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Transcript
NEET
Model Grand Test - 2017
NEET
Time: 3 Hours
Date: 00-00-2017
Max. Marks: 720
PHYSICS
The dimensions of emf in MKS is (if charge
(c)
is fundamental unit)
(a) ML-1 T-2 Q-2
(c)
2.
(b) ML2T-2Q-2
MLT-2Q-1
(d)
7.
ML2T-2Q-1
uniform velocity of 45 km/h. The time
are equal, their angular momenta will be in
taken by the train to cross a bridge of
the ratio
(a) 56 sec
(b) 68 sec
(c) 80 sec
(d) 92 sec
8.
(a) MR : mr
(c) R : r
satellite in the two cases are equal
(c) S1 and S2 are moving with the same
speed
(d) The kinetic energies of two satellites are
(b) 2200 N
(d) 1800 N
equal
9.
w
w
velocity u. The mass and the radius of the
earth are, respectively, M and R. G is
w
energy will be
gravitational constant and g is acceleration
(b) U
due to gravity on the surface of the earth.
The minimum value of u so that the
(d) 25 U
particle does not return back to earth is
A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg – m2
about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of
60 rpm about this axis. The torque which
can stop the wheel’s rotation in one minute
would be
(b)

N m
12
A particle of mass m is thrown upwards
from the surface of the earth, with a
stretched by 0.1 m, then its potential
2
N m
15
Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2, are
(b) The potential energies of earth and
potential energy is U. If the spring is
(a)
1: 2
of S2
(d) 1 : 1
If a long spring is stretched by 0.02 m, its
(c) 5 U
(d)
(a) The time period of S1 is four times that
(b) M : m
wooden block is
U
5
(c) 2 : 1
following statements is true ?
The average resistance exerted by the
(a)
2 :1
four times the mass of S2. Which one of the
m/s penetrates 12 cm into a wooden block.
(c) 2000 N
(b)
moving in the same orbit. The mass of S1 is
A 30 gm bullet initially travelling at 120
(a) 2850 N
(a) 1 : 2
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Two particles of mass M and m are moving
of their linear velocities ?
6.
Two bodies have their moments of inertia I
rotation. If their kinetic energies of rotation
periods are the same, what will be the ratio
5.

N m
18
A 150 m long train is moving with a
in a circle of radii R and r. If their time
4.
(d)
and 2I respectively about their axis of
length 850 meters is
3.

N m
15
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1.
10.
(a)
2GM
R
(b)
2GM
R2
(c)
2gR 2
(d)
4GM
R2
The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700
m. The compressibility of water is 45.4×10 11
Pa-1 and density of water is 103 kg/m3.
ratio of its displacement and amplitude will
be obtained at the bottom of the ocean ?
be
(a)
0.8 102
(b)
1.0  102
(c)
1.2  102
(d)
1.4  102
Water rises to height ‘h’ in capillary tube. If
(c)
the length of capillary tube above the
surface of water is made less than ‘h’, then
2
Which one of the following statements is
of a particle executing simple harmonic
and then starts overflowing like a fountain
motion ?
(c) water rises up to the top of capillary
(a) When v is maximum, a is minimum
tube and stays there without overflowing
(b) Value of a is zero, whatever may be the
(d) water rises up to a point a little below
value of v
the top and stays there
(c) When v is zero, a is zero
The temperature of the body is increased
(d) When v is maximum, a is zero
-73oC
to
357oC,
the ratio of energy
18.
An observer moves towards a stationary
emitted per second is
source of sound with a speed 1/5th of the
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 1 : 81
speed
(d) 1 : 91
frequency of the source emitted are  and f
of
sound.
The
wavelength
and
If the temperate of the sun (black body) is
respectively. The apparent frequency and
doubled, the rate of energy received on
wavelength recorded by the observer are
earth will be increased by a factor of
respectively
(a) 2
(b) 4
(a) 1.2 f, 
(b) f, 1.2 
(d) 16
(c) 0.8 f, 0.8 
(d) 1.2 f, 1.2 
An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at a
temperature of -13oC. The coefficient of
performance
of
the
engine
is
5.
19.
The period of oscillation is 0.05 s and the
velocity of the wave is 300 m/s. What is the
w
w
rejected) will be
(a) 325oC
(b) 325 K
(c) 39oC
(d) 320oC
Two points are located at a distance of 10
m and 15 m from the source of oscillation.
The
temperature of the air (to which heat is
phase difference between the oscillation of
two points ?
w
A mono atomic gas is supplied with the
(a)

3
(b)
2
3
(c)

(d)

6
heat Q very slowly keeping the pressure
constant. The work done by the gas will be
(a)
2
Q
3
2
(c) Q
5
16.
(d)
(b) water rises up to the tip of capillary tube
(c) 8
15.
3
2
true for the speed v and the acceleration a
(c) 1 : 27
14.
(b)
(a) water does not rise at all
from
13.
17.
1
2
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12.
1
2
(a)
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11.
What fractional compression of water will
(b)
3
Q
5
20.
length 10 cm and having a charge of
1
(d) Q
5
500  C , at a point on the axis at a distance
The kinetic energy and the potential energy
of a particle executing SHM are equal. The
Page | 2
The electric intensity due to a dipole of
NEET :: MODEL TEST
20 cm from one of the charges in air, is
(a)
6.25 107 N / C (b) 9.28 107 N / C
(c)
13.1 1111 N / C (d) 20.5 107 N / C
00-00-2017
Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q,
(a) the resistance will be doubled and the
are separated by a distance d. If F is the
specific resistance will be halved
force of repulsion between the ions, the
(b) the resistance will be halved and the
number of electrons mission from each ion
specific resistance will remain unchanged
will be ( e being the charge on an electron)
(c) the resistance will be halved and the
4 0 Fd 2
(a)
e2
(c)
22.
(b)
4 0 Fd 2
e2
specific resistance will be doubled
4 0 Fe 2
d2
(d)
26.
the
specific
A battery is charged at a potential of 15 V
4  F are
The battery on discharge supplied a current
to be connected in such a way that the
of 5 A for 15 H. The mean terminal voltage
6  F . This can be
during discharge is 14 V. The “watt-hour”
Three capacitors each of capacity
efficiency of the battery is :
(a) Connecting them in parallel
(b) Connecting two in series and one in
(a) 82.5%
(b) 80%
(c) 90%
(d) 87.5%
The resistance of an ammeter is 13 and
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27.
parallel
(c) Connecting two in parallel and one in
its scale is graduated for a current up to
series
100 A. After an additional shunt has been
(d) Connecting al of them in series
connected to this ammeter it becomes
A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a
possible to measure currents up to 750 A
potential
by this meter. The value of shunt resistance
difference
disconnecting
of
V
the charging
volts.
After
is
battery the
distance between the plates of the capacitor
(a)
20 
(b)
2
is increased using an insulating handle. As
(c)
0.2 
(d)
0.02 
a result the potential difference between the
plates
(a) decreases
A
steady
28.
field B at the centre of the circle. The
(d) increases
current
flows
in
a
An electron moves in a circular orbit with a
uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic
(b) does not change
w
w
(c) becomes zero
radius of the circle is proportional to
metallic
(a)
conductor of non-uniform cross-section.
w
The quantity / quantities constant along
the length of the conductor is / are
(c)
(a) Current, electric field and drift speed
(b) Drift speed only
29.
(b)
v
B
(d)
v
B
B
v
Under the influence of a uniform magnetic
of radius R with Constant speed v. The time
(d) Current only
The electric resistance of a certain wire of
iron is R. If its length and radius are both
doubled, then
Page | 3
B
v
field a charged particle is moving in a circle
(c) Current and drift speed
25.
and
for 8 H when the current flowing is 10 A.
done by
24.
resistance
resistance, will both remain unchanged
4 0 Fd 2
(d)
q2
effective capacitance is
23.
the
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21.
period of the motion
(a) depends on v and not on R
(b) depends on both R and v
(c) is independent of both R and v
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(d) depends on R and not on v
Two
magnets
are
held
together
in
a
35.
the current is a maximum in a series LCR
oscillate in the earth’s magnetic field with
circuit with
(b) 1 mH
together only 4 oscillations per minute are
executed.
The
ratio
of
their
(a) 3 : 1
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 3 : 5
(d) 5 : 4
(c) Cannot be calculated unless R is known
magnetic
moments is
(d) 10 mH
36.
above which
ferromagnetic
paramagnetic
material
becomes
material
becomes
(c)
37.
ferromagnetic
material
becomes
materials
becomes
2  102 T acts at right
angles to a coil of area 100 cm2 with 50
turns. The average emf induced in the coil
The
electric
(d) X-rays
and
the
magnetic
field,
38.
(a)
 E  E0 kˆ, B  B0iˆ 


(b)
 E  E0 ˆj , B  B0iˆ 


(c)
ˆ
ˆ

 E  E0 j , B  B0i 
(d)
 E  E0iˆ, B  B0iˆ 


An air bubble in sphere having 4 cm
diameter
in time t. The value of t is
nearest to eye when looked along diameter.
(a) 0.1 sec
(b) 0.01 sec
If
(d) 20 sec
refracting surface is
a
appears
1
cm
from
(b) 3.2 cm
current of 2 A is passed through it, the
(c) 2.8 cm
(d) 1.6 cm
w
w
(a) 1.2 cm
w
the turn of the solenoid is
39.
3
4  10 Wb . The
surface
 g  1.5 , the distance of bubble from
A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a
resulting magnetic flux linked with each
34.
  rays
is 0.1 V, when it is removed from the field
(c) 1 sec
33.
not
represented by
diamagnetic material
A magnetic field of
are
(b) Gamma rays
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paramagnetic
following
propagating along the +z – axis, can be
ferromagnetic material
(d)
the
associated with an electromagnetic wave,
diamagnetic material
(c)
of
(a) Cosmic rays
paramagnetic material
(b)
Which
electromagnetic waves ?
Curie temperatures is the temperature
(a)
C  10  F and   1000s 1 ?
(a) 100 mH
minute are made but for unlike poles
32.
What is the value of inductance L for which
vibration magnetometer and are allowed to
like poles together, 12 oscillations per
31.
(d) 20 s
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30.
(c) 40 s
A person who can see things most clearly at
a distance of 10 cm requires spectacles to
self-inductance of the solenoid is
enable to him to sec clearly things at a
(a) 2.5 H
(b) 2.0 H
distance of 30 cm. What should be the focal
(c) 1.0 H
(d) 4.0 H
length of the spectacles.
A coil of 40 H inductance is connected in
(a) 15 cm (Concave)
series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the
(b) 15 cm (Convex)
combination is joined to the terminals of a
(c) 10 cm
2V battery. The time constant of the circuit
(d) 0
40.
is
(a) 5 s
Page | 4
(b) 1/5 s
Two slits are separated by a distance of 0.5
and illuminated with light of
NEET :: MODEL TEST
  6000 Ao . If
00-00-2017
the screen is placed 2.5 m from the slits.
The distance of the third bright image from
the centre will be
(b) 9 mm
(c) 6 mm
(d) 3 mm
46.
5
A
10
(d)
5
A
20
Which
has
maximum
number
on this surface, the electrons come out with
(a) 7 gm N2
(b) 2 gm H2
(c) 16 gm NO2
(d) 16 gm O2
4 10 m/s. When
6
47.
possible for how many orbital (s) n = 3, l =
will be
2, m = +2 ?
(a)
2  106 m / s
(b)
2  107 m / s
(c)
8  105 m / s
(d)
8  106 m / s
In the phenomenon of electric discharge
48.
(c) 2
(d) 4
Identify the incorrect statements among the
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lanthanoid elements and their ions
(b) as a result of lanthanoids contraction,
the properties of 4d series of the transition
(c) collisions between the charged particles
elements have no similarities with the 5d
emitted from the cathode and the atoms of
series of transition elements
(c) shielding power of 4f electrons is quite
(d) collision between different electrons of
weak
the atoms of the gas
(d) there is a decrease in the radii of the
The total energy of an electron in the first
atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to
excited state of hydrogen is about -3.4 eV.
Its kinetic energy in this state is
Lu
49.
(b) -6.8 eV
H2O is dipolar, whereas BeF2 is not. It is
because
w
w
(c) 6.8 eV
(d) 3.4 eV
(a) The electro negativity of F is greater
Which of the following are suitable for the
than that of O
fusion process ?
w
(b) 3
(a) lanthanoids contraction is observed in
(b) collision between the atoms of the gas
(a) -3.4 eV
(a) 1
following :
(a) excitation of electrons in the atoms
the gas
(b) H2O involves hydrogen bonding whereas
(a) Heavy nuclei
(b) Light nuclei
(c) Atom bomb
(d) Radioactive decay
BeF2 is a discrete molecule
(c) H2O is linear an dBeF2 is angular
Current in the circuit will be
(d) H2O is angular and BeF2 is linear
50.
If a gas expands at constant temperature, it
indicates that
(a) pressure of the gas increases
(b) number of the molecules of gas
increases
Page | 5
of
The following quantum numbers are
then maximum velocity of photoelectrons
glow in the tube appears as a result of
45.
(c)
molecules?
through gases at low pressure, the coloured
44.
5
A
50
function, hv0. If photons of energy 2hv0 fall
the photon energy is increased to 5hv0,
43.
(b)
CHEMISTRY
A photosensitive metallic surface has work
a maximum velocity of
42.
5
A
40
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41.
(a) 1.5 mm
(a)
NEET :: MODEL TEST
00-00-2017
51.
(c) kinetic energy of molecules remains the
(c) In electrochemical series, Zn is above
same
hydrogen
(d) kinetic energy of molecules decreases
(d)
Considering entropy (S) as a
hydronium ion
thermodynamics parameter, the criterion
55.
for the spontaneity of any process is
(a)
Ssystem  Ssurroundingsbe  ve
56.
(b) Ssystem  Ssurroundings be  ve
(c)
(b) 109o28
(c) 120o
(d) 94.8o
The alkali metals form slat like hydrides by
direct
synthesis
at
(d) Ssurroundings be zero
hydrides decreases in
Equilibrium constants K1 and K2 for the
Which of the following orders ?
following equilibria are related as
(a) KH > NaH > LiH > CsH > RbH
(b) NaH > LiH > KH > RbH > CsH
(c) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH
(d) CsH > RbH > KH > NaH > LiH
K2 
(c)
K 2  K12
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1
K12
(a)
elevated
temperature. The thermal stability of these
 2 NO  g   O2  g  ; K 2
2 NO2  g  
(b)
K2 
1
K1
(d)
K2 
K1
2
57.
Which
oxidation
states
are
the
most
characteristic of lead and tin respectively ?
58.
(a) +2, +2
(b) +4, +4
(c) +2, +4
(d) +4, +2
In Dumas method of estimation of nitrogen
0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL
cations containing HCl precipitates the
of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature
cations of second group in qualitative
and 715 mm pressure. The percentage
analysis but not those belonging to the
composition of nitrogen in the compound
fourth group. It is because
would be : (Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15
(a) the presence of HCl decreases the
mm)
sulphide ion concentration
(a) 14.45
(b) 15.45
(b) the presence of HCl increases the
(c) 16.45
(d) 17.45
w
w
H2S gas when passed through a solution of
59.
sulphide ion concentration
(c)
the
solubility
product
of
group
II
w
sulphides is more than that of group IV
sulpides
(d) the sulphides of group IV cations are
Which one is a nucleophilic substitution
reaction among the following ?
(a)
CH 3CHO  HCN  CH 3CH  OH  CN
(b)
H
CH 3  CH  CH 2  H 2O 

CH 3  CH  CH 3
unstable in HCl
54.
(a) 106o
the
Ssystem be zero
1
 NO2  g  ; K1
NO  g   O2  g  
2
53.
The O – O – H bond angle in H2O2 (gas) is
ha
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52.
NO3 is reduced in preference to
Zn gives H2 gas with H2SO4 and HCl but
not with HNO3 because
|
OH
(a) Zn acts as an oxidizing agent when it
reacts with HNO3
(b) HNO3 is weaker acid than H2SO4 and
R  CH  R
(c) RCHO  RMgX 
|
OH
HCl
Page | 6
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64.
CH 3
(d)
mixture of gaseous hydrocarbon by
|
CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 2 Br  NH 3
(a) oxidation
(d) distillation under reduced pressure
|
 CH 3  CH 2CH  CH 2 NH 2
A strong base can abstract an
65.
Green chemistry remains such reactions
which
  hydrogen
(a) produce colour during reactions
from
(b) reduce the use and production of
(a) amine
(b) ketone
hazardous chemical
(c) alkane
(d) alkene
(c) are related to the depletion of ozone
The chirality of the compound is
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61.
(b) cracking
(c) hydrolysis
CH 3
60.
Liquid hydrocarbon can be converted to a
layer
(d) study the reactions in plants
66.
the radioisotope tritium
 H
3
1
has a half-
life of 12.3 years. If the initial amount of
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tritium is 32 mg, how many milligrams of it
(a) R
(c) Z
62.
(b) S
would remain after 49.2 years ?
(d) I
(a) 1 mg
(b) 2 mg
(c) 4 mg
(d) 8 mg
The order of stability of the following
tautomeric compounds is
67.
AB crystallizes in a bcc lattice with edge
length ‘a’ equal to 387 pm. The distance
between two oppositely charged ions in the
lattice is
68.
(a) 335 pm
(b) 250 pm
(c) 200 pm
(d) 300 pm
A solution of urea (molar mass 56) boils at
100.18oC at atmospheric pressure. If Kf and
Kb for water are 1.86 and 0.512 K molality
w
w
respectively, the above solution will freeze
(b) II > I > III
(c) III > II > I
(d) II > III > I
w
63.
(a) III > I > II
at
Using HCl and anhydrous AlCl3 as catalyst,
which
one
of
the
following
reactions
69.
H 3C  CH 2OH  C6 H 6
(b)
CH 3  CH  CH 2  C6 H 6
(c)
H 2C  CH 2  C6 H 6
(d)
H 3C  CH 3  C6 H 6
Page | 7
(b) 6.54oC
(c) -0.654oC
(d) 0.654oC
The electrolytic conductance is a direct
measure of
produces ethylbenzene (PhEt) ?
(a)
(a) -6.54oC
70.
(a) resistance
(b) potential
(c) concentration
(d) dissociation
Standard free energies of formation (in
kJ/mol) at 298 K are -237.2, -394.4 and 8.2 for H2O(l), CO2 (g) and pentane (g)
NEET :: MODEL TEST
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(c) a solution of K2Cr2O7 acidified with
0
for the
Ecell
respectively. The value of
H2SO4
pentane – oxygen fuel cell is
(b) 1.0968 V
(c) 0.0968 V
(d) 1.968 V
The reaction A
 B follows fist order
76.
(a) Oxidising property
(b) Acidic property
kinetics. The time taken for 0.8 mole of A to
(c) Basic property
produce 0.6 mole of B is 1 hr. What is the
time taken for conversion of 0.9 mole of A
to produce 0.675 mole of B ?
72.
(a) 1 hr
(b) 0.5 hr
(c) 0.25 hr
(d) 2 hr
(d) Reducing propery
77.
different reactions are 1016 e-2000/T and 1015
78.
e-1000T, respectively. The temperature at
which k1 = k2 is
of
(d) 1000 K
the
(b) Urea
following
forms
cationic
80.
81.
(d) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide
smell
of
burnt
sulphur
(b) Fluorine
(c) Neon
(d) Oxygen
When HNO3 is dropped onto the palm and
w
w
as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous
w
solution is acidic, acts as a reducing agent
and its acid has never been isolated. The
82.
(a) CO2
(b) SO2
(c) SO3
(d) H2S
of
(b) N2O
(c) NO
(d) N2O5
Which of the following pairs is coloured in
(a) Sc3+, Co2+
(b) Ni2+, Zn2+
(c) Ni2+, Ti3+
(d) Sc3+, Ti3+
Atomic
numbers
of
Cr
and
Fe
are
(a)
Cr  NH 3 6 
(c)
 Fe  CN 6 
3
4
(b)
 Fe  CO 5 
(d)
Cr  CO 6 
Which of the following does not have a
metal carbon bond ?
gas X is
can
(a) NO2
the electron ?
and
causes great damage to respiratory organs
be
purified
oxides
of
from
the
nitrogen
and
ammonia by passing through
(a) conc. HCl
(b) alkaline solution of pyrogallol
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(a) Nitrogen
following is paramagnetic with the spin of
by product. This is a colourless gas with
impurities
Which of the following is monoatomic ?
respectively 24 and 26. Which of the
Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a
Nitrogen
(d) HI
aqueous solution ?
(c) Sodium acetate
75.
(c) HBr
shows the presence of
(a) Sodium dodecyl sulphate
chocking
(b) HCl
washed with water, it turns into yellow. It
micelles above certain concentrations ?
74.
(a) HF
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Which
79.
(b) 2000 K
1000
(c)
K
2.303
73.
Which has the highest molar heat of
vaporization ?
The rate constants k1 and k2 for two
2000
(a)
K
2.303
Bleaching action of SO2 is due to its
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71.
(d) a solution of KOH (aq)
(a) 0.0968 V
83.
(a)
K  Pt  C2 H 4  Cl3 
(b)
Ni  CO 4
(c)
Al  OC2 H 5 3
(d)
C2 H 5 MgBr
Chloroform, when kept open, is oxidized to
(a) O2
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(b) COCl2
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(c) O2, C2
84.
(d) none of these
Consider the following reaction: Phenol
(c)
CH 3Cl
( i ) Alkaline KMnO4
Zn dust

 X 
Y 
Z
Anhydrous AlCl3
( ii ) H 
, the product Z is
(b) toluene
(c) benzaldehyde
(d) benzene
(d)
89.
Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into
are
hydrocarbons using Zn – Hg + HCl (conc.)
(a) NH3, Cl
(b) NH3, H2O
is called
(c) Cl, H2O
(d) NO, Cl
90.
(a) Cope reaction
86.
large volume of water, the white precipitate
(c) Wolf-Kishner reaction
produced is
(d) Clemmensen reduction
(a) Bi(OH)3
(b) Bi2O3
(c) BiOCl
(d) Bi2OCl3
Method
by
which
Aniline
cannot
be
BIOLOGY
ethanol
91.
Biosystematics aims at
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(a) reduction of nitrobenzene with H2/Pd in
(a) The classification of organisms based on
(b) potassium salt of phthalimide treated
broad morphological characters
with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis
(b) Delimiting various taxa of organism and
with aqueous NaOH solution
establishing their relationships
(c)
hydrolysis
acidic solution
of
phenylisocyanide
(c) The classification of organisms based on
with
their evolutionary history and establishing
(d) degradation of benzamide with bromine
their phylogeny on the totality of various
in alkaline solution
parameters from all fields of studies
Methyl -  -D-glucoside and methyl-  -D
(d) Identification and arrangement of
glucoside are
(a) epimers
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(b) anomers
organisms on the basis of cytological
characteristics
92.
(d) conformational diastereomers
w
Which one of the following is an example of
thermosetting polymer ?
Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament
of size
(c) enatiomers
88.
When bismuth chloride is poured into a
(b) Dow reaction
prepared is
87.
The ligands in anti-cancer drug cisplatin
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85.
(a) benzoic acid
93.
(a) 300 × 10 nm
(b) 300 × 5 nm
(c) 300 × 20 nm
(d) 700 × 30 nm
Which of the following statements is not
true for retroviruses ?
(a) Retroviruses carry gene for RNA –
dependent DNA polymerase
(a)
(b) The genetic material in mature
retroviruses is RNA
(c) Retroviruses are causative agents for
(b)
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(d) DNA is not present at any stage in the
life cycle of retroviruses
elements and sieve tube elements is
In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam,
(a) Thick secondary walls
the antherozoids and eggs mature at
(b) Pores on lateral wall
different times
(c) Presence of p-protein
As a result
(d) Enucleate condition
(a) Self – fertilization is prevented
100. If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle
(b) There is no change in success rate of
on its outer surface without damaging its
fertilization
gut, the fluid that comes out is
(c) There is high degree of strerility
(a) Slimy mucus
(d) One can concude that the plant is
(c) Coelomic fluid (d) Haemolymph
apomictic
101. In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane
Select one of the following pairs of
(a) Upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic
important features distinguishing Gneutum
(b) Polar layer is hydrophobic
form Cycas and Pinus and showing
(c) Phospholipis form a biomolecular layer
affinities with angiosperms
in middle part
(a) perianth and two integuments
(d) Proteins form a middle layer
(b) embryo development and apical
meristem
96.
102. Vacuole in a plant cell
(a) Lacks membrane and contains air
(c) absence of resin duct and leaf venation
(b) Lacks membrane and contains water
(d) presence of vessel elements and absence
and excretory substances
of Archegonia
(c) Is membrane – bound and contains
In Hydra, waste material of food digestion
storage proteins and lipids
and nitrogenous waste material removed
(d) Is membrane – bond and contains water
from
and excretory substances
(a) Mouth and mouth
103. Which of the following statements regarding
enzyme inhibition is correct ?
(c) Mouth and body wall
(a) Competitive inhibition is seen when a
(d) Mouth and tentacles
substrate competes with an enzyme for
One of the following is a very unique
binding to an inhibitor protein
feature of the mammalian body
(b) Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to
(a) Presence of diaphragm
the enzyme irreversibly
(b) Four chambered heart
(c) Competitive inhibition is seen when the
(c) Rib cage
substrate and the inhibitor compete for the
(d) Homeothermy
active site on the enzyme
Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers,
(d) Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme
bicarpelary ovary with oblique septa, and
can be overcome by adding large amount of
frit a capsule or berry are characteristic
substrate
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(b) Body wall and body wall
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97.
98.
(b) Excretory fluid
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95.
A common structural feature of vessel
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94.
99.
features of
104. Which
(a) Asteraceae
(b) Brassicaceae
(c) Solanaceae
(d) Liliaceae
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one
of
the
following
structural
formulae of two organic compounds is
NEET :: MODEL TEST
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correctly identified along with its related
(a) Blue and green (b) Green and red
function ?
(c) Red and violet (d) Violet and blue
109. In leaves of C4 plants malic acid synthesis
during CO2 fixation occurs in
(a) bundle sheath (b) guard cells
(c) epidermal cells (d) mesophyll cells
110. During
anaerobic
digestion
of
organic
waste, such as in producing biogas, which
one of the following is left under graded
(a) Lipids
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(b) Lignin
(c) Hemi – cellulose
(d) Cellulose
111. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched ?
membrane
(a) IAA – Cell wall elongation
(b) B: Adenine –a nucleotide that makes up
(b) Absicisic acid – Stomatal closure
nucleic acids
(c) Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall
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(a) A: Lecithin –a component of cell
(d) Cytokinin – Cell division
(c) A: Triglyceride – major source of energy
112. Which one of the following mammalian cells
(d) B: Uracil –a component of DNA
is not capable of metabolizing glucose to
105. In ‘S’ phase of the cell cycle
(a) amount of DNA doubles in each cell
carbon dioxide aerobically ?
(b) amount of DNA remains same in each
(a) Red blood cells
cell
(b) White blood cells
(c) chromosome number is increased
(c) Unstraited muscle cell
(d) amount of DNA is reduced to half in
(d) Liver cells
each cell
113. If
due
to
some
injury
the
chordate
tendineae of the tricuspid value of the
106. The ability of the Venus Flytrap to capture
human heart is partially non-functional,
(a) Rapid turgor pressure changes
what will be the immediate effect
(b) A passive process requiring no special
(a) the flow of blood into the arota will be
ability on the part of the plant
slowed down
(c) Specialized “muscle-like” cells
(b) The pacemaker will stop working
(d) Chemical stimulation by the prey
(c) The blood will tend to flow back into the
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insects is due to
107. An
element
playing
important
role
left atrium
in
(d) The flow of blood into the pulmonary
nitrogen fixation is
(a) Molybdenum
(b) Copper
(c) Manganese
(d) Zinc
artery will be reduced
114. Uric
108. Which fractions of the visible spectrum of
acid
is
the
chief
nitrogenous
component of the excretory products of
solar radiations are primarily absorbed by
(a) Frog
(b) man
carotenoids of the higher plants ?
(c) Earthworm
(d) Cockroach
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115. A person entering an empty room suddenly
(b) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
finds a snake right in front on opening the
(c) Corpus luteum will disintegrate
door. Which one of the following is likely to
(d) Primary follicle starts developing
happen
in
his
neurohormonal
control
120. The part of fallopian tube closest to the
system ?
(a)
ovary is
Hypothalamus
activates
the
parasympathetic divison of brain
(b) Sympathetic nervous system is activated
(a) Isthmus
(b) Infundibulum
(c) Cervix
(d) Ampulla
121. The Leydig cells as found in the human
body are the secretory source of
from adrenal cortex
(a) Glucagon
(b) Androgens
(c) Sympathetic nervous system is activated
(c) Progesterone
(d) Intestinal mucus
releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine
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releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine
122. The main function of mammalian corpus
from adrenal medulla
luteum is to produce
(d) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across
(a) estrogen only
the cleft and transmit a nerve impulse
(b) progesterone
116. Which one of the following statements is
(d) relaxin only
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correct ?
(a) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but
not vice versa
(b)
and
123. Which
of
associated
Endocrine
activity,
(c) human chorionic gonadotropin
glands
nervous
regulate
system
neural
the
following
with
events
ovulation
is
in
human
female?
regulates
(a) LH surge
endocrine glands
(b) Decrease in estadiol
(c) Neither hormones control neural activity
(c) Full development of Graafian follicle
nor the neurons control endocrine activity
(d) Release of secondary oocyte
(d)
Endocrine
glands
regulate
neural
124. Which of the following cannot be detected
activity, but not vice versa
in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
117. Top – shaped multiciliate male gametes,
(a) Klinefelter syndrome
and the mature seed which bears only one
(b) Sex of the foetus
embryo
(c) Down syndrome
two
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with
not
cotyledons,
are
characteristic features of
(d) Jaundice
(a) Gamopetalous angiosperms
125. Two nonallelic genes produce the new
phenotype when present together but fail to
(c) Polypetalous angiosperms
do so independently then it is called
(d) Cycads
(a) Epistasis
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(b) Conifers
118. The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig
(b) Polygene
encloses a number of
(c) Non-complimentary gene
(a) berries
(b) mericarps
(d) Complimentary gene
(c) achenes
(d) smaras
126. A gene is said to be dominant if
119. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized,
which one of the following is unlikely
(a)
It
expresses
its
effect
only
homozygous stage
(a) Estrogen secretion further decreases
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in
(b) It is expressed only in heterozygous
often
condition
phenomenon is called
(c) It is expressed both in homozygous and
(a) Metamorphosis (b) Heterosis
in heterozygous condition
(c) Transformation (d) Sphcing
(d) It is never expressed in any condition
superior
to
both
parents.
134. If both parents are carriers for thalassemia,
127. Two crosses between the same pair of
which is an autosomal recessive disorder,
genotypes or phenotypes In which the
what
sources of the gametes are reversed in one
resulting in an affected child ?
cross is known as
(a) no chance
(b) 50%
(c) 25%
(d) 100%
(b) Reciprocal cross
(c) Dihybrid cross (d) Reverse cross
128. A
male
human
is
are
the
chances
for
(a) Recessive epistasis
autosomal genes A and B and is also
(b) Dominant epistasis
hemizgous for hemophilic gene h. What
(c) Complementary genes
proportion of his sperms will be abh ?
(d) Inhibitory genes
(c) ¼
(d) 1/8
129. G-6-P
136. In his classic experiments on pea plants,
Mendel did not use
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(b) 1/16
dehydrogenase
deficiency
is
(a) Flower position (b) Seed colour
associated with haemolysis of
(a) Leucocytes
(c) Platelets
pregnancy
135. Fruit colour in squash is an example of
heterozygous
(a) 1/32
of
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(a) Test cross
This
(c) Pod length
(b) Lymphocytes
(d) Seed shape
137. In negative operon
(d) RBCs
(a) Inducer binds with repressor
130. Sickle cell anemia has not been eliminated
(b) Corepressor binds with inducer
from the African population because
(c) Corepressor binds with inducer
(a) It is controlled by recessive genes
(d) CAMP have negative effect on lac operon
(b) It is not a fatal disease
138. Which one of the following triplet codes is
(c) It provides immunity against malaria
correctly matched with its specificity for an
(d) It is controlled by dominant genes
amino acid in protein synthesis or as ‘start’
or ‘stop’ codon
the chromosomal linkage map of maize
(a) UCG – Start
plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are
(c) UGU – Leucine (d) UAC – Tyrosine
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131. Two genes R and y are located very close on
hybridized, the F2 segregation will sow
(b) UUU – Stop
139. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes
consist of short sequences of
(b) Higher number of the recombinant types
(a) Cytosine rich repeats
(c) Segregation in the expected 9:3:3:1 ratio
(b) Adenine rich repeats
(d) Segregation in 3:1 ratio
(c) Guanine rich repeats
132. Infectious proteins are present in
(d) Thymine rich repeats
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(a) Higher number of the parental types
(a) Gemini viruses (b) Prions
(c) Viroids
140. In which mode of inheritance do you expect
(d) Satellite viruses
more
133. When two unrelated individuals or lines are
crossed, the per romance of F1 hybrid is
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maternal
influence
among
offspring ?
(a) Autosomal
(b) Cytoplasmic
(c) Y-linked
(d) X-linked
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the
141. Which one of the following pairs of codons
(a) Colour change in chameleon
is correctly matched with their function or
(b) Poison fangs in snakes
the signal for the particular amino acid ?
(c) Melanism in moths
(a) AUG, ACG – Start / Methionine
(d) Enlargement of body size by swallowing
(b) UUA, UCA – Leucine
air in puffer fish
(c) GUU, GCU – Alanine
149. Adaptive radiation refers to
(d) UAG, UGA – Stop
(a) Power of adaptation in an individual to a
142. The one aspect which is not a salient
variety of environments
(b)
Adaptations
due
to
geographical
(a) Degenerate
(b) Ambiguous
isolation
(c) Universal
(d) Specific
(c) Evolution of different species from a
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feature of genetic code is its being
143. Which one of the following is not a part of a
common ancestor
transcription unit in DNA ?
(d) Migration of members of a species to
(a) A promoter
(b) The structural gene
different geographical areas
(c) the inducer
(d) A terminator
150. Which one of the following statement is
144. An abnormal human baby with ‘XXX’ sex
correct ?
(a) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
(a) fusion of two sperms and on ovum
(b) Stem cells are specialized cells
(b) formation of abnormal sperms in the
(c) There is no evidence of the existence of
father
gills during embryogenesis of mammals
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chromosomes was born due to
(c) formation of abnormal ova in the mother
(d) fusion of two ova and one sperm
(d) All plant and animal cells are totipotent
151. Which
145. Which of the following biomolecules does
one
of
the
following
in
birds
indicates their reptilian ancestry ?
have a phosphodiester bond ?
(a) Two special chambers crop and gizzard
(a) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide
in their digestive tract
(b) Fatty acids in a diglyceride
(b) Eggs with a calcareous shell
(c) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide
(c) Homeothermy
(d) Amino acids in a polypeptide
(d) Four chambered heart
of
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146. There is no life on moon due to the absence
152. According to Darwin, the organic evolution
is due to
(b) Water
(a) Intraspecific competition
(c) Light
(d) Temperature
(b) Interspecific competition
w
(a) O2
147. de Vries gave his mutation theory on
(c)
Competition
within
closely
related
organic evolution while working on
species
(a) Oenothera lamarckiana
(d)
(b) Drosophila melanogaster
species due to the presence of interfering
(c) Pisum sativum
species
(d) Althaea rosea
Reduced
feeding
efficiency
in
one
153. Industrial melanism is an example of
148. Animals have the innate ability to escape
(a) Neo Lamarckism
(b) Neo Darwinism
from predation. Examples for the same are
(c) Natural selection
(d) Mutation
given below. Select the incorrect example.
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154. Which one of the following conditions
(d) Chikungunya virus
though harmful in itself is also a potential
160. The most likely reason for the development
saviour from a mosquito borne infectious
of resistance against pesticides in insects
disease ?
damaging a crop is
(a) Thalassemia
(a) Genetic recombination
(b) Sickle cell anaemia
(b) Directed mutations
(c) Pernicius anaemia
(c) Acquired heritable changes
(d) Leukemia
(d) Random mutations
155. The ‘blue baby’ syndrome results from
161. Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop,
has been obtained by crossing wheat with
(b) Methemoglobin
(a) Rye
(b) Pearl millet
(c) Excess of dissolved oxygen
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Barley
(d) Excess of TDS (total dissolved solids)
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(a) Excess of chloride
162. What is antisense technology ?
156. To which type of barriers under innate
(a)
When
a
piece
of
RNA
that
is
complementary in sequence is used to stop
the tears from the eyes, belong ?
expression
(a) Physiological barriers
(b) RNA polymerase producing DNA
(b) Physical barriers
(c) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used
(c) Cytokine barriers
for the synthesis of antigens
(d) Cellular barriers
(d) Production of somaclonal variants in
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immunity, do the salvia in the mouth and
157. Select the correct statement from the ones
given below
tissue cultures
163. “Jaya” and “Ratna” developed for green
(a) Barbiturates when given to criminals
revolution in India are the varieties of
make them tell the truth
(a) Bajra
(b) Maize
(b) Morphine is often given to persons who
(c) Rice
(d) Wheat
have undergone surgery as a pain killer
164. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
(c) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure
matched ?
and heart rate
(a) Coliforms – Vinegar
(b) Methanogens – Gobar gas
as it stimulates recovery
(c) Yeast – Ethanol
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(d) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery
158. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in
165. What is true for monoclonal antibodies ?
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(a) Human RBCs
(d) Streptomycets – Antibiotic
(b) Human liver
(a) These antibodies obtained from one
(c) Gut of female Anopheles
parent and for one antigen
(d) Salivary glands of Anopheles
(b) These obtained from different parents
159. Which of the following viruses is not
and for one antigen
transferred through semen of an infected
(c) These obtained from one parent and for
male ?
many antigens
(a) Herpes simplex virus
(d) These obtained from many parents and
(b) Hepatitis B virus
for many antigen
(c) Human immunodeficiency virus
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166. Transgenic plants are the ones
(a)
Grown
in
artificial
(a) the population is large
medium
after
(b) individuals mate selectively
hybridization in the field
(c) there are no mutations
(b) Produced by a somatic embryo in
(d) thee is no migration
artificial medium
173. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged
(c) Generated by introducing foreign DNA
but can recover after some time if damaging
into a cell and regenerating a plant from
effect stops will be having
that cell
(a) High stability and low resilience
(d) Produced after protoplast fusion in
(b) Low stability and low resilience
artificial medium
(c) High stability and high resilience
fermentation is done to
(d) Low stability and high resilience
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167. Continuous addition of sugars in ‘fed batch’
174. The slow rate of decomposition of fallen
(a) degrade sewage
logs in nature is due to their
(b) produce methane
(a) anaerobic environment around them
(c) obtain antibiotics
(b) low cellulose content
(d) purify enzymes
(c) low moisture content
(d) poor nitrogen content
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168. Choose the correct sequence of stages of
growth curve for bacteria
175. Given below is an imaginary pyramid of
(a) Lag, log, decline, stationary phase
numbers.
What
could
be
one
of
the
(b) Lag, log, stationary phase
possibilities about certain organisms at
(c) Stationary, lag, log, decline phase
some of the different levels ?
(d) Decline, lag, log phase
169. Which
one
mismatched ?
of
the
following
pairs
is
(a) Savanna – acacia trees
(b) Coniferous forest – evergreen trees
(a) Level one PP is “papal trees” and the
(c) Tundra – permafrost
level SC is “sheep”
(d) Prairie – epiphytes
(b) Level PC is “rats” and level SC “cats”
170. Which one of the following is one of the
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(c) Level PC is “insects” and level SC is
“small insectivorous birds”
(a) Stratification
(b) Natality
(d) Level PP is “phytoplanktons” in sea and
(c) Mortality
(d) Sex-ratio
“Whale” on top level TC
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etheracteristics of a biological community ?
171. A biologist studied the population of rats in
176. In an ecosystem the rate of production of
a barn. He found that the average natality
organic matter during photosynthesis is
was
termed as
250,
average
mortality
240,
immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net
(a) Net productivity
increase in population is
(b) Net primary productivity
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) Gross primary productivity
(c) 05
(d) zero
(d) Secondary productivity
172. A population will not exist in HardyWeinberg equilibrium if
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177. Which of the following pairs of an animal
and
a
plant
represents
180. Measuring
endangered
biochemical
oxygen
demand
(BOD) is a method used for
organism in India
(a) Measuring the activity of Saccharomyces
(a) Bentinckia nicobarica and red panda
cereviscae
(b) Tamarind and rhesus monkey
commercial scale
(c) Cinchona and leopard
(b) Working out the efficiency of RBCs
(d) Banyan and blackbuck
about their capacity to carry oxygen
178. Which one of the following is an example of
in
producing
card
on
a
(c) Estimating the amount organic matter in
sewage water
(a) Wild life sanctuary
(d) Working out the efficiency of oil driven
(b) Seed bank
automobile engines
(c) Sacred groves
(d) National park
179. Step taken by the Government of India to
control air pollution include
(a)
Use
of
non-polluting
compressed
and trucks
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Natural Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses
ha
.n
et
exsitu conservation ?
(b) Compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol
with petrol and 20% biodiesel with diesel
(c)
Compulsory
Control)
PUC
certification
(Pollution
of
petrol
Under
driven
vehicles which tests for carbon monoxide
and hydrocarbons
(d) Permission to use only pure diesel with
a maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel for
w
w
w
vehicles
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Model Grand Test
KEY
NEET
Time: 3 Hours
Date: 00-00-2017
Max. Marks: 720
2. (c)
7. (d)
12. (b)
17. (a)
22. (b)
27. (b)
32. (a)
37. (d)
42. (c)
46.
51.
56.
61.
66.
71.
76.
81.
86.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
CHEMISTRY
48. (b)
53. (a)
58. (c)
63. (c)
68. (c)
73. (d)
78. (c)
83. (b)
88. (d)
92. (c)
97. (a)
102. (d)
107. (a)
112. (a)
117. (d)
122. (b)
127. (b)
132. (b)
137. (c,b)
142. (b)
147. (a)
152. (a)
157. (b)
162. (a)
167. (d)
172. (b)
177. (a)
BIOLOGY
93. (d)
98. (c)
103. (c)
108. (d)
113. (d)
118. (c)
123. (b)
128. (d)
133. (b)
138. (d)
143. (c)
148. (b)
153. (c)
158. (c)
163. (c)
168. (a)
173. (d)
178. (b)
w
w
w
91. (c)
96. (c)
101. (c)
106. (a)
111. (c)
116. (b)
121. (b)
126. (c)
131. (a)
136. (c)
141. (d)
146. (b)
151. (b)
156. (a)
161. (a)
166. (c)
171. (d)
176. (c)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(b)
4. (d)
9. (a)
14. (c)
19. (b)
24. (d)
29. (c)
34. (a)
39. (a)
44. (b)
5. (d)
10. (c)
15. (c)
20. (a)
25. (b)
30. (d)
35. (a)
40. (b)
45. (b)
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
(d)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
.e
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up
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tib
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)
3. (c)
8. (c)
13. (d)
18. (a)
23. (d)
28. (c)
33. (c)
38. (a)
43. (d)
ha
.n
et
1. (d)
6. (c)
11. (c)
16. (a)
21. (c)
26. (d)
31. (a)
36. (c)
41. (d)
PHYSICS
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NEET :: MODEL TEST
94. (a)
99. (d)
104. (a)
109. (d)
114. (d)
119. (a)
124. (d)
129. (d)
134. (c)
139. (b)
144. (c)
149. (c)
154. (b)
159. (d)
164. (a)
169. (d)
174. (b)
179. (c)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(c)
95. (d)
100. (c)
105. (a)
110. (b)
115. (c)
120. (b)
125. (a)
130. (c)
135. (b)
140. (b)
145. (a)
150. (a)
155. (b)
160. (d)
165. (a)
170. (a)
175. (d)
180. (c)
00-00-2017
HINTS
& SOLUTIONS
PHYSICS
1.
Total distance to be covered for crossing
8.
the bridge
= length of train + length of
In the same orbit, orbital sped of satellites
ha
.n
et
2.
remain same. When two satellites of earth
bridge
are moving in the same orbit, then time
= 150 m + 850 m = 1000 m
periods of both are equal
From Kepler’s third law
Linear velocity
T 2  r3
v  r
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tib
3.
Time period is independent of mass, hence
v1   r1 , v2   r2
[
is the same in both cases because
The potential energy and kinetic energy are
time period is the same]
mass dependent, hence the PE and KE of
v1 r1 R
 
v2 r2 r
satellites are not equal
But, if they are orbiting in the same orbit,
then they have equal orbital speed
4.
w
w
5.
6.
their time periods will be equal.
Given I = 2 kg – m2,
0 
60
 2 rad / s
60
9.
Escape velocity
10.
Bulk modulus
w
  0, t  60 s
The torque required to stop the wheel’s
rotation is
7.
AS said, (KE)rot remains same
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NEET :: MODEL TEST
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11.
Condition of insufficient length of capillary
tube
h
18.
1
r
and since the source is stationary, so wave
 Q
P   T4
 t 
12.
Energy per second
13.
Amount of energy radiated
length remains unchanged for observer
19.
 (Temperature)4
Coefficient of performance
ha
.n
et
14.
.e
en
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up
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tib
15.
20.
16.
In
simple
harmonic
motion,
displacement equation is, y = A sin
the
t
21.
Two positive ions each carrying a charge q
are kept at a distance d, then it is found
Where A is amplitude of the motion.
w
w
that force of repulsion between them is
w
17.
22.
The given circuit can be drawn as follows
Hence, it is clear that when v is maximum,
then a is minimum (i.e., zero) or vice versa
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NEET :: MODEL TEST
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23.
Charge remains constant after charging. If
the battery is removed after charging, then
the charge stored in the capacitor remains
constant.
q = constant
As
capacitance
decreases,
so
potential
difference increases
24.
If E is the electric field, then current
j E
density
27.
i
Also we know that current density j 
A
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tib
Let ia is the current. Flowing through
ammeter and i the total current. So, a
cross section. When j is different, then E is
current i - ia will flow through shunt
also different. Thus E is not constant. The
velocity
vd 
The potential difference across ammeter
and shunt is the same
Hence j is different for different area of
drift
ha
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et
26.
vd
is
given
resistance
by
j
=different for different j value.
ne
Hence only current i will be constant
The formula for resistance of the wire is
R
l
A
 =specific resistance of the wire
w
w
Where
R
l
A
l
r2
w
25.
R

R1 l1 r22
 
R2 l2 r12
 A   r 
2
(i)
28.
The time period of electron moving in a
circular orbit
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Electric
current
revolution
Magnet
corresponds
of
field
at
electron
centre
of
to
the
32.
is
circle
33.
Inductance of a coil is numerically equal to
the emf induce din the coil when the
current in the coil changes at the rate of 1
As-1.
Hence
If I is the current flowing in the circuit,
To move on circular path in a magnetic
then flux linked with the circuit is observed
field, a centripetal force is provide by the
ha
.n
et
29.
to be proportional to I, i.e.,
magnetic force. When magnetic field is
I
perpendicular to motion of charged particle,
  LI
then
or
(i)
Centripetal force = magnetic force
Where L is called the self – inductance or
That is
coefficient
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of
self-inductance
or
simply
inductance of the coil.
Net flux through solenoid,
Further, time period of the motion
34.
It is independent of both R and v.
30.
In the sum and difference method of
vibration magnetometer
M 1 T22  T12

M 2 T22  T12
w
31.
In resonance condition, maximum current
flows in the circuit
w
w
Here
35.
Current in LCR series circuit
decreases with rise in
Where V is rms value of current, R is
temperature. If we heat a ferromagnetic
resistance, XL is inductive reactance and XC
substance, then at a definite temperature
is capacitive reactance
the ferromagnetic property of the substance
For current to be maximum, denominator
suddenly disappears and the substance
should be minimum which can be done, if
becomes paramagnetic. The temperature
XL = X C
above which a ferromagnetic substance
This happens in resonance state of the
becomes paramagnetic is called the Curie
circuit, i.e.,
Ferromagnetism
temperature of the substance
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L 
Or
41.
1
C
L
Given,
Einsein’s photoelectric equation can be
written as
1
 2C
….. (i)
  1000 s 1 , C  10  F  10 10 6 F
Hence,
1
1000 
2
10 106
 0.1 H  100mH
36.
 -rays are beams of fat electrons
37.
  EB
The discharge of electricity through rarefied
gases is an interesting phenomenon which
 E0iˆ  B0 ˆj  E0 B0 kˆ
can be systematically studied with the help
E  B points in the direction of wave
of a discharge tube. In discharge tube
propagation
collisions between the charge particles
v=1 cm, R = 2 cm
emitted from the cathode and the atoms of
By using
the gas results to the coloured glow in the
 2 1  2  1
 
v
u
R
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38.
42.
ha
.n
et
L
tube.
43.
Kinetic energy of electron
K
Ze 2
8 0 r
Potential energy of electron
U
1 Ze 2
4 0 r
 Total energy
E  K U 
39.
w
w
or
for lens u = wants to sec = -30cm
w
or
44.
Distance of the nth bright fringe from the
centre
Ze 2
8 0 r
or E = - K
and v = can see = -10 cm
40.
E
Ze 2
Ze 2

8 0 r 4 0 r
K   E    3.4   3.4eV
For nuclear fusion process the nuclei with
low mass are suitable
45.
The diode in lower branch is forward biased
and diode in upper branch is reverse biased
i 
5
5

A
20  30 50
CHEMISTRY
46.
2 g of H2 means one mole of H2, hence
contains 6.023 × 1023 molecules. Others
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NEET :: MODEL TEST
00-00-2017
have less than one mole, so have less no. of
molecules.
47.
Quantum numbers n = 3, l = 2, m = +2
represent an orbital with
48.
In
each
vertical
3d
xy
column
or 3d x2  y 2
of

transition
element, the elements of second and third
transition series resemble each other more
closely than the elements of first and
lanthanoids
contraction.
Hence
the
properties of elements of 4d series of the
transition
elements
resemble
with
55.
O – O – H bond angel in H2O2 is 94.8o
56.
The tendency to form their hydrides, basic
character and stability decreases from Li to
the
Cs
properties of the elements of 5d series of
the transition elements
50.
KE = 3/2 RT. (At any constant temperature
since
the
57.
the
tendency
character
to
form
+2
ionic
state
increases on moving down the group due to
.e
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tib
same).
electropositive
decreases from Cs to Li
the KE of gaseous molecules remains the
51.
ha
.n
et
second transition series on account of
inert
pair
effect.
Most
characteristic
oxidation states for lead and tin are +2 and
For a spontaneous process
+4 respectively.
58.
52.
53.
In qualitative analysis of cations of second
w
w
group, H2S gas is passed in the presence of
HCl. Therefore, due to common ion effect,
59.
lower concentration of sulphide ions is
which
w
obtained
is
sufficient
for
the
Nucleophile
(-NH3)
replaces
other
nucleophile (-Br) in the reaction
60.
precipitation of second group cations in the
Removal of H from ketone gives resonance
stabilized carbanion
form of their sulphides due to lower value
of their solubility product (Ksp). Here fourth
group cations are not precipitated because
they
require
exceeding
their
more
ionic
sulpide
product
ions
to
for
their
solubility products which is not obtained
61.
here due to common ion effect
wise, i.e., R.
It’s Fisher projection
54.
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Highest to lowest priority (Br > CH3) is clock
NEET :: MODEL TEST
00-00-2017
63.
71.
HCl  AlCl3
For the reaction
C6 H 6  CH 2  CH 2  C6 H 5CH 2CH 3
2 A  B  3C  D
64.
Rate constant of first – order reaction
Cracking converts liquid hydrocarbons to
ha
.n
et
gaseous hydrocarbons by cleavage of C – C
and C – H bonds
65.
Green chemistry may be defined as the
programme of developing new chemical
(because 0.6 mole of B is formed)
products and chemical processes or making
improvements
in
the
already
Suppose t1 hour is required for changing
existing
the concentration of A from 0.9 mole to
less
harmful
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compounds and processes so as to make
to
human
health
0.675 mole of B. Remaining mole of A = 0.9
and
– 0.675 – 0.225
environment. This means the same as to
reduce
the
use
and
production
of
hazardous chemicals.
66.
72.
67.
For body – centered cubic (bcc) lattice,
distance between two oppositely charged
w
w
ions,
76.
w
68.
74.
SO2 act as bleaching agent due to its
reducing property
SO2  2 H 2O  H 2 SO4  2 H
Coloured matter  H  Colourless matter
77.
In case of HI due to large size of iodine
strong vander Waal forces are present.
69.
Because conductance is increased when
Hence, it has highest molar heat of
the dissociation is more
vaporization
70.
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NEET :: MODEL TEST
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78.
79.
Neon
 Ne is monoatomic and others (N2,
88.
Thermosetting polymers undergo chemical
F2 and O2) are diatomic
changes when heated and set to hard mass
4 Zn  10 HNO3  4 Zn  NO3 2  NH 4 NO3  3H 2O
when cooled, Exaple. Bakelite
89.
80.
Cis-diamminedichloroplatinum (II) (cisplatin) is a widely used anticancer drug.
Ligands in cis-platin are NH3 and Cl
aqueous solution due to the presence of
unpaired electrons in d-subshell
82.
90.
Al(OC2H5)3 contains bonding through O and
thus it does not have metal – carbon bond
83.
Chloroform is oxidized to a poisonous gas,
.e
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up
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tib
phosgene (COCl2) by atmospheric gas
ha
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et
Hence, Ni2+ and Ti3+ are coloured in
CHCl3  O  COCl2  HCl
84.
85.
It is called Clemmensen reduction
w
w
w
86.
due to resonance C – Cl bond acquires
double bond character.
87.
Methyl-  -D-glucoside and methyl-  -Dglucoside differs at C-1, hence are called
anomers.
SRIGAYATRI EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS - INDIA
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NEET :: MODEL TEST
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