Download pmt amu examination - 2013

SERIES-B(CODE-15)
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
CAREER POINT
PMT AMU EXAMINATION - 2013
Q.1
Which of the following reactions would give isopropylbenzenes the major product ?
Cl
OH
Cl
AlCl3
(I)
Ans.
Q.2
H2SO4
H2SO4
(III)
(II)
(a) I and IV only
(c) II, III, IV only
[d]
AlCl3
(IV)
(b) II and III only
(d) All of the above
Ans.
In which of the following resonance of –NH2 is possible ?
(a) 1-Aminobutane
(b) Ethylamine
(c) Benzyl amine
(d) p-Toluidine
[d]
Q.3
The product obtained in the following reaction is -
O
P2O5
→ ?
CH3CH2CH2–C–NH2 
∆
(a) CH3CH2CH2COOH
(b) CH3CH2CH2–CN
OH
(c) CH3CH2CH2–C=NH
(d) None of the above
Ans.
[b]
Q.4
Which of the following will not give a primary amine ?
(a) CH3CN LiAlH
 4 →
(b) CH3NC LiAlH
 4 →
(c) CH3CONH2 LiAlH
 4 →
NaOH
(d) CH3CONH2 Br
2 ,
→
Ans.
[b]
Q.5
2, 4, 6-Trinitrochlorobenzne on warming with water produces (a) chlorobenzene
(b) picric acid
(c) phenol
(d) no compound since C–Cl bond is stable
[b]
Ans.
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SERIES-B(CODE-15)
Q.6
CAREER POINT
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
Which of the following will be most readily dehydrated in acidic conditions ?
O
O
OH
O OH
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
OH
OH
Ans.
[c]
Q.7
Wurtz reaction of methyl iodide yields an organic compound X. Which of the following reaction also yields
X?
→
(a) C2H5Cl + LiAlH4 
(b) C2H5Cl + Mg dry
ether

→
(c) C2H5Cl + C2H5ONa 
→
∆
(d) CHCl3+ Ag (powder) 
→
Ans.
[a]
Q.8
Among the following amines, the strongest Bronsted base is (b)
(a) NH3
Ans.
[b]
Q.9
Most stable radical is (a)
•
CH3
NH
(b)
(c)
•
CH3
Ans.
[a]
Q.10
Which of the following is a strong base ?
(a) NaOH
(b) KOH
[b]
Ans.
Q.11
Ans.
Q.12
Ans.
Q.13
Ans.
NH
NH2
(d)
•
•
(c) CH 2 = CH C H 2
(d) CH 2 C H
(c) Ca(OH)2
(d) Mg(OH)2
The following elements belong to second transition series (a) V, La, Hf, Ta
(b) Nb, Mo, Tc, Ru
(c) Ir, Os, Re, Ta
[b]
(d) Re, Os, Ir, Pt
What is the oxidation state of Co in [Co(H2O)5Cl]2+ ?
(a) + 2
(b) + 3
(c) + 1
[b]
(d) + 4
The unpaired electron in Ni(CO)4 is (a) 1
(b) 2
[d]
(d) 0
(c) 3
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SERIES-B(CODE-15)
Q.14
Ans.
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
The structure of diamagnetic nickel complex, [Ni(CN)4]2– is (a) trigonal bipyramidal
(b) tetrahedral
(c) square planar
(d) distorted octahedral
[c]
Ans.
The known oxidation states for both V and Co are (a) + 2, + 3, + 4, + 5
(b) + 2, + 3, + 4, + 5, + 6
(c) + 2, + 3, + 4
(d) + 2, + 3
[a]
Q.16
The expression for effective magnetic moment (µeff) is -
Q.15
(a) µ eff = n (n + 2) B.M.
(b) µ eff = 2(n + 2) B.M.
(c) µ eff = n (2n + 2) B.M.
(d) µ eff = n (n + 1) B.M.
Ans.
[a]
Q.17
Laughing gas is (a) N2O
[a]
Ans.
Q.18
CAREER POINT
(b) NO
Which one of the following is ferromagnetic ?
(a) Co
(b) Mn
(c) NO2
(d) N2O5
(c) Al
(d) Ag
Ans.
[a]
Q.19
What type of hybridization is involved in the metal ion of [Ni(H2O)6]+2 complex ?
(b) sp3d2
(c) sp3
(d) dsp2
(a) d2sp3
Ans.
[b]
Q.20
In which of the following the hydration energy is higher than the lattice energy ?
(b) BaSO4
(c) MgSO4
(d) RaSO4
(a) SrSO4
[c]
Ans.
Q.21
Which one of the following does not exist ?
(b) N2
(a) B2
Ans.
[d]
Q.22
Who proposed dual nature of electron ?
(a) de-Broglie
(b) Einstein
[a]
Ans.
(c) He2+
(d) Ne2
(c) Bohr
(d) Heisenerg
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SERIES-B(CODE-15)
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
Q.23
The oxyacid of sulphur that contains a lone pair of electrons on sulphur is (a) sulphurous acid
(b) sulphuric acid
(c) peroxodisulphuric acid
(d) pyrosulphuric acid
Ans.
[a]
Q.24
The complex showing a spin only magnetic of 2.82 B.M. is (b) [NiCl4]2–
(c) [Ni(PPh3)4]
(a) [Ni(CO)4]
[b]
Ans.
Q.25
In which of the following molecule / ion all the bonds are not equal (b) BF4–
(c) C2H4
(a) XeF4
CAREER POINT
(d) [Ni(CN)4]2–
(d) SiF4
Ans.
[c]
Q.26
The correct order of electron gain enthalpy with negative sign of F, Cl, Br and I, having atomic number 9, 17,
35 and 53 respectively, is (a) F > Cl > Br > I
(b) Cl > F > Br > I
(c) Br > Cl > I > F
(d) I > Br > Cl > F
[b]
Ans.
Q.27
Which of the following is the weakest base ?
(b) KOH
(a) Ca(OH)2
Ans.
[c]
Q.28
Identify the positively charged sol (a) Haemoglobin (Blood)
(c) Clay
(c) Li(OH)
(b) As2S3
(d) Gold sols
Ans.
[a]
Q.29
The following is an intensive property of a system (a) total mass
(b) total energy
(c) volume
(d) energy mol–1
Ans.
[d]
Q.30
Principle of paper chromatography is based on (a) Solid-liquid partition chromatography
(c) Liquid-solid adsorption chromatography
Ans.
(d) Sr(OH)2
(b) Liquid-liquid partition chromatography
(d) Liquid-liquid sorption chromatography
[b]
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SERIES-B(CODE-15)
Q.31
CAREER POINT
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
Predict the correct shape of BH4–
(a) pyramidal, sp3
(c) tetrahedral, sp3
(b) octahedral, sp3d2
(d) none of the above
Ans.
[c]
Q.32
The degree of ionization of HF in 0.100 M aqueous solution is - (freezing point of the solution = – 0.197ºC
and Kf for water = 1.86º)
(a) 6%
(b) 12%
(c) 3%
(d) 9%
Ans.
[a]
Q.33
Which of the following solution has the highest boiling point ?
(a) 1% glucose
(b) 1% NaCl
(c) 1% sucrose
[b]
Ans.
Q.34
The percentage of iron present as Fe(III) in Fe0.93O1.0 is (a) 8.3%
(b) 9.6%
(c) 11.5%
(d) 1% CaCl2
(d) 17.7%
Ans.
[c]
Q.35
Equimolal aqueous solutions of NaCl and BaCl2 are prepared. If the freezing point of NaCl is –2ºC, the
freezing point of BaCl2 solution is expected to be (a) – 2ºC
(b) – 3ºC
(c) – 1.5ºC
(d) – 1.66ºC
Ans.
[b]
Q.36
An ion with mass number 37 possesses one unit of negative charge. If the ion contains 11.1% more neutrons
than electrons, the symbol of the ion, X, is (a)
35
17 X
(b)
35 Θ
17 X
(c)
37
17 X
(d)
37 Θ
17 X
Ans.
[d]
Q.37
The pH of 0.05 M ammonia solution is 10.97. Find the ionization constant of the conjugate acid ammonia,
NH4+ : Given pKw = 14.0, Kb for ammonia = 1.77 × 10–5
(b) 9.77 × 10–5
(c) 4.99 × 10–10
(d) 5.64 × 10–10
(a) 4.77 × 10–5
Ans.
[d]
Q.38
Consider two standard half of cells based on the reaction
Ag+(aq) + e 
→ Ag(s)
The left half cell contains AgNO3 at 1M and the right half cell initially had the same conc. of AgNO3, but just
enough NaCl(aq) has been added to completely precipitate the Ag+(aq) as AgCl(s). If cell emf is 0.295 V, the Ksp
of AgCl is approximately (b) 6.60 × 10–12
(c) 1 × 10–10
(d) 6.60 × 10–10
(a) 1 × 10–12
Ans.
[c]
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SERIES-B(CODE-15)
Q.39
CAREER POINT
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
Mg with its external 3s2 configuration is (a) an insulator
(c) a semiconductor
(b) a conductor
(d) a superionic conductor
Ans.
[b]
Q.40
The average energy per molecule of a gas at a given temperature, T, is given by (a)
3
RT
2
(b)
3RT
M
(c)
8(R / N A )T
πM
(d)
3 R 

T
2  N A 
Ans.
[d]
Q.41
The rate of the reaction is given by rate, r = K [H+]n. If the rate becomes 100 times when the pH changes
from 2 to 1, the order of the reaction is (a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Ans.
[b]
Q.42
Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not possible ?
(a) n = 1, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = –
1
2
(b) n = 1, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = +
1
2
(c) n = 2, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = +
1
2
(d) n = 3, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = +
1
2
Ans.
[c]
Q.43
Methyl benzoate can be prepared by +
H
(a) C6H5COOH + CH3OH →
(b) C6H5COCl + CH3OH Pyridine

→
→
(c) C6H5COOH + CH2N2 
(d) All the above methods
Ans.
[d]
Q.44
In the reaction,
OH
4
→ X + 2NH4NO3 + 2H2O
HC ≡ CH + 2AgNO3 NH
'X' is (a) Ag2C
(b) Ag2C2
(c) AgC
Ans.
[b]
Q.45
Acid anhydride on reaction with primary amines give (a) imine
(b) 2º amine
(c) amide
[c]
Ans.
(d) AgOH
(d) imide
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SERIES-B(CODE-15)
CAREER POINT
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
Ans.
Which one of the following can not be made from 1-bromopropane in a single step ?
(a) Propane
(b) Propene
(c) Propan-1-ol
(d) Propyl amine
[a]
Q.47
5-Oxohexanal is obtained by ozonolysis is -
Q.46
(a)
CH2CH3
(b)
(c)
CH3
CH3
(d)
CH3
Ans.
[b]
Q.48
Drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called (a) antagonists
(b) agonists
(c) enzymes
(d) molecular targets
[a]
Ans.
Q.49
Which of the following carboxylic acids undergoes decarboxylation easily ?
(b) C6H5CHCOOH
(a) C6H5COCH2COOH
OH
(c) C6H5CHCOOH
(d) C6H5COCOOH
NH2
Ans.
[a]
Q.50
Kjeldahl method for estimation of nitrogen is not applicable to (a) pyridine
(b) hexamethylene diamine
(c) propan-1-amine
(d) 2-phenylethanamine
Ans.
[a]
Q.51
The
shaped object shown in figure has outside dimensions of 100 mm on each side, and each of its three
sides is 20mm wide. The respective values of the X, Y and Z coordinates of the center of mass of the object
will be close to y(mm)
100
50
20
0
Ans.
(a) (50, 50, 3) mm
[d]
20
(b) (50, 50, 6) mm
50
80 100
x(mm)
(c) (50, 38, 3) mm
(d) (50, 41, 3) mm
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SERIES-B(CODE-15)
Q.52
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
→
Two particles each of mass m and velocity v are traveling in the same direction along two parallel lines, in
the plane of the paper, separated by a distance d. A and B are two points on their lines of motion and C is a
point midway between the two lines (as shown in the figure). read the following statements –
→
m, v
A
C
Ans.
Q.53
Ans.
Q.54
Ans.
Q.55
CAREER POINT
d
→
B
m, v
(i) The magnitude of the total angular momentum of the two-particle system around the point A will be mvd.
(ii) The magnitude of the total angular momentum of the system around the point B will be mvd
(iii) The magnitude of the vector sum of angular momenta of the system around points A and B shall be zero
(iv) The magnitudes of the angular momentum of the system around C will be zero
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (iii) only
(c) (iii) and (iv) only
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
[d]
Three thin metal rods, each of mass M and length L, are welded to form an equilateral triangle. The moment
of inertia of the composite structure about an axis passing through the centre of mass of the structure and
perpendicular to its plane is 1
1
2
1
(a) ML2
(b) ML2
(c) ML2
(d) ML2
2
3
3
4
[a]
Three uniform spheres, with masses mA = 350 kg, mB = 2000 kg and mC = 500 kg, have the (x, y)
coordinates (0, 0) cm, (–80, 0) cm and (40, 0) cm respectively. The gravitional potential energy, U, of the
system and change in its value in terms of increase or decrease, if the sphere of mass mB is removed, may be
given as
(a) U = – 1.92 × 10–4 J and its value shall decrease if the sphere B is removed
(b) U = – 1.92 × 10–4 J and its value shall increase if the sphere B is removed
(c) U = – 1.43 × 10–4 J and its value shall decrease if mB is removed
(d) U = – 1.43 × 10–4 J and its value shall increase if mB is removed
[d]
The figure shows a spherical hollow inside a lead sphere of radius R; the surface of the hollow passes
through the center of the sphere and “touches” the right side of the sphere. The mass of the sphere before
hollowing was M. With what gravitational forces does the hollowed-out lead sphere attract a small sphere of
mass m that lies at a distance d from the center of the lead sphere, on the straight line connecting the centers
of the spheres and of the hollow ?
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SERIES-B(CODE-15)
CAREER POINT
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
d
R
m




1
GMm 1 –
2
(a)
R 
d 2  8 1 –


 2d  






1
GMm 1 +
2
(b)
d 2  41 – R  

 2d  






1
GMm 1 –
2
(c)
d 2  41 + R  

 2d  






1
GMm 1 –
2
(d)
R 
d 2  8 1 +


 2d  


Ans.
[a]
Q.56
A uniform wire of cross-sectional area ‘A’ and Young’s modulus ‘Y’ is stretched within the elastic limit. If
‘S’ is the stress in the wire, the elastic energy density stored in the wire in terms of the given parameters is (a)
S
2Y
(b)
2Y
(c)
S2
S2
2Y
(d)
S2
Y
Ans.
[c]
Q.57
A U-tube contains two liquids in static equilibrium : Water of density ρw (= 1000 kg/m3) is in the right arm
and oil of unknown density ρ is in the left arm as shown in the figure. Measurement gives l = 135 mm and
d = 12.5 mm. The density of oil is –
Oil
d
Water
l
Interface
Ans.
Q.58
(a) 1092 kg/m3
(b) 961 kg/m3
(c) 915 kg/m3
(d) 843 kg/m3
[c]
Two spheres A and B having radii of 3 cm and 5 cm respectively are coated with carbon black on their outer
surfaces. The wavelengths of radiations corresponding to maximum intensity of emission are 300 nm and
500 nm respectively. The respective powers radiated by them are in the ratio of
(a)
Ans.
5
3
(b)
5
3
5
(c)  
 3
2
5
(d)  
 3
4
[c]
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SERIES-B(CODE-15)
Q.59
Ans.
Q.60
Ans.
Q.61
Ans.
Q.62
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
Water is moving with a speed of 5.0 m/s through a pipe with a cross-sectional area of 4.0 cm2. The
water gradually descends 10 m as the pipe increases in area to 8.0 cm2. If the pressure at the upper level is
1.5×105 Pa, the pressure at the lower level will be (a) 2.8 × 105 Pa
(b) 2.6 × 105 Pa
(c) 2.4 × 105 Pa
(d) 2.1 × 105 Pa
[b]
Starting with the same initial conditions, an ideal gas expands from volume V1 to V2 in three different ways.
The work done by the gas is W1 if the process is purely isothermal, W2 if purely isobaric and W3 if purely
adiabatic. Then (a) W2 > W1 > W3
(b) W2 > W3 > W1
(c) W1 > W2 > W3
(d) W1 > W3 > W2
[a]
1 mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally so that its pressure falls from 1.0 × 105 Pa to 0.5 × 105 Pa. The
change in entropy of the gas is equal to (a) 0
(b) 0.693 J/K
(c) 5.76 J/K
(d) None of the above
[c]
In the given figure container A holds an ideal gas at a pressure of 5.0 × 105 Pa and a temperature of 300 K. It
is connected by a thin tube (and a closed valve) to container B, with four times the volume of A. Container B
holds same ideal gas at a pressure of 1.0 × 105 Pa and a temperature of 400 K. The valve is opened to allow
the pressures to equalize, but the temperature of each container is kept constant at its initial value. The final
pressure in the two containers will be close to -
A
5
Ans.
Q.63
Ans.
Q.64
Ans.
CAREER POINT
(a) 2.0 × 10 Pa
[a]
5
(b) 2.5 × 10 Pa
B
(c) 3.0 × 105 Pa
(d) 3.5 × 105 Pa
Water standing in the open at 32ºC evaporates because of the escape of some of the surface molecules. The
heat of vaporization (540 cal/g) is approximately equal to εn, where ε is the average energy of the escaping
molecules and n is the number of molecules per gram. The value of ε is close to (a) 1.62 × 10–20 J
(b) 4.23 × 10–20 J
(c) 6.75 × 10–20 J
(d) 8.31 × 10–20 J
[c]
A vessel contains a mixture of 1 mole of oxygen and two moles of nitrogen at 300 K. The ratio of the
rotational kinetic energy per O2 molecule to that per N2 molecule is (a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 1
(d) depends on the moment of inertia of the two molecules
[c]
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SERIES-B(CODE-15)
Q.65
Ans.
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
CAREER POINT
An oscillator consists of a block attached to a spring (k = 400 N/M). At some time t, the position (measured
from the system’s equilibrium location), velocity and acceleration of the block are x = 0.100 m, v = – 15.0 m/s,
and a = – 90 m/s2. The amplitude of the motion and the mass of the block are (a) 0.2 m, 0.84 kg
(b) 0.3 m, 0.76 kg
(c) 0.4 m, 0.54 kg
(d) 0.5 m, 0.44 kg
[d]
Ans.
An organ pipe A, with both ends open, has fundamental frequency 300 Hz. The third harmonic of another
organ pipe B, with one end open, has the same frequency as the second harmonic of pipe A. The lengths of
pipe A and B are (a) 57.2 cm and 42.9 cm (b) 57.2 cm and 45.8 cm (c) 42.9 cm and 32.2 cm (d) 42.9 cm and 34.0 cm
(speed of sound in air = 343 m/s)
[a]
Q.67
The transverse displacement of a string fixed at both ends is given by
Ans.
 2πx 
y = 0.06 sin 
 cos (120 πt)
 3 
where x and y are in metres and t is in seconds. The length of the string is 1.5 m and its mass is 3.0 × 10–2 kg.
The tension in the string is equal to (a) 648 N
(b) 724 N
(c) 832 N
(d) 980 N
[a]
Q.66
Q.68
A capacitor of capacity C1 = 3.5 µF is charged to a potential difference of V0 = 6.0 V using a battery. The
battery is then removed and the capacitor is connected using a switch S, as shown in the figure, to an
uncharged capacitor of capacity C2 = 6.5 µF. The total final energy of the two capacitors after they are
connected together and the charges |q1| and |q2| on the capacitors shall be S
C1
Ans.
Q.69
Ans.
(a) 63 µJ, |q1| = 7.35µC and |q2| = 13.65 µC
(c) 22 µJ, |q1| = 7.35µC and |q2| = 13.65 µC
[c]
V0
C2
(b) 22 µJ, |q1| = 10.5µC and |q2| = 10.5 µC
(d) 22 µJ, |q1| = 13.65µC and |q2| = 7.35 µC
Two identical conducting spheres, fixed in place, attract each other with an electrostatic force of 0.108 N
when separated by 50.0 cm, center to center. The spheres are then connected by a thin conducting wire.
When the wire is removed, the spheres repel each other with an electrostatic force of 0.0360 N. The intial
charges on the spheres were (b) 1 × 10–6 C, – 3 × 10–6 C
(a) 9 × 10–6 C, – 3 × 10–6 C
–6
–6
(c) – 3 × 10 C, 2 × 10 C
(d) 1 × 10–6 C, – 2 × 10–6 C
[b]
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11 / 31
SERIES-B(CODE-15)
Q.70
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
CAREER POINT
A non conducting sphere of radius ‘a’ has a net charger ‘+q’ uniformly distributed throughout its volume. A
spherical conducting shell having inner and outer, radii ‘b’ and ‘c’ and a net charge ‘– q’ is concentric with
the sphere (see the figure).
b
+q
a
c
Read the following statements :
(i) The electric field at a distance r from the center of the sphere for r < a =
(ii) The electric field at distance r for a < r < b = 0
(iii) The electric field at distance r for b < r < c = 0
(iv) The charge on the inner surface of the spherical shell = – q
(v) The charge on the outer surface of the spherical shell = +q
Which of the above statements are true ?
(a) (i), (ii) and (v)
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
1 qr
4πε0 a 3
(d) (ii), (iii) and (v)
Ans.
[b]
Q.71
A thin glass rod is bent into a semi circle of radius r. A charge + q is uniformly distributed along the upper
half and a charge –q is uniformly distributed along the lower half, as shown in the figure. The magnitude and
r
direction of the electric field E produced at P, the centre of the circle, will be -
+q
P
O
r
–q
(a) 0
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans.
q
ε0π2r 2
q
ε 0 πr 2
q
ε 0 πr 2
perpendicular to the line OP and directed downward
perpendicular to the line OP and directed downward
along the axis OP
[b]
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12 / 31
SERIES-B(CODE-15)
Q.72
CAREER POINT
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
A particle of positive charge Q is fixed at point P. A second particle of mass m and negative charge – q
moves at constant speed in a circle of radius r1, centered at P. The work W that must be done by an external
agent on the second particle to increase the radius of the motion to r2, is given by (a) W =
Qq
8πε0
 1 1
Qq  1 1 
Qq  1 1 
Qq  1 1 
 –  (b) W =
 –  (c) W =
 –  (d) W =
 – 
8πε0  r1 r2 
4πε0  r2 r1 
4πε0  r1 r2 
 r2 r1 
Ans.
[b]
Q.73
When 115 V is applied across a wire that is 10 m long and has a 0.30 mm radius, the current density is
1.4 × 104 A/m2. The resistivity of the wire is (a) 2.0 × 10–4 Ω - m
(b) 4.1 × 10–4 Ω - m
(c) 8.2 × 10–4 Ω - m
(d) 2.0 × 10–3 Ω - m
[c]
Ans.
Q.74
In the potentiometer circuit shown in the figure, the balance length AJ = 60 cm when switch S is open. When
switch S is closed and the value of R = 5 Ω, the balance length AJ′ = 50 cm. The internal resistance of the
cell C ′ is -
J′
A
C′
R
Ans.
Q.75
(a) 1.2 Ω
[b]
J
B
C
S
(b) 1.0 Ω
(c) 0.8 Ω
(d) 0.6 Ω
Figure shows a circuit with three ideal batteries in it. The circuit elements have the following values –
i1
i3
∆VB1
+
–
R1
R1
i1
i2
+
–
R2
R1
∆VB2
+
–
∆VB2
R1
i3
∆VB1 = 3.0 V, ∆VB2 = 6.0 V
Ans.
R1 = 2.0 Ω, R2 = 4.0 Ω.
The currents i1, i2 and i3 as shown in the circuit have the values.
(a) 0.50 A, – 0.25 A, +0.25 A
(b) 0.25 A, – 0.50 A, – 0.25 A
(c) 0.50 A, 0.50 A, 1.0 A
(d) – 0.25 A, 0.50 A, 0.25 A
[a]
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13 / 31
SERIES-B(CODE-15)
Q.76
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
CAREER POINT
The wire in the figure carries a current i and consists of a circular arc of radius R and central angle
r π/2 rad,
and two straight sections whose extensions intersect the center C of the arc. The magnetic field B that the
current produces at C is –
i
i
i
R
C
r
µ i
(a) | B | = 0 into the plane of the figure
8R
r
µ i
(c) | B | = 0 into the plane of the figure
8πR
r
µ i
(b) | B | = 0 out of the plane of the figure
8R
r
µ i
(d) | B | = 0 out the plane of the figure
8πR
Ans.
[a]
Q.77
Figure shows a conducting loop consisting of a half-circle of radius r = 0.20 m and three straight sections. The halfr
circle lies in a uniform magnetic field B that is directed out of the page, the field magnitude is given by
B = (4.0 T/s2) t2 + (2.0 T/s)t + 3.0 T.
An ideal battery with εb = 2.0 V is connected to the loop. The resistance of the loop is 2.0 Ω. The current in
the loop at t = 10 s will be close to –
r
–
(a) 3.6 A
(b) 1.6 A
+ εb = 2.0 V
(c) 6.2 A
(d) 4.2 A
Ans.
[b]
Q.78
A current I flows along the length of an infinity long, straight, thin walled pipe. Then (a) the magnetic field at all points inside the pipe is the same but not zero
(b) the magnetic field at any point inside the pipe is zero
(c) the magnetic field is zero only on the axis of the pipe
(d) the magnetic field is different at different points inside the pipe
[b]
Ans.
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14 / 31
SERIES-B(CODE-15)
Q.79
CAREER POINT
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
Two particles each of mass m and charge q, are attached to the two ends of a light rigid rod of length 2l. The
rod is rotated at constant angular speed about a perpendicular axis passing through its centre. The ratio of the
magnitudes of the magnetic moment of the system and its angular momentum about the centre of the rod is (a) q
(b) q
πm
m
(c) 2q
(d) q
m
2m
Ans.
[d]
Q.80
Ans.
A 1.5 µF capacitor is charged to 60 V. The charging battery is then disconnected and a 15 mH coil is
connected in series with the capacitor so that LC oscillations occur. Assuming that the circuit contains no
resistance, the maximum current in the coil shall be close to (a) 1.4 A
(b) 1.2 A
(c) 0.8 A
(d) 0.6 A
[d]
Q.81
Figure shows a series LCR circuit with R = 200 Ω, C = 15.0 µF and L = 230 mH. If ε = 36.0 sin 120 πt, the
amplitude I0 of the current i in the circuit is close to –
i
R
C
ε
i
L
(a) 109 mA
(b) 126 mA
i
(c) 150 mA
Ans.
[d]
Q.82
The magnetic component of a polarised wave of light is
(d) 164 mA
Bx = (4.0 × 10–6 T) sin [(1.57 × 107 m–1) y + ωt]
Ans.
Q.83
Ans.
The intensity of light is (b) 3.8 kW/m2
(a) 1.9 kW/m2
[a]
(c) 5.7 kW/m2
(d) 7.6 kW/m2
An object and its real image are located at distances 25 cm and 40 cm respectively from the two principal
focii of a convex lens. The linear magnification of the image is near to (a) + 1.3
(b) – 1.3
(c) + 1.8
(d) – 1.8
[b]
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15 / 31
SERIES-B(CODE-15)
CAREER POINT
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
Q.84
A glass plate of refractive index 1.5 is coated with a thin layer of thickness t and refractive index 1.8. Light
of wavelength 648 nm traveling in air is incident normally on the layer. It is partly reflected at upper and
lower surfaces of the layer and the two reflected rays interfere. The least value of t for which the rays
interfere constructively is (a) 30 nm
(b) 60 nm
(c) 90 nm
(d) 120 nm
Ans.
[c]
Q.85
Energy of a photon whose deBroglie wavelength is equal to wavelength of an electron accelerated through a
potential difference of 125 V is near to (a) 11.5 eV
(b) 11.5 keV
(c) 12.5 eV
(d) 1250 eV
Ans.
[b]
Q.86
Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decays constants 6λ and 3λ respectively. If initially they have the
same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1 to that of X2 will be
(a)
1
6λ
(b)
1
3λ
(c)
3
6λ
(d)
1
after a time
e
6
9λ
Ans.
[b]
Q.87
The ionizing power and the penetration range of radioactive radiations increase in the order :
(a) γ, β, α and γ, β, α respectively
(b) γ, β, α and α, β, γ respectively
(c) α, β, γ and α, β, γ respectively
(d) α, β, γ and γ, β, α respectively
Ans.
[b]
Q.88
A 24 V, 600 mW zener diode is used to provide a 24 V stabilized supply to a variable load RL, as shown in
the figure. The value of the resistance R isR
32 V
(a) 320 Ω
Ans.
(b) 640 Ω
RL
(c) 960 Ω
(d) 1280 Ω
[a]
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16 / 31
SERIES-B(CODE-15)
CAREER POINT
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
Q.89
In an npn transistor circuit, the collector current is 10 mA. If 90% of the electrons emitted reach the
collector(a) the emitter current will be nearly 9 mA and the base current will be nearly 1 mA
(b) the emitter current will be nearly 11 mA and the base current will be nearly 9 mA
(c) the emitter current will be nearly 11 mA and the base current will be nearly 1 mA
(d) the emitter and base currents will be 10 mA and 1 mA respectively
Ans.
[c]
Q.90
Three circuit connections of a PNP-transistor are given belowE
E
E
I/P
I/P
P
B
B
N
P
P
N
Q.91
Ans.
Q.92
I/P
C
N
O/P
P
C
(ii)
(iii)
(i)
Which of the above represents the Common-Emitter Configuration ?
(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
[b]
(d) none
r r
r
r
The dimensions of the quantity E × B , where E represents the electric field and B the magnetic field may
be given as(b) M2LT–5A–2
(c) M2LT–3A–1
(d) MLT–2A–2
(a) MT–3
[b]
r
Particle A moves along the line y = 4 3 m with constant velocity v of magnitude 2.0 m/s and directed
parallel to the positive x axis (see figure). Particle B starts at the origin with zero and constant acceleration
r
r
a (of magnitude 4.0 m/s2) at the same instant that the particle A passes the y axis. The angle θ between a
and the positive y axis that would result in a collision between these two particles should have a value equal
toy
r
v
A
θ
Ans.
B
O/P
P
B/P
C
Ans.
P
(a) 30º
[a]
B
(b) 45º
r
a
x
(c) 50º
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(d) 60º
17 / 31
SERIES-B(CODE-15)
Q.93
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
CAREER POINT
In 1.0 s, a particle goes from point A to B, moving in a semi-circle of radius 1.0 m (as shown in the figure).
The magnitude of the average velocity of the particle is-
A
1.0 m
B
(a) 3.14 m/s
(b) 2.0 m/s
(c) 1.0 m/s
(d) 0
Ans.
[b]
Q.94
A ball of mass 100 g is projected vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity of 49 m/s. At the same
time another identical ball is dropped from a height of 98 m to fall freely along the same path as followed by
the first ball. After sometime the two balls collide and stick together. The velocity of the 'combined mass'
just after the collision is(a) 4.9 m/s upward
(b) 4.9 m/s downward
(c) 9.8 m/s upward
(d) 9.8 m/s downward
Ans.
[a]
Q.95
Two blocks of masses 2.9 kg and 1.9 kg are suspended from a rigid support S by two inextensible wires each
of length 1m (figure). The upper wire has negligible mass and the lower wire has a uniform mass of
0.2 kg/m. The whole system of blocks, wires and support have an upward acceleration of 0.2 m/s2. The
tension at the mid-point of the upper wire is -
S
1m
2.9 kg
1m
1.9 kg
(a) 20 N
Ans.
(b) 30 N
(c) 40 N
(d) 50 N
[d]
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18 / 31
SERIES-B(CODE-15)
Q.96
CAREER POINT
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
A 40 kg slab rests on a frictionless floor. A 10 kg block rests on top of the slab (as shown in the figure). The
coefficient of static friction µs between the block and the slab is 0.60, whereas their kinetic friction
coefficient µk is 0.40. The 10 kg block is pulled by a horizontal force (100.0 N) î . The resulting accelerations
of the block and slab will be (take g = 10 m/s2) -
10 kg
(100.0 N) î
40 kg
Frictionless
(a) (2.0 m/s2) î , 0
(b) (2.0 m/s2) î , – (2.0 m/s2) î
(c) (6.0 m/s2) î , (1.0 m/s2) î
(d) (4.0 m/s2) î , 0
Ans.
[c]
Q.97
A 140 g ball, in horizontal flight with a speed v1 of 39.0 m/s, is struck by a bat. After leaving the bat, the ball
travels in the opposite direction with speed v2 = 39.0 m/s. If the impact time ∆t for the ball-bat collision is
1.20 ms, what average net force acts on the ball ?
(a) 1308 N
(b) 1090 N
(c) 9100 N
(d) 980 N
Ans.
[c]
Q.98
A horizontal cable accelerates a package across a frictionless horizontal floor. The amount of work that has
been done by the cable‘s force on the package is given by W(t) = (0.20 J/s2) t2. The average power < P > due
to cable‘s force in the time interval t1 = 5 s to t2 = 10 s and the instantaneous power at t = 3 s are (a) 2.0 W, 1.80 W
(b) 2.0 W, 1.20 W
(c) 3.0 W, 1.80 W
(d) 3.0 W, 1.20 W
Ans.
[d]
Q.99
A body of mass 2.0 kg makes an elastic collision with another body at rest and continues to move in the
original direction but with one-fourth of its original speed v. What is the mass of the other body and the
speed of the two body center of mass ?
(a) 1.0 kg and
Ans.
2
v
3
(b) 1.2 kg and
5
v
8
(c) 1.4 kg and
10
v
17
(d) 1.5 kg and
4
v
7
[b]
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19 / 31
SERIES-B(CODE-15)
CAREER POINT
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
Q.100 Figure gives the acceleration of a 2.0 kg body as it moves from rest along x axis while a variable force acts
on it from x = 0 m to x = 9 m. The work done by the force on the body when it reaches (i) x = 4 m and
(ii) x = 7 m shall be as given below :
(m/s2)
6
0
2
4
6
8
x(m)
–6
Ans.
(a) 21 J and 33 J respectively
(b) 21 J and 15 respectively
(c) 42 J and 60 J respectively
(d) 42 J and 30 J respectively
[d]
Q.101 The movement of cilia and flagella is due to the presence of :
(a) radial spokes
(b) central sheath
(c) singlet microtubules (d) dyneins
Ans.
[d]
Q.102 In amino acid alanine is :
(a) monoamino monocarboxylic amino acid
(c) monoamino dicroboxylic amino acid
Ans.
(b) sulphur containing amino acid
(d) basic amino acid
[a]
Q.103 In onion root tip during metaphase stage of mitosis the number of kinetochroes will be :
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Ans.
[d]
Q.104 Apoplastic path for the transport of water in root is through :
(a) intercellular spaces
(b) intercellular spaces and cell walls
(c) cell walls only
(d) intercellular spaces, cell walls and endodermis
Ans.
[b]
Q.105 Source of mineral nutrients is :
(a) soil
(c) rocks
Ans.
(b) minerals obtained from rocks
(d) all the above
[d]
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20 / 31
SERIES-B(CODE-15)
CAREER POINT
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
Q.106 The two reducing powers of light reaction are used in dark reaction during the formation of :
(a) 3-phosphoglycerate from ribulose, 1, 5 bisphosphate
(b) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate from 3-phosphoglycerate
(c) sucrose from triose phosphate
(d) ribulose 1,5 bisphosphate from triosephosphate
Ans.
[b]
Q.107 The exponential growth can be expressed as w1 = w0 ert where e denotes :
(a) growth rate
(b) time of growth
(c) base of natural logarithm
Ans.
[c]
Q.108 The plant growth regulator kinetin is a/an :
(a) adenine derivative
(c) terpene
Ans.
(b) derivative of carotenoids
(d) gas
[a]
Q.109 Vegetative propagation in water hyacinth takes place by :
(a) rhizome
(b) bulbil
(c) leaf bud
Ans.
(d) offset
[d]
Q.110 The body of ovule fused with funicle is called :
(a) integuments
(b) hilum
Ans.
(d) final size
(c) micropyle
(d) chalaza
[b]
Q.111 Endosperm completely consumed by the developing embryo before seed maturation in :
(a) pea, ground nut and castor
(b) ground nut, bean and coconut
(c) pea, ground nut and bean
(d) none of the above
Ans.
[c]
Q.112 In Mendel's seven contrasting traits of pea total number of colours tested by him was :
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Ans.
[c]
Q.113 The double helix of DNA is made of polynucleotide chains where in backbone is constituted by sugarphosphate and the bases are projected :
(a) inside
(b) outside
(c) one base inside and the other outside
(d) bases remain in line of sugar-phosphate
Ans.
[a]
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21 / 31
SERIES-B(CODE-15)
CAREER POINT
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
Q.114 Among the RNA polymerases, the RNA polymerase II transcribes :
(a) r-RNA
(b) t-RNA
(c) small nuclear RNAs (d) heterogeneous nuclear RNA
Ans.
[d]
Q.115 Flowering plants might have originated from
(a) chlorophyte ancestors
(c) Rhynia type plants
Ans.
[d]
Q.116 The drug "marijuana" is obtained from :
(a) Cannabis sativa
(c) Atropa belladona
Ans.
(b) tracheophyte ancestors
(d) Psilophytes
(b) Papaver somniferum
(d) Datura alba
[a]
Q.117 The plant disease which is not caused by a fungus is :
(a) brown rust of wheat
(b) red rot of sugar cane
(c) late blight of potato
(d) black rot of crucifers
Ans.
[d]
Q.118 In anaerobic sludge digestion during secondary treatment of sweage, biogas is produced which is a mixture
of
(b) (a) and CO2
(c) (a) (b) and CO
(d) (a) (b) (c) and ethane
(a) methane and H2S
Ans.
[b]
Q.119 During amplification of gene using PCR, Teq polymerase is used between :
(a) denaturation and annealing
(b) annealing and extension
(c) extension and amplification
(d) none of the above
Ans.
[b]
Q.120 Full name of professor Misra who is known as the father of ecology in India is :
(a) Ramesh Misra
(b) Ramavtar Misra
(c) Ramakant Misra
(d) Ramdeo Mistra
Ans.
[d]
Q.121 Detritivores breakdown the detritus and process is known as :
(a) leaching
(b) fragmentation
(c) humification
Ans.
[b]
(d) mineralization
Q.122 An international treaty on ozone depletion known as Montreal Protocol was signed at Montreal in the year :
(a) 1981
(b) 1983
(c) 1985
(d) 1987
Ans.
[d]
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22 / 31
SERIES-B(CODE-15)
CAREER POINT
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
Q.123 An ecologist used the term biodiversity for the variety of species of :
(a) all living plants
(b) all living animals
(c) both (a) and (b) above
(d) (a), (b) above and microbes also living in their natural habitats
Ans.
[d]
Q.124 'Knock Knee' syndrome occurs due to the pollution of :
(a) nitrates
(b) phosphates
(c) fluorides
Ans.
[c]
(d) heavy metals
Q.125 The fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was given by :
(a) S.S. Singer and G.L. Nicolson
(b) S.J. Singer and H.L. Nicolson
(c) S.J. Singer and G.L. Nicolson
(d) S.S. Singer and G.L. Nicolson
Ans.
[c]
Q.126 Hydroponics is :
(a) growing plants without soil
(c) growing plants without organic matter
Ans.
[d]
(b) growing plants in water
(d) all of the above
Q.127 The electron from photosytem II goes to photosytem I and finally taken up by NADP leaving an electron
hole in photosystem II. This electron hole in photosystem II is filled up by the electron released from :
(b) H2O
(c) Chlorophyll
(d) Light
(a) CO2
Ans.
[b]
Q.128 In photorespiration glycine enters from :
(a) chloroplast to peroxysome
(c) mitochondrion to peroxysome
Ans.
[b]
(b) peroxysome to mitochondrion
(d) chloroplast to mitochondrion
Q.129 In TCA cycle substrate level phosphorylation takes place during the conversion of :
(a) oxaloacetic acid to citric acid
(b) succinyl CoA to succinic acid
(c) succinic acid to fumeric acid
(d) fumaric acid to malic acid
Ans.
[b]
Q.130 The aestivation in corolla of calotropis is :
(a) valvate
(b) twisted
Ans.
[a]
(c) imbricate
(d) vexillary
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SERIES-B(CODE-15)
CAREER POINT
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
Q.131 The commonly found tissue in pulp of fruits likes guava and in leaves of tea are :
(a) Collenchyma
(b) Aerenchyme
(c) Chlorenchyma
(d) Sclereids
Ans.
[d]
Q.132 Among various categories of threatened species the percentage of angiosperms categorized as valnerable is
about.
(a) 14%
(b) 19%
(c) 41%
(d) 51%
Ans.
[d]
Q.133 The fungus often studied in experimental genetics and also called as "Drosophila of plant kingdom is :
(a) Erysiphe
(b) Neurospora
(c) Rhizopus
(d) Aspergillus
Ans.
[b]
Q.134 The correct sequence of seral stages in hydrosers is
(a) plankton, submerged, floating, reed swamp, sedge meadow, woodland
(b) plankton, floating, submerged, reed swamp, sedge meadow, woodland
(c) plankton, submerged, floating, sedge meadow, reed swamp, woodland
(d) plankton, submerged, floating, sedge meadow, woodland reed swamp
Ans.
[a]
Q.135 Charles Darwin returned to England in 1836 from his five year expedition but published his observations and
conclusions in the form of a book in November :
(a)1838
(b) 1839
(c) 1859
(d) 1861
Ans.
[c]
Q.136 Several plant pathogens can be controlled by the biocontrol agent :
(a) Phytophthora
(b) Trichoderma
(c) Albugo
Ans.
[b]
(d) Saccharomyces
Q.137 Histology deals with the study of :
(a) structures which can be discerned with naked eye
(b) tissues
(c) cells
(d) changes in form and structure during development
Ans.
[b]
Q.138 The flowering plant placed under dicots but lacks cotyledons is :
(a) maiza
(b) cuscuta
(c) mustard
Ans.
[b]
(d) linseed
Q.139 Acetyl coenzyme A can be formed through the process of :
(a) glycolysis
(b) β-oxidation of fatty acids
(c) deamination of amino acids
(d) all the above
Ans.
[d]
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SERIES-B(CODE-15)
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
CAREER POINT
Q.140 Xanthomonas phaseoli is responsible for the disease known as :
(a) wilt of pepper
(b) blight of beans
(c) wilt of potato
Ans.
[b]
(d) canker of tomato
Q.141 To make soy sauce from soybean meal the fungus used is :
(a) Penicillium
(b) Aspergillus
(c) Agaricus
Ans.
[b]
(d) Saccharomyces
Q.142 Nigrum is one of the species of genus :
(a) Mangifera
(b) Solanum
Ans.
[b]
(c) Triticum
(d) Pisum
Q.143 Maximum modes of nutrition are found in :
(a) Monera
(b) Protista
Ans.
[a]
(c) Fungi
(d) Plantae
Q.144 Katherine Esau a world known name in plant anatomy was born in :
(a) Australia
(b) Ukraine
(c) Austria
Ans.
(d) UK.
[b]
Q.145 When the margin of the thalamus grows upward enclosing ovary completely and getting fused with it while
the other parts of flower arise above the ovary, the ovary is said to be :
(a) inferior
(b) superior
(c) half inferior
(d) half superior
Ans.
[a]
Q.146 Non endospermous seeds are found in :
(a) bean
(b) gram
Ans.
(d) all the above
(c) scutellum
(d) endosperm
[d]
Q.147 In maize seed, coleorhiza is present adjacent to :
(a) radicle
(b) plumule
Ans.
(c) pea
[a]
Q.148 The word meristem is derived from Greek, meristos meaning :
(a) young
(b) divided
(c) tissue
Ans.
(d) tip
[b]
Q.149 The stele consists of :
(a) endodermis, pericycle, vascular bundle and pith
(b) pericycle, vascular bundle and pith
(c) vascular bundle and pith
(d) vascular bundles only
Ans.
[b]
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SERIES-B(CODE-15)
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
CAREER POINT
Q.150 During secondary growth the amount of secondary xylem produced is more than the secondary phloem
because :
(a) the cambium is more active on the inner side
(b) the cambium is more active on the outer side
(c) the cambium is equally active on both sides but the xylem is needed more
(d) the cambium has no role to plays in this difference
Ans.
[a]
Q.151 Ontogenetically liver and pancreas are (a) Ectodermal
(b) Mesodermal
Ans.
(c) Endodermal
(d) None of these
[c]
Q.152 One of the following ions are required for nerve-impulse transmission at the neuromuscular junction (a) Magnesium
(b) Chloride
(c) Calcium
(d) Iron
Ans.
[c]
Q.153 Which of the following is a protein deficient disease ?
(a) Osteomalacia
(b) Kwashiorkor
(c) Pellagra
Ans.
[b]
(d) Rickets
Q.154 Originating in bone marrow, circulating in blood for 1-2 days, migrating to connective tissue and forming
macrophages is a characteristic of (a) Eosinophils
(b) Basophiles
(c) Monocytes
(d) Lymphocytes
Ans.
[c]
Q.155 In frog kidney the urea is eliminated by (a) Glomerular filtration
(c) Both (a) and (b)
Ans.
[c]
Q.156 The organ of Corti is situated on the (a) Basilar membrane in the tympanic canal
(c) Basilar membrane in the median canal
Ans.
[c]
Q.157 The following respond to pressure (a) Meissner’s corpuscle
(c) Bulbs of Krause
Ans.
(b) Tubular secretion
(d) Tubular absorption
(b) Reissner’s membrane in the vestibular canal
(d) Reissner’s membrane in the tympanic canal
(b) Pacinian corpuscle
(d) Organ of Ruffini
[b]
Q.158 Between breaths the intraplural pressure is approximately ………….. mmHg less than atmospheric pressure (a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 10
Ans.
[b]
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SERIES-B(CODE-15)
CAREER POINT
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
Q.159 The peritubular capillaries of the nephron arise from the (a) Afferent arteriole
(b) Efferent arteriole
(c) Renal artery
Ans.
[b]
(d) Arcuate artery
Q.160 GnRH secreted from hypothalamus mainly stimulates the release of (a) Thyroxin from thyroid gland
(b) ADH from posterior pituitary
(c) FSH and LH from anterior pituitary
(d) Aldosterone from adrenals
Ans.
[c]
Q.161 Heterogamety is the term where an individual produces two types of gametes. The most appropriate answer
is (b) Female Drosophila fly
(a) Male Drosophila fly
(c) Female bird
(d) (a) and (c)
Ans.
[d]
Q.162 Induced abortion is also called (a) STD
(b) MTP
Ans.
[b]
(c) IUD
(d) PID
Q.163 The site on antigen that are recognized by antibodies and receptors present on T- and B-cells are (a) Antigenic determinants
(b) Epitopes
(c) Paratopes
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans.
[d]
Q.164 Cells responsible for cell-mediated response are (a) T-cytotoxic cells
(b) T-helper cells
(c) B-cells
Ans.
[a]
Q.165 HIV selectively targets (a) B-memory cells
(b) B-effector cells
Ans.
(d) All of the above
(c) T-cytotoxic cells
(d) T-helper cells
[d]
Q.166 Disease which is always present at a low level in a given population or a region is termed as (a) Pandemic
(b) Endemic
(c) Epidemic
(d) Notifiable disease
Ans.
[b]
Q.167 Oral contraceptive prevent pregnancy by (a) Killing the ovum
(c) Preventing ovulation
Ans.
[c]
(b) Blocking fertilization
(d) Preventing implantation
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SERIES-B(CODE-15)
CAREER POINT
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
Q.168 A person may die due to allergic reaction or an anaphylactic shock which is characterized by (a) Constriction of peripheral blood vessel
(b) Blood capillaries become highly permeable causing loss of fluid from the blood
(c) Drastic increase in the blood pressure
(d) All of the above
Ans.
[b]
Q.169 Endangered or threatened animals are protected from its extinction by ex-situ conservation in (a) Wild life sanctuary (b) Biosphere reserves (c) National parks
(d) Zoological parks
Ans.
[d]
Q.170 Population growth-curve is sigmoid, if the growth pattern is (a) Logistic
(b) Geometric
(c) Exponential
Ans.
[a]
(d) Accretionary
Q.171 Which of the following statement is false with respect to prosthetic groups ? These are (a) Proteins
(b) Non-proteins
(c) Tightly bound to enzymes
(d) Metal compounds
Ans.
[a]
Q.172 Consumption of alcohol may lead to (a) Accumulation of acetaldehyde in liver
(c) Lowering of blood glucose level of the body
Ans.
[d]
(b) Syntheses of fat in liver
(d) All of the above
Q.173 Which of the following disease is caused by virus ?
(a) Poliomyelitis
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Syphilis
Ans.
[a]
Q.174 Halliker, a drought breed of cattle is found in (a) Karnataka
(b) Gujarat
Ans.
(d) Diphtheria
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
[a]
Q.175 The inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume is the same as (a) inspiratory capacity + expiratory reserve volume
(b) total lung capacity – functional residual capacity
(c) inspiratory capacity + functional residual capacity
(d) inspiratory capacity + residual volume
Ans.
[a]
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SERIES-B(CODE-15)
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
CAREER POINT
Q.176 After surgical removal of an infected gall bladder a person must be especially careful to restrict dietary intake
of (a) Starch
(b) Protein
(c) Sugar
(d) Fat
Ans.
[d]
Q.177 Which of the following animals lack alimentary canals (complete digestive systems) ?
(a) Earthworms
(b) Jellyfish
(c) Insects
(d) Fishes
Ans.
[b]
Q.178 Most of our cells are surrounded by
(a) Blood
(c) Interstitial fluid
Ans.
(b) Fluid equivalent to seawater in salt composition
(d) Pure water
[c]
Q.179 In his laboratory apparatus, Stanley Miller synthesized (a) Proteins
(b) DNA
(c) Amino acids
Ans.
[c]
Q.180 Which gas was probably least abundant in the early atmosphere ?
(b) O2
(c) NH3
(a) H2O
Ans.
(d) CO2
[b]
Q.181 Pulse is a direct measure of (a) Blood pressure
(b) stroke volume
Ans.
(d) Protobionts
(c) cardiac output
(d) heart rate
[d]
Q.182 Name the character of Phylum Aschelminthes which differentiates it from all other Phyla of Kingdom
Animalia (a) Parasitic Mode
(b) Round in shape
(c) Pseudocoelomate
(d) Bilateral symmetry
Ans.
[c]
Q.183 In cockroach the flow of haemolymph is -
(a) Heart → head haemocoel → perivisceral sinus → pericardial sinus → ostia → heart
(b) Heart → pericardial sinus → head haemocoel → perivisceral sinus → ostia → heart
(c) Heart → head haemocoel → perivisceral sinus → ostia → pericardial sinus → heart
(d) Heart → ostia → perivisceral sinus → pericardial sinus → head haemocoel → heart
Ans.
[a]
Q.184 Which of the following is an oviparous mammal ?
(b) Delphinus
(c) Pteropus
(a) Balaenoptera
Ans.
(d) Ornithorhynchus
[d]
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SERIES-B(CODE-15)
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
Q.185 Functional kidney of mammals is (a) Archinephros type
(c) Pronephros type
Ans.
CAREER POINT
(b) Ophisthonephros type
(d) Metanephros type
[d]
Q.186 Torsion is the characteristic of (a) Gastropoda
(b) Pelecypoda
Ans.
[a]
(c) Cephalopoda
(d) Amphineura
Q.187 Temperature increases with height in which of the sphere (a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
Ans.
[b]
(d) None of the above
Q.188 Maximum species diversity is seen in latitudinal range of (a) 23.5º N to 66.5º N
(b) 23.5º N to 23.5º S
(c) 23.5º S to 66.5º N
Ans.
[b]
(d) 66.5º N to 90º N
Q.189 In a polluted environment, the maximum pollutant will occur in (a) Primary producers
(b) Tertiary consumers
(c) Secondary consumers
(d) Primary consumers
Ans.
[b]
Q.190 Gir Lion Sanctuary Project was started in the year (a) 1976
(b) 1972
(c) 1962
Ans.
[b]
(d) 1952
Q.191 Which of the following is not vestigial organ in human beings ?
(a) Rudimentary ear muscles and third molars
(b) Coccygeal tail vertebrae and scalp muscles
(c) Vermiform appendix and nictitating membrane of the eye
(d) Ear pinna, patella, olecranon process
Ans.
[d]
Q.192 Which one of the following is considered as industrial pollution indicators ?
(a) Chameleon
(b) Lichens
(c) Bengal Tiger
(d) Biston betularia
Ans.
[b]
Q.193 Wing of pigeon is homologous to the (a) Ear of bat
(b) Wing of butter-fly
Ans.
[c]
(c) Fore-leg of horse
(d) Tail of rabbit
Q.194 Which of the following is an X-linked recessive trait with locus in Xq 28 and related with factor VIII ?
(a) Hemophilia – A
(b) Hemophilia – B
(c) Christmas disease
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans.
[a]
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SERIES-B(CODE-15)
PMT AMU-2013 EXAMINATION (26-05-2013)
CAREER POINT
Q.195 Choose a false statement with reference to sickle cell anaemia (a) Have genotype HbS/HbS
(b) Have genotype HbA/HbA
(c) Substitution of glutamic acid to valine
(d) Have sickle shape RBC
Ans.
[b]
Q.196 The following is not a function of progesterone (a) Gestation
(c) Uterine growth and development
Ans.
[d]
(b) Inhibition of ovulation
(d) Stimulation of mammary secretion
Q.197 ‘‘YAC’’ refers to (a) Yeast artificial cell
(c) Yeast artificial colony
Ans.
[b]
(b) Yeast artificial chromosome
(d) None of the above
Q.198 Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(a) Starch is a polymer of α-glucose
(b) Starch is made up of amylase and amylopectin
(c) Amylose is linear structure consisting of several glucose residues joined by 1, 4-glycosidic linkages
(d) Amylopectin is a straight chain with several glucose residues joined only by 1, 4-glycosidic linkages
Ans.
[d]
Q.199 Individual subunits of polysaccharides are linked by (a) Glycosidic bonds
(b) Phosphodiester bonds
(c) Peptide bonds
(d) Hydrogen bonds
Ans.
[a]
Q.200 Sucrose is made up of (a) Glucose – galactose
(c) Glucose – glucose
Ans.
[b]
(b) Glucose – fructose
(d) Fructose – fructose
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