Download 1st semester final - practice exam

1st SEMESTER FINAL- PRACTICE EXAM
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. To understand the unusual behavior of an adult client, a clinical psychologist carefully investigates
____
2.
____
3.
____
4.
____
5.
____
6.
the client's current life situation and his physical, social-cultural, and educational history. Which
research method has the psychologist used?
a. the survey
b. the case study
c. experimentation
d. naturalistic observation
e. correlation
Which research method would be most appropriate for investigating the relationship between the
religious beliefs of Americans and their attitudes toward abortion?
a. the survey
b. naturalistic observation
c. the case study
d. experimentation
e. random assignment
Which of the following correlation coefficients expresses the weakest degree of relationship between
two variables?
a. –0.12
b. +1.00
c. –0.99
d. +0.25
e. –0.50
If psychologists discovered that more intelligent parents have smarter children than less intelligent
parents, this would demonstrate that
a. intelligence is inherited.
b. more intelligent parents provide their children with greater educational
opportunities than do less intelligent parents.
c. the intelligence of parents and children is positively correlated.
d. experiments based on this relationship would indicate causation.
e. intelligence of children and parents are negatively correlated.
The sequential occurrence of two highly unusual events is most likely to contribute to
a. random sampling.
b. the hindsight bias.
c. the placebo effect.
d. an illusory correlation.
e. overconfidence.
In a test of the effects of sleep deprivation on problem-solving skills, research participants are
allowed to sleep either 4 or 8 hours on each of three consecutive nights. This research is an example
of
a. naturalistic observation.
b.
c.
d.
e.
____
7.
____
8.
____
9.
____ 10.
____ 11.
____ 12.
survey research.
a case study.
an experiment.
a correlational study.
Researchers are interested in studying the relationship between poor prenatal nutrition and early
cognitive development. Because of ethical concerns, which research method would be most
appropriate for researchers to use?
a. survey
b. case study
c. experimentation
d. correlational
e. naturalistic observation
To assess the effect of televised violence on aggression, researchers plan to expose one group of
children to violent movie scenes and another group to nonviolent scenes. To reduce the chance that
the children in one group have more aggressive personalities than those in the other group, the
researchers should make use of
a. random assignment.
b. the double-blind procedure.
c. naturalistic observations.
d. operational definitions.
e. replication.
Random sampling is to ________ as random assignment is to ________.
a. correlational studies; case studies
b. surveys; experiments
c. illusory correlation; control group
d. replication; correlation
e. description; prediction
What technique do researchers use to reduce the impact of confounding variables?
a. hindsight bias
b. naturalistic observation
c. scatterplots
d. random assignment
e. measures of central tendency
The arithmetic average of a distribution of scores is the
a. mode.
b. median.
c. standard deviation.
d. mean.
e. range.
In a distribution of test scores, which measure of central tendency would likely be the most affected
by a couple of extremely high scores?
a. median
b. range
c. mode
d. standard deviation
e. mean
____ 13. Why would the median, rather than the mean, be the appropriate measure of central tendency in
____ 14.
____ 15.
____ 16.
____ 17.
____ 18.
determining housing values in a particular community?
a. The median is useful for measuring how much values deviate from one another.
b. The median is minimally affected by extreme scores.
c. The median is best used to sort values into groups.
d. The median allows you to examine the gap between the lowest and highest value.
e. The median allows you to generalize from representative samples to the general
population.
Variation is to central tendency as ________ is to ________.
a. range; median
b. median; mean
c. mode; mean
d. scatterplot; bar graph
e. correlation; scatterplot
Evelyn wants to know how consistent her bowling scores have been during the past season. Which
of the following measures would be most relevant to this specific concern?
a. mean
b. median
c. scatterplot
d. standard deviation
e. correlation coefficient
Which of the following are considered to be limitations of psychological experiments conducted in
laboratory environments?
a. Laboratory experiments allow researchers to have control over variables.
b. Experiments conducted in laboratories allow researchers to make causal
inferences.
c. It's difficult to accurately measure the research variables.
d. Laboratories are artificial environments, so behavior might not apply to the real
world.
e. Researchers tend to ignore ethical considerations in the pursuit of proving their
hypotheses.
The function of dendrites is to
a. receive incoming signals from other neurons.
b. release neurotransmitters into the spatial junctions between neurons.
c. coordinate the activation of the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
d. control pain through the release of opiate-like chemicals into the brain.
e. transmit signals to other neurons.
The chemical messengers released into the spatial junctions between neurons are called
a. hormones.
b. neurotransmitters.
c. synapses.
d. sensory neurons.
e. motor neurons.
____ 19. Molecules that are similar enough to a neurotransmitter to bind to its receptor sites on a dendrite and
____ 20.
____ 21.
____ 22.
____ 23.
____ 24.
____ 25.
block that neurotransmitter's effects are called what?
a. agonists
b. antagonists
c. endorphins
d. endocrines
e. action potentials
The somatic nervous system is a component of the ________ nervous system.
a. peripheral
b. autonomic
c. central
d. sympathetic
e. parasympathetic
Motor neurons are to the ________ nervous system as interneurons are to the ________ nervous
system.
a. sympathetic; parasympathetic
b. central; peripheral
c. autonomic; somatic
d. parasympathetic; sympathetic
e. peripheral; central
Hormones are the chemical messengers of the
a. action potential.
b. autonomic nervous system.
c. endocrine system.
d. peripheral nervous system.
e. central nervous system.
Which of the following techniques would surgeons use in mapping the areas of the brain responsible
for specific activities, such as movement or speech?
a. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. computed tomography (CT )
c. electroencephalogram (EEG)
d. positron emission tomography (PET)
e. lesion
Severing a cat's reticular formation from higher brain regions causes the cat to
a. become violently aggressive.
b. cower in fear.
c. experience convulsive seizures.
d. lapse into a coma.
e. become sexually preoccupied.
When the cat's amygdala is electrically stimulated the cat prepares to attack by hissing and arching
its back. Which division of the autonomic nervous system is activated by such stimulation?
a. somatic
b. parasympathetic
c. central
d. sympathetic
e. sensorimotor
____ 26. The occipital lobes are to ________ as the temporal lobes are to ________.
a. hearing; sensing movement
b. seeing; sensing touch
c. sensing pleasure; sensing pain
d. seeing; hearing
e. speaking; hearing
____ 27. Which region of the brain will a fMRI show as active when a person is looking at a photo?
a. temporal lobes
b. parietal lobes
c. occipital lobes
d. frontal lobes
e. association areas
____ 28. An area at the rear of the frontal lobes that controls voluntary movements is called the
a. angular gyrus.
b. hypothalamus.
c. motor cortex.
d. reticular formation.
e. frontal association area.
____ 29. The auditory hallucinations experienced by people with schizophrenia are most closely linked with
the activation of areas in which brain area?
a. motor cortex
b. amygdala
c. temporal lobes
d. hypothalamus
e. sensory cortex
____ 30. Psychologist Michael Gazzaniga asked split-brain patients to stare at a dot as he flashed HE·ART on
a screen. HE appeared in the left visual field, ART in the right. When asked, patients said they saw
a. HE.
b. ART.
c. HEART.
d. EA.
e. nothing. They were unable to complete the task.
____ 31. A picture of a cat is briefly flashed in the left visual field and a picture of a mouse is briefly flashed
in the right visual field of a split-brain patient. The individual will be able to use her
a. right hand to indicate she saw a cat.
b. left hand to indicate she saw a mouse.
c. right hand to indicate she saw a mouse.
d. left or right hand to indicate she saw a cat.
e. left or right hand to indicate she saw a mouse.
____ 32. A failure to recognize that one's arm or leg is part of one's self is most likely to be associated with
damage to the
a. amygdala.
b. hypothalamus.
c. right hemisphere.
d. sympathetic nervous system.
e. left hemisphere.
____ 33. To estimate trait heritability, researchers are most likely to make use of
a. cloning.
b. natural selection.
c. interaction.
d. twin studies.
e. DNA.
____ 34. Hearing a sequence of sounds of different pitches is to ________ as recognizing the sound sequence
____ 35.
____ 36.
____ 37.
____ 38.
____ 39.
as a familiar melody is to ________.
a. the just noticeable difference; accommodation
b. absolute threshold; difference threshold
c. sensory interaction; feature detection
d. feature detection; sensory interaction
e. sensation; perception
Heather Sellers suffers from prosopagnosia and is unable to recognize her own face in a mirror. Her
difficulty stems from a deficiency in
a. top-down processing.
b. transduction.
c. kinesthesis.
d. sensation.
e. accommodation.
You typically fail to consciously perceive that your own nose is in your line of vision. This best
illustrates
a. subliminal perception.
b. change blindness.
c. fovea.
d. selective attention.
e. the visual cliff.
In one experiment, most of the participants who viewed a videotape of men tossing a basketball
remained unaware of an umbrella-toting woman sauntering across the screen. This illustrated
a. opponent-process theory.
b. inattentional blindness.
c. blind spot.
d. visual cliff.
e. figure-ground.
The process by which our sensory systems convert stimulus energies into neural messages is called
a. priming.
b. sensory adaptation.
c. transduction.
d. parallel processing.
e. sensory interaction.
The minimum amount of stimulation a person needs to detect a stimulus 50 percent of the time is
called the
a. adaptation threshold.
b.
c.
d.
e.
____ 40.
____ 41.
____ 42.
____ 43.
____ 44.
____ 45.
____ 46.
difference threshold.
subliminal threshold.
absolute threshold.
change threshold.
Diminished sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus is known as
a. sensory accommodation.
b. blindsight.
c. sensory adaptation.
d. transduction.
e. equilibrium.
The adjustable opening in the center of the eye is the
a. fovea.
b. iris.
c. cornea.
d. pupil.
e. blind spot.
Accommodation refers to the
a. diminishing sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus.
b. system for sensing the position and movement of muscles, tendons, and joints.
c. quivering eye movements that enable the retina to detect continuous stimulation.
d. process by which stimulus energies are changed into neural messages.
e. process by which the lens changes shape to focus images on the retina.
Compared with rods, cones are
a. more sensitive to dim light and more sensitive to fine detail.
b. less sensitive to dim light and less sensitive to fine detail.
c. more sensitive to dim light and less sensitive to fine detail.
d. less sensitive to dim light and more sensitive to fine detail.
e. more sensitive to any light and less sensitive to fine detail.
Evidence that some cones are especially sensitive to red light, others to green light, and still others to
blue light is most directly supportive of the ________ theory.
a. frequency
b. Young-Helmholtz
c. gate-control
d. opponent-process
e. signal detection
The fact that people who are colorblind to red and green may still see yellow is most easily
explained by
a. the Young-Helmholtz theory.
b. the gate-control theory.
c. place theory.
d. frequency theory.
e. the opponent-process theory.
The coiled, fluid-filled tube in which sound waves trigger nerve impulses is called the
a. eustachian tube.
b. auditory canal.
c. semicircular canal.
d. cochlea.
e. vestibular apparatus.
____ 47. Cones and rods are to vision as ________ are to audition.
a. eardrums
b. cochleas
c. oval windows
d. hair cells
e. semicircular canals
____ 48. The sense of smell is known as
a. subliminal stimulation.
b. the vestibular sense.
c. transduction.
d. olfaction.
e. the gustatory sense.
____ 49. Those who emphasize that mood fluctuations may be indicative of seasonal affective disorder are
____ 50.
____ 51.
____ 52.
____ 53.
highlighting the importance of
a. neuroadaptation.
b. alpha waves.
c. biological rhythms.
d. narcolepsy.
e. REM sleep.
Layla has difficulty going to sleep and staying asleep. Layla is most likely suffering from
a. sleep apnea.
b. night terrors.
c. hypnagogic sleep.
d. insomnia.
e. paradoxical sleep.
Mr. Dayton occasionally stops breathing while sleeping. He wakes up to snort air for a few seconds
before falling back to sleep. Mrs. Dayton complains that her husband snores. Clearly, Mr. Dayton
suffers from
a. sleep apnea.
b. narcolepsy.
c. insomnia.
d. night terrors.
e. aphasia.
Which of the following is a psychedelic drug?
a. LSD
b. cocaine
c. heroin
d. caffeine
e. nicotine
Who would most likely agree with the following statement concerning the field of psychology? “Its
theoretical goal is the prediction and control of behavior. Introspection forms no essential part of its
methods.”
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
____ 54.
____ 55.
____ 56.
____ 57.
____ 58.
____ 59.
Albert Bandura
John Garcia
John B. Watson
Carl Rogers
Sigmund Freud
A patient who had long feared going into elevators was told by his therapist to force himself to enter
20 elevators a day. The therapist most likely wanted to encourage the ________ of the patient's fear.
a. generalization
b. latent learning
c. shaping
d. extinction
e. reinforcement
The tendency for a CR to be evoked by stimuli similar to the CS is called
a. spontaneous recovery.
b. conditioned reinforcement.
c. latent learning.
d. generalization.
e. shaping.
Jacqueline is sexually aroused by the sight of her handsome boyfriend but not by the sight of her
equally handsome brother. This best illustrates the value of
a. latent learning.
b. shaping.
c. intermittent reinforcement.
d. discrimination.
e. spontaneous recovery.
Learning associations between one's own personal actions and resulting events is most relevant to
the process of
a. classical conditioning.
b. latent learning.
c. observational learning.
d. operant conditioning.
e. insight.
What is the difference between a primary and a conditioned reinforcer?
a. Primary reinforcers are presented immediately after the behavior; conditioned
reinforcers are presented after a delay.
b. Primary reinforcers are introduced every time the behavior occurs; conditioned
reinforcers are introduced only sometimes.
c. Primary reinforcers lead to rapid learning of the behavior; conditioned reinforcers
produce greater resistance to extinction.
d. Primary reinforcers increase the rate of operant responding; conditioned
reinforcers decrease the rate of operant responding.
e. Primary reinforcers are unlearned and innately satisfying; conditioned reinforcers
are learned.
Coffee shops that reward customers with one free cup of coffee after every ten coffee purchases are
using a ________ reinforcement schedule.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
____ 60.
____ 61.
____ 62.
____ 63.
____ 64.
____ 65.
fixed-interval
variable-interval
fixed-ratio
variable-ratio
intermittent-continuous
Purchasing state lottery tickets is reinforced with monetary winnings on a ________ schedule.
a. fixed-interval
b. intermittent-continuous
c. fixed-ratio
d. variable-ratio
e. variable-interval
An executive in a computer software firm works with his office door closed. At the same time every
hour he opens the door to see what his employees are doing. The employees have learned to work
especially hard during the five minutes before and while the door is open. Their work pattern is
typical of responses that are reinforced on a ________ schedule.
a. fixed-interval
b. partial-interval
c. variable-ratio
d. variable-interval
e. fixed-ratio
The introduction of a pleasant stimulus is to ________ as the withdrawal of a pleasant stimulus is to
________.
a. positive reinforcer; negative reinforcer
b. acquisition; extinction
c. reinforcement; punishment
d. generalization; discrimination
e. primary reinforcer; secondary reinforcer
Dogs strapped into a harness and given repeated and unavoidable shocks
a. experienced extinction.
b. underwent spontaneous recovery.
c. developed learned helplessness.
d. experienced a discriminative stimulus.
e. developed a conditioned reinforcer.
Jeremy wears his baseball cap backward because he noticed his older brother does so. This illustrates
the importance of
a. respondent behavior.
b. immediate reinforcement.
c. spontaneous recovery.
d. modeling.
e. shaping.
Rhesus macaque monkeys are more likely to reconcile after a fight if they grow up with forgiving
older macaque monkeys. This best illustrates the impact of
a. observational learning.
b. immediate reinforcement.
c. spontaneous recovery.
d. respondent behavior.
e. shaping.
____ 66. Mr. Zandee has stopped smoking because he wants to model healthy behavior patterns for his
____ 67.
____ 68.
____ 69.
____ 70.
____ 71.
children. Mr. Zandee is apparently aware of the importance of ________ in his children's
development.
a. shaping
b. observational learning
c. generalization
d. delayed reinforcement
e. spontaneous recovery
The process of getting information into memory is called
a. priming.
b. chunking.
c. encoding.
d. registering.
e. storing.
Which term best describes parallel processing?
a. voluntary
b. conscious
c. serial
d. automatic
e. sequential
Peterson and Peterson demonstrated that unrehearsed short-term memories for three consonants
almost completely decay in as short a time as
a. 1 second.
b. 12 seconds.
c. 1 minute.
d. 12 minutes.
e. 1 hour.
Where are explicit memories of newly learned verbal information and visual designs stored?
a. Verbal information is stored in the right hippocampus and visual designs are stored
in the left hippocampus.
b. Verbal information is stored in the left hippocampus and visual designs are stored
in the right hippocampus.
c. Verbal information is stored in the left hippocampus and visual designs are stored
in the right cerebellum.
d. Verbal information is stored in the right cerebellum and visual designs are stored
in the left cerebellum.
e. Verbal information is stored in the left cerebellum and visual designs are stored in
the right cerebellum.
When an eyewitness to an auto accident is asked to describe what happened, which test of memory is
being used?
a. reconstruction
b. recognition
c. rehearsal
d. recall
e. relearning
____ 72. The day after Kirsten was introduced to 13 people at a business luncheon, she could recall the names
____ 73.
____ 74.
____ 75.
____ 76.
____ 77.
of only the first 4 people to whom she had been introduced. Her effective recall of these particular
names best illustrates the impact of
a. automatic processing.
b. parallel processing.
c. rehearsal.
d. flashbulb memory.
e. the serial position effect.
After studying biology all afternoon, Alonzo is having difficulty remembering details of 8the organic
chemistry material that he memorized that morning. Alonzo's difficulty best illustrates
a. transience.
b. retroactive interference.
c. the spacing effect.
d. proactive interference.
e. source amnesia.
You took Spanish during your sophomore year, and French during your junior year. Happily, you
found that knowing Spanish helped you learn French. This phenomenon is best explained by
a. proactive interference.
b. memory construction.
c. source amnesia.
d. the spacing effect.
e. positive transfer.
Compulsive gamblers frequently recall losing less money than is actually the case. Their memory
failure best illustrates
a. source amnesia.
b. proactive interference.
c. the serial position effect.
d. motivated forgetting.
e. priming.
The inability to remember events in one's life which occurred prior to a brain injury is known as
a. anterograde amnesia.
b. retrograde amnesia.
c. motivated forgetting.
d. retroactive interference.
e. proactive interference.
When Loftus and Palmer asked observers of a filmed car accident how fast the vehicles were going
when they “smashed” into each other, the observers developed memories of the accident that
a. omitted some of the most painful aspects of the event.
b. were more accurate than the memories of observers who had not been immediately
questioned about what they saw.
c. were influenced by whether Loftus and Palmer identified themselves as police
officers.
d. portrayed the event as more serious than it had actually been.
e. demonstrated repression of significant aspects of the accident.
____ 78. Kevin did not know whether the locker room was located down the short hallway to his right or
____ 79.
____ 80.
____ 81.
____ 82.
____ 83.
____ 84.
down the long hallway to his left. Crossing his fingers, he decided to try the short hallway. His
problem strategy best illustrates
a. confirmation bias.
b. fixation.
c. trial and error.
d. belief perseverance.
e. the availability heuristic.
Heuristics are
a. methodical step-by-step procedures for solving problems.
b. mental groupings of similar objects, events, or people.
c. problem-solving strategies involving the use of trial and error.
d. simple thinking strategies for solving problems quickly and efficiently.
e. thinking strategies that often hasten insights.
Brainstorming sessions that encourage people to spontaneously suggest new and unusual solutions to
a problem are designed to avoid
a. heuristics.
b. prototypes.
c. semantics.
d. fixations.
e. framing.
The representativeness heuristic refers to our tendency to
a. judge the likelihood of category membership by how closely an object or event
resembles a particular prototype.
b. judge the likelihood of an event in terms of how readily instances of its occurrence
are remembered.
c. search for information that is consistent with our preconceptions.
d. cling to our initial conceptions, even though they have been discredited.
e. underestimate the accuracy of our beliefs and judgments.
Our tendency to judge the likelihood of an event on the basis of how readily we can remember
instances of its occurrence is called the
a. framing effect.
b. belief perseverance phenomenon.
c. confirmation bias.
d. representativeness heuristic.
e. availability heuristic.
Framing refers to
a. a methodical step-by-step procedure for solving problems.
b. the way in which a problem or issue is phrased or worded.
c. the grouping of similar objects, events, or people into a category.
d. a simple thinking strategy for solving problems efficiently.
e. judging the likelihood of an event based on how well it matches a prototype.
Semantics refers to the
a. logical and methodical procedures for solving problems.
b.
c.
d.
e.
____ 85.
____ 86.
____ 87.
____ 88.
____ 89.
____ 90.
____ 91.
orderly arrangement of words into grammatically correct sentences.
simple thinking strategies that facilitate quick decision making.
rules by which we derive meaning from morphemes, words, and sentences.
typical schemes we use to form concepts.
During the earliest stage of speech development, infants
a. speak in single words that may be barely recognizable.
b. begin to imitate adult syntax.
c. make speech sounds only if their hearing is unimpaired.
d. make some speech sounds that do not occur in their parents' native language.
e. use words that reflect the syntax of their parents' native language.
If our capacity to form concepts depends on our verbal memory, this would best illustrate
a. the framing effect.
b. universal grammar.
c. telegraphic speech.
d. linguistic determinism.
e. fixation.
Factor analysis is a statistical procedure that can be used to
a. derive IQ scores by comparing mental age with chronological age.
b. evaluate how accurately test items predict a criterion behavior.
c. extract test norms from a standardization sample.
d. identify clusters of closely related test items.
e. provide a quantitative estimate of heritability.
A 6-year-old who responded to the original Stanford-Binet with the proficiency typical of an average
8-year-old was said to have an IQ of
a. 75.
b. 85.
c. 100.
d. 125.
e. 133.
When a person's test performance can be compared with that of a representative and pretested
sample of people, the test is said to be
a. reliable.
b. standardized.
c. valid.
d. normally distributed.
e. internally consistent.
If a test yields consistent results every time it is used, it has a high degree of
a. standardization.
b. predictive validity.
c. reliability.
d. content validity.
e. heritability.
A test that measures or predicts what it is supposed to is said to have a high degree of
a. validity.
b. standardization.
c. reliability.
d. the g factor.
e. factor analysis.
____ 92. Psychologists measure the correlation between aptitude test scores and school grades in order to
____ 93.
____ 94.
____ 95.
____ 96.
____ 97.
____ 98.
assess the ________ of the aptitude test.
a. reliability
b. standardization
c. normal distribution
d. factor analysis
e. validity
The similarity between the intelligence test scores of identical twins raised apart is
a. less than that between children and their biological parents.
b. equal to that between identical twins reared together.
c. equal to that between fraternal twins reared together.
d. greater than that between ordinary siblings reared together.
e. equal to that between adopted siblings reared together.
The first psychological laboratory was established by
a. William James.
b. John Watson.
c. Wilhelm Wundt.
d. Sigmund Freud.
e. Jean Piaget.
Who would have been most likely to ignore mental processes and to define psychology as “the
scientific study of observable behavior”?
a. John B. Watson
b. Edward Titchener
c. Wilhelm Wundt
d. Jean Piaget
e. William James
Humanistic psychologists focused on the importance of
a. childhood memories.
b. genetic predispositions.
c. unconscious thoughts.
d. healthy growth potential.
e. punishment and reinforcement.
John B. Watson considered himself to be a(n)
a. physiological psychologist.
b. cognitive psychologist.
c. behaviorist.
d. psychoanalyst.
e. operant conditioner.
A dog's salivation at the sight of a food dish is a(n)
a. conditioned stimulus.
b. unconditioned stimulus.
c. unconditioned response.
d. conditioned response.
e. neutral stimulus.
____ 99. If a tone that regularly signals food triggers a salivation response, then a light that becomes
____ 100.
____ 101.
____ 102.
____ 103.
____ 104.
____ 105.
associated with that tone may also begin to trigger salivation. This best illustrates
a. latent learning.
b. the law of effect.
c. higher-order conditioning.
d. a variable-ratio schedule.
e. positive reinforcement.
In classical conditioning, the
a. neutral stimulus is presented before the unconditioned stimulus.
b. unconditioned stimulus elicits the conditioned response.
c. neutral stimulus elicits salivation.
d. unconditioned stimulus is the same as the conditioned stimulus.
e. unconditioned response produces the conditioned response.
After Pavlov had conditioned a dog to salivate to a tone, he repeatedly sounded the tone without
presenting the food. As a result, ________ occurred.
a. generalization
b. negative reinforcement
c. latent learning
d. extinction
e. discrimination
Spontaneous recovery refers to the
a. expression of learning that had occurred earlier but had not been expressed because
of lack of incentive.
b. organism's tendency to respond spontaneously to stimuli similar to the CS as
though they were the CS.
c. return of a response after punishment has been terminated.
d. reappearance, after a pause, of an extinguished conditioned response.
e. tendency of organisms to generalize conditioned responses.
Little Albert developed a fear of rats after a white rat was paired with a loud noise. In this case, the
loud noise was the
a. unconditioned stimulus.
b. conditioned stimulus.
c. conditioned reinforcer.
d. delayed reinforcer.
e. primary reinforcer.
The psychologist most closely associated with the study of operant conditioning was
a. B. F. Skinner.
b. Ivan Pavlov.
c. John B. Watson.
d. Albert Bandura.
e. John Garcia.
The process of reinforcing successively closer approximations to a desired behavior is called
a. generalization.
b.
c.
d.
e.
____ 106.
____ 107.
____ 108.
____ 109.
____ 110.
____ 111.
intermittent reinforcement.
shaping.
secondary reinforcement.
modeling.
Which of the following is true of positive and negative reinforcers?
a. Positive reinforcers decrease the rate of operant responding; negative reinforcers
increase the rate of operant responding.
b. Positive reinforcers increase the rate of operant responding; negative reinforcers
decrease the rate of operant responding.
c. Positive reinforcers increase the rate of operant responding; negative reinforcers
increase the rate of operant responding.
d. Positive reinforcers have no effect on the rate of operant responding; negative
reinforcers decrease the rate of operant responding.
e. Positive reinforcers increase the rate of operant responding; negative reinforcers
have no effect on the rate of operant responding.
The way slot machines reward gamblers with money best illustrates
a. spontaneous recovery.
b. partial reinforcement.
c. generalization.
d. shaping.
e. continuous reinforcement.
Psychologists who carefully watch the behavior of chimpanzee societies in the jungle are using a
research method known as
a. the survey.
b. experimentation.
c. naturalistic observation.
d. the case study.
e. random sampling.
A correlation coefficient is a measure of the
a. difference between the highest and lowest scores in a distribution.
b. average squared deviation of scores from a sample mean.
c. direction and strength of the relationship between two variables.
d. statistical significance of a difference between two sample means.
e. frequency of scores at each level of some measure.
To graphically represent the correlation between two variables, researchers often construct a
a. skewed distribution.
b. scatterplot.
c. standard deviation.
d. bar graph.
e. pie chart.
Which of the following correlations between self-esteem and body weight would enable you to most
accurately predict body weight from knowledge of level of self-esteem?
a. +0.60
b. +0.01
c. –0.10
d. –0.06
e. 0.00
____ 112. To minimize the extent to which outcome differences between experimental and control conditions
____ 113.
____ 114.
____ 115.
____ 116.
____ 117.
____ 118.
can be attributed to placebo effects, researchers make use of
a. random sampling.
b. the double-blind procedure.
c. random assignment.
d. operational definitions.
e. replication.
If a result is statistically significant, this means that the
a. results of the test are positively correlated with another factor.
b. participants received scores above the 50 percentile.
c. results of the research have practical significance.
d. scores were 1 standard deviation from the mean.
e. there is less than a 5 percent likelihood that the results occurred by chance.
Which of the following defines ethical principles that should guide human experimentation?
a. control group, random sampling, random assignment
b. case study, naturalistic observation, survey
c. informed consent, protection from harm, confidentiality, debriefing
d. volunteer participants only, no deception, incentives for participation
e. effect size, statistical significance, measures of central tendency, variation
The distinctive feature of the psychodynamic perspective is its emphasis on
a. natural selection.
b. brain chemistry.
c. unconscious conflicts.
d. learned behaviors.
e. introspection.
A concern with the reasoning processes that contribute to effective problem solving is most
characteristic of the ________ perspective.
a. behavioral
b. evolutionary
c. social-cultural
d. cognitive
e. biological
To assess reactions to a proposed tuition hike at her college, Ariana sent a questionnaire to every
fifteenth person in the college registrar's alphabetical listing of all currently enrolled students. Ariana
employed the technique of
a. random assignment.
b. naturalistic observation.
c. replication.
d. correlation.
e. random sampling.
If psychologists discovered that wealthy people are less satisfied with their marriages than poor
people are, this would indicate that wealth and marital satisfaction are
a. causally related.
b.
c.
d.
e.
____ 119.
____ 120.
____ 121.
____ 122.
____ 123.
____ 124.
negatively correlated.
independent variables.
dependent variables.
positively correlated.
Which of the following is true for those assigned to the experimental group in an experiment?
a. The experimenter exerts the greatest influence on participants' behavior.
b. The research participants are exposed to all the different hypotheses.
c. The experimental group receives the experimental treatment
d. The experimental group does not receive the experimental treatment
e. The operational definition is not applied to their variables.
Which of the following is true for those assigned to a control group?
a. The experimenter exerts the greatest influence on participants' behavior.
b. The research participants are exposed to all the different experimental treatments.
c. The research participants are exposed to the most favorable levels of experimental
treatment.
d. The experimental treatment is absent.
e. The operational definition is not applied to their variables.
A brief electrical charge that travels down the axon of a neuron is called the
a. synapse.
b. agonist.
c. action potential.
d. myelin sheath.
e. refractory period.
The movement of positively charged ions across the membrane of a neuron can produce a(n)
a. action potential.
b. synapse.
c. neurotransmitters.
d. myelin sheath.
e. interneuron.
Reuptake refers to the
a. movement of neurotransmitter molecules across a synaptic gap.
b. release of hormones into the bloodstream.
c. inflow of positively charged ions through an axon membrane.
d. reabsorption of excess neurotransmitter molecules by a sending neuron.
e. the ending of the refractory period.
When Mr. Valdez thought his 1-year-old daughter had fallen down the stairs, his heartbeat
accelerated, his blood pressure rose, and he began to perspire heavily. Mr. Valdez's state of arousal
was activated by his ________ nervous system.
a. parasympathetic
b. sympathetic
c. somatic
d. sensorimotor
e. central
____ 125. Thinking about sex (in your brain's cerebral cortex) can stimulate a region of the limbic system to
____ 126.
____ 127.
____ 128.
____ 129.
____ 130.
secrete hormones. These hormones trigger the pituitary gland to influence hormones released by
other glands in the body. Which brain region influences the endocrine system?
a. hippocampus
b. amygdala
c. thalamus
d. reticular formation
e. hypothalamus
Which of the following is the component of the limbic system that plays an essential role in the
processing of new memories?
a. hypothalamus
b. thalamus
c. hippocampus
d. medulla
e. cerebellum
To demonstrate that brain stimulation can make a rat violently aggressive, a neuroscientist should
electrically stimulate the rat's
a. reticular formation.
b. cerebellum.
c. medulla.
d. amygdala.
e. thalamus.
In 1861, Paul Broca studied a stroke patient he called “Tan.” He was called this because as a result
of brain damage it was the only word he could pronounce. Based on Broca's early work, which of
the following brain regions is involved in speech production?
a. angular gyrus
b. left temporal lobe
c. sensory cortex
d. left frontal lobe
e. auditory cortex
A person whose hand had been amputated actually felt sensations on his nonexistent fingers when
his face was stroked. This best illustrates the consequences of
a. tomography.
b. brain plasticity.
c. lateralization.
d. hemispherectomy.
e. aphasia.
The ability to simultaneously copy different figures with the right and left hand is most characteristic
of those whose ________ has been cut.
a. angular gyrus
b. reticular formation
c. corpus callosum
d. motor cortex
e. sensory cortex
____ 131. Which theory emphasizes that personal expectations and motivations influence the level of absolute
____ 132.
____ 133.
____ 134.
____ 135.
____ 136.
____ 137.
thresholds?
a. signal detection theory
b. frequency theory
c. opponent-process theory
d. place theory
e. bottom-up theory
The principle that two stimuli must differ by a constant proportion for their difference to be
perceived is known as
a. the opponent-process theory.
b. Weber's law.
c. feature detection.
d. sensory interaction.
e. the difference threshold.
Rods are
a. more light-sensitive and more color-sensitive than are cones.
b. less light-sensitive and less color-sensitive than are cones.
c. more light-sensitive and less color-sensitive than are cones.
d. less light-sensitive and more color-sensitive than are cones.
e. more frequency sensitive and less amplitude sensitive.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of structures that sound waves pass through on the
way to the auditory nerve?
a. cochlea, hammer, anvil, stirrup, eardrum
b. hammer, eardrum, basilar membrane, cochlea
c. hammer, anvil, stirrup, eardrum, cochlea
d. inner ear, middle ear, cochlea, eardrum
e. eardrum, hammer, anvil, stirrup, cochlea
The discovery that high-frequency sounds trigger large vibrations near the beginning of the basilar
membrane supports the ________ theory.
a. gate-control
b. frequency
c. Young-Helmholtz
d. opponent-process
e. place
On the day she is to be interviewed for an important new position, Rachel awakens with a severe
toothache. During the interview she feels no pain; not until 30 minutes later does she become aware
again of the troublesome toothache. Rachel's experience is best explained by
a. the opponent-process theory.
b. Weber's law.
c. the gate-control theory.
d. the Young-Helmholtz theory.
e. frequency theory.
With her eyes closed, Sierra can accurately touch her mouth, nose, and chin with her index finger.
Sierra's accuracy illustrates the importance of
a. accommodation.
b.
c.
d.
e.
____ 138.
____ 139.
____ 140.
____ 141.
____ 142.
____ 143.
kinesthesis.
sensory interaction.
sensory adaptation.
feature detectors.
The ability to detect whether your body is in a horizontal or vertical position depends most directly
on
a. accommodation.
b. sensory adaptation.
c. the vestibular sense.
d. olfactory receptors.
e. subliminal stimulation.
About three hours after he falls asleep, Bobby often sits up in bed screaming incoherently. His
mother tries to awaken him, but with no success. His pulse races and he gasps for breath. The next
morning, he remembers nothing. It appears that Bobby suffers from
a. night terrors.
b. narcolepsy.
c. sleep spindles.
d. sleep apnea.
e. insomnia.
REM rebound involves the
a. tendency for REM sleep periods to become increasingly longer and more frequent
as a normal night of sleep progresses.
b. increase in REM sleep that characteristically follows intense learning episodes or
stressful daytime experiences.
c. unusual symptoms of tiredness and irritability that follow periods of REM sleep
deprivation.
d. tendency for REM sleep to increase following REM sleep deprivation.
e. replacement of REM sleep with NREM sleep.
Drugs such as alcohol and opiates that calm neural activity and slow body functions are called
a. hallucinogens.
b. depressants.
c. endorphins.
d. amphetamines.
e. dissociatives.
Morphine and heroin are
a. amphetamines.
b. opiates.
c. hallucinogens.
d. barbiturates.
e. stimulants.
What do methamphetamine, caffeine, and cocaine have in common?
a. They slow body functions and calm neural activity.
b. They depress neural functioning and reduce pain.
c. They distort perceptions and evoke sensations without sensory input.
d. They excite neural activity and arouse body functions.
e. They relax the body, lead to disinhibition, and produce euphoria.
____ 144. John B. Watson emphasized that
a. learning depends on how predictably rather than how frequently events are
associated.
unlike lower animals, humans learn through a process of cognition.
both humans and lower animals learn to expect that a CS will be followed by a US.
learning should be explained without any reference to mental processes.
cognition plays a role in conditioning through the power of prediction.
In Pavlov's experiments, the dog's salivation triggered by the taste of food was a(n)
a. conditioned response.
b. unconditioned response.
c. unconditioned stimulus.
d. conditioned stimulus.
e. neutral stimulus.
Researchers trained pigs to pick up large wooden “dollars” and deposit them in a piggy bank. Instead
of picking up the wooden discs, the pigs would drop them, push them with their snouts, and then
pick them up to put them in the piggy bank. This behavior best illustrates
a. intrinsic motivation.
b. latent learning.
c. spontaneous recovery.
d. generalization.
e. instinctive drift.
It is easier to train a dog to bark for food than to train it to stand on its hind legs for food. This best
illustrates the importance of ________ in learning.
a. primary reinforcement
b. generalization
c. biological predispositions
d. negative reinforcement
e. spontaneous recovery
“The magical number seven, plus or minus two” refers to the storage capacity of ________ memory.
a. short-term
b. explicit
c. flashbulb
d. implicit
e. sensory
The increase in synaptic firing potential that contributes to memory formation is known as
a. chunking.
b. the serial position effect.
c. automatic processing.
d. long-term potentiation.
e. proactive interference.
On the telephone, Dominic rattles off a list of 10 grocery items for Kyoko to bring home from the
store. Immediately after hearing the list, Kyoko attempts to write down the items. She is most likely
to forget the items
a. at the beginning of the list.
b.
c.
d.
e.
____ 145.
____ 146.
____ 147.
____ 148.
____ 149.
____ 150.
b.
c.
d.
e.
____ 151.
____ 152.
____ 153.
____ 154.
____ 155.
____ 156.
____ 157.
at the end of the list.
in the middle of the list.
at the beginning and in the middle of the list.
at the middle and the end of the list.
Proactive interference refers to the
a. blocking of painful memories from conscious awareness.
b. incorporation of misleading information into one's memory of an event.
c. disruptive effect of new learning on the recall of previously learned information.
d. disruptive effect of prior learning on the recall of new information.
e. integration of current information into implicit memories.
The misinformation effect refers to the
a. tendency to recall experiences that are consistent with one's current good or bad
mood.
b. disruptive effect of prior learning on the recall of new information.
c. the eerie sense that “I've been in this exact situation before.”
d. incorporation of misleading information into one's memory of an event.
e. negative effect of incorrect information on recall.
An algorithm is a
a. simple thinking strategy for making decisions quickly and efficiently.
b. method of hypothesis testing involving trial and error.
c. best example of a particular category.
d. methodical step-by-step procedure for solving problems.
e. specific kind of prototype.
Which of the following would be most characteristic of a 2-year-old's telegraphic speech?
a. “a doggy”
b. “eat apple”
c. “to store”
d. “ball pretty”
e. “daddy funny”
Which of the following best illustrates overgeneralization in a young child's speech pattern?
a. “Want juice.”
b. “Fish, Fish! Look at the fish!”
c. “Da-da, na-na, ta-ta.”
d. “Doggy big.”
e. “Momma holded the baby.”
Whorf's linguistic determinism hypothesis emphasizes that
a. infancy is a critical period for language development.
b. all languages share a similar grammar.
c. our linguistic proficiencies influence our social status.
d. words shape the way people think.
e. morphemes and phonemes build grammar and language.
Howard Gardner identified a total of ________ intelligences.
a. three
b. five
c. eight
d. twelve
e. fifteen
____ 158. Intelligence tests were initially designed by Binet and Simon to assess
a. academic aptitude.
b. inductive reasoning.
c. emotional intelligence.
d. savant syndrome.
e. heritability.
____ 159. For the original version of the Stanford-Binet, IQ was defined as
a. mental age multiplied by 100.
b. chronological age subtracted from mental age and multiplied by 100.
c. chronological age divided by mental age and multiplied by 100.
d. mental age divided by chronological age and multiplied by 100.
e. mental age multiplied by chronological age divided by 100.
____ 160. A 12-year-old who responded to the original Stanford-Binet with the proficiency typical of an
average 9-year-old was said to have an IQ of
a. 75.
b. 85.
c. 100.
d. 115.
e. 133.
____ 161. Tests designed to assess what a person has learned are called ________ tests.
a. factor analysis
b. aptitude
c. standardized
d. achievement
e. ability
____ 162. The widespread improvement in intelligence test performance during the past century is called
a. the normal curve.
b. stereotype threat.
c. the g factor.
d. standardization.
e. the Flynn effect.
____ 163. The heritability of intelligence refers to
a. the extent to which an individual's intelligence is attributable to genetic factors.
b. the percentage of variation in intelligence within a group that is attributable to
genetic factors.
c. the extent to which a group's intelligence is attributable to genetic factors.
d. a general underlying intelligence factor that is measured by every task on an
intelligence test.
e. the extent to which the environment plays a role in the intelligence of biologically
related siblings.
____ 164. The difference in the visual image of an object projected to each eye provides an important cue for depth that
is referred to as
a. interposition
b. accommodation
____ 165.
____ 166.
____ 167.
____ 168.
____ 169.
____ 170.
____ 171.
c. linear disparity
d. retinal disparity
The gate-control theory is associated with
a. vision
b. pain
c. smell
d. taste
The gate-control theory suggests that incoming pain sensations may be blocked at the
a. location of the injury
b. spinal cord
c. thalamus
d. cortex
Peter is in a deep sleep and his brain wave pattern consists of low frequency delta waves. Peter is
experiencing which stage of sleep?
a. REM
b. Stage 3 or 4
c. Stage 1
d. Stage 2
REM periods of sleep tend to ____ as the night goes on.
a. deepen
b. lighten
c. shorten
d. lengthen
Variables, other than the independent variable, that seem likely to influence the behavior of subjects in a study
are called
a. control variables
b. dependent variables
c. extraneous variables
d. random variables
Which child is exhibiting underextension?
a. Abby, who uses the word “swing” when referring to all the pieces of playground
equipment on the playground
b. Brenda, who uses the word “car” only when referring to her mother’s car
c. Cindy, who uses the word “doggie” when referring to both her dog Fido and her
grandmother’s cat Fluffy
d. Debbie, who uses the word “doggie” when referring to both her dog Fido and her
grandmother’s dog Spot
People often find it difficult to solve a problem by using a familiar object in a novel way because of
a. a mental set
b. unnecessary constraints
c. irrelevant information
d. functional fixedness
1st SEMESTER FINAL- PRACTICE EXAM
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS:
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2. ANS:
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21. ANS:
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22. ANS:
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit II | 5-2
The case study
SKL: Conceptual/Application
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit II | 5-2
The survey
SKL: Conceptual/Application
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit II | 6-1
Correlation SKL: Conceptual
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: Unit II | 6-1
Correlation and causation
SKL: Conceptual/Application
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: Unit II | 6-2
Illusory correlations
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit II | 6-3
Experimentation
SKL: Conceptual/Application
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit II | 6-3
Experimentation
SKL: Conceptual
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit II | 6-3
Experimentation
SKL: Conceptual/Application
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: Unit II | 6-3
Experimentation
SKL: Conceptual
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit II | 6-3
Independent and dependent variables
SKL:
Conceptual
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit II | 7-1
Measures of central tendency
SKL: Factual/Definitional
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit II | 7-1
Measures of central tendency
SKL: Conceptual
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit II | 7-1
Describing data/Measures of central tendency
SKL: Factual/Definitional
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: Unit II | 7-1
Measures of variation
SKL: Conceptual
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit II | 7-1
Measures of variation
SKL: Conceptual/Application
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit II | 8-1
Psychology applied/laboratory experiments
SKL: Factual/Definitional
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit III | 9-2
Neural communication
SKL: Factual/Definitional
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit III | 9-3
Neural communication
SKL: Factual/Definitional
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: Unit III | 9-4
Neural communication
SKL: Factual/Definitional
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit III | 10-1
The nervous system
SKL: Factual/Definitional
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: Unit III | 10-1
The nervous system
SKL: Conceptual
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit III | 10-2
TOP:
23. ANS:
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24. ANS:
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25. ANS:
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26. ANS:
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27. ANS:
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28. ANS:
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44. ANS:
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45. ANS:
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46. ANS:
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The endocrine system
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit III | 11-1
The tools of discovery
SKL: Conceptual/Application
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit III | 11-2
The reticular formation
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit III | 11-3
The amygdala
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: Unit III | 12-1
Functions of the cortex
SKL: Conceptual
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit III | 12-1
Structure of the cortex
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit III | 12-1
Functions of the cortex
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit III | 12-1
Functions of the cortex
SKL: Factual/Definitional
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit III | 13-1
Splitting the brain
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: Unit III | 13-1
Splitting the brain
SKL: Conceptual
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit III | 13-1
Right-left differences in the intact brain
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit III | 14-3
Heritability SKL: Factual/Definitional
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: Unit IV | 16-1
Basic Principles of Sensation and perception
SKL: Conceptual
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: Unit IV | 16-1
Basic Principles of Sensation and perception
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit IV | 16-2
Selective attention
SKL: Factual/Definitional
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit IV | 16-2
Selective inattention
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit IV | 16-3
Transduction
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit IV | 16-4
Absolute thresholds
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit IV | 16-5
Sensory adaptation
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit IV | 18-1
The eye
SKL: Factual/Definitional
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit IV | 18-1
The eye
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit IV | 18-1
The eye
SKL: Factual/Definitional
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit IV | 18-3
Color vision SKL: Factual/Definitional
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit IV | 18-3
Color vision SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit IV | 20-1
The ear
SKL: Factual/Definitional
47. ANS:
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48. ANS:
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70. ANS:
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D
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: Unit IV | 20-1
The ear
SKL: Conceptual
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit IV | 21-3
Smell
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit V | 23-1
Circadian rhythm
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit V | 24-1
Sleep disorders
SKL: Conceptual/Application
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit V | 24-1
Sleep disorders
SKL: Conceptual/Application
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit V | 25-4
Hallucinogens
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VI | 26-2
Classical conditioning
SKL: Conceptual
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VI | 26-3
Extinction and Spontaneous Recovery
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit VI | 26-3
Generalization
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: Unit VI | 26-3
Discrimination
SKL:
Conceptual/Application
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit VI | 27-1
Operant conditioning
SKL: Factual/Definitional
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VI | 27-2
Primary and conditioned reinforcers
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VI | 27-3
Reinforcement schedules
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VI | 27-3
Reinforcement schedules
SKL: Conceptual/Application
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VI | 27-3
Reinforcement schedules
SKL: Conceptual/Application
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VI | 27-4
Punishment SKL: Conceptual
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit VI | 29-4
Learned Helplessness
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit VI | 30-1
Learning by observation
SKL: Conceptual/Application
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: Unit VI | 30-1
Learning by observation
SKL: Factual/Definitional
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VI | 30-2
Applications of observational learning
SKL: Conceptual/Application
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit VII | 31-2
Memory models
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VII | 31-4
Automatic processing and Implicit Memories
SKL: Conceptual
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: Unit VII | 31-6
Capacity of short-term and working memory
SKL: Factual/Definitional
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VII | 32-2
Explicit memory system
SKL: Factual/Definitional
71. ANS:
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72. ANS:
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73. ANS:
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74. ANS:
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75. ANS:
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83. ANS:
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84. ANS:
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85. ANS:
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86. ANS:
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87. ANS:
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SKL:
88. ANS:
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89. ANS:
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90. ANS:
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91. ANS:
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92. ANS:
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93. ANS:
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94. ANS:
TOP:
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VII | 32-6
Measuring retention
SKL: Conceptual/Application
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: Unit VII | 32-7
Serial position effect
SKL: Conceptual/Application
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VII | 33-1
Interference SKL: Conceptual/Application
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit VII | 33-1
Interference SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VII | 33-1
Motivated forgetting
SKL: Conceptual/Application
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit VII | 33-1
Forgetting
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VII | 33-2
Misinformation and imagination effects
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VII | 35-1
Problem solving: Strategies and Obstacles
SKL: Conceptual/Application
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit VII | 35-1
Problem solving: Strategies and Obstacles
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VII | 35-1
Problem solving: Strategies and Obstacles
SKL: Conceptual/Application
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VII | 35-2
The representativeness heuristic
SKL: Factual/Definitional
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit VII | 35-2
The availability heuristic
SKL: Factual/Definitional
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VII | 35-2
The effects of framing
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VII | 36-1
Language structure
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VII | 36-2
When do we learn language?
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit VII | 36-5
Language influences thinking
SKL: Conceptual
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit XI | 60-2
Is intelligence one general ability or several specific abilities?
Factual/Definitional
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit XI | 61-1
The origins of intelligence testing SKL: Conceptual/Application
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit XI | 61-3
Standardization
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit XI | 61-4
Reliability
SKL: Factual/Definitional
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit XI | 61-4
Validity
SKL: Factual/Definitional
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit XI | 61-4
Validity
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit XI | 63-1
Twin and adoption studies
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit I | 1-2
Psychological science is born
SKL: Factual/Definitional
95. ANS:
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96. ANS:
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97. ANS:
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98. ANS:
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118. ANS:
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119. ANS:
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
OBJ:
Psychological science develops
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ:
Psychological science develops
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ:
Classical conditioning
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ:
Pavlov's experiments
SKL: Conceptual
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ:
Acquisition SKL: Factual/Definitional
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ:
Acquisition SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ:
Extinction and spontaneous recovery
SKL:
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ:
Extinction and spontaneous recovery
SKL:
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ:
Pavlov's legacy
SKL: Factual/Definitional
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ:
Skinner's experiments
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ:
Shaping behavior
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ:
Types of reinforcers
SKL: Factual/Definitional
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ:
Reinforcement schedules
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ:
Naturalistic observation
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ:
Correlation SKL: Factual/Definitional
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ:
Correlation SKL: Factual/Definitional
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ:
Correlation SKL: Conceptual/Application
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ:
Experimentation
SKL: Factual/Definitional
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ:
Making inferences/When is a difference significant?
SKL:
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ:
Ethics in research/studying people SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ:
Psychology's three main levels of analysis
SKL:
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ:
Psychology's three main levels of analysis
SKL:
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ:
The survey
SKL: Conceptual/Application
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ:
Correlation SKL: Conceptual/Application
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ:
Unit I | 1-3
Unit I | 1-3
Unit VI | 26-2
Unit VI | 26-2
Unit VI | 26-3
Unit VI | 26-3
Unit VI | 26-3
Factual/Definitional
Unit VI | 26-3
Factual/Definitional
Unit VI | 26-4
Unit VI | 27-1
Unit VI | 27-1
Unit VI | 27-2
Unit VI | 27-3
Unit II | 5-2
Unit II | 6-1
Unit II | 6-1
Unit II | 6-1
Unit II | 6-3
Unit II | 7-2
Factual/Definitional
Unit II | 8-4
Unit I | 2-2
Factual/Definitional
Unit I | 2-2
Factual/Definitional
Unit II | 5-2
Unit II | 6-1
Unit II | 6-3
TOP:
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139. ANS:
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140. ANS:
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141. ANS:
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142. ANS:
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143. ANS:
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Experimentation
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit II | 6-3
Experimentation
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit III | 9-2
Neural communication
SKL: Factual/Definitional
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit III | 9-2
Neural communication
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit III | 9-3
Neural communication
SKL: Factual/Definitional
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit III | 10-1
The nervous system
SKL: Conceptual/Application
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit III | 11-3
The limbic system
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit III | 11-3
The limbic system
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit III | 11-3
The amygdala
SKL: Conceptual/Application
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit III | 12-1
Association areas
SKL: Conceptual/Application
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: Unit III | 12-2
The brain's plasticity
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit III | 13-1
Splitting the brain
SKL: Factual/Definitional
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit IV | 16-4
Absolute thresholds
SKL: Factual/Definitional
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit IV | 16-4
Difference thresholds
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit IV | 18-1
The eye
SKL: Factual/Definitional
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit IV | 20-1
The ear
SKL: Factual/Definitional
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit IV | 20-2
Perceiving pitch
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit IV | 21-2
Pain
SKL: Conceptual/Application
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit IV | 21-4
Body position and movement
SKL: Conceptual/Application
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit IV | 21-4
Body position and movement
SKL: Conceptual
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit V | 24-1
Sleep disorders
SKL: Conceptual/Application
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit V | 24-3
Why we dream
SKL: Factual/Definitional
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit V | 25-2
Depressants SKL: Factual/Definitional
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit V | 25-2
Depressants SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit V | 25-3
Stimulants
SKL: Factual/Definitional
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164. ANS:
165. ANS:
166. ANS:
167. ANS:
168. ANS:
169. ANS:
170. ANS:
171. ANS:
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: Unit VI | 26-2
Classical conditioning
SKL: Factual/Definitional
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit VI | 26-2
Pavlov's experiments
SKL: Factual/Definitional
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VI | 29-1
Limits on Operant Conditioning
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VI | 29-1
Limits on Operant Conditioning
SKL: Conceptual/Application
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit VII | 31-6
Capacity of short-term and working memory
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit VII | 32-5
Synaptic changes
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VII | 32-7
Serial position effect
SKL: Conceptual/Application
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit VII | 33-1
Interference SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit VII | 33-2
Misinformation and imagination effects
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit VII | 35-1
Problem solving: Strategies and Obstacles
SKL: Factual/Definitional
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
OBJ: Unit VII | 36-2
When do we learn language?
SKL: Conceptual/Application
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit VII | 36-3
Explaining language development SKL: Conceptual/Application
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit VII | 36-5
Language influences thinking
SKL: Factual/Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit XI | 60-3
Theories of multiple intelligences SKL: Factual/Definitional
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit XI | 61-1
The origins of intelligence testing SKL: Conceptual
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit XI | 61-1
The origins of intelligence testing SKL: Factual/Definitional
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit XI | 61-1
The origins of intelligence testing SKL: Conceptual/Application
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: Unit XI | 61-2
Modern tests of mental abilities
SKL: Factual/Definitional
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit XI | 61-3
Standardization
SKL: Factual/Definitional
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
OBJ: Unit XI | 63-1
Twin and adoption studies
SKL: Factual/Definitional
D
PTS: 1
REF: 142
OBJ: 04-14 TYPE: Factual
B
PTS: 1
REF: 159
OBJ: 04-25 TYPE: Factual
B
PTS: 1
REF: 159
OBJ: 04-25 TYPE: Factual
B
PTS: 1
REF: 179
OBJ: 05-6 TYPE: Concept/Applied
D
PTS: 1
REF: 180
OBJ: 05-7 TYPE: Factual
C
PTS: 1
REF: 44
OBJ: 02-5 TYPE: Factual
B
PTS: 1
REF: 303
OBJ: 08-4 TYPE: Concept/Applied
D
PTS: 1
REF: 312
OBJ: 08-11 TYPE: Factual