Download In atrial fibrillation f waves and absolutely regular RR intervals can

1.
In atrial fibrillation f waves and absolutely regular RR intervals can be seen on surface ECG:
A: true
B: false
2.
Valvular atrial fibrillation is associated with (2 right answers):
A: aortic stenosis
B: aortic regurgitation
C: mitral stenosis
D: prosthetic heart valves
E: heart failure
3.
Prevalence of atrial fibrillation in Europe (1 right answer):
A: 0.1-0.5%
B: 0.5-1.0%
C: 1.0-2.0%
D: 2.0-3.0%
E: 4.0-5.0%
4.
Features of persistent atrial fibrillation (2 right answers):
A: lasts longer than 7 days
B: self-terminating
C: presence of the arrhythmia is accepted, no rhythm control is employed
D: cardioversion e.g. by amiodarone (not spontaneously)
E: lasted for ≥1 year when rhythm control therapy is decided
5.
Features of atrial flutter (3 right answers):
A: ventricular rate is ≥200/min
B: F waves are positive in clockwise atrial flutter
C: reentrant loop circles can be detected mostly in the right atrium
D: regular or regularly irregular pulse
E: atrial cycle length is <200 ms
6.
Possible clinical consequences of atrial fibrillation (3 right answers):
A: cognitive dysfunction
B: embolism of the left lower limb
C: pulmonary embolism
D: heart failure
E: ishaemic heart disease
7.
The most common location of the thrombus in atrial fibrillation (1 right answer):
A: right atrium appendage
B: left atrium appendage
C: apical region of the left ventricle
D: atrial surface of the mitral valve
C: ventricular surface of the aortic valve
8.
Features of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (2 right answers):
A: associated with right sided heart failure
B: cardioversion could be achieved after bisoprolol
C: does not last longer than 7 days
D: cardioverted by propafenone
E: does not require anticoagulation
9.
Diagnostic tools of atrial fibrillation (3 right answers):
A: Holter monitoring
B: transtelephonic ECG
C: loop recorders
D: stress echocardiography
E: OGTT
10. Conditions frequently associated with atrial fibrillation (3 right answers):
A: chronic prostatitis
B: ischaemic heart disease
C: overt thyroid dysfunction
D: aging
E: claudication intermittens
11. Risk factors of stroke in atrial fibrillation (2 right answers):
A: male sex
B: diabetes mellitus
C: frequent alcohol consumption
D: heart failure
E: anticoagulation therapy
12. CHA2DS2-VASc and HAS-BLED score of a female, 67 year old atrial fibrillation patient with obesity,
hypertension, stones in the gallbladder, fibromas in the left breast, COPD, left sided nephrectomy,
elevated creatinin level and prior right sided stroke (1 right answer):
A: CHA2DS2-VASc score: 3, HAS-BLED score: 2
B: CHA2DS2-VASc score: 1, HAS-BLED score: 6
C: CHA2DS2-VASc score: 5, HAS-BLED score: 2
D: CHA2DS2-VASc score: 3, HAS-BLED score: 1
E: CHA2DS2-VASc score: 5, HAS-BLED score: 4
13. Risk factors of bleeding in atrial fibrillation (3 right answers):
A: abnormal liver function
B: prior GI bleeding
C: age >60 years
D: labile INR
E: peripheral artery disease
14. Possible medications for rate control therapy in atrial fibrillation (3 right answers):
A: ivabradin
B: metoprolol
C: digitoxin
D: amlodipine
E: amiodarone
15. Target frequency in lenient rate control of atrial fibrillation (1 right answer):
A: ventricular frequency <110 bpm
B: atrial frequency <110 bpm
C: ventricular frequency <80 bpm
D: atrial frequency <80 bpm
E: ventricular frequency <60 bpm
16. Features of rate control therapy in atrial fibrillation (3 right answers):
A: bisoprolol can decrease palpitation
B: strict rate control is more frequently associated with loss of consciousness
C: digoxin blocks sinus node activity
D: amiodarone is contraindicated for rate control
E: dronedarone can significantly decrease the heart rate at rest and during exercise
17. Features of digoxin therapy (4 right answers):
A: effective for rate control at rest but not during exercise
B: adverse effects of digoxin are nausea, vomiting, blurred vision, confusion, etc
C: signs of normal digoxin effect on ECG are ST depression and T inversion
D: in case of abnormal renal function digitoxin should be used instead of digoxin
E: therapeutic range in serum is 0.5-2.0 ng/ml
18. Anticoagulation therapy is indicated in (2 right answers):
A: atrial flutter
B: coronary heart disease
C: prosthetic heart valve implantation
D: carotis stenosis
E: pulmonary hypertension
19. Besides atrial fibrillation rivaroxaban can be used in (3 right answers):
A: pulmonary embolism
B: prosthetic heart valve implantation
C: deep vein thrombosis
D: peripheral artery disease
E: after hip replacement surgery
20. Features of vitamin K antagonist therapy in atrial fibrillation (2 right answers):
A: target INR should be between 3.0-4.0
B: alcohol consumption increases the effect of acenocumarol
C: transfusion of fresh frozen plasma reverses the effect of vitamin K antagonist therapy
D: dabigatran can cause cardioversion
E: warfarin has higher antithrombotic effect than apixaban
21. Features of dabigatran therapy in atrial fibrillation (2 right answers):
A: efficient therapy requires INR between 2.0-3.0
B: causing strict rate control
C: direct thrombin inhibition
D: intravenous administration
E: no food interaction
22. Stroke preventive medications in atrial fibrillation (3 right answers):
A: clopidogrel
B: apixaban
C: amiodarone
D: enoxaparin
E: verapamil
23. Possibilities of rhythm control therapy for atrial fibrillation patients with ischaemic heart disease (3
right answers):
A: propafenone
B: carvedilol
C: dronedarone
D: sotalol
E: direct current cardioversion
24. Possible side effects of amiodarone (3 right answers):
A: pulmonary fibrosis
B: kidney failure
C: corneal micro-deposits
D: elevated liver enzymes
E: cataract
25. Features of antiarrhythmic medications in atrial fibrillation (1 right answer):
A: flecainide can be indicated in atrial fibrillation patients with severe left ventricular hypertrophy
B: amiodarone decreases mortality
C: sotalol can prolong QT interval
D: propafenone is a potassium channel blocker
E: diltiazem can be given to atrial fibrillation patients with heart failure
26. Features of electrical cardioversion (3 right answers):
A: atrial flutter is more sensitive to electrical cardioversion than atrial fibrillation
B: the conversion rate with direct current cardioversion is lower than with antiarrhythmic drugs
C: the defibrillator has to be in synchronized mode
D: electrical cardioversion may cause prolonged sinus arrest
E: there is no risk for thrombo-embolic events during direct current cardioversion
27. The approximate one year arrhythmia free survival after atrial fibrillation ablation (1 right answer):
A: ≤14 %
B: 15-33 %
C: 34-55 %
D: 56-89 %
E: ≥90 %
28. Anatomical structures which provide mainly the trigger and the substrate of atrial fibrillation (2 right
answers):
A: caval veins
B: pulmonary veins
C: right and left atrial appendage
D: peri-mitral atrial tissue
E: antral left atrial tissue
29. It is not recommended to perform ablation therapy in asymptomatic paroxysmal atrial fibrillation:
A: true
B: false
30. False allegation regarding atrial fibrillation ablation (1 right answer):
A: after atrial fibrillation ablation expert consensus recommends an initial follow-up visit at 3 months,
with 6 monthly intervals thereafter for at least 2 years
B: continuation of long-term anticoagulation therapy is recommended in all patients with a CHA2DS2VASc score ≥2 irrespective of apparent procedural success
C: symptom-based follow-up may be sufficient as symptom relief is the main aim of ablation
D: the most important predictor for a late recurrence appears to be the early recurrence of atrial
fibrillation after the ablation procedure
E: a permanent pacemaker implantation with atrial lead can be recommended for the follow-up after
AF ablation to be able to evaluate the success rate precisely.
Right answers
1. B
2. C,D
3. C
4. A,D
5. B,C,D
6. A,B,D
7. B
8. B,C
9. A,B,C
10. B,C,D
11. B,D
12. E
13. A,B,D
14. B,C,E
15. A
16. A,B,E
17. A,B,C,D
18. A,C
19. A,C,E
20. B,C
21. C,E
22. A,B,D
23. C,D,E
24. A,C,D
25. C
26. A,C,D
27. D
28. B,E
29. A
30. E