having intracapsular ligaments.
1 - shoulder joint;
2 - sternoclavicular joint;
3 - hip joint;
4 - talocrural joint.
44. Denote intracapsular ligament of knee joint.
1 - transverse ligament of knee;
2 - oblique popliteal ligament;
3 - arcuate popliteal ligament;
4 - tibial collateral ligament.
45. What is the shape of atlanto-occipital joint?
1 - ellipsoid;
2 - condyloid;
3 - plane;
4 - hinge.
46. Denote ligament of costovertebral joints:
1 - capitis costae ligament;
2 - anterior atlanto-occipital membrane;
3 - cruciate ligament of atlas;
4 - alar ligaments.
47. Name ligament, which is not related with elbow joint:
1 - ulnar collateral ligament;
2 - radial collateral ligament;
3 - annular ligament of radius;
4 - coracohumeral ligament.
48. Which bone does not participate in the formation of radiocarpal joint?
1 - os pisiforme;
2 - os triquetrum;
3 - os scaphoideum;
4 - radius.
49. What joint (in shape) are the interphalangeal joints of the hand related to?
1 - pivot joint;
2 - spherical joint;
3 - hinge joint;
4 - plane joint.
50. What anatomical formation does the greater sciatic foramen form?
1 - sacrotuberal ligament;
2 - sacrospinous ligament;
3 - obturator membrane;
4 - lesser sciatic notch.
51. Denote the size of conjugate vera:
1 - 12,5-13 cm;
2 - 12-13 cm;
3 - 10,5-11 cm;
4 - 9-10 cm.
52. Denote most strong ligament of sacroiliac joint:
1 - interosseous sacro-iliac ligament;
2 - anterior sacro-iliac ligament;
3 - posterior sacro-iliac ligament;
4 - iliolumbar ligament.
53. Denote anatomical structure, not forming the hip joint:
1 - lesser sciatic foramen;
2 - acetabulum;
3 - labrum acetabulare;
4 - caput femoris.
54. Name extracapsular ligament of knee joint:
1 - oblique popliteal ligament;
2 - anterior cruciate ligament;
3 - posterior cruciate ligament;
4 - transverse ligament of knee.
55. Name part of the erector spinae muscle:
1 - m. iliocostalis;
2 - m. splenius capitis;
3 - m. transversospinalis;
4 - m. rectus capitis posterior major.
56. Denote structure, participating in the formation of the wall of inguinal canal:
1 - m. obliquus externus abdominis;
2 - m. rectus abdominis;
3 - m. pyramidalis;
4 - ligamentum inguinale.
57. Name infrahyoid muscle:
1 - m. sternohyoideus;
2 - m. mylohyoideus;
3 - m. stylohyoideus;
4 - m. digastricus.
58. Name site of attachment of the levator scapulae muscle:
1 - clavicle;
2 - occipital bone;
3 - superior angle of the scapula;
4 - transverse process of the atlas.
59. Denote anatomical structure, bordering the trilateral foramen:
1 - m. teres minor;
2 - humerus;
3 - m. deltoideus;
4 - m. teres major.
60. Denote muscle of the superficial layer of the anterior group of the forearm:
1 - m. flexor carpi radialis;
2 - m. flexor digitorum profundus;
3 - m. pronator quadratus;
4 - m. extensor carpi ulnaris.
61. Denote muscle of the thenar:
1 - m. flexor pollicis longus;
2 - m. opponens pollicis;
3 - mm. interossei dorsales;
4 - m. extensor pollicis longus.
62. What anatomical structure pass through the muscular space?
1 - m. sartorius;
2 - m. iliopsoas;
3 - m. obturatorius internus;
4 - m. piriformis.
63. Denote muscle adducting the thigh:
1 - m. biceps femoris;
2 - m. quadriceps femoris;
3 - m. sartorius;
4 - m. gracilis.
64. Denote muscle of the posterior group of the leg:
1 - m. tibialis anterior;
2 - m. extensor digitorum longus;
3 - m. gastrocnemius;
4 - m. peroneus brevis.
65. Denote bone, where trapezius muscle originates:
1 - spinous processes of thoracic vertebrae;
2 - sternum;
3 - clavicle;
4 - transverse processes of cervical vertebrae.
66. Denote the attachment of latissimus dorsi muscle:
1 - medial margin of scapula;
2 - crest of lesser tubercle of humerus;
3 - anatomical neck of humerus;
4 - crest of greater tubercle of humerus.
67. Denote the function of the posterior superior serratus muscle:
1 - pulls the scapula upward;
2 - pulls the ribs downward;
3 - extends head;
4 - raises the ribs.
68. Denote anatomical structure, which passes through hiatus in tendinous center of the
diaphragm:
1 - trachea;
2 - aorta;
3 - superior vena cava;
4 - stomach.
69. Name muscle, lowering the ribs:
1 - mm. intercostales externi;
2 - m. subclavius;
3 - mm. levatores costarum;
4 - mm. intercostales interni.
70. Denote anatomical structure - the site for insertion of the pectoralis major muscle:
1 - first rib;
2 - xyphoid process of sternum;
3 - greater tubercle of the humerus;
4 - clavicle.
71. Denote anatomical structure on the posterior surface of the anterior abdominal wall,
corresponding to the deep inguinal ring:
1 - medial inguinal fossa;
2 - supravesical fossa;
3 - lateral inguinal fossa;
4 - vascular space.
72. Denote the attachment of transverse abdominal muscle:
1 - linea alba;
2 - iliac crest;
3 - inferior margins of the 10th–12th ribs;
4 - pubic symphysis.
73. Name suprahyoid muscle:
1 - m. omohyoideus;
2 - m. digastricus;
3 - m. thyrohyoideus;
4 - m. longus colli.
74. Denote the deep muscle of the neck, attaching to the 2nd rib:
1 - m. scalenus medius;
2 - m. scalenus posterior;
3 - m. longus colli;
4 - m. scalenus anterior.
75. Denote function of the platysma:
1 - preserves subcutaneous veins from constriction;
2 - lowers mandible;
3 - raises the hyoid bone;
4 - pulls the chest upward.
76. Denote cellular tissue space (compartment) of the neck, communicating with the
mediastinum:
1 - retrovisceral space;
2 - antescalene space;
3 - suprasternal interfascial space;
4 - interscalene space.
77. Name muscle simultaneously moving the angle of the mouth outwards and upwards:
1 - m. levator labii superioris;
2 - m. zygomaticus major;
3 - m. mentalis;
4 - m. procerus.
78. On what bone the masseter muscle originates?
1 - pterygoid process of the sphenoid bone;
2 - temporal bone;
3 - zygomatic bone;
4 - alveolar arch of maxilla.
79. Denote muscle, abducting the upper extremity above horizontal plane:
1 - m. teres major;
2 - m. supraspinatus;
3 - m. subscapularis;
4 - m. teres minor.
80. Denote structure, forming the wall of the canal of radial nerve (humeromuscular canal):
1 - m. coracobrachialis;
2 - m. biceps brachii;
3 - m. triceps brachii;
4 - m. brachioradialis.
81. Denote muscle of the anterior group of the forearm:
1 - m. flexor digitorum profundus;
2 - m. extensor carpi radialis longus;
3 - m. extensor digitorum;
4 - m. supinator.
82. Denote muscle of the external group of the pelvis:
1 - m. obturatorius internus;
2 - m. piriformis;
3 - m. quadratus femoris;
4 - m. iliacus.
83. Denote muscle of the soft palate:
1 - palatopharyngeus;
2 - levator labii superioris;
3 - stylopharyngeus;
4 - salpingopharyngeus.
84. Denote muscle, constricting the fauces:
1 - m. tensor veli palatini;
2 - m. palatoglossus;
3 - m. constrictor pharyngis medius;
4 - m. palatopharyngeus.
85. Denote papillae on the side surface of the tongue, having taste buds:
1 - fungiform;
2 - vallate;
3 - foliate;
4 - filiform.
86. Point out the site of position of the lingual tonsil:
1 - apex of tongue;
2 - body of tongue;
3 - side surface of tongue;
4 - root of tongue.
87. Denote muscle, pulling the tongue forwards and downwards:
1 - m. hyoglossus;
2 - m. genioglossus;
3 - m. longitudinalis superior;
4 - m. longitudinalis interior.
88. Denote muscle of the tongue:
1 - m. constrictor pharyngis medius;
2 - m. levator veli palatini;
3 - m. stylopharyngeus;
4 - m. hyoglossus.
89. Denote the age of eruption of the first milk tooth:
1 - 2-3 months;
2 - 5-7 months;
3 - 9-10 months;
4 - 2nd year.
90. Denote the age of eruption all 20 deciduous teeth:
1 - 2-3 months;
2 - 5-7 months;
3 - 9-10 months;
4 - 2- 2,5 year.
91. Dental formula deciduous teeth:
1 - 2-1-0-2;
2 - 1-2-2-0;
3 - 2-1-2-3;
4 - 2-2-1-2.
92. What surface not has tooth?
1 - vestibular surface;
2 - lingual surface;
3 - root surface;
4 - masticating surface.
93. Point out anatomical formation on the skull, where pharynx is attached:
1 - tuberculum pharyngeum;
2 - maxillary hiatus;
3 - cribriform lamina;
4 - condyllar canal.
94. Indicate site of origin of the constrictor pharyngis inferior:
1 - hyoid bone;
2 - cricoid cartilage;
3 - mandible;
4 - sphenoid bone.
95. Indicate orifice, opening into the nasopharynx:
1 - maxillary hiatus;
2 - fauces;
3 - sphenoidal sinus;
4 - auditive tubes.
96. Denote longitudinal muscle of the pharynx:
1 - m. constrictor pharyngis medius;
2 - m. levator veli palatini;
3 - m. stylopharyngeus;
4 - m. hyoglossus.
97. What part not has esophagus?
1 - cervical part;
2 - thoracic part;
3 - abdominal part;
4 - pelvic part.
98. Indicate anatomical formation, characteristic for esophagus:
1 - transverse folds;
2 - intestinal villi;
3 - grouped lymphoid nodules;
4 - longitudinal folds.
99. Indicate the level of entrance into the stomach:
1 - 9th thoracic vertebra;
2 - 10th thoracic vertebra;
3 - 12th thoracic vertebra;
4 - 1th lumbar vertebra.
100. Denote ligament, not originating from the greater curvature of the stomach:
1 - gastrophrenic ligament;
2 - hepatogastric ligament;
3 - gastrocolic ligament;
4 - gastrosplenic ligament.
101. Denote the direction of muscular fascicles, which not has muscular tunic of the stomach:
1 - circular;
2 - oblique;
3 - spiral;
4 - longitudinal.
102. What is the part not has of stomach?
1 - tail;
2 - cardiac part;
3 - fundus;
4 - pyloric part.
103. Indicate part of the intestine, having lymphoid patches in its walls:
1 - cecum;
2 - ileum;
3 - jejunum;
4 - sigmoid colon.
104. Indicate duct, opening on the greater papilla of duodenum:
1 - main pancreatic and common bile ducts;
2 - accessory pancreatic duct;
3 - left hepatic duct;
4 - common hepatic duct.
105. Point out the site of localization of omental appendices:
1 - large intestine;
2 - small intestine;
3 - pancreas;
4 - duodenum.
106. Indicate biliary duct, forming common bile duct:
1 - cystic duct and common hepatic duct;
2 - right hepatic duct;
3 - left hepatic duct;
4 - accessory pancreatic duct.
107. Point out organ, contacting with the head of the pancreas:
1 - ascending colon;
2 - stomach;
3 - right kidney;
4 - duodenum.
108. Indicate anatomical formation, characteristic for stomach:
1 - intestinal villi;
2 - grouped lymphoid nodules;
3 - glandulae gastricae propriae;
4 - transverse folds.
109. Denote anatomical formation, entering the portal fissure:
1 - renal artery;
2 - portal vein;
3 - common hepatic artery;
4 - umbilical vein.
110. Denote ligament of the liver, located on its diaphragmatic surface:
1 - coronary ligament;
2 - round ligament;
3 - venosus ligament;
4 - hepatogastric ligament.
111. Denote structures, forming the lesser omentum:
1 - hepatorenal and hepatoduodenal ligaments;
2 - hepatogastric and hepatoduodenal ligaments;
3 - gastrocolic and hepatogastric ligaments;
4 - gastrocolic and hepatorenal ligaments.
112. Name organ of the abdominal cavity relating to peritoneum mesoperitoneally?
1 - sigmoid colon;
2 - transverse colon;
3 - appendix;
4 - descending colon.
113. Name organ of the abdominal cavity relating to peritoneum extraperitoneally?
1 - pancreas;
2 - descending colon;
3 - ascending colon;
4 - sigmoid colon.
114. Where in the oral cavity the submandibular duct opens?
1 - frenulum of tongue;
2 - frenulum of lower lip;
3 - sublingual caruncle;
4 - sublingual fold.
115. Point out part of duodenum, into which common biliary duct and pancreatic duct open:
1 - ascending part;
2 - descending part;
3 - superior part;
4 - horizontal part.
116. Denote the position of pancreas in relation to peritoneum:
1 - intraperitoneal position;
2 - mesoperitoneal position;
3 - extraperitoneal position;
4 - intraperitoneal position with mesentery.
117. Denote ligament of the liver, located on its visceral surface:
1 - falciform ligament;
2 - round ligament;
3 - coronary ligament;
4 - left triangular ligament.
118. What cavity communicate directly with the nasopharynx?
1 - oral cavity;
2 - tympanic cavity;
3 - laryngopharynx;
4 - trachea.
119. What is the orientation of the arch of the cricoid cartilage?
1 - forwards;
2 - backwards;
3 - upwards;
4 - downwards.
120. Indicate structure, branching into the respiratory bronchioles.
1 - segmental bronchi;
2 - lobular bronchi;
3 - terminal bronchioles;
4 - lobar bronchi.
121. Indicate structure, bordering costodiaphragmatic recess.
1 - costal and diaphragmatic pleura;
2 - visceral and costal pleura;
3 - costal and mediastinal pleura;
4 - diaphragmatic and mediastinal pleura.
122. On which rib along medioclavicular line the inferior border of the right lung is projected?
1 - 9th rib;
2 - 7th rib;
3 - 8th rib;
4 - 6th rib.
123. Name cartilage, relating to the external nose:
1 - arytenoid cartilages;
2 - lateral cartilage of nose;
3 - cricoid cartilage;
4 - thyroid cartilage.
124. Point out formation, communicating with inferior nasal meatus:
1 - medial cellulae of ethmoid bone;
2 - nasolacrimal canal;
3 - maxillary sinus;
4 - posterior celluae of ethmoid bone.
125. Point out unpaired cartilages of the larynx:
1 - arytenoid cartilage;
2 - cricoid cartilage;
3 - sphenoid cartilage;
4 - corniculate cartilage.
126. Point out anatomical formation, bordering entrance into the laryngeal ventricle:
1 - vestibular and vocal folds;
2 - between arytenoid cartilages;
3 - aryepiglottic folds;
4 - glossoepiglottic folds.
127. Denote anatomical formation, located in the thoracic cavity in front of
trachea:
1 - sternothyroid muscle;
2 - cricoid cartilage;
3 - thoracic duct;
4 - aortic arch.
128. Indicate the level of origin of trachea in adult persons:
1 - 4th cervical vertebra;
2 - 6th cervical vertebra;
3 - 5th cervical vertebra;
4 - 1st thoracic vertebra.
129. Indicate the level of bifurcation of the trachea in adult persons:
1 - angle of sternum;
2 - 5th thoracic vertebra;
3 - jugular notch of sternum;
4 - brim of aortic arch.
130. Indicate proper topographo-anatomical relationship of the chief bronchus and blood
vessels (from above downwards) in the hilum of the right lung:
1 - pulmonary artery, pulmonary veins, chief bronchus;
2 - pulmonary veins, pulmonary artery, chief bronchus;
3 - chief bronchus, pulmonary veins, pulmonary artery;
4 - chief bronchus, pulmonary artery, pulmonary veins.
131. Indicate proper topographo-anatomical relationship of the chief bronchus and blood
vessels (from above downwards) in the hilum of the left lung:
1 - pulmonary artery, chief bronchus, pulmonary veins;
2 - chief bronchus, pulmonary artery, pulmonary veins;
3 - chief bronchus, pulmonary veins, pulmonary artery;
4 - pulmonary veins, pulmonary artery, chief bronchus.
132. Indicate the site of the superior interpleural field:
1 - behind pericardium;
2 - above sternum;
3 - behind manubrium of sternum;
4 - beside vertebral column.
133. Indicate the projection level of upper pole of left kidney:
1 - lower side of XI chest vertebra;
2 - middle part of XI chest vertebra;
3 - upper side of XI chest vertebra;
4 - lower side of XII chest vertebra.
134. Indicate the anatomical formation, which is a part of kidney peduncle:
1 - kidney pelvis;
2 - kidney vein;
3 - kidney fascia;
4 - capsule kidney.
135. Indicate where are located kidney-calices:
1 - in kidney cortical substance;
2 - in kidney cerebral substance;
3 - in kidney sinus;
4 - medial kidney pelvis.
136. In which part of a testis forms the semen?
1 - efferent ductules;
2 - convoluted tubules;
3 - straight tubules;
4 - tubules of network of testis.
137. Which part is distinguished in prostate?
1 - upper part;
2 - lower part;
3 - middle part;
4 - isthmus.
138. Indicate the organ to which adjoins prostate:
1 - top of urinary bladder;
2 - bottom of urinary bladder;
3 - ureter;
4 - penis.
139. Which part the penis has?
1 - root;
2 - apex;
3 - floor;
4 - medulla.
140. Indicate the layers of the uterus wall:
1 - perimetrium;
2 - myometrium;
3 – endometrium;
4 - all above.
141. Indicate the part of the uterus:
1 - uterus part;
2 - fallopian tube;
3 - cervix;
4 - top.
142. Indicate the deep muscle of the pelvis diaphragm.
1 - m. bulbospongiosus;
2 - coccygeal muscle;
3 - external sphincter muscle of anus;
4 - sphincter muscle of urethra.
143. Indicate the organ to which adjoins the back surface of urinary bladder of a
man:
1 - rectum;
2 - transverse colon;
3 - prostate gland;
4 - sigmoid colon
144. Indicate the superficial muscle of the pelvis diaphragm.
1 - coccygeal muscle;
2 - m. levator ani;
3 - external sphincter muscle of anus;
4 - sphincter muscle of urethra.
145. Men’s ejaculatory duct opens:
1 - into cavernous body;
2 - into the seminal vesicle;
3 - into the prostate part of urethra;
4 - into the membranous part of urethra.
146. Indicate the anatomical formation located in kidney pelvis:
1 - lymphatic vessels;
2 - ureter;
3 - major calices;
4 - kidney peduncle.
147. Indicate the anatomical formation which is not fixing kidney organ:
1 - kidney cover;
2 - abdomen presser;
3 - kidney peduncle;
4 - kidney pelvis.
148. Which segment absents in kidney:
1 - middle;
2 - upper frontal;
3 - rear;
4 - lower frontal.
149. Indicate the structure which are not located in cortical part of kidney:
1 - glomerule;
2 - straight renal tubule;
3 - proximal convoluted tubule;
4 - distal convoluted tubule.
150. Indicate the structure located in pars radiate of kidney:
1 - glomerule;
2 - straight renal tubule;
3 - proximal convoluted tubule;
4 - distal convoluted tubule.
151. Indicate the structure which absents in nephron:
1 - capsule of glomerule;
2 - proximal convoluted tubule;
3 - renal papilla;
4 - distal convoluted tubule.
152. Indicate the structure which is a part of fornical apparatus of kidney:
1 - conjunctive tissue enveloping renal papilla;
2 - muscle cover of walls of kidney pelvis;
3 - circular muscle layer of minor calices;
4 - distal convoluted tubule.
153. Indicate the location of urinary bladder’s triangle:
1 - at the top area of urinary bladder;
2 - at the neck area of urinary bladder;
3 - at the bottom area of urinary bladder;
4 - at the body area of urinary bladder.
154. Which part absents in urinary bladder?
1 - apex;
2 - isthmus;
3 - cervix;
4 - body.
155. Which part the penis has?
1 - testis lobe;
2 - mediastinum of testis;
3 - corpus spongiosum penis;
4 - septum of testis.
156. Indicate the anatomical formation fixing the penis:
1 - deep hanging chord;
2 - pubis-prostate chord;
3 - bulb;
4 - bulbo - urethral gland.
157. Which organ related to internal female genital organs?
1- labia major;
2 - labia minora;
3 - uterus;
4 - clitoris.
158. Indicate the location bulb of the vestibule:
1 - base of the major vulvar lips;
2 - above the clitoris;
3 - base of the minor vulvar lips;
4 - lower the vagina opening.
159. Which muscle absents in urogenital diaphragm?
1 - m. bulbospongiosus;
2 - m. ischiocavernosus;
3 - m. transverses perinei superficiales;
4 - m. iliococcygeys.
160. Indicate opening in walls of the right atrium.
1 - openings of pulmonary veins;
2 - opening of superior vena cava;
3 - opening of pulmonary trunk;
4 - opening of aorta.
161. Indicate element of the conducting system of the heart.
1 - pericardium;
2 - coronary sinus;
3 - vortex of heart;
4 - sinoatrial node.
162. Indicate artery, forming the cerebral arterial circle.
1 - ophthalmic artery;
2 - anterior cerebral artery;
3 - maxillary artery;
4 - anterior choroidal artery.
163. Indicate unpaired visceral branch of the abdominal aorta.
1 - coeliac trunk;
2 - superior phrenic arteries;
3 - renal artery;
4 - middle rectal artery.
164. Name branch of the popliteal artery.
1 - deep artery of the thigh;
2 - perforating arteries;
3 - posterior tibial artery;
4 - descending genicular artery.
165. Indicate the level of formation of the inferior vena cava.
1 - 3rd lumbar vertebra;
2 - 1st sacral vertebra;
3 - 4th lumbar vertebra;
4 - 12th thoracic vertebra.
166. Indicate vein, receiving blood from the liver.
1 - superior mesenteric vein;
2 - portal vein;
3 - splenic vein;
4 - hepatic vein.
167. Indicate the localization of subclavian vein on its path from axillary cavity.
1 - in interscalene space;
2 - in antescalene space;
3 - front the sternoclavicular joint;
4 - between lst and 2nd ribs.
168. lndicate layer myocardium, common for both ventricles of heart:
1- external layer of obliquely oriented fibres;
2 - middle layer of circular fibres;
3 - external layer of transverse fibres;
4 - internal layer of transverse fibres.
169. Indicate cusp of the left atrioventricular (mitral) valve of the heart:
1 - right semilunar;
2 - septal;
3 - lateral;
4 - anterior.
170. Indicate the localization of the oval depression (fossa ovalis) of the heart:
1 - wall of right atrium;
2 - interventricular septum;
3 - interatrial septum;
4 - wall of left atrium.
171. Indicate the site of projection of the apex of the heart on the anterior thoracic wall:
1 - cartilage of 4th left rib;
2 - left 4th rib on medioclavicular line;
3 - left 5th intercostal space 1-1,5 cm medial to medioclavicular line;
4 - left 5th rib on medioclavicular line.
172. What surface allocate at heart?
1 - diaphragmatic;
2 – mediastinal;
3 - pulmonalis;
4 - sternalis.
173. Specify of apertures of vessels available in walls of the left ventricles:
1 - aperture of coronal sinus;
2 - apertures pulmonary veins;
3 - aperture of an aorta;
4 - aperture of pulmonary trunk.
174. What is the main element of cardiovascular system?
1 - lungs;
2 - heart;
3 - stomach;
4 - liver.
175. Indicate the layer which not located in the wall of the heart?
1 - epicardium;
2 - myocardium;
3 - tunica mucosa;
4 - endocardium.
176. Indicate terminal branch of the external carotid artery:
1 - superficial temporal artery;
2 - lingual artery;
3 - supraorbital artery;
4 - infraorbital artery.
177. Indicate branch of the subclavian artery in interscalene space:
1 - superficial cervical artery;
2 - suprascapular artery;
3 - costocervical trunk;
4 - thyrocervical trunk.
178. Indicate branch of the thoracic aorta:
1 - lumbar arteries;
2 - inferior epigastric arteries;
3 - superior suprarenal arteries;
4 - superior phrenic arteries.
179. Indicate artery, forming the superficial palmar arc:
1 - radial artery;
2 - ulnar artery;
3 - princeps pollicis artery;
4 - deep palmar branch of ulnar artery.
180. Indicate branch of the brachial artery:
1 - anterior circumflex humeral artery;
2 - subscapular artery;
3 - deep artery of the arm;
4 - thoracodorsal artery.
181. Name branch of the coeliac trunk:
1 - left gastric artery;
2 - right gastric artery;
3 - superior mesenteric artery;
4 - jejunal arteries.
182. Designate branch of the inferior mesenteric artery:
1 - inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery;
2 - left colic artery;
3 - middle colic artery;
4 - ileocolic artery.
183. Indicate source of origin of the middle rectal artery:
1 - abdominal aorta;
2 - obturator artery;
3 - internal pudendal artery;
4 - internal iliac artery.
184. Name branche of the obturator artery:
1 - pubic branch;
2 - inferior rectal artery;
3 - femoral artery;
4 - umbilical artery.
185. Indicate site of passage of the femoral artery:
1 - greater sciatic foramen;
2 - femoral canal;
3 - vascular space;
4 - muscular space.
186. What artery form the plantar arch?
1 - first dorsal metatarsal artery;
2 - medial plantar artery;
3 - medial tarsal arteries;
4 - arcuate artery.
187. The occipital venous sinus of the dura mater is in the base of:
1 - Falx cerebri;
2 - Falx cerebella;
3 - Tentorium cerebella;
4 - Diafragmae cellae.
188. The transversus sinus is formed by the same groove on the occipital bone and:
1 - Falx cerebri;
2 - Falx cerebella;
3 - Tentorium cerebella;
4 - Diafragmae cellae.
189. Specify extracranial inflows of internal jugular vein:
1 - Vv. cerebri;
2 - Vv. diploicae;
3 - Vv. auditivae;
4 - V. retromandibularis.
190.
Arcus venosus juguli is located in:
1 - Spatium interaponeuroticum suprasternale;
2 - Spatium pretraheale;
3 - Spatium interscalenum;
4 - Spatium antescalenum.
191. Vena thyroidea superior drains into:
1 - v. jugularis externa;
2 - v. jugularis interna;
3 - v. jugularis anterior;
4 - v. vertebralis.
192. Vena lingualis drains into:
1 - v. jugularis externa;
2 - v. jugularis interna;
3 - v. jugularis anterior;
4 - v. vertebralis.
193. Pharyngial veins can drain into:
1 - v. jugularis externa;
2 - v. jugularis anterior;
3 - v. subscapularis;
4 - v. facialis.
194. Vena thoracica interna drains into:
1 - v. cava superior;
2 - v. brachiocephalica;
3 - v. jugularis interna;
4 - v. subclavia.
195. Vena vertebralis drains into:
1 - v. cava superior;
2 - v. brachiocephalica;
3 - v. jugularis interna;
4 - v. subclavia.
196. From which stucture is blood drains into v. cava superior:
1 - head;
2 - kidney;
3 - lower limb;
4 – ureter.
197. V. hemiazigos accessoria can drain into:
1 - v. hemiazigos;
2 - v. subclavia;
3 - v. cava superior;
4 - v. azigos.
198. lndicate site of termination of thoracic duct:
1 - right brachiocephalic vein;
2 - left venous angle;
3 - external jugular vein;
4 - superior vena cava.
199. Indicate group of lymph nodes, receiving lymphatic vessels from ovaries:
1 - inferior mesenteric nodes;
2 - external iliac nodes;
3 - inguinal nodes;
4 - lumbar nodes.
200. Indicate anatomical structure of lymphatic system:
1 - Lymph node;
2 - Aorta;
3 - Portal vein;
4 - Superior vena cava.
201. What lymphatic trunk not are in the human body?
1 - Tr. Jugularis;
2 - Tr. Brahiocephalicus;
3 - Tr. Bronchomediastinalis;
4 - Tr. Subclavius.
202. Indicate visceral lymph nodes:
1 - internal iliac nodes;
2 - anterior mediastinal nodes;
3 - parasternal nodes;
4 - intercostal nodes.
203. What group of lymph nodes receives lymph from the mammary gland?
1 - prevertebral;
2 - tracheal;
3 - submandibular;
4 - axillary.
204. Indicate conducting tract in the posterior funiculus of the spinal cord:
1 - tectospinal tract;
2 - anterior spinocerebellar tract:
3 - posterior spinocerebellar tract;
4 - gracile fascicule.
205. What structure divides pons into tegmentum and base?
1 - medial lemniscus;
2 - trapezoid body;
3 - basilar sulcus;
4 - transverse pontine fibres.
206. Indicate nucleus of cerebellum:
1 - emboliform nucleus;
2 - nuclei of reticular formation;
3 - ruber nucleus;
4 - dorsal nucleus of trapezoid body.
207. What part of the brain is connected by middle cerebellar peduncles?
1 - midbrain;
2 - myelencephalon;
3 - cerebellum;
4 - ventriculus quartus.
208. Name extrapyramidal structure:
1 - formation reticularis;
2 - medial lemniscus;
3 - laterial lemniscus;
4 - ruber nucleus.
209. Indicate cranial nerve, which has the nucleus of solitary tract:
1 - 12th nerve;
2 - 9th nerve;
3 - 11th nerve;
4 - 8 h nerve.
210. Indicate an opening, connecting 3rd ventricle with lateral and 4th ventricles:
1 - median aperture;
2 - lateral aperture;
3 - orifice of aqueductus cerebri;
4 - area vestibularis.
211. Indicate subcortical optic center:
1 - medial geniculate body;
2 - substantia nigra;
3 - posterior perforated substance;
4 - superior colliculi of midbrain.
212. What anatomical structure borders the internal capsule?
1 - adhesio intertalamica;
2 - metathalamus;
3 - lentiform nucleus;
4 - claustrum.
213. Indicate structure of brain, secreting liquor?
1 - arachnoid mater;
2 - choroid plexus of lateral ventricles;
3 - dura mater;
4 - apertura mediana of 4th ventricle.
214.Indicate nuclus of the anterior horn of the spinal cord:
1 - nucleus proprius;
2 - thoracic nucleus;
3 - anterolateral nucleus;
4 - substantia gelatinosa.
215. Choose a cranial nerve, which has nucleus, settled in the pons?
1 - VII pare of cranial nerve;
2 - IX pare of cranial nerve;
3 - III pare of cranial nerve;
4 - X pare of cranial nerve.
216. What part of the brain is connected by inferior cerebellar peduncles?
1 - pons;
2 - myelencephalon;
3 - mesencephaon;
4 - diencephalon.
217. Choose the component part of the brain, which does not belong to the
cerebellum?
1 - hemisphere of cerebellum;
2 - vermis of cerebellum;
3 - crus of cerebellum;
4 - lateral ventricle.
218. Indicate cranial nerve, which has only one nucleus ambiguus is a common one:
1 - 7th nerve;
2 - 10th nerve;
3 - 8h nerve;
4 - 12th nerve.
219. Indicate part of the brain, where the inferior salivatory nucleus is located:
1 - pons;
2 - midbrain;
3 - myelencephalon;
4 - diencephalon.
220. Indicate conducting tract in the tegmentum of the midbrain:
1 - tectospinal tract;
2 - lateral corticospinal tract;
3 - anterior corticospinal tract;
4 - optic tract.
221. What anatomical structure belongs to epithalamus?
1 - habenular trigone;
2 - medial geniculate body;
3 - interthalamic adhesion;
4 - infundibulum.
222. Choose the anatomical form which does not belong to diencephalon?
1 - olives;
2 - thalamus;
3 - mamillary bodies;
4 - optic chiasma.
223. Indicate sulcus on the dorsolateral surface of the cerebral hemisphere:
1 - rhinal sulcus;
2 - central sulcus;
3 - hippocampal sulcus;
4 - cingulate sulcus.
224. What area of cerebral cortex are related to the optic centre?
1 - occipital lobe;
2 - superior parietal lobulus;
3 - inferior frontal gyrus;
4 - inferior parietal lobulus.
225. In what gyrus a cortical motor centre is located?
1 - superior frontal gyrus;
2 - postcentral gyrus;
3 - middle temporal gyrus;
4 - precentral gyrus.
226. Indicate the site of localization of cortical centre of general sensitivity?
1 - middle frontal gyrus;
2 - occipital lobe;
3 - postcentral gyrus;
4 - opercular part.
227. Indicate part of the brain the cerebral peduncles belong to:
1 - midbrain;
2 - diencephalon;
3 - telencephalon;
4 - metencephalon.
228. What anatomical structure belongs to telencephalon:
1 - black substance;
2 - basal nuclei;
3 - pulvinar;
4 - infundibulum.
229. Indicate basal nucleus of the brain:
1 - red nucleus;
2 - corpus striatum;
3 - ventriculis lateralis;
4 - rhinencephalon.
230. What anatomical structure form wall of the central part of lateral ventricle?
1 - thalamus;
2 - septum pellucidum;
3 - corpus striatum;
4 - claustrum.
231. Indicate opening, connecting a cavity of 4th ventricle with subarachnoid space?
1 - opening of cerebral aqueduct;
2 - lateral apertures;
3 - venus plexus;
4 - interventricular foramina.
232. What sinus flow into the straight sinus?
1 - superior sagittal sinus;
2 - inferior sagittal sinus;
3 - small cerebral vein;
4 - rectus sinus.
233. Indicate conducting tract in the internal capsule:
1 - long associative fibres;
2 - comissural fibres;
3 - projectional fibres;
4 - short associative fibres.
234. The body of the second neuron of the posterior spinalcerebellum tract is
located:
1 - in thoracic nucleus of spinal cord;
2 - in the proper nucleus of spinal cord;
3 - in lateral intermediate substance;
4 - in mediale intermediate substance.
235. What part of the spinal cord the pyramidal tract is passing through?
1 - posterior comissure;
2 - anterior funiculus;
3 - posterior funiculus;
4 - white (anterior) comissure.
236. The body of the second neuron of rubrospinal tract is obstructed:
1 - in the sensory nuclei of cranial nerves;
2 - in the motor nuclei of cranial nerves;
3 - in the vegetative nuclei of cranial nerves;
4 - in the anterior horns of spinal cord.
237. Choose the part of brain in which pass the fibers of corticospinal tract:
1 - genu internal capsula;
2 - anterior part of posterior crus;
3 - posterior part of posterior crus;
4 - anterior part of anterior crus.
238. Indicate layer of the eyeball:
1 - mucous layer;
2 - fibrous layer;
3 - muscular layer;
4 - serous layer.
239. Indicate smooth muscle of the eyeball:
1 - superior rectus muscle;
2 - sphincter pupillae;
3 - superior oblique muscle;
4 - inferior rectus muscle.
240. Indicate lateral wall of tympanic cavity:
1 - mastoid wall;
2 - labyrinthine wall;
3 - membranous wall;
4 - carotid wall.
241. Indicate structure of the cortical end of the auditory analyser:
1 - occipital lobe of brain;
2 - inferior quadrigeminal bodies;
3 - superior temporal gyrus (Heschl's gyrus);
4 - uncus.
242. Indicate nerve carrying taste innervation from the tongue:
1 - accessory nerve (XI pair);
2 - hypoglossal nerve (XII pair);
3 - glossopharyngeal nerve (IX pair);
4 - abducent nerve (VI pair).
243. What structure does produce aqueous humor filling anterior and
posterior chambers of the eyeball?
1 - epithelium of cornea;
2 - epithelium of iris;
3 - pigmented layer of retina;
4 - epithelium, covering ciliary body and its processes.
244. Indicate the refracting media of the eye:
1 - sclera;
2 - retina;
3 - lens;
4 - ciliary body.
245. Indicate anatomical structure of the external ear:
1 - auditory ossicles;
2 - stapedius muscle;
3 - auricle;
4 - cochlea.
246. Indicate the site of localization of the receptor of the auditory analyser:
1 - utricle and saccule;
2 - ampullae of the semicircular canals;
3 - tympanic cavity;
4 - organ of Corti (duct of the cochlea).
247. Indicate the site of localization of the olfactory receptor cells:
1 - utricle and saccule;
2 - olfactory region (nasal mucosa in the roof of the nasal cavity);
3 - olfactory bulb;
4 - organ of Corti.
248. Indicate mixed branch of cervical plexus:
1 - great auricular nerve;
2 - transverse cervical nerve;
3 - lesser occipital nerve;
4 - phrenic nerve.
249. Indicate muscle, supplied by the suprascapular nerve:
1 - posterior scalene muscle;
2 - levator scapulae muscle;
3 - supra- and infraspinatus muscles;
4 - greater pectoral muscle.
250. Indicate muscle, innervated by the axillary nerve:
1 - anterior scalene muscle;
2 - deltoid muscle;
3 - lesser pectoral muscle;
4 - greater pectoral muscle.
251. Indicate nerve, originating from the lateral fascicle of the brachial plexus:
1 - ulnar nerve;
2 - radial nerve:
3 - medial cutaneous nerve of arm;
4 - musculocutaneous nerve.
252. Indicate nerve innervating quadriceps femoris muscle:
1 - femoral nerve;
2 - sciatic nerve;
3 - obturator nerve;
4 - common fibular nerve.
253. Indicate muscle, innervated by trochlear nerve:
1 - superior oblique muscle;
2 - inferior oblique muscle;
3 - medial rectus muscle;
4 - lateral rectus muscle.
254. Indicate muscle, innervated by motor branches of facial nerve:
1 - mascles of mastication;
2 - mascles of facial expression;
3 - mascles of the tongue;
4 - mascles of the soft palate.
255. Indicate branch of ophthalmic nerve:
1 - auriculotemporal nerve;
2 - lingual nerve;
3 - facial nerve;
4 - lacrimal nerve.
256. Indicate salivary gland, innervated by glossopharyngeal nerve:
1 - submandibular gland;
2 - parotid gland;
3 - sublingual gland;
4 - palatine gland.
257. Indicate anatomical structure, innervated by recurrent laryngeal nerve:
1 - lungs;
2 - tongue;
3 - soft palate;
4 - oesophagus.
258. Indicate muscle, not innervated by ansa cervicalis:
1 - sternohyoid muscle;
2 - sternothyroid muscle;
3 - rectus capitis muscle;
4 - omohyoid muscle.
259. Indicate anatomical structure, innervated by greater occipital nerve:
1 - trapezius muscle;
2 - sternocleidomastoid muscle ;
3 - skin of posterior occipital and cervical region;
4 - skin of pectoral region.
260. Indicate anatomical structure, not innervated by phrenic nerve:
1 - liver;
2 - rectum;
3 - pleura;
4 – pericardium.
261. Indicate muscle, supplied by the thoracodorsal nerve:
1 - latissimus dorsi muscle;
2 - levator scapulae muscle;
3 - deltoid muscle;
4 - greater pectoral muscle.
262. Indicate nerve, not being the short branches of brachial plexus:
1 - long thoracic nerve;
2 - axillary nerve;
3 - lateral and medial pectoral nerves;
4 - medial cutaneous nerve of arm.
263. Indicate muscle, innervated by the long thoracic nerve:
1 - subscapularis muscle;
2 - anterior serratus muscle;
3 - latissimus dorsi muscle;
4 - intercostal muscles.
264. Indicate muscle, innervated by the subclavius nerve:
1 - subscapularis muscle;
2 - intercostal muscles;
3 - subclavius muscle;
4 - anterior serratus muscle.
265. Indicate nerve, not originating from the medial fascicle of the brachial
plexus:
1 - ulnar nerve;
2 - radial nerve:
3 - medial cutaneous nerve of forearm;
4 - medial cutaneous nerve of arm.
266. Indicate anatomical structure, innervated by the median nerve:
1 - I, II, III fingers of the palm;
2 - flexor digiti minimi brevis muscle;
3 - adductor pollicis brevis muscle;
4 - opponens digiti minimi muscle.
267. Indicate anatomical structure, innervated by the radial nerve:
1 - flexor digiti minimi brevis muscle;
2 - I, II and radial side of the III fingers on the dorsal
surface of the hand;
3 - abductor pollicis brevis muscle;
4 - opponens digiti minimi muscle.
268. Indicate branch, which not has the lumbar plexus:
1 - iliohypogastric nerve;
2 - subcostal nerve;
3 - obturator nerve;
4 - lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh.
269. Indicate muscle, innervated by genitofemoral nerve:
1 - transversus abdominis muscle;
2 - quadriceps muscle;
3 - cremaster muscle;
4 - rectus abdominis muscle.
270. Indicate short branch, which not has the sacral plexus:
1 - pudendal nerve;
2 - genitofemoral nerve;
3 - superior gluteal nerve;
4 - inferior gluteal nerve.
271. Indicate nerve passing through infrapiriform foramen:
1 - obturator nerve;
2 - genitofemoral nerve;
3 - sciatic nerve;
4 - femoral nerve.
272. Indicate a nerve, innervating gluteus maximus muscle:
1 - sciatic nerve;
2 - inferior gluteal nerve;
3 - superior gluteal nerve;
4 - femoral nerve.
273. Indicate muscles, innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve:
1 - posterior muscles of the forearm;
2 - anterior muscles of the arm;
3 - muscles of the thenar eminence;
4 - posterior muscles of the arm.
274. Indicate nerve, innervating the skin of the posterior surface of the upper
arm:
1 - posterior cutaneous nerve of the arm;
2 - musculocutaneous nerve;
3 - posterior cutaneous nerve of the forearm;
4 - ulnar nerve.
275. Indicate nerve, innervating the medial muscles of the thigh:
1 - obturator nerve;
2 - pudendal nerve;
3 - femoral nerve;
4 - superficial peroneal nerve.
276. Indicate muscles, innervated by the tibial nerve:
1 - anterior muscles of the leg;
2 - anterior muscles of the thigh;
3 - lateral muscles of the leg;
4 - posterior muscles of the leg.
277. Indicate nerve, innervating the skin of the medial surface of the leg:
1 - saphenous nerve;
2 - sural nerve;
3 - medial plantar nerve;
4 - lateral plantar nerve.
278. Indicate site of passage of the oculomotor nerve:
1 - lateral wall of occipital sinus;
2 - optic canal;
3 - superior orbital fissure;
4 - inferior orbital fissure.
279. Indicate muscle, innervated by abducent nerve:
1 - medial rectus muscle;
2 - inferior oblique muscle;
3 - lateral rectus muscle;
4 - superior oblique muscle.
280. Indicate nerve innervating m. ciliaris:
1 - abducent nerve;
2 - transverse cervical nerve;
3 - trochlear nerve;
4 - oculomotor nerve.
281. Indicate nucleus, which not has facial nerve:
1 - nucleus tractus solitarius;
2 - motor nucleus;
3 - nucleus salivatorius superior;
4 - nucleus salivatorius inferior.
282. Indicate branch, which not has ophthalmic nerve:
1 - lacrimal nerve;
2 - infraorbital nerve;
3 - frontal nerve;
4 - nasociliary nerve.
283. Indicate the fibrous contents of mandibular nerve:
1 - motor and common sensitivity fibres;
2 - taste fibres;
3 - sympathetic fibres;
4 - parasympathetic fibres.
284. Indicate an opening, the maxillary nerve is leaving the scull through:
1 - rotundum foramen;
2 - ovale foramen;
3 - spinous foramen;
4 - superior orbital fissure.
285. Indicate muscle, innervated by glossopharyngeal nerve:
1 - soft palate muscles;
2 - pharyngeal constrictors muscles;
3 - stylopharyngeal muscle;
4 - styloglossus muscle.
286. Indicate muscle, innervated by accessory nerve:
1 - rhomboid muscle;
2 - lateral pterygoid muscle;
3 - digastric muscle;
4 - trapezius muscle.
287. Indicate muscle, innervated by hypoglossal nerve:
1 - muscles of the tongue;
2 - stylohyoideus muscle;
3 - posterior belly digastric muscle;
4 - zygomaticus muscle.
288. Indicate organ, not innervated by the posterior trunk of vagus nerve:
1 - rectum;
2 - liver;
3 - small intestine;
4 - stomach.
289. Indicate anatomical structure, innervated by auricular branch of vagus
nerve:
1 - posterior auricular muscle;
2 - skin of external surface of auricle;
3 - anterior auricular muscle;
4 - superior auricular muscle.
290. Indicate the fibrous, which not contents of vagus nerve:
1 - sensitivity fibres;
2 - sympathetic fibres;
3 - motor fibres;
4 - parasympathetic fibres.
291. Indicate nucleus, which not has vagus nerve:
1 - nucleus tractus solitarius;
2 - nucleus ambiguus;
3 - nucleus dorsalis;
4 - nucleus accessorius.
292. Indicate anatomical structure, innervated by meningeal branch of
vagus nerve:
1 - posterior auricular muscle;
2 - dura mater;
3 - auditory meatus;
4 - concha auriculae.
293. Indicate site of localization of the superior cervical ganglion:
1 - anterior to bodies of 3rd-4nd cervical vertebrae;
2 - anterior to transverse processes of 2nd-3rd cervical vertebrae;
3 - anterior to bodies of 4nd-5rd cervical vertebrae;
4 - lateral to vagus nerve.
294. Indicate structure of the central part of the sympathetic nervous system:
1 - white communicating branches;
2 - pterygopalatine ganglion;
3 - of the spinal segments from CVIII to LII;
4 - grey communicating branches.
295. Indicate structure of the peripheral part of the sympathetic nervous
system:
1 - lateral horns of the spinal cord;
2 - pterygopalatine ganglion;
3 - intermedio-lateral nucleus;
4 - sympathetic trunks.
296. Indicate centre, not approaching the cranial part parasympathetic
nervous system:
1 - accessory nucleus;
2 - superior salivary nucleus;
3 - dorsal nucleus;
4 - motor nucleus.
297. Indicate structure of the peripheral part of the parasympathetic nervous
system:
1 - lateral horns of the spinal cord;
2 - pterygopalatine ganglion;
3 - intermedio-lateral nucleus CVIII to LII;
4 - sympathetic trunks.
298. Indicate autonomic ganglion, its secretory fibres innervating the
lacrimal gland:
1 - pterygopalatine ganglion;
2 - ciliary ganglion;
3 - submandibular ganglion;
4 - optic ganglion.
299. Indicate organ, supplied by branches of coeliac plexus:
1 - urinary bladder;
2 - stomach;
3 - heart;
4 - lung.
300. Indicate autonomic ganglion, its secretory fibres innervating the parotid
gland:
1 - submandibular ganglion;
2 - otic ganglion;
3 - pterygopalatine ganglion;
4 - ciliary ganglion.
Answers:
1-1
2-3
3-4
4-4
5-1
6-1
7-4
8-1
9-1
10 - 3
11- 2
12 - 4
13 - 3
14 - 1
15 - 2
16 - 2
17 - 1
18 - 4
19 - 2
20 - 2
21 - 4
22 - 3
23 - 2
24 - 3
25 - 3
26 - 4
27 - 4
28 - 3
29 - 3
30 - 1
31 - 2
32 - 1
33 - 3
34 - 2
35 - 1
36 - 1
37 - 2
38 - 3
39 - 3
40 - 1
41 - 4
42 - 2
43 - 3
44 - 1
45 - 2
46 - 1
47 - 4
48 - 1
49 - 3
50 - 2
51 - 3
52 - 1
53 - 1
54 - 1
55 - 1
56 - 4
57 - 1
58 - 2
59 - 4
60 - 1
61 - 2
62 - 2
63 - 4
64 - 3
65 - 1
66 - 2
67 - 4
68 - 2
69 - 4
70 - 3
71 - 3
72 - 1
73 - 2
74 - 2
75 - 1
76 - 1
77 - 2
78 - 3
79 - 2
80 - 3
81 - 1
82 - 3
83 - 1
84 - 4
85 - 3
86 - 4
87 - 2
88 - 4
89 - 2
90 - 4
91 - 1
92 - 3
93 - 1
94 - 2
95 - 4
96 - 3
97 - 4
98 - 4
99 - 2
100 - 2
101 - 3
102 - 1
103 - 2
104 - 1
105 - 1
106 - 1
107 - 4
108 - 3
109 - 2
110 - 1
111 - 2
112 - 4
113 - 1
114 - 3
115 - 2
116 - 3
117 - 2
118 - 2
119 - 1
120 - 3
121 - 1
122 - 4
123 - 2
124 - 2
125 - 2
126 - 1
127 - 4
128 - 2
129 - 2
130 - 4
131 -1
132 - 3
133 - 2
134 - 2
135 - 3
136 - 2
137 - 4
138 - 2
139 - 1
140 - 4
141 - 3
142 - 2
143 - 1
144 - 3
145 -4
146 - 3
147 - 4
148 - 1
149 - 2
150 - 2
151 - 3
152 - 3
153 - 3
154 - 2
155 - 3
156 - 1
157 - 3
158 - 2
159 - 4
160 - 2
161 - 4
162 - 2
163 - 1
164 - 3
165 - 3
166 - 4
167 - 2
168–1
169–4
170–3
171–3
172 -1
173 -3
174 -2
175 -3
176–1
177–3
178–4
179–2
180–3
181–1
182–2
183–4
184–1
185–3
186–2
187 -2
188 -3
189 -4
190 -1
191 -2
192 -2
193 -4
194 -2
195 -2
196 -1
197 -1
198 - 2
199 - 4
200 - 1
201 - 2
202 - 2
203 - 4
204 - 4
205 - 2
206 - 1
207 - 3
208 - 4
209 - 2
210 - 3
211 - 4
212 - 3
213 - 2
214 - 3
215 - 1
216 - 2
217 - 4
218 - 2
219 - 3
220 - 1
221 - 1
222 - 1
223 - 2
224 - 1
225 - 4
226 - 3
227 - 1
228 - 2
229 - 2
230 - 1
231 - 2
232 - 2
233 - 3
234 - 1
235 - 2
236 - 4
237 - 3
238 - 2
239 - 2
240 - 3
241 - 3
242 - 3
243 - 4
244 - 3
245 - 3
246 - 4
247 - 2
248 - 4
249 - 3
250 - 2
251 - 4
252 - 1
253 - 1
254 - 2
255 - 4
256 - 2
257 - 4
258 - 3
259 - 3
260 - 2
261 - 1
262 - 4
263 - 2
264 - 3
265 - 2
266 - 1
267 - 2
268 - 2
269 - 3
270 - 2
271 - 3
272 - 2
273 - 2
274 - 1
275 - 1
276 - 4
277 - 1
278 - 3
279 - 3
280 - 4
281 - 4
282 - 2
283 - 1
284 - 1
285 - 3
286 - 4
287 - 1
288 - 1
289 - 2
290 - 2
291 - 4
292 - 2
293 - 2
294 - 3
295 - 4
296 - 4
297 - 2
298 - 1
299 - 2
300 - 2