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NEET Model Grand Test - 2017 NEET Time: 3 Hours Date: 00-00-2017 Max. Marks: 720 PHYSICS The dimensions of emf in MKS is (if charge (c) is fundamental unit) (a) ML-1 T-2 Q-2 (c) 2. (b) ML2T-2Q-2 MLT-2Q-1 (d) 7. ML2T-2Q-1 uniform velocity of 45 km/h. The time are equal, their angular momenta will be in taken by the train to cross a bridge of the ratio (a) 56 sec (b) 68 sec (c) 80 sec (d) 92 sec 8. (a) MR : mr (c) R : r satellite in the two cases are equal (c) S1 and S2 are moving with the same speed (d) The kinetic energies of two satellites are (b) 2200 N (d) 1800 N equal 9. w w velocity u. The mass and the radius of the earth are, respectively, M and R. G is w energy will be gravitational constant and g is acceleration (b) U due to gravity on the surface of the earth. The minimum value of u so that the (d) 25 U particle does not return back to earth is A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg – m2 about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm about this axis. The torque which can stop the wheel’s rotation in one minute would be (b) N m 12 A particle of mass m is thrown upwards from the surface of the earth, with a stretched by 0.1 m, then its potential 2 N m 15 Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2, are (b) The potential energies of earth and potential energy is U. If the spring is (a) 1: 2 of S2 (d) 1 : 1 If a long spring is stretched by 0.02 m, its (c) 5 U (d) (a) The time period of S1 is four times that (b) M : m wooden block is U 5 (c) 2 : 1 following statements is true ? The average resistance exerted by the (a) 2 :1 four times the mass of S2. Which one of the m/s penetrates 12 cm into a wooden block. (c) 2000 N (b) moving in the same orbit. The mass of S1 is A 30 gm bullet initially travelling at 120 (a) 2850 N (a) 1 : 2 .e en ad up ra tib Two particles of mass M and m are moving of their linear velocities ? 6. Two bodies have their moments of inertia I rotation. If their kinetic energies of rotation periods are the same, what will be the ratio 5. N m 18 A 150 m long train is moving with a in a circle of radii R and r. If their time 4. (d) and 2I respectively about their axis of length 850 meters is 3. N m 15 ha .n et 1. 10. (a) 2GM R (b) 2GM R2 (c) 2gR 2 (d) 4GM R2 The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700 m. The compressibility of water is 45.4×10 11 Pa-1 and density of water is 103 kg/m3. ratio of its displacement and amplitude will be obtained at the bottom of the ocean ? be (a) 0.8 102 (b) 1.0 102 (c) 1.2 102 (d) 1.4 102 Water rises to height ‘h’ in capillary tube. If (c) the length of capillary tube above the surface of water is made less than ‘h’, then 2 Which one of the following statements is of a particle executing simple harmonic and then starts overflowing like a fountain motion ? (c) water rises up to the top of capillary (a) When v is maximum, a is minimum tube and stays there without overflowing (b) Value of a is zero, whatever may be the (d) water rises up to a point a little below value of v the top and stays there (c) When v is zero, a is zero The temperature of the body is increased (d) When v is maximum, a is zero -73oC to 357oC, the ratio of energy 18. An observer moves towards a stationary emitted per second is source of sound with a speed 1/5th of the (a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 81 speed (d) 1 : 91 frequency of the source emitted are and f of sound. The wavelength and If the temperate of the sun (black body) is respectively. The apparent frequency and doubled, the rate of energy received on wavelength recorded by the observer are earth will be increased by a factor of respectively (a) 2 (b) 4 (a) 1.2 f, (b) f, 1.2 (d) 16 (c) 0.8 f, 0.8 (d) 1.2 f, 1.2 An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at a temperature of -13oC. The coefficient of performance of the engine is 5. 19. The period of oscillation is 0.05 s and the velocity of the wave is 300 m/s. What is the w w rejected) will be (a) 325oC (b) 325 K (c) 39oC (d) 320oC Two points are located at a distance of 10 m and 15 m from the source of oscillation. The temperature of the air (to which heat is phase difference between the oscillation of two points ? w A mono atomic gas is supplied with the (a) 3 (b) 2 3 (c) (d) 6 heat Q very slowly keeping the pressure constant. The work done by the gas will be (a) 2 Q 3 2 (c) Q 5 16. (d) (b) water rises up to the tip of capillary tube (c) 8 15. 3 2 true for the speed v and the acceleration a (c) 1 : 27 14. (b) (a) water does not rise at all from 13. 17. 1 2 .e en ad up ra tib 12. 1 2 (a) ha .n et 11. What fractional compression of water will (b) 3 Q 5 20. length 10 cm and having a charge of 1 (d) Q 5 500 C , at a point on the axis at a distance The kinetic energy and the potential energy of a particle executing SHM are equal. The Page | 2 The electric intensity due to a dipole of NEET :: MODEL TEST 20 cm from one of the charges in air, is (a) 6.25 107 N / C (b) 9.28 107 N / C (c) 13.1 1111 N / C (d) 20.5 107 N / C 00-00-2017 Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, (a) the resistance will be doubled and the are separated by a distance d. If F is the specific resistance will be halved force of repulsion between the ions, the (b) the resistance will be halved and the number of electrons mission from each ion specific resistance will remain unchanged will be ( e being the charge on an electron) (c) the resistance will be halved and the 4 0 Fd 2 (a) e2 (c) 22. (b) 4 0 Fd 2 e2 specific resistance will be doubled 4 0 Fe 2 d2 (d) 26. the specific A battery is charged at a potential of 15 V 4 F are The battery on discharge supplied a current to be connected in such a way that the of 5 A for 15 H. The mean terminal voltage 6 F . This can be during discharge is 14 V. The “watt-hour” Three capacitors each of capacity efficiency of the battery is : (a) Connecting them in parallel (b) Connecting two in series and one in (a) 82.5% (b) 80% (c) 90% (d) 87.5% The resistance of an ammeter is 13 and .e en ad up ra tib 27. parallel (c) Connecting two in parallel and one in its scale is graduated for a current up to series 100 A. After an additional shunt has been (d) Connecting al of them in series connected to this ammeter it becomes A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a possible to measure currents up to 750 A potential by this meter. The value of shunt resistance difference disconnecting of V the charging volts. After is battery the distance between the plates of the capacitor (a) 20 (b) 2 is increased using an insulating handle. As (c) 0.2 (d) 0.02 a result the potential difference between the plates (a) decreases A steady 28. field B at the centre of the circle. The (d) increases current flows in a An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic (b) does not change w w (c) becomes zero radius of the circle is proportional to metallic (a) conductor of non-uniform cross-section. w The quantity / quantities constant along the length of the conductor is / are (c) (a) Current, electric field and drift speed (b) Drift speed only 29. (b) v B (d) v B B v Under the influence of a uniform magnetic of radius R with Constant speed v. The time (d) Current only The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its length and radius are both doubled, then Page | 3 B v field a charged particle is moving in a circle (c) Current and drift speed 25. and for 8 H when the current flowing is 10 A. done by 24. resistance resistance, will both remain unchanged 4 0 Fd 2 (d) q2 effective capacitance is 23. the ha .n et 21. period of the motion (a) depends on v and not on R (b) depends on both R and v (c) is independent of both R and v NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017 (d) depends on R and not on v Two magnets are held together in a 35. the current is a maximum in a series LCR oscillate in the earth’s magnetic field with circuit with (b) 1 mH together only 4 oscillations per minute are executed. The ratio of their (a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 4 (c) Cannot be calculated unless R is known magnetic moments is (d) 10 mH 36. above which ferromagnetic paramagnetic material becomes material becomes (c) 37. ferromagnetic material becomes materials becomes 2 102 T acts at right angles to a coil of area 100 cm2 with 50 turns. The average emf induced in the coil The electric (d) X-rays and the magnetic field, 38. (a) E E0 kˆ, B B0iˆ (b) E E0 ˆj , B B0iˆ (c) ˆ ˆ E E0 j , B B0i (d) E E0iˆ, B B0iˆ An air bubble in sphere having 4 cm diameter in time t. The value of t is nearest to eye when looked along diameter. (a) 0.1 sec (b) 0.01 sec If (d) 20 sec refracting surface is a appears 1 cm from (b) 3.2 cm current of 2 A is passed through it, the (c) 2.8 cm (d) 1.6 cm w w (a) 1.2 cm w the turn of the solenoid is 39. 3 4 10 Wb . The surface g 1.5 , the distance of bubble from A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a resulting magnetic flux linked with each 34. rays is 0.1 V, when it is removed from the field (c) 1 sec 33. not represented by diamagnetic material A magnetic field of are (b) Gamma rays .e en ad up ra tib paramagnetic following propagating along the +z – axis, can be ferromagnetic material (d) the associated with an electromagnetic wave, diamagnetic material (c) of (a) Cosmic rays paramagnetic material (b) Which electromagnetic waves ? Curie temperatures is the temperature (a) C 10 F and 1000s 1 ? (a) 100 mH minute are made but for unlike poles 32. What is the value of inductance L for which vibration magnetometer and are allowed to like poles together, 12 oscillations per 31. (d) 20 s ha .n et 30. (c) 40 s A person who can see things most clearly at a distance of 10 cm requires spectacles to self-inductance of the solenoid is enable to him to sec clearly things at a (a) 2.5 H (b) 2.0 H distance of 30 cm. What should be the focal (c) 1.0 H (d) 4.0 H length of the spectacles. A coil of 40 H inductance is connected in (a) 15 cm (Concave) series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the (b) 15 cm (Convex) combination is joined to the terminals of a (c) 10 cm 2V battery. The time constant of the circuit (d) 0 40. is (a) 5 s Page | 4 (b) 1/5 s Two slits are separated by a distance of 0.5 and illuminated with light of NEET :: MODEL TEST 6000 Ao . If 00-00-2017 the screen is placed 2.5 m from the slits. The distance of the third bright image from the centre will be (b) 9 mm (c) 6 mm (d) 3 mm 46. 5 A 10 (d) 5 A 20 Which has maximum number on this surface, the electrons come out with (a) 7 gm N2 (b) 2 gm H2 (c) 16 gm NO2 (d) 16 gm O2 4 10 m/s. When 6 47. possible for how many orbital (s) n = 3, l = will be 2, m = +2 ? (a) 2 106 m / s (b) 2 107 m / s (c) 8 105 m / s (d) 8 106 m / s In the phenomenon of electric discharge 48. (c) 2 (d) 4 Identify the incorrect statements among the .e en ad up ra tib lanthanoid elements and their ions (b) as a result of lanthanoids contraction, the properties of 4d series of the transition (c) collisions between the charged particles elements have no similarities with the 5d emitted from the cathode and the atoms of series of transition elements (c) shielding power of 4f electrons is quite (d) collision between different electrons of weak the atoms of the gas (d) there is a decrease in the radii of the The total energy of an electron in the first atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to excited state of hydrogen is about -3.4 eV. Its kinetic energy in this state is Lu 49. (b) -6.8 eV H2O is dipolar, whereas BeF2 is not. It is because w w (c) 6.8 eV (d) 3.4 eV (a) The electro negativity of F is greater Which of the following are suitable for the than that of O fusion process ? w (b) 3 (a) lanthanoids contraction is observed in (b) collision between the atoms of the gas (a) -3.4 eV (a) 1 following : (a) excitation of electrons in the atoms the gas (b) H2O involves hydrogen bonding whereas (a) Heavy nuclei (b) Light nuclei (c) Atom bomb (d) Radioactive decay BeF2 is a discrete molecule (c) H2O is linear an dBeF2 is angular Current in the circuit will be (d) H2O is angular and BeF2 is linear 50. If a gas expands at constant temperature, it indicates that (a) pressure of the gas increases (b) number of the molecules of gas increases Page | 5 of The following quantum numbers are then maximum velocity of photoelectrons glow in the tube appears as a result of 45. (c) molecules? through gases at low pressure, the coloured 44. 5 A 50 function, hv0. If photons of energy 2hv0 fall the photon energy is increased to 5hv0, 43. (b) CHEMISTRY A photosensitive metallic surface has work a maximum velocity of 42. 5 A 40 ha .n et 41. (a) 1.5 mm (a) NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017 51. (c) kinetic energy of molecules remains the (c) In electrochemical series, Zn is above same hydrogen (d) kinetic energy of molecules decreases (d) Considering entropy (S) as a hydronium ion thermodynamics parameter, the criterion 55. for the spontaneity of any process is (a) Ssystem Ssurroundingsbe ve 56. (b) Ssystem Ssurroundings be ve (c) (b) 109o28 (c) 120o (d) 94.8o The alkali metals form slat like hydrides by direct synthesis at (d) Ssurroundings be zero hydrides decreases in Equilibrium constants K1 and K2 for the Which of the following orders ? following equilibria are related as (a) KH > NaH > LiH > CsH > RbH (b) NaH > LiH > KH > RbH > CsH (c) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH (d) CsH > RbH > KH > NaH > LiH K2 (c) K 2 K12 .e en ad up ra tib 1 K12 (a) elevated temperature. The thermal stability of these 2 NO g O2 g ; K 2 2 NO2 g (b) K2 1 K1 (d) K2 K1 2 57. Which oxidation states are the most characteristic of lead and tin respectively ? 58. (a) +2, +2 (b) +4, +4 (c) +2, +4 (d) +4, +2 In Dumas method of estimation of nitrogen 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL cations containing HCl precipitates the of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature cations of second group in qualitative and 715 mm pressure. The percentage analysis but not those belonging to the composition of nitrogen in the compound fourth group. It is because would be : (Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 (a) the presence of HCl decreases the mm) sulphide ion concentration (a) 14.45 (b) 15.45 (b) the presence of HCl increases the (c) 16.45 (d) 17.45 w w H2S gas when passed through a solution of 59. sulphide ion concentration (c) the solubility product of group II w sulphides is more than that of group IV sulpides (d) the sulphides of group IV cations are Which one is a nucleophilic substitution reaction among the following ? (a) CH 3CHO HCN CH 3CH OH CN (b) H CH 3 CH CH 2 H 2O CH 3 CH CH 3 unstable in HCl 54. (a) 106o the Ssystem be zero 1 NO2 g ; K1 NO g O2 g 2 53. The O – O – H bond angle in H2O2 (gas) is ha .n et 52. NO3 is reduced in preference to Zn gives H2 gas with H2SO4 and HCl but not with HNO3 because | OH (a) Zn acts as an oxidizing agent when it reacts with HNO3 (b) HNO3 is weaker acid than H2SO4 and R CH R (c) RCHO RMgX | OH HCl Page | 6 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017 64. CH 3 (d) mixture of gaseous hydrocarbon by | CH 3 CH 2 CH CH 2 Br NH 3 (a) oxidation (d) distillation under reduced pressure | CH 3 CH 2CH CH 2 NH 2 A strong base can abstract an 65. Green chemistry remains such reactions which hydrogen (a) produce colour during reactions from (b) reduce the use and production of (a) amine (b) ketone hazardous chemical (c) alkane (d) alkene (c) are related to the depletion of ozone The chirality of the compound is ha .n et 61. (b) cracking (c) hydrolysis CH 3 60. Liquid hydrocarbon can be converted to a layer (d) study the reactions in plants 66. the radioisotope tritium H 3 1 has a half- life of 12.3 years. If the initial amount of .e en ad up ra tib tritium is 32 mg, how many milligrams of it (a) R (c) Z 62. (b) S would remain after 49.2 years ? (d) I (a) 1 mg (b) 2 mg (c) 4 mg (d) 8 mg The order of stability of the following tautomeric compounds is 67. AB crystallizes in a bcc lattice with edge length ‘a’ equal to 387 pm. The distance between two oppositely charged ions in the lattice is 68. (a) 335 pm (b) 250 pm (c) 200 pm (d) 300 pm A solution of urea (molar mass 56) boils at 100.18oC at atmospheric pressure. If Kf and Kb for water are 1.86 and 0.512 K molality w w respectively, the above solution will freeze (b) II > I > III (c) III > II > I (d) II > III > I w 63. (a) III > I > II at Using HCl and anhydrous AlCl3 as catalyst, which one of the following reactions 69. H 3C CH 2OH C6 H 6 (b) CH 3 CH CH 2 C6 H 6 (c) H 2C CH 2 C6 H 6 (d) H 3C CH 3 C6 H 6 Page | 7 (b) 6.54oC (c) -0.654oC (d) 0.654oC The electrolytic conductance is a direct measure of produces ethylbenzene (PhEt) ? (a) (a) -6.54oC 70. (a) resistance (b) potential (c) concentration (d) dissociation Standard free energies of formation (in kJ/mol) at 298 K are -237.2, -394.4 and 8.2 for H2O(l), CO2 (g) and pentane (g) NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017 (c) a solution of K2Cr2O7 acidified with 0 for the Ecell respectively. The value of H2SO4 pentane – oxygen fuel cell is (b) 1.0968 V (c) 0.0968 V (d) 1.968 V The reaction A B follows fist order 76. (a) Oxidising property (b) Acidic property kinetics. The time taken for 0.8 mole of A to (c) Basic property produce 0.6 mole of B is 1 hr. What is the time taken for conversion of 0.9 mole of A to produce 0.675 mole of B ? 72. (a) 1 hr (b) 0.5 hr (c) 0.25 hr (d) 2 hr (d) Reducing propery 77. different reactions are 1016 e-2000/T and 1015 78. e-1000T, respectively. The temperature at which k1 = k2 is of (d) 1000 K the (b) Urea following forms cationic 80. 81. (d) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide smell of burnt sulphur (b) Fluorine (c) Neon (d) Oxygen When HNO3 is dropped onto the palm and w w as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous w solution is acidic, acts as a reducing agent and its acid has never been isolated. The 82. (a) CO2 (b) SO2 (c) SO3 (d) H2S of (b) N2O (c) NO (d) N2O5 Which of the following pairs is coloured in (a) Sc3+, Co2+ (b) Ni2+, Zn2+ (c) Ni2+, Ti3+ (d) Sc3+, Ti3+ Atomic numbers of Cr and Fe are (a) Cr NH 3 6 (c) Fe CN 6 3 4 (b) Fe CO 5 (d) Cr CO 6 Which of the following does not have a metal carbon bond ? gas X is can (a) NO2 the electron ? and causes great damage to respiratory organs be purified oxides of from the nitrogen and ammonia by passing through (a) conc. HCl (b) alkaline solution of pyrogallol Page | 8 (a) Nitrogen following is paramagnetic with the spin of by product. This is a colourless gas with impurities Which of the following is monoatomic ? respectively 24 and 26. Which of the Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a Nitrogen (d) HI aqueous solution ? (c) Sodium acetate 75. (c) HBr shows the presence of (a) Sodium dodecyl sulphate chocking (b) HCl washed with water, it turns into yellow. It micelles above certain concentrations ? 74. (a) HF .e en ad up ra tib Which 79. (b) 2000 K 1000 (c) K 2.303 73. Which has the highest molar heat of vaporization ? The rate constants k1 and k2 for two 2000 (a) K 2.303 Bleaching action of SO2 is due to its ha .n et 71. (d) a solution of KOH (aq) (a) 0.0968 V 83. (a) K Pt C2 H 4 Cl3 (b) Ni CO 4 (c) Al OC2 H 5 3 (d) C2 H 5 MgBr Chloroform, when kept open, is oxidized to (a) O2 NEET :: MODEL TEST (b) COCl2 00-00-2017 (c) O2, C2 84. (d) none of these Consider the following reaction: Phenol (c) CH 3Cl ( i ) Alkaline KMnO4 Zn dust X Y Z Anhydrous AlCl3 ( ii ) H , the product Z is (b) toluene (c) benzaldehyde (d) benzene (d) 89. Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into are hydrocarbons using Zn – Hg + HCl (conc.) (a) NH3, Cl (b) NH3, H2O is called (c) Cl, H2O (d) NO, Cl 90. (a) Cope reaction 86. large volume of water, the white precipitate (c) Wolf-Kishner reaction produced is (d) Clemmensen reduction (a) Bi(OH)3 (b) Bi2O3 (c) BiOCl (d) Bi2OCl3 Method by which Aniline cannot be BIOLOGY ethanol 91. Biosystematics aims at .e en ad up ra tib (a) reduction of nitrobenzene with H2/Pd in (a) The classification of organisms based on (b) potassium salt of phthalimide treated broad morphological characters with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis (b) Delimiting various taxa of organism and with aqueous NaOH solution establishing their relationships (c) hydrolysis acidic solution of phenylisocyanide (c) The classification of organisms based on with their evolutionary history and establishing (d) degradation of benzamide with bromine their phylogeny on the totality of various in alkaline solution parameters from all fields of studies Methyl - -D-glucoside and methyl- -D (d) Identification and arrangement of glucoside are (a) epimers w w (b) anomers organisms on the basis of cytological characteristics 92. (d) conformational diastereomers w Which one of the following is an example of thermosetting polymer ? Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of size (c) enatiomers 88. When bismuth chloride is poured into a (b) Dow reaction prepared is 87. The ligands in anti-cancer drug cisplatin ha .n et 85. (a) benzoic acid 93. (a) 300 × 10 nm (b) 300 × 5 nm (c) 300 × 20 nm (d) 700 × 30 nm Which of the following statements is not true for retroviruses ? (a) Retroviruses carry gene for RNA – dependent DNA polymerase (a) (b) The genetic material in mature retroviruses is RNA (c) Retroviruses are causative agents for (b) Page | 9 certain kinds of cancer in man NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017 (d) DNA is not present at any stage in the life cycle of retroviruses elements and sieve tube elements is In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, (a) Thick secondary walls the antherozoids and eggs mature at (b) Pores on lateral wall different times (c) Presence of p-protein As a result (d) Enucleate condition (a) Self – fertilization is prevented 100. If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle (b) There is no change in success rate of on its outer surface without damaging its fertilization gut, the fluid that comes out is (c) There is high degree of strerility (a) Slimy mucus (d) One can concude that the plant is (c) Coelomic fluid (d) Haemolymph apomictic 101. In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane Select one of the following pairs of (a) Upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic important features distinguishing Gneutum (b) Polar layer is hydrophobic form Cycas and Pinus and showing (c) Phospholipis form a biomolecular layer affinities with angiosperms in middle part (a) perianth and two integuments (d) Proteins form a middle layer (b) embryo development and apical meristem 96. 102. Vacuole in a plant cell (a) Lacks membrane and contains air (c) absence of resin duct and leaf venation (b) Lacks membrane and contains water (d) presence of vessel elements and absence and excretory substances of Archegonia (c) Is membrane – bound and contains In Hydra, waste material of food digestion storage proteins and lipids and nitrogenous waste material removed (d) Is membrane – bond and contains water from and excretory substances (a) Mouth and mouth 103. Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct ? (c) Mouth and body wall (a) Competitive inhibition is seen when a (d) Mouth and tentacles substrate competes with an enzyme for One of the following is a very unique binding to an inhibitor protein feature of the mammalian body (b) Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to (a) Presence of diaphragm the enzyme irreversibly (b) Four chambered heart (c) Competitive inhibition is seen when the (c) Rib cage substrate and the inhibitor compete for the (d) Homeothermy active site on the enzyme Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers, (d) Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme bicarpelary ovary with oblique septa, and can be overcome by adding large amount of frit a capsule or berry are characteristic substrate w w (b) Body wall and body wall w 97. 98. (b) Excretory fluid .e en ad up ra tib 95. A common structural feature of vessel ha .n et 94. 99. features of 104. Which (a) Asteraceae (b) Brassicaceae (c) Solanaceae (d) Liliaceae Page | 10 one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017 correctly identified along with its related (a) Blue and green (b) Green and red function ? (c) Red and violet (d) Violet and blue 109. In leaves of C4 plants malic acid synthesis during CO2 fixation occurs in (a) bundle sheath (b) guard cells (c) epidermal cells (d) mesophyll cells 110. During anaerobic digestion of organic waste, such as in producing biogas, which one of the following is left under graded (a) Lipids ha .n et (b) Lignin (c) Hemi – cellulose (d) Cellulose 111. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? membrane (a) IAA – Cell wall elongation (b) B: Adenine –a nucleotide that makes up (b) Absicisic acid – Stomatal closure nucleic acids (c) Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall .e en ad up ra tib (a) A: Lecithin –a component of cell (d) Cytokinin – Cell division (c) A: Triglyceride – major source of energy 112. Which one of the following mammalian cells (d) B: Uracil –a component of DNA is not capable of metabolizing glucose to 105. In ‘S’ phase of the cell cycle (a) amount of DNA doubles in each cell carbon dioxide aerobically ? (b) amount of DNA remains same in each (a) Red blood cells cell (b) White blood cells (c) chromosome number is increased (c) Unstraited muscle cell (d) amount of DNA is reduced to half in (d) Liver cells each cell 113. If due to some injury the chordate tendineae of the tricuspid value of the 106. The ability of the Venus Flytrap to capture human heart is partially non-functional, (a) Rapid turgor pressure changes what will be the immediate effect (b) A passive process requiring no special (a) the flow of blood into the arota will be ability on the part of the plant slowed down (c) Specialized “muscle-like” cells (b) The pacemaker will stop working (d) Chemical stimulation by the prey (c) The blood will tend to flow back into the w w w insects is due to 107. An element playing important role left atrium in (d) The flow of blood into the pulmonary nitrogen fixation is (a) Molybdenum (b) Copper (c) Manganese (d) Zinc artery will be reduced 114. Uric 108. Which fractions of the visible spectrum of acid is the chief nitrogenous component of the excretory products of solar radiations are primarily absorbed by (a) Frog (b) man carotenoids of the higher plants ? (c) Earthworm (d) Cockroach Page | 11 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017 115. A person entering an empty room suddenly (b) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines finds a snake right in front on opening the (c) Corpus luteum will disintegrate door. Which one of the following is likely to (d) Primary follicle starts developing happen in his neurohormonal control 120. The part of fallopian tube closest to the system ? (a) ovary is Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic divison of brain (b) Sympathetic nervous system is activated (a) Isthmus (b) Infundibulum (c) Cervix (d) Ampulla 121. The Leydig cells as found in the human body are the secretory source of from adrenal cortex (a) Glucagon (b) Androgens (c) Sympathetic nervous system is activated (c) Progesterone (d) Intestinal mucus releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine ha .n et releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine 122. The main function of mammalian corpus from adrenal medulla luteum is to produce (d) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across (a) estrogen only the cleft and transmit a nerve impulse (b) progesterone 116. Which one of the following statements is (d) relaxin only .e en ad up ra tib correct ? (a) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice versa (b) and 123. Which of associated Endocrine activity, (c) human chorionic gonadotropin glands nervous regulate system neural the following with events ovulation is in human female? regulates (a) LH surge endocrine glands (b) Decrease in estadiol (c) Neither hormones control neural activity (c) Full development of Graafian follicle nor the neurons control endocrine activity (d) Release of secondary oocyte (d) Endocrine glands regulate neural 124. Which of the following cannot be detected activity, but not vice versa in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ? 117. Top – shaped multiciliate male gametes, (a) Klinefelter syndrome and the mature seed which bears only one (b) Sex of the foetus embryo (c) Down syndrome two w w with not cotyledons, are characteristic features of (d) Jaundice (a) Gamopetalous angiosperms 125. Two nonallelic genes produce the new phenotype when present together but fail to (c) Polypetalous angiosperms do so independently then it is called (d) Cycads (a) Epistasis w (b) Conifers 118. The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig (b) Polygene encloses a number of (c) Non-complimentary gene (a) berries (b) mericarps (d) Complimentary gene (c) achenes (d) smaras 126. A gene is said to be dominant if 119. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which one of the following is unlikely (a) It expresses its effect only homozygous stage (a) Estrogen secretion further decreases Page | 12 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017 in (b) It is expressed only in heterozygous often condition phenomenon is called (c) It is expressed both in homozygous and (a) Metamorphosis (b) Heterosis in heterozygous condition (c) Transformation (d) Sphcing (d) It is never expressed in any condition superior to both parents. 134. If both parents are carriers for thalassemia, 127. Two crosses between the same pair of which is an autosomal recessive disorder, genotypes or phenotypes In which the what sources of the gametes are reversed in one resulting in an affected child ? cross is known as (a) no chance (b) 50% (c) 25% (d) 100% (b) Reciprocal cross (c) Dihybrid cross (d) Reverse cross 128. A male human is are the chances for (a) Recessive epistasis autosomal genes A and B and is also (b) Dominant epistasis hemizgous for hemophilic gene h. What (c) Complementary genes proportion of his sperms will be abh ? (d) Inhibitory genes (c) ¼ (d) 1/8 129. G-6-P 136. In his classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel did not use .e en ad up ra tib (b) 1/16 dehydrogenase deficiency is (a) Flower position (b) Seed colour associated with haemolysis of (a) Leucocytes (c) Platelets pregnancy 135. Fruit colour in squash is an example of heterozygous (a) 1/32 of ha .n et (a) Test cross This (c) Pod length (b) Lymphocytes (d) Seed shape 137. In negative operon (d) RBCs (a) Inducer binds with repressor 130. Sickle cell anemia has not been eliminated (b) Corepressor binds with inducer from the African population because (c) Corepressor binds with inducer (a) It is controlled by recessive genes (d) CAMP have negative effect on lac operon (b) It is not a fatal disease 138. Which one of the following triplet codes is (c) It provides immunity against malaria correctly matched with its specificity for an (d) It is controlled by dominant genes amino acid in protein synthesis or as ‘start’ or ‘stop’ codon the chromosomal linkage map of maize (a) UCG – Start plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are (c) UGU – Leucine (d) UAC – Tyrosine w w 131. Two genes R and y are located very close on hybridized, the F2 segregation will sow (b) UUU – Stop 139. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes consist of short sequences of (b) Higher number of the recombinant types (a) Cytosine rich repeats (c) Segregation in the expected 9:3:3:1 ratio (b) Adenine rich repeats (d) Segregation in 3:1 ratio (c) Guanine rich repeats 132. Infectious proteins are present in (d) Thymine rich repeats w (a) Higher number of the parental types (a) Gemini viruses (b) Prions (c) Viroids 140. In which mode of inheritance do you expect (d) Satellite viruses more 133. When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the per romance of F1 hybrid is Page | 13 NEET :: MODEL TEST maternal influence among offspring ? (a) Autosomal (b) Cytoplasmic (c) Y-linked (d) X-linked 00-00-2017 the 141. Which one of the following pairs of codons (a) Colour change in chameleon is correctly matched with their function or (b) Poison fangs in snakes the signal for the particular amino acid ? (c) Melanism in moths (a) AUG, ACG – Start / Methionine (d) Enlargement of body size by swallowing (b) UUA, UCA – Leucine air in puffer fish (c) GUU, GCU – Alanine 149. Adaptive radiation refers to (d) UAG, UGA – Stop (a) Power of adaptation in an individual to a 142. The one aspect which is not a salient variety of environments (b) Adaptations due to geographical (a) Degenerate (b) Ambiguous isolation (c) Universal (d) Specific (c) Evolution of different species from a ha .n et feature of genetic code is its being 143. Which one of the following is not a part of a common ancestor transcription unit in DNA ? (d) Migration of members of a species to (a) A promoter (b) The structural gene different geographical areas (c) the inducer (d) A terminator 150. Which one of the following statement is 144. An abnormal human baby with ‘XXX’ sex correct ? (a) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny (a) fusion of two sperms and on ovum (b) Stem cells are specialized cells (b) formation of abnormal sperms in the (c) There is no evidence of the existence of father gills during embryogenesis of mammals .e en ad up ra tib chromosomes was born due to (c) formation of abnormal ova in the mother (d) fusion of two ova and one sperm (d) All plant and animal cells are totipotent 151. Which 145. Which of the following biomolecules does one of the following in birds indicates their reptilian ancestry ? have a phosphodiester bond ? (a) Two special chambers crop and gizzard (a) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide in their digestive tract (b) Fatty acids in a diglyceride (b) Eggs with a calcareous shell (c) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide (c) Homeothermy (d) Amino acids in a polypeptide (d) Four chambered heart of w w 146. There is no life on moon due to the absence 152. According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to (b) Water (a) Intraspecific competition (c) Light (d) Temperature (b) Interspecific competition w (a) O2 147. de Vries gave his mutation theory on (c) Competition within closely related organic evolution while working on species (a) Oenothera lamarckiana (d) (b) Drosophila melanogaster species due to the presence of interfering (c) Pisum sativum species (d) Althaea rosea Reduced feeding efficiency in one 153. Industrial melanism is an example of 148. Animals have the innate ability to escape (a) Neo Lamarckism (b) Neo Darwinism from predation. Examples for the same are (c) Natural selection (d) Mutation given below. Select the incorrect example. Page | 14 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017 154. Which one of the following conditions (d) Chikungunya virus though harmful in itself is also a potential 160. The most likely reason for the development saviour from a mosquito borne infectious of resistance against pesticides in insects disease ? damaging a crop is (a) Thalassemia (a) Genetic recombination (b) Sickle cell anaemia (b) Directed mutations (c) Pernicius anaemia (c) Acquired heritable changes (d) Leukemia (d) Random mutations 155. The ‘blue baby’ syndrome results from 161. Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop, has been obtained by crossing wheat with (b) Methemoglobin (a) Rye (b) Pearl millet (c) Excess of dissolved oxygen (c) Sugarcane (d) Barley (d) Excess of TDS (total dissolved solids) ha .n et (a) Excess of chloride 162. What is antisense technology ? 156. To which type of barriers under innate (a) When a piece of RNA that is complementary in sequence is used to stop the tears from the eyes, belong ? expression (a) Physiological barriers (b) RNA polymerase producing DNA (b) Physical barriers (c) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used (c) Cytokine barriers for the synthesis of antigens (d) Cellular barriers (d) Production of somaclonal variants in .e en ad up ra tib immunity, do the salvia in the mouth and 157. Select the correct statement from the ones given below tissue cultures 163. “Jaya” and “Ratna” developed for green (a) Barbiturates when given to criminals revolution in India are the varieties of make them tell the truth (a) Bajra (b) Maize (b) Morphine is often given to persons who (c) Rice (d) Wheat have undergone surgery as a pain killer 164. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly (c) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure matched ? and heart rate (a) Coliforms – Vinegar (b) Methanogens – Gobar gas as it stimulates recovery (c) Yeast – Ethanol w w (d) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery 158. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in 165. What is true for monoclonal antibodies ? w (a) Human RBCs (d) Streptomycets – Antibiotic (b) Human liver (a) These antibodies obtained from one (c) Gut of female Anopheles parent and for one antigen (d) Salivary glands of Anopheles (b) These obtained from different parents 159. Which of the following viruses is not and for one antigen transferred through semen of an infected (c) These obtained from one parent and for male ? many antigens (a) Herpes simplex virus (d) These obtained from many parents and (b) Hepatitis B virus for many antigen (c) Human immunodeficiency virus Page | 15 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017 166. Transgenic plants are the ones (a) Grown in artificial (a) the population is large medium after (b) individuals mate selectively hybridization in the field (c) there are no mutations (b) Produced by a somatic embryo in (d) thee is no migration artificial medium 173. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged (c) Generated by introducing foreign DNA but can recover after some time if damaging into a cell and regenerating a plant from effect stops will be having that cell (a) High stability and low resilience (d) Produced after protoplast fusion in (b) Low stability and low resilience artificial medium (c) High stability and high resilience fermentation is done to (d) Low stability and high resilience ha .n et 167. Continuous addition of sugars in ‘fed batch’ 174. The slow rate of decomposition of fallen (a) degrade sewage logs in nature is due to their (b) produce methane (a) anaerobic environment around them (c) obtain antibiotics (b) low cellulose content (d) purify enzymes (c) low moisture content (d) poor nitrogen content .e en ad up ra tib 168. Choose the correct sequence of stages of growth curve for bacteria 175. Given below is an imaginary pyramid of (a) Lag, log, decline, stationary phase numbers. What could be one of the (b) Lag, log, stationary phase possibilities about certain organisms at (c) Stationary, lag, log, decline phase some of the different levels ? (d) Decline, lag, log phase 169. Which one mismatched ? of the following pairs is (a) Savanna – acacia trees (b) Coniferous forest – evergreen trees (a) Level one PP is “papal trees” and the (c) Tundra – permafrost level SC is “sheep” (d) Prairie – epiphytes (b) Level PC is “rats” and level SC “cats” 170. Which one of the following is one of the w w (c) Level PC is “insects” and level SC is “small insectivorous birds” (a) Stratification (b) Natality (d) Level PP is “phytoplanktons” in sea and (c) Mortality (d) Sex-ratio “Whale” on top level TC w etheracteristics of a biological community ? 171. A biologist studied the population of rats in 176. In an ecosystem the rate of production of a barn. He found that the average natality organic matter during photosynthesis is was termed as 250, average mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net (a) Net productivity increase in population is (b) Net primary productivity (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) Gross primary productivity (c) 05 (d) zero (d) Secondary productivity 172. A population will not exist in HardyWeinberg equilibrium if Page | 16 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017 177. Which of the following pairs of an animal and a plant represents 180. Measuring endangered biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is a method used for organism in India (a) Measuring the activity of Saccharomyces (a) Bentinckia nicobarica and red panda cereviscae (b) Tamarind and rhesus monkey commercial scale (c) Cinchona and leopard (b) Working out the efficiency of RBCs (d) Banyan and blackbuck about their capacity to carry oxygen 178. Which one of the following is an example of in producing card on a (c) Estimating the amount organic matter in sewage water (a) Wild life sanctuary (d) Working out the efficiency of oil driven (b) Seed bank automobile engines (c) Sacred groves (d) National park 179. Step taken by the Government of India to control air pollution include (a) Use of non-polluting compressed and trucks .e en ad up ra tib Natural Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses ha .n et exsitu conservation ? (b) Compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol with petrol and 20% biodiesel with diesel (c) Compulsory Control) PUC certification (Pollution of petrol Under driven vehicles which tests for carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons (d) Permission to use only pure diesel with a maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel for w w w vehicles Page | 17 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017 Model Grand Test KEY NEET Time: 3 Hours Date: 00-00-2017 Max. Marks: 720 2. (c) 7. (d) 12. (b) 17. (a) 22. (b) 27. (b) 32. (a) 37. (d) 42. (c) 46. 51. 56. 61. 66. 71. 76. 81. 86. 47. 52. 57. 62. 67. 72. 77. 82. 87. CHEMISTRY 48. (b) 53. (a) 58. (c) 63. (c) 68. (c) 73. (d) 78. (c) 83. (b) 88. (d) 92. (c) 97. (a) 102. (d) 107. (a) 112. (a) 117. (d) 122. (b) 127. (b) 132. (b) 137. (c,b) 142. (b) 147. (a) 152. (a) 157. (b) 162. (a) 167. (d) 172. (b) 177. (a) BIOLOGY 93. (d) 98. (c) 103. (c) 108. (d) 113. (d) 118. (c) 123. (b) 128. (d) 133. (b) 138. (d) 143. (c) 148. (b) 153. (c) 158. (c) 163. (c) 168. (a) 173. (d) 178. (b) w w w 91. (c) 96. (c) 101. (c) 106. (a) 111. (c) 116. (b) 121. (b) 126. (c) 131. (a) 136. (c) 141. (d) 146. (b) 151. (b) 156. (a) 161. (a) 166. (c) 171. (d) 176. (c) (a) (a) (c) (c) (a) (c) (d) (c) (b) 4. (d) 9. (a) 14. (c) 19. (b) 24. (d) 29. (c) 34. (a) 39. (a) 44. (b) 5. (d) 10. (c) 15. (c) 20. (a) 25. (b) 30. (d) 35. (a) 40. (b) 45. (b) 49. 54. 59. 64. 69. 74. 79. 84. 89. 50. 55. 60. 65. 70. 75. 80. 85. 90. (d) (d) (d) (b) (d) (b) (a) (a) (a) .e en ad up ra tib (b) (a) (c) (a) (b) (a) (d) (a) (b) 3. (c) 8. (c) 13. (d) 18. (a) 23. (d) 28. (c) 33. (c) 38. (a) 43. (d) ha .n et 1. (d) 6. (c) 11. (c) 16. (a) 21. (c) 26. (d) 31. (a) 36. (c) 41. (d) PHYSICS Page | 18 NEET :: MODEL TEST 94. (a) 99. (d) 104. (a) 109. (d) 114. (d) 119. (a) 124. (d) 129. (d) 134. (c) 139. (b) 144. (c) 149. (c) 154. (b) 159. (d) 164. (a) 169. (d) 174. (b) 179. (c) (c) (d) (b) (b) (b) (c) (c) (d) (c) 95. (d) 100. (c) 105. (a) 110. (b) 115. (c) 120. (b) 125. (a) 130. (c) 135. (b) 140. (b) 145. (a) 150. (a) 155. (b) 160. (d) 165. (a) 170. (a) 175. (d) 180. (c) 00-00-2017 HINTS & SOLUTIONS PHYSICS 1. Total distance to be covered for crossing 8. the bridge = length of train + length of In the same orbit, orbital sped of satellites ha .n et 2. remain same. When two satellites of earth bridge are moving in the same orbit, then time = 150 m + 850 m = 1000 m periods of both are equal From Kepler’s third law Linear velocity T 2 r3 v r .e en ad up ra tib 3. Time period is independent of mass, hence v1 r1 , v2 r2 [ is the same in both cases because The potential energy and kinetic energy are time period is the same] mass dependent, hence the PE and KE of v1 r1 R v2 r2 r satellites are not equal But, if they are orbiting in the same orbit, then they have equal orbital speed 4. w w 5. 6. their time periods will be equal. Given I = 2 kg – m2, 0 60 2 rad / s 60 9. Escape velocity 10. Bulk modulus w 0, t 60 s The torque required to stop the wheel’s rotation is 7. AS said, (KE)rot remains same Page | 19 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017 11. Condition of insufficient length of capillary tube h 18. 1 r and since the source is stationary, so wave Q P T4 t 12. Energy per second 13. Amount of energy radiated length remains unchanged for observer 19. (Temperature)4 Coefficient of performance ha .n et 14. .e en ad up ra tib 15. 20. 16. In simple harmonic motion, displacement equation is, y = A sin the t 21. Two positive ions each carrying a charge q are kept at a distance d, then it is found Where A is amplitude of the motion. w w that force of repulsion between them is w 17. 22. The given circuit can be drawn as follows Hence, it is clear that when v is maximum, then a is minimum (i.e., zero) or vice versa Page | 20 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017 23. Charge remains constant after charging. If the battery is removed after charging, then the charge stored in the capacitor remains constant. q = constant As capacitance decreases, so potential difference increases 24. If E is the electric field, then current j E density 27. i Also we know that current density j A .e en ad up ra tib Let ia is the current. Flowing through ammeter and i the total current. So, a cross section. When j is different, then E is current i - ia will flow through shunt also different. Thus E is not constant. The velocity vd The potential difference across ammeter and shunt is the same Hence j is different for different area of drift ha .n et 26. vd is given resistance by j =different for different j value. ne Hence only current i will be constant The formula for resistance of the wire is R l A =specific resistance of the wire w w Where R l A l r2 w 25. R R1 l1 r22 R2 l2 r12 A r 2 (i) 28. The time period of electron moving in a circular orbit Page | 21 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017 Electric current revolution Magnet corresponds of field at electron centre of to the 32. is circle 33. Inductance of a coil is numerically equal to the emf induce din the coil when the current in the coil changes at the rate of 1 As-1. Hence If I is the current flowing in the circuit, To move on circular path in a magnetic then flux linked with the circuit is observed field, a centripetal force is provide by the ha .n et 29. to be proportional to I, i.e., magnetic force. When magnetic field is I perpendicular to motion of charged particle, LI then or (i) Centripetal force = magnetic force Where L is called the self – inductance or That is coefficient .e en ad up ra tib of self-inductance or simply inductance of the coil. Net flux through solenoid, Further, time period of the motion 34. It is independent of both R and v. 30. In the sum and difference method of vibration magnetometer M 1 T22 T12 M 2 T22 T12 w 31. In resonance condition, maximum current flows in the circuit w w Here 35. Current in LCR series circuit decreases with rise in Where V is rms value of current, R is temperature. If we heat a ferromagnetic resistance, XL is inductive reactance and XC substance, then at a definite temperature is capacitive reactance the ferromagnetic property of the substance For current to be maximum, denominator suddenly disappears and the substance should be minimum which can be done, if becomes paramagnetic. The temperature XL = X C above which a ferromagnetic substance This happens in resonance state of the becomes paramagnetic is called the Curie circuit, i.e., Ferromagnetism temperature of the substance Page | 22 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017 L Or 41. 1 C L Given, Einsein’s photoelectric equation can be written as 1 2C ….. (i) 1000 s 1 , C 10 F 10 10 6 F Hence, 1 1000 2 10 106 0.1 H 100mH 36. -rays are beams of fat electrons 37. EB The discharge of electricity through rarefied gases is an interesting phenomenon which E0iˆ B0 ˆj E0 B0 kˆ can be systematically studied with the help E B points in the direction of wave of a discharge tube. In discharge tube propagation collisions between the charge particles v=1 cm, R = 2 cm emitted from the cathode and the atoms of By using the gas results to the coloured glow in the 2 1 2 1 v u R .e en ad up ra tib 38. 42. ha .n et L tube. 43. Kinetic energy of electron K Ze 2 8 0 r Potential energy of electron U 1 Ze 2 4 0 r Total energy E K U 39. w w or for lens u = wants to sec = -30cm w or 44. Distance of the nth bright fringe from the centre Ze 2 8 0 r or E = - K and v = can see = -10 cm 40. E Ze 2 Ze 2 8 0 r 4 0 r K E 3.4 3.4eV For nuclear fusion process the nuclei with low mass are suitable 45. The diode in lower branch is forward biased and diode in upper branch is reverse biased i 5 5 A 20 30 50 CHEMISTRY 46. 2 g of H2 means one mole of H2, hence contains 6.023 × 1023 molecules. Others Page | 23 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017 have less than one mole, so have less no. of molecules. 47. Quantum numbers n = 3, l = 2, m = +2 represent an orbital with 48. In each vertical 3d xy column or 3d x2 y 2 of transition element, the elements of second and third transition series resemble each other more closely than the elements of first and lanthanoids contraction. Hence the properties of elements of 4d series of the transition elements resemble with 55. O – O – H bond angel in H2O2 is 94.8o 56. The tendency to form their hydrides, basic character and stability decreases from Li to the Cs properties of the elements of 5d series of the transition elements 50. KE = 3/2 RT. (At any constant temperature since the 57. the tendency character to form +2 ionic state increases on moving down the group due to .e en ad up ra tib same). electropositive decreases from Cs to Li the KE of gaseous molecules remains the 51. ha .n et second transition series on account of inert pair effect. Most characteristic oxidation states for lead and tin are +2 and For a spontaneous process +4 respectively. 58. 52. 53. In qualitative analysis of cations of second w w group, H2S gas is passed in the presence of HCl. Therefore, due to common ion effect, 59. lower concentration of sulphide ions is which w obtained is sufficient for the Nucleophile (-NH3) replaces other nucleophile (-Br) in the reaction 60. precipitation of second group cations in the Removal of H from ketone gives resonance stabilized carbanion form of their sulphides due to lower value of their solubility product (Ksp). Here fourth group cations are not precipitated because they require exceeding their more ionic sulpide product ions to for their solubility products which is not obtained 61. here due to common ion effect wise, i.e., R. It’s Fisher projection 54. Page | 24 Highest to lowest priority (Br > CH3) is clock NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017 63. 71. HCl AlCl3 For the reaction C6 H 6 CH 2 CH 2 C6 H 5CH 2CH 3 2 A B 3C D 64. Rate constant of first – order reaction Cracking converts liquid hydrocarbons to ha .n et gaseous hydrocarbons by cleavage of C – C and C – H bonds 65. Green chemistry may be defined as the programme of developing new chemical (because 0.6 mole of B is formed) products and chemical processes or making improvements in the already Suppose t1 hour is required for changing existing the concentration of A from 0.9 mole to less harmful .e en ad up ra tib compounds and processes so as to make to human health 0.675 mole of B. Remaining mole of A = 0.9 and – 0.675 – 0.225 environment. This means the same as to reduce the use and production of hazardous chemicals. 66. 72. 67. For body – centered cubic (bcc) lattice, distance between two oppositely charged w w ions, 76. w 68. 74. SO2 act as bleaching agent due to its reducing property SO2 2 H 2O H 2 SO4 2 H Coloured matter H Colourless matter 77. In case of HI due to large size of iodine strong vander Waal forces are present. 69. Because conductance is increased when Hence, it has highest molar heat of the dissociation is more vaporization 70. Page | 25 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017 78. 79. Neon Ne is monoatomic and others (N2, 88. Thermosetting polymers undergo chemical F2 and O2) are diatomic changes when heated and set to hard mass 4 Zn 10 HNO3 4 Zn NO3 2 NH 4 NO3 3H 2O when cooled, Exaple. Bakelite 89. 80. Cis-diamminedichloroplatinum (II) (cisplatin) is a widely used anticancer drug. Ligands in cis-platin are NH3 and Cl aqueous solution due to the presence of unpaired electrons in d-subshell 82. 90. Al(OC2H5)3 contains bonding through O and thus it does not have metal – carbon bond 83. Chloroform is oxidized to a poisonous gas, .e en ad up ra tib phosgene (COCl2) by atmospheric gas ha .n et Hence, Ni2+ and Ti3+ are coloured in CHCl3 O COCl2 HCl 84. 85. It is called Clemmensen reduction w w w 86. due to resonance C – Cl bond acquires double bond character. 87. Methyl- -D-glucoside and methyl- -Dglucoside differs at C-1, hence are called anomers. SRIGAYATRI EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS - INDIA Page | 26 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017