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Author: Santiago Salazar
Problems I: Mathematical Statements and Proofs
1.
By using truth tables prove that, for all statements 𝑃 and 𝑄, the statement
′𝑃 β†’ 𝑄′ and its contrapositive β€² π‘›π‘œπ‘‘ 𝑄 β†’ (π‘›π‘œπ‘‘ 𝑃)β€² are equivalent. In example
1.2.3 identify which statement is the contrapositive of statement (i) (𝑓 π‘Ž = 0 β†’
π‘Ž > 0). Find another pair of statements in that list that are the contrapositives of
each other.
Truth table
𝑃
𝑄
~𝑃 ~𝑄 𝑃 β†’ 𝑄 ~𝑄 β†’ ~𝑃
𝑇
𝑇
𝐹
𝐹
𝑇
𝑇
𝑇
𝐹
𝐹
𝑇
𝐹
𝐹
𝐹
𝑇
𝑇
𝐹
𝑇
𝑇
𝐹
𝐹
𝑇
𝑇
𝑇
𝑇
Since the last two columns are identical, the statements ′𝑃 β†’ 𝑄′ and its
contrapositive β€²~𝑄 β†’ ~𝑃′ are logically equivalent.
The contrapositive of statement (i) (𝑓 π‘Ž = 0 β†’ π‘Ž > 0) is statement (vii)
(π‘Ž ≀ 0 β†’ 𝑓(π‘Ž) β‰  0). Similarly, the contrapositive of statement (iii) (𝑓 π‘Ž = 0 β†’
π‘Ž ≀ 0) is statement (vi) (π‘Ž > 0 β†’ 𝑓(π‘Ž) β‰  0).
2. By using truth tables prove that, for all statements 𝑃 and 𝑄, the three statements
(i) ′𝑃 β†’ 𝑄′, (ii) β€²(𝑃 π‘œπ‘Ÿ 𝑄) ↔ 𝑄′, and (iii) β€²(𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄) ↔ 𝑃′ are equivalent.
Truth table
𝑃 𝑄 𝑃 π‘œπ‘Ÿ 𝑄 𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 𝑃 β†’ 𝑄 (𝑃 π‘œπ‘Ÿ 𝑄) ↔ 𝑄 (𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄) ↔ 𝑃
𝑇 𝑇
𝑇
𝑇
𝑇
𝑇
𝑇
𝑇 𝐹
𝑇
𝐹
𝐹
𝐹
𝐹
𝐹 𝑇
𝑇
𝐹
𝑇
𝑇
𝑇
𝐹 𝐹
𝐹
𝐹
𝑇
𝑇
𝑇
Since the last three columns are identical, the statements ′𝑃 β†’ 𝑄′, β€²(𝑃 π‘œπ‘Ÿ 𝑄) ↔
𝑄′, and β€²(𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄) ↔ 𝑃′ are logically equivalent.
3. Prove that the three basic connectives β€˜or’, β€˜and’, and β€˜not’ can all be written in
terms of the single connective β€˜notand’ where ′𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄′ is interpreted as
β€²π‘›π‘œπ‘‘(𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄)β€².
𝑃
𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑃 ~(𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑃) ~𝑃
𝑇
𝑇
𝐹
𝐹
𝐹
𝐹
𝑇
𝑇
Since the last two columns are identical, the statements ~𝑃 and β€²~(𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑃)β€² are
logically equivalent. Hence we can write ~𝑃 as ′𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑃′.
𝑃 𝑄 𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 ~(𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄) ~[~ 𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 ]
𝑇 𝑇
𝑇
𝐹
𝑇
𝑇 𝐹
𝐹
𝑇
𝐹
𝐹 𝑇
𝐹
𝑇
𝐹
𝐹 𝐹
𝐹
𝑇
𝐹
Since columns 3 and 5 are identical, the statements ′𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄′ and
β€²~ ~ 𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 β€² are logically equivalent. But observe that, by definition,
β€²~ 𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 β€² is written as ′𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄′. Thus β€²~ ~ 𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 β€² is logically
equivalent to β€²~ 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 β€². Then, by the first part of the problem,
β€²~ 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 β€² can be written as β€² 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 β€². Hence
we can write ′𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄′ as β€² 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 β€².
𝑃 𝑄 𝑃 π‘œπ‘Ÿ 𝑄 ~𝑃 ~𝑄 ~𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ ~𝑄 ~(~𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ ~𝑄)
𝑇 𝑇
𝑇
𝐹
𝐹
𝐹
𝑇
𝑇 𝐹
𝑇
𝐹
𝑇
𝐹
𝑇
𝐹 𝑇
𝑇
𝑇
𝐹
𝐹
𝑇
𝐹 𝐹
𝐹
𝑇
𝑇
𝑇
𝐹
Since columns 3 and 7 are identical, the statements ′𝑃 π‘œπ‘Ÿ 𝑄′ and β€²~(~𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ ~𝑄)β€²
are logically equivalent. But observe that, by the first part of the problem,
β€²~𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ ~𝑄′ is logically equivalent to β€² 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ (𝑄 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄)β€². Now,
by definition, the negation of this last statement, namely β€²~(~𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ ~𝑄)β€², can be
written as β€² 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ (𝑄 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄)β€². Thus we can write ′𝑃 π‘œπ‘Ÿ 𝑄′ as
β€² 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ (𝑄 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄)β€².
4. Prove the following statements concerning the positive integers π‘Ž, 𝑏, and 𝑐.
(i) (π‘Ž divides 𝑏) and (π‘Ž divides 𝑐) β†’ π‘Ž divides (𝑏 + 𝑐).
(ii) (π‘Ž divides 𝑏) or (π‘Ž divides 𝑐) β†’ π‘Ž divides 𝑏𝑐.
(i) π‘Ž divides 𝑏 means 𝑏 = π‘Žπ‘ž for some integer π‘ž, and π‘Ž divides 𝑐 means 𝑐 = π‘Žπ‘
for some integer 𝑝. Thus 𝑏 + 𝑐 = π‘Žπ‘ž + π‘Žπ‘ = π‘Ž π‘ž + 𝑝 = π‘Žπ‘˜, where π‘˜ = π‘ž + 𝑝 is
an integer. Therefore π‘Ž divides (𝑏 + 𝑐).
(ii) case 1: π‘Ž divides 𝑏 means 𝑏 = π‘Žπ‘ž for some integer π‘ž. Thus 𝑏𝑐 = π‘Žπ‘ž 𝑐 =
π‘Ž π‘žπ‘ = π‘Žπ‘Ÿ, where π‘Ÿ = π‘žπ‘ is an integer. Therefore π‘Ž divides 𝑏𝑐.
case 2: π‘Ž divides 𝑐 means 𝑐 = π‘Žπ‘ for some integer 𝑝. Thus 𝑏𝑐 = 𝑏 π‘Žπ‘ =
π‘Ž 𝑏𝑝 = π‘Žπ‘ , where 𝑠 = 𝑏𝑝 is an integer. Therefore π‘Ž divides 𝑏𝑐.
Hence, in either case, π‘Ž divides 𝑏𝑐.
5.
Which of the following conditions are necessary for the positive integer 𝑛 to be
divisible by 6 (proofs not necessary)?
(i) 3 divides 𝑛.
(ii) 9 divides 𝑛.
(iii) 12 divides 𝑛.
(iv) 𝑛 = 12.
(v) 6 divides 𝑛2 .
(vi) 2 divides 𝑛 and 3 divides 𝑛.
(vii) 2 divides 𝑛 or 3 divides 𝑛.
Which of these conditions are sufficient?
6 divides 𝑛 means 𝑛 = 6π‘ž for some integer π‘ž. The following conditions are
necessary for the positive integer 𝑛 to be divisible by 6: (i) 3 divides 𝑛, (v) 6
divides 𝑛2 , (vi) 2 divides 𝑛 and 3 divides 𝑛, and (vii) 2 divides 𝑛 or 3 divides 𝑛.
The following conditions are sufficient for the positive integer 𝑛 to be divisible
by 6: (iii) 12 divides 𝑛, (iv) 𝑛 = 12, (v) 6 divides 𝑛2 , and (vi) 2 divides 𝑛 and 3
divides 𝑛.
6. Use the properties of addition and multiplication of real numbers given in
Properties 2.3.1 to deduce that, for all real numbers π‘Ž and 𝑐,
(i) π‘Ž × 0 = 0 = 0 × π‘Ž,
(ii) βˆ’π‘Ž 𝑏 = βˆ’π‘Žπ‘ = π‘Ž βˆ’π‘ ,
(iii) βˆ’π‘Ž βˆ’π‘ = π‘Žπ‘.
(i) Prove that π‘Ž × 0 = 0 = 0 × π‘Ž.
0+0=0
0 × π‘Ž + (0 × π‘Ž) = 0 × π‘Ž
0×π‘Ž =0
π‘Ž×0=0
Thus π‘Ž × 0 = 0 = 0 × π‘Ž.
Additive identity (iv)
Distributive property (iii)
Additive inverse (vi)
Commutative property (i)
(ii) Prove that βˆ’π‘Ž 𝑏 = βˆ’π‘Žπ‘ = π‘Ž(βˆ’π‘).
First we show that βˆ’π‘Ž = (βˆ’1)π‘Ž by showing that π‘Ž + βˆ’1 π‘Ž = 0.
π‘Ž + βˆ’1 π‘Ž = 1π‘Ž + (βˆ’1)π‘Ž
Multiplicative Identity (v)
= (1 + (βˆ’1))π‘Ž
Distributive property (iii)
= 0π‘Ž
Since βˆ’1 is the additive inverse of 1
=0
By part (i) of problem
Thus π‘Ž + βˆ’1 π‘Ž = 0 β†’ βˆ’π‘Ž = (βˆ’1)π‘Ž. Then
βˆ’π‘Žπ‘ = (βˆ’1)π‘Žπ‘
By the proof above
= ((βˆ’1)π‘Ž)𝑏
Associative property (ii)
= (βˆ’π‘Ž)𝑏
By the proof above
βˆ’π‘Žπ‘ = (βˆ’1)π‘Žπ‘
By the proof above
= ((βˆ’1)𝑏)π‘Ž
Associative property (ii)
= (βˆ’π‘)π‘Ž
By the proof above
= π‘Ž(βˆ’π‘)
Commutative property (i)
Thus βˆ’π‘Ž 𝑏 = βˆ’π‘Žπ‘ = π‘Ž(βˆ’π‘).
(iii) Prove that βˆ’π‘Ž βˆ’π‘ = π‘Žπ‘.
π‘Ž + βˆ’π‘Ž = 0
π‘Ž = βˆ’(βˆ’π‘Ž)
π‘Žπ‘ = βˆ’ βˆ’π‘Ž 𝑏
= βˆ’ βˆ’π‘Žπ‘
= βˆ’ βˆ’π‘Ž 𝑏
= βˆ’ 𝑏 βˆ’π‘Ž
= (βˆ’π‘)(βˆ’π‘Ž)
= (βˆ’π‘Ž)(βˆ’π‘)
Additive Identity (iv)
Since π‘Ž = βˆ’(βˆ’π‘Ž)
By part (ii) of problem
By part (ii) of problem
Commutative property (i)
By part (ii) of problem
Commutative property (i)
Thus βˆ’π‘Ž βˆ’π‘ = π‘Žπ‘.
7. Prove by contradiction the following statement concerning an integer 𝑛.
𝑛2 is even β†’ 𝑛 is even.
[You may suppose that an integer 𝑛 is odd if and only if 𝑛 = 2π‘ž + 1 for some
integer π‘ž. This is proved later as Proposition 11.3.4.]
Suppose 𝑛 is not even. Then 𝑛 is odd, that is 𝑛 = 2π‘ž + 1 for some integer π‘ž. Thus
𝑛2 = (2π‘ž + 1)2 = 4π‘ž 2 + 4π‘ž + 1 = 2 2π‘ž 2 + 2π‘ž + 1 = 2𝑝 + 1 where 𝑝 = 2π‘ž 2 +
2π‘ž is an integer. Thus 𝑛2 is odd contradicting that 𝑛2 is even. It follows that our
initial assumption, that 𝑛 is odd, is false. Hence 𝑛 is even as required. Therefore,
𝑛2 is even β†’ 𝑛 is even.
8. Prove the following statements concerning a real number π‘₯.
(i) π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 = 0 ↔ π‘₯ = βˆ’1 or π‘₯ = 2.
(ii) π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 > 0 ↔ π‘₯ < βˆ’1 or π‘₯ > 2.
(i) β€² β†’ β€²: π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 = 0 β†’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 π‘₯ + 1 = 0
β†’ (π‘₯ βˆ’ 2) = 0 or (π‘₯ + 1) = 0
β†’ π‘₯ = 2 or π‘₯ = βˆ’1
Thus π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 = 0 β†’ π‘₯ = βˆ’1 or π‘₯ = 2.
β€² ← β€²: If π‘₯ = 2, then π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 = 22 βˆ’ 2 βˆ’ 2 = 0. If π‘₯ = βˆ’1, then π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 =
(βˆ’1)2 βˆ’ βˆ’1 βˆ’ 2 = 0. So, in either case, π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 = 0. Thus (π‘₯ = βˆ’1 or = 2)
β†’ π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 = 0.
Hence π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 = 0 ↔ π‘₯ = βˆ’1 or π‘₯ = 2.
(ii) β€² β†’ β€²: π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 > 0 β†’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 π‘₯ + 1 > 0
β†’ (π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 > 0 and π‘₯ + 1 > 0) or (π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 < 0 and π‘₯ + 1 < 0)
β†’ (π‘₯ > 2 and π‘₯ > βˆ’1) or (π‘₯ < 2 and π‘₯ < βˆ’1)
β†’ π‘₯ > 2 or π‘₯ < βˆ’1
2
Thus π‘₯ βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 > 0 β†’ π‘₯ < βˆ’1 or π‘₯ > 2.
β€² ← β€²:
case1: π‘₯ > 2 β†’ 2π‘₯ > 4 > 2 (multiply by 2 > 0) β†’ 2π‘₯ > 2 and π‘₯ > 2 β†’ π‘₯ 2 >
2π‘₯ > 2 (multiply by π‘₯ > 0) β†’ π‘₯ 2 > 2. It follows that π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ > 2π‘₯ βˆ’ π‘₯ = π‘₯ > 2
and so π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ > 2 β†’ π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 > 0 as required.
case2: π‘₯ < βˆ’1 β†’ 0 < βˆ’1 βˆ’ π‘₯ β†’ 0 < 2 < 1 βˆ’ π‘₯ (by adding 2) β†’ 0 < 1 βˆ’ π‘₯ and
π‘₯ < βˆ’1 β†’ βˆ’π‘₯ > 1 (multiply by βˆ’1 < 0) and π‘₯ < βˆ’1 β†’ π‘₯ 2 > βˆ’π‘₯ > 1 (multiply
by π‘₯ < 0) β†’ π‘₯ 2 > 1 β†’ π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ > 1 βˆ’ π‘₯ > 0 β†’ π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 > 1 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 = βˆ’1 βˆ’
π‘₯ > 0 β†’ π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 > 0 as required.
Hence π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 > 0 ↔ π‘₯ < βˆ’1 or π‘₯ > 2.
9. Prove by contradiction that there does not exist a largest integer.
[Hint: Observe that for any integer 𝑛 there is a greater one, say 𝑛 + 1. So begin
your proof
Suppose for contradiction that there is a largest integer. Let this larger integer
be 𝑛. …
Suppose for contradiction that there is a largest integer 𝑛. Observe that
0 < 1 β†’ 𝑛 < 𝑛 + 1. Thus 𝑛 is not the largest integer, since for all 𝑛, 𝑛 + 1 > 𝑛.
10. What is wrong with the following proof that 1 is the largest integer?
Let 𝑛 be the largest integer. Then, since 1 is an integer we must have 1 ≀ 𝑛. On
the other hand, since 𝑛2 is also an integer we must have 𝑛2 ≀ 𝑛 from which it
follows that 𝑛 ≀ 1. Thus, since 1 ≀ 𝑛 and 𝑛 ≀ 1 we must have 𝑛 = 1. Thus 1 is
the largest integer as claimed.
What does this argument prove?
The proof starts with a statement which is false (from problem 9). We also know
that the conclusion is false since 1 is not the largest integer. However all the
implications that start with a false hypothesis are true. In fact, this argument
proves that if a largest integer existed, it would be 1.
11. Prove by contradiction that there does not exist a smallest positive real number.
Suppose for contradiction that 𝑛 is the smallest positive real number. Observe
1
2
1
2
1
2
that 0 < < 1 β†’ 0 < 𝑛 < 𝑛. Thus the number 𝑛 is positive, real, and less than
𝑛, contradicting our initial assumption that 𝑛 was the smallest positive real
number. Hence there does not exist a smallest positive real number.
12. Prove by induction on 𝑛 that, for all positive integers 𝑛, 3 divides 4𝑛 + 5.
3 divides 4𝑛 + 5 means 4𝑛 + 5 = 3π‘ž for some integer π‘ž.
Base case: For 𝑛 = 1, 4𝑛 + 5 = 41 + 5 = 9 which is divisible by 3 as required.
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that, for some positive
integer π‘˜, 3 divides 4π‘˜ + 5, that is 4π‘˜ + 5 = 3π‘ž for some integer π‘ž. We need to
show that 3 divides 4π‘˜+1 + 5, that is 4π‘˜+1 + 5 = 3π‘ž for some integer π‘ž. Then
4π‘˜+1 + 5 = 4 βˆ™ 4π‘˜ + 5 (by inductive definition) = 4 3π‘ž βˆ’ 5 + 5 (by inductive
hypothesis) = 12π‘ž βˆ’ 15 = 3 4π‘ž βˆ’ 5 = 3𝑝, where 𝑝 = 4π‘ž βˆ’ 5 is an integer.
Thus 3 divides 4π‘˜+1 + 5 as required.
Conclusion: Hence, by induction on 𝑛, 3 divides 4𝑛 + 5 for all positive integers 𝑛.
13. Prove by induction on 𝑛 that 𝑛! > 2𝑛 for all integers 𝑛 such that 𝑛 β‰₯ 4.
Base case: For 𝑛 = 4, 𝑛! = 4! = 24 > 16 = 24 = 2𝑛 as required.
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘˜! > 2π‘˜ for some
positive integer π‘˜ β‰₯ 4. We need to show that π‘˜ + 1 ! > 2π‘˜+1 . Then 2π‘˜! >
2 βˆ™ 2π‘˜ = 2π‘˜+1 (by inductive hypothesis) and π‘˜ + 1 ! = (π‘˜ + 1)π‘˜! (by inductive
definition) β‰₯ 4 + 1 π‘˜! = 5π‘˜! (since π‘˜ β‰₯ 4) > 2π‘˜! > 2 βˆ™ 2π‘˜ = 2π‘˜+1 (by inductive
hypothesis). Thus π‘˜ + 1 ! > 2π‘˜+1 as required.
Conclusion: Hence, by induction on 𝑛, 𝑛! > 2𝑛 for all integers 𝑛 β‰₯ 4.
14. Prove Bernoulli’s inequality
(1 + π‘₯)𝑛 β‰₯ 1 + 𝑛π‘₯
for all non-negative integers 𝑛 and real numbers π‘₯ > βˆ’1.
Base case: For 𝑛 = 0, 1 + π‘₯ 0 = 1 β‰₯ 1 = 1 + 0 βˆ™ π‘₯ and so the equality holds.
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that (1 + π‘₯)π‘˜ β‰₯ 1 + π‘˜π‘₯ for
some non-negative integer π‘˜ and real numbers π‘₯ > βˆ’1. We need to show that
(1 + π‘₯)π‘˜+1 β‰₯ 1 + (π‘˜ + 1)π‘₯. Observe that π‘₯ > βˆ’1 β†’ 1 + π‘₯ > 0, and that π‘˜ β‰₯ 0
and π‘₯ 2 β‰₯ 0 (since for any real number π‘Ž, π‘Ž2 β‰₯ 0) both imply that π‘˜π‘₯ 2 β‰₯ 0. Thus
(1 + π‘₯)π‘˜+1 = (1 + π‘₯)(1 + π‘₯)π‘˜ (by inductive definition). By inductive hypothesis,
(1 + π‘₯)π‘˜ β‰₯ 1 + π‘˜π‘₯ β†’ 1 + π‘₯ 1 + π‘₯ π‘˜ = (1 + π‘₯)π‘˜+1 β‰₯ 1 + π‘˜π‘₯ (1 + π‘₯) = 1 +
π‘₯ + π‘˜π‘₯ + π‘˜π‘₯ 2 = 1 + π‘˜ + 1 π‘₯ + π‘˜π‘₯ 2 (multiply by 1 + π‘₯ > 0) β‰₯ 1 + π‘˜ + 1 π‘₯ +
0 = 1 + π‘˜ + 1 π‘₯ (since π‘˜π‘₯ 2 β‰₯ 0). Therefore (1 + π‘₯)π‘˜+1 β‰₯ 1 + (π‘˜ + 1)π‘₯ as
required.
Conclusion: Hence, by induction on 𝑛, (1 + π‘₯)𝑛 β‰₯ 1 + 𝑛π‘₯ for all non-negative
integers 𝑛 and real numbers π‘₯ > βˆ’1.
15. For which non-negative integer values of 𝑛 is 𝑛! β‰₯ 3𝑛 ?
𝑛! β‰₯ 3𝑛 is true for 𝑛 = 0 and all integers 𝑛 β‰₯ 7.
For 𝑛 = 0, 𝑛! = 0! = 1 by inductive definition, and 3𝑛 = 30 = 1, and so the
equality holds. Now we show that the inequality is also true for all integers
𝑛 β‰₯ 7.
Base case: For 𝑛 = 7, 𝑛! = 7! = 5040 and 3𝑛 = 37 = 2187; and so 𝑛! β‰₯ 3𝑛 .
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘˜! β‰₯ 3π‘˜ for some
integer π‘˜ β‰₯ 7. We need to show that π‘˜ + 1 ! β‰₯ 3π‘˜+1 . Then 3π‘˜! β‰₯ 3 βˆ™ 3π‘˜ = 3π‘˜+1
and π‘˜ + 1 ! = (π‘˜ + 1)π‘˜! (by inductive definition) β‰₯ 7 + 1 π‘˜! = 8π‘˜! (since
π‘˜ β‰₯ 7)β‰₯ 3π‘˜! β‰₯ 3 βˆ™ 3π‘˜ = 3π‘˜+1 (by inductive hypothesis). Thus π‘˜ + 1 ! β‰₯ 3π‘˜+1 as
required.
Conclusion: Hence, by induction on 𝑛, 𝑛! β‰₯ 3𝑛 for all integers 𝑛 β‰₯ 7.
16. Prove by induction on 𝑛 that
𝑛
𝑖=1
1
𝑛
=
,
𝑖(𝑖 + 1) 𝑛 + 1
for all positive integers 𝑛.
Base case: For 𝑛 = 1,
1
𝑖=1
1
1
1
=
=
𝑖(𝑖 + 1) 1(1 + 1) 2
and
𝑛
1
1
=
=
𝑛+1 1+1 2
as required.
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that
π‘˜
𝑖=1
1
π‘˜
=
𝑖(𝑖 + 1) π‘˜ + 1
for some positive integer π‘˜. We need to show that
π‘˜+1
𝑖=1
1
π‘˜+1
π‘˜+1
=
=
.
𝑖(𝑖 + 1) (π‘˜ + 1) + 1 π‘˜ + 2
But by inductive definition and inductive hypothesis
π‘˜+1
𝑖=1
1
=
𝑖(𝑖 + 1)
π‘˜
𝑖=1
1
1
+
𝑖(𝑖 + 1)
π‘˜ + 1 (π‘˜ + 2)
π‘˜
1
+
π‘˜+1
π‘˜ + 1 (π‘˜ + 2)
2
π‘˜ + 2π‘˜ + 1
=
π‘˜+1 π‘˜+2
π‘˜+1 2
=
π‘˜+1 π‘˜+2
π‘˜+1
=
π‘˜+2
=
as required.
Conclusion: Hence, by induction on 𝑛,
𝑛
𝑖=1
1
𝑛
=
𝑖(𝑖 + 1) 𝑛 + 1
for all positive integers 𝑛.
17. For a positive integer 𝑛 the number π‘Žπ‘› is defined inductively by
π‘Ž1 = 1,
6π‘Žπ‘˜ + 5
π‘Žπ‘˜+1 =
π‘Žπ‘˜ + 2
for π‘˜ a positive integer.
Prove by induction on 𝑛 that, for all positive integers, (i) π‘Žπ‘› > 0 and (ii) π‘Žπ‘› < 5.
(i) Base case: For 𝑛 = 1, π‘Žπ‘› = π‘Ž1 = 1 > 0 as required.
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘Žπ‘˜ > 0 for some
positive integer π‘˜. We need to show that
6π‘Žπ‘˜ + 5
π‘Žπ‘˜+1 =
> 0.
π‘Žπ‘˜ + 2
By inductive hypothesis, π‘Žπ‘˜ > 0 β†’ π‘Žπ‘˜ + 2 > 0 and π‘Žπ‘˜ > 0 β†’ 2π‘Žπ‘˜ > π‘Žπ‘˜ β†’
6π‘Žπ‘˜ > π‘Žπ‘˜ β†’ 6π‘Žπ‘˜ + 5 > π‘Žπ‘˜ + 2 > 0. Thus
6π‘Žπ‘˜ + 5
6π‘Žπ‘˜ + 5
>1>0β†’
>0
π‘Žπ‘˜ + 2
π‘Žπ‘˜ + 2
as required.
Conclusion: Hence, by induction on 𝑛, π‘Žπ‘› > 0 for all positive integers 𝑛.
(ii) Base case: For 𝑛 = 1, π‘Žπ‘› = π‘Ž1 = 1 < 5 as required.
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘Žπ‘˜ < 5 for some
positive integer π‘˜. We need to show that
6π‘Žπ‘˜ + 5
π‘Žπ‘˜+1 =
< 5.
π‘Žπ‘˜ + 2
By inductive hypothesis, π‘Žπ‘˜ < 5 β†’ 6π‘Žπ‘˜ < 5π‘Žπ‘˜ + 5 β†’ 6π‘Žπ‘˜ + 5 < 5π‘Žπ‘˜ + 10 =
5(π‘Žπ‘˜ + 2) β†’ 6π‘Žπ‘˜ + 5 < 5(π‘Žπ‘˜ + 2). Thus
6π‘Žπ‘˜ + 5
<5
π‘Žπ‘˜ + 2
as required.
Conclusion: Hence, by induction on 𝑛, π‘Žπ‘› < 5 for all positive integers 𝑛.
18. Given a sequence of numbers π‘Ž 1 , π‘Ž 2 ,…, the number
inductively by
𝑛
𝑖=1 π‘Ž(𝑖)
is defined
1
i
a i = π‘Ž 1 , and
𝑖=1
π‘˜+1
ii
π‘˜
π‘Ž 𝑖 =
𝑖=1
π‘Ž 𝑖
π‘Ž π‘˜ + 1 for π‘˜ β‰₯ 1.
𝑖=1
Prove that
𝑛
𝑛
1+π‘₯
2 π‘–βˆ’1
𝑖=1
1 βˆ’ π‘₯2
=
for π‘₯ β‰  1.
1βˆ’π‘₯
What happens if π‘₯ = 1?
Base case: For 𝑛 = 1,
1
1 + π‘₯2
π‘–βˆ’1
= 1 + π‘₯2
1βˆ’1
0
= 1 + π‘₯2 = 1 + π‘₯
𝑖=1
and
𝑛
1
1 βˆ’ π‘₯2
1 βˆ’ π‘₯2
(1 βˆ’ π‘₯)(1 + π‘₯)
=
=
=1+π‘₯
1βˆ’π‘₯
1βˆ’π‘₯
1βˆ’π‘₯
as required.
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that
π‘˜
1+π‘₯
𝑖=1
2 π‘–βˆ’1
1 βˆ’ π‘₯2
=
1βˆ’π‘₯
π‘˜
for some integer π‘˜ β‰₯ 1 and for all real numbers π‘₯ β‰  1. We need to show that
π‘˜+1
π‘˜+1
1+π‘₯
2 π‘–βˆ’1
𝑖=1
1 βˆ’ π‘₯2
=
.
1βˆ’π‘₯
By inductive definition and inductive hypothesis,
π‘˜+1
π‘˜
1+π‘₯
2 π‘–βˆ’1
1 + π‘₯2
=
𝑖=1
𝑖=1
as required.
Conclusion: Hence
𝑛
1+π‘₯
2 π‘–βˆ’1
𝑖=1
π‘–βˆ’1
βˆ™ 1 + π‘₯2
π‘˜+1 βˆ’1
π‘˜
1 βˆ’ π‘₯2
π‘˜
=
1 + π‘₯2
1βˆ’π‘₯
π‘˜+1
1 βˆ’ π‘₯2
=
1βˆ’π‘₯
1 βˆ’ π‘₯2
=
1βˆ’π‘₯
𝑛
for all integers 𝑛 β‰₯ 1 and for all real numbers π‘₯ β‰  1. Moreover, if π‘₯ = 1, then the
formula does not work since 1 βˆ’ π‘₯ = 0 and we cannot divide by zero. However,
π‘₯2
π‘–βˆ’1
= 1 for all 𝑖 β‰₯ 1 and so
𝑛
1 + π‘₯2
π‘–βˆ’1
= 2𝑛 .
𝑖=1
19. Prove that
𝑛
1βˆ’
𝑖=2
1
𝑛+1
=
2
𝑖
2𝑛
for integers 𝑛 β‰₯ 2.
Base case: For 𝑛 = 2,
2
1βˆ’
𝑖=2
1
1
3
=1βˆ’ 2 =
2
𝑖
2
4
and
𝑛+1 2+1 3
=
=
2𝑛
2(2) 4
as required.
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that
π‘˜
1βˆ’
𝑖=2
1
π‘˜+1
=
2
𝑖
2π‘˜
for some integer π‘˜ β‰₯ 2. We need to show that
π‘˜+1
1βˆ’
𝑖=2
1
(π‘˜ + 1) + 1
π‘˜+2
=
=
.
2
𝑖
2(π‘˜ + 1)
2π‘˜ + 2
By inductive definition and inductive hypothesis,
π‘˜+1
𝑖=2
1
1βˆ’ 2
𝑖
π‘˜
=
1βˆ’
𝑖=2
1
𝑖2
βˆ™ 1βˆ’
1
(π‘˜ + 1)2
π‘˜+1
1
=
βˆ™ 1βˆ’
2π‘˜
(π‘˜ + 1)2
π‘˜+1 π‘˜+1 2βˆ’1
=
2π‘˜ π‘˜ + 1 2
π‘˜+1 2 βˆ’1
=
2π‘˜ π‘˜ + 1
π‘˜ 2 + 2π‘˜ + 1 βˆ’ 1
=
2π‘˜ π‘˜ + 1
π‘˜ π‘˜+2
=
2π‘˜ π‘˜ + 1
π‘˜+2
=
2π‘˜ + 2
as required.
Conclusion: Hence
𝑛
1βˆ’
𝑖=2
1
𝑛+1
=
2
𝑖
2𝑛
for all integers 𝑛 β‰₯ 2.
20. Prove that, for a positive integer 𝑛, a 2𝑛 × 2𝑛 square grid with any one square
removed can be covered using L-shaped tiles such as the one shown below.
Base case: For 𝑛 = 1, a 21 × 21 square with one square removed can be covered
by a single L-shaped tile.
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that a 2π‘˜ × 2π‘˜ square grid
with any one square removed can be covered by L-shaped tiles. We need to
deduce that a 2π‘˜+1 × 2π‘˜+1 square grid with any one square removed can be
covered using L-shaped tiles. If we divide the 2π‘˜+1 × 2π‘˜+1 square grid in four
equal square grids (as shown in the figure below), we obtain four 2π‘˜ × 2π‘˜
square grids (observe that 2π‘˜+1 2 = 2π‘˜ ). Since the 2π‘˜+1 × 2π‘˜+1 square grid has
one square removed, this removed square must lie in one of the four 2π‘˜ × 2π‘˜
square grids (as shown by the shaded square in the corner of the figure below).
The other three 2π‘˜ × 2π‘˜ square grid are complete. Now from each of the
complete 2π‘˜ × 2π‘˜ square grids, remove the square that touches the center of the
original 2π‘˜+1 × 2π‘˜+1 square grid (as shown in the figure below). By induction
hypothesis, all four of the 2π‘˜ × 2π‘˜ square grids with one square removed can be
covered using L-shaped tiles. Then, with one more L-shaped tile, we can cover
the three squares touching the center of the original 2π‘˜+1 × 2π‘˜+1 square grid.
Thus we can cover the original 2π‘˜+1 × 2π‘˜+1 square grid with one square
removed using L-shaped tiles as required.
Conclusion: Hence, for a positive integer 𝑛, a 2𝑛 × 2𝑛 square grid with any one
square removed can be covered using L-shaped tiles.
2π‘˜+1
2π‘˜
2π‘˜+1
2π‘˜
2π‘˜
2π‘˜
21. Suppose that π‘₯ is a real number such that π‘₯ + 1 π‘₯ is an integer. Prove by
induction on 𝑛 that π‘₯ 𝑛 + 1 π‘₯ 𝑛 is an integer for all positive integers 𝑛.
[For the inductive step consider π‘₯ π‘˜ + 1 π‘₯ π‘˜ π‘₯ + 1 π‘₯ .]
Strong induction is used.
Base case: For 𝑛 = 1, π‘₯ 𝑛 + 1 π‘₯ 𝑛 = π‘₯ + 1 π‘₯ is an integer as required. Now
π‘₯ 𝑛 + 1 π‘₯ 𝑛 2 = π‘₯ 2 + 1 π‘₯ 2 + 2 is an integer since the square of an integer is an
integer and thus π‘₯ 2 + 1 π‘₯ 2 is an integer (since for any integer π‘Ž, π‘Ž βˆ’ 2 is an
integer) proving the result for 𝑛 = 2.
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘₯ π‘˜ + 1 π‘₯ π‘˜ is an
integer for all positive integers 𝑛 ≀ π‘˜ for some integer π‘˜ β‰₯ 2. We need to show
that π‘₯ π‘˜+1 + 1 π‘₯ π‘˜+1 is an integer. By inductive hypothesis, π‘₯ + 1 π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘˜ +
1 π‘₯ π‘˜ is an integer since the product of two integers is an integer. But
1
1
1
1
π‘₯+
π‘₯ π‘˜ + π‘˜ = π‘₯ π‘˜+1 + π‘˜+1 + π‘₯ π‘˜βˆ’1 + π‘˜βˆ’1
π‘₯
π‘₯
π‘₯
π‘₯
π‘˜βˆ’1
π‘˜βˆ’1
and, by inductive hypothesis, π‘₯
+1 π‘₯
is an integer. Thus π‘₯ π‘˜+1 + 1 π‘₯ π‘˜+1
must be an integer as required.
Conclusion: Hence, by induction on 𝑛, π‘₯ 𝑛 + 1 π‘₯ 𝑛 is an integer for all positive
integers 𝑛.
22. Prove that
1
𝑛
𝑛
π‘₯𝑖 β‰₯
𝑖=1
1/𝑛
𝑛
π‘₯𝑖
𝑖=1
for positive integers 𝑛 and positive real numbers π‘₯𝑖 .
[it does not seem to be possible to give a direct proof of this result using
induction on 𝑛. However it can be proved for 𝑛 = 2π‘š for π‘š β‰₯ 0 by induction on
π‘š. The general result now follows by proving the converse of the usual inductive
step: if the result holds for 𝑛 = π‘˜ + 1, where π‘˜ is a positive integer, then it holds
for 𝑛 = π‘˜.]
case 1: If all the terms of the sequence π‘₯𝑖 are equal, that is π‘₯1 = π‘₯2 = β‹― = π‘₯𝑛 ,
then
1
𝑛
𝑛
𝑖=1
1
π‘₯𝑖 = 𝑛π‘₯1 = π‘₯1 = π‘₯1 𝑛
𝑛
1/𝑛
𝑛
1 𝑛
=
π‘₯𝑖
𝑖=1
which implies that
1
𝑛
𝑛
1/𝑛
𝑛
π‘₯𝑖 β‰₯
𝑖=1
π‘₯𝑖
𝑖=1
as required.
case 2: If not all the terms of the sequence π‘₯𝑖 are equal. Clearly this case is only
possible when 𝑛 > 1, and it is proved by induction. First we prove the inequality
when 𝑛 = 2π‘š for π‘š β‰₯ 1 and then, using this result, we deduce that the
inequality is true for all positive integers 𝑛.
Base case: For π‘š = 1, 𝑛 = 2π‘š = 21 = 2. So we have two terms, π‘₯1 and π‘₯2 , and
since they are not equal, we have
π‘₯1 β‰  π‘₯2
π‘₯1 βˆ’ π‘₯2 β‰  0
π‘₯1 βˆ’ π‘₯2 2 > 0
π‘₯1 2 βˆ’ 2π‘₯1 π‘₯2 + π‘₯2 2 > 0
π‘₯1 2 + 2π‘₯1 π‘₯2 + π‘₯2 2 > 4π‘₯1 π‘₯2
π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 2 > 4π‘₯1 π‘₯2
π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 2
> π‘₯1 π‘₯2
2
π‘₯1 + π‘₯2
> π‘₯1 π‘₯2
2
and so
1
2
2
1/2
2
π‘₯𝑖 β‰₯
𝑖=1
π‘₯𝑖
𝑖=1
as required.
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that
1
𝑛
𝑛
1/𝑛
𝑛
π‘₯𝑖 β‰₯
𝑖=1
π‘₯𝑖
𝑖=1
where 𝑛 = 2π‘š , for some positive integer π‘š. We need to show that
1
2π‘š +1
2π‘š +1
1/2π‘š +1
2π‘š +1
π‘₯𝑖 β‰₯
𝑖=1
π‘₯𝑖
.
𝑖=1
Then by inductive hypothesis
1
2π‘š +1
2π‘š +1
π‘₯𝑖 =
𝑖=1
π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 + β‹― + π‘₯2π‘š +1
2π‘š +1
1 π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 + β‹― + π‘₯2π‘š +1
2
2π‘š
1 π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 + β‹― + π‘₯2π‘š
1 π‘₯2π‘š +1 + π‘₯2π‘š +2 + β‹― + π‘₯2π‘š +1
=
+
2
2π‘š
2
2π‘š
1 π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 + β‹― + π‘₯2π‘š
π‘₯2π‘š +1 + π‘₯2π‘š +2 + β‹― + π‘₯2π‘š +1
=
+
2
2π‘š
2π‘š
π‘š
π‘š
2
π‘₯1 βˆ™ π‘₯2 β‹― π‘₯2π‘š + 2 π‘₯2π‘š +1 βˆ™ π‘₯2π‘š +2 β‹― π‘₯2π‘š +1
β‰₯
2
=
β‰₯
2π‘š
π‘₯1 βˆ™ π‘₯2 β‹― π‘₯2π‘š × 2
=
2π‘š
π‘₯1 βˆ™ π‘₯2 β‹― π‘₯2π‘š +1
=
2 π‘š +1
π‘₯1 βˆ™ π‘₯2 β‹― π‘₯2π‘š +1
π‘₯2π‘š +1 βˆ™ π‘₯2π‘š +2 β‹― π‘₯2π‘š +1
1/2π‘š +1
2π‘š +1
=
π‘š
π‘₯𝑖
𝑖=1
as required. Hence, by induction on π‘š, the result is true for all positive integers
π‘š. Thus the inequality is true for the natural powers of 2, that is for 𝑛 =
2,4,8,16, …
Now we proceed to prove the inequality for all positive integers 𝑛. If 𝑛 is not
equal to some natural power of 2, then it is certainly less than some natural
power of 2, since the sequence 2,4,8,16, … , 2π‘š , … is unbounded above. Therefore
let π‘š be some natural power of 2 that is greater than 𝑛. Also let
1
𝑛
𝑛
π‘₯𝑖 = 𝛼
𝑖=1
and expand our list of terms such that
π‘₯𝑛+1 = π‘₯𝑛+2 = β‹― = π‘₯π‘š = 𝛼.
Then
π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 + β‹― + π‘₯𝑛
𝛼=
𝑛
π‘š
π‘₯
+
π‘₯
1
2 + β‹― + π‘₯𝑛
=𝑛
π‘š
π‘š
+1βˆ’1 π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 + β‹― + π‘₯𝑛
= 𝑛
π‘š
π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 + β‹― + π‘₯𝑛 + π‘šπ‘›βˆ’π‘› π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 + β‹― + π‘₯𝑛
=
π‘š
π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 + β‹― + π‘₯𝑛 + π‘š βˆ’ 𝑛 𝛼
=
π‘š
π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 + β‹― + π‘₯𝑛 + π‘₯𝑛+1 + β‹― + π‘₯π‘š
=
π‘š
β‰₯ π‘š π‘₯1 βˆ™ π‘₯2 β‹― π‘₯𝑛 βˆ™ π‘₯𝑛+1 β‹― π‘₯π‘š
=
and so
π‘š
π‘₯1 βˆ™ π‘₯2 β‹― π‘₯𝑛 βˆ™ 𝛼 π‘š βˆ’π‘›
𝛼 π‘š β‰₯ π‘₯1 βˆ™ π‘₯2 β‹― π‘₯𝑛 βˆ™ 𝛼 π‘š βˆ’π‘›
𝛼 𝑛 β‰₯ π‘₯1 βˆ™ π‘₯2 β‹― π‘₯𝑛
𝛼 β‰₯ 𝑛 π‘₯1 βˆ™ π‘₯2 β‹― π‘₯𝑛
1
𝑛
𝑛
π‘₯𝑖 β‰₯
𝑖=1
1/𝑛
𝑛
π‘₯𝑖
𝑖=1
as required. Hence, by induction on 𝑛, the inequality is true for all positive
integers 𝑛 and all positive real numbers π‘₯𝑖 .
23. For non-zero real numbers π‘₯ we may extend Definition 5.3.3 to a definition of
powers π‘₯ 𝑛 for all integers 𝑛 by defining π‘₯ βˆ’π‘š = 1 π‘₯ π‘š for integers π‘š > 0. With
these definitions prove the laws of exponents for any non-zero real numbers π‘₯
and 𝑦 and integers π‘š and 𝑛:
(i) π‘₯ 𝑛 𝑦 𝑛 = π‘₯𝑦 𝑛 ;
(ii) π‘₯ π‘š +𝑛 = π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ 𝑛 ;
(iii) π‘₯ π‘š 𝑛 = π‘₯ π‘šπ‘› .
[Hint: Start from exercise 5.7.]
(i) First, we prove the result for the non-negative integers.
Base case: For 𝑛 = 0, π‘₯ 𝑛 𝑦 𝑛 = 1 = π‘₯𝑦 𝑛 as required.
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘₯ π‘˜ 𝑦 π‘˜ = π‘₯𝑦 π‘˜ for
some non-negative integer π‘˜. We need to show that π‘₯ π‘˜+1 𝑦 π‘˜+1 = π‘₯𝑦 π‘˜+1 . Then,
by inductive definition and inductive hypothesis, π‘₯ π‘˜+1 𝑦 π‘˜+1 = π‘₯ βˆ™ π‘₯ π‘˜ 𝑦 βˆ™ 𝑦 π‘˜ =
π‘₯𝑦 π‘₯𝑦 π‘˜ = π‘₯𝑦 π‘˜+1 as required to prove the result for 𝑛 = π‘˜ + 1.
Conclusion: Hence, by induction on 𝑛, π‘₯ 𝑛 𝑦 𝑛 = π‘₯𝑦 𝑛 for any non-zero real
numbers π‘₯ and 𝑦 and non-negative integers 𝑛.
Now we prove the result for the non-positive integers by proving that
1 1
1
βˆ™
=
π‘₯𝑛 𝑦𝑛
π‘₯𝑦 𝑛
for all non-negative integers 𝑛. Then, by the definition of π‘₯ βˆ’π‘š , we can conclude
that the result is true for all the non-positive integers.
Base case: For 𝑛 = 0,
1 1
1
βˆ™ 𝑛 =1=
𝑛
π‘₯ 𝑦
π‘₯𝑦 𝑛
as required.
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that
1 1
1
βˆ™
=
π‘₯π‘˜ π‘¦π‘˜
π‘₯𝑦 π‘˜
for some non-negative integer π‘˜. We need to show that
1
1
1
βˆ™
=
.
π‘₯ π‘˜+1 𝑦 π‘˜+1
π‘₯𝑦 π‘˜+1
Then, by inductive definition and inductive hypothesis,
1
1
1
1
1
1
βˆ™
=
βˆ™
=
=
π‘₯ π‘˜+1 𝑦 π‘˜+1 π‘₯ βˆ™ π‘₯ π‘˜ 𝑦 βˆ™ 𝑦 π‘˜
π‘₯𝑦 π‘₯𝑦 π‘˜
π‘₯𝑦 π‘˜+1
as required to prove the result for 𝑛 = π‘˜ + 1.
Conclusion: Hence, by induction on 𝑛,
1 1
1
βˆ™ 𝑛=
𝑛
π‘₯ 𝑦
π‘₯𝑦 𝑛
for any non-zero real numbers π‘₯ and 𝑦 and non-negative integers 𝑛.
Therefore π‘₯ 𝑛 𝑦 𝑛 = π‘₯𝑦 𝑛 for any non-zero real numbers π‘₯ and 𝑦 and any integer
𝑛.
(ii) First, we prove the result for the non-negative integers.
Base case: For 𝑛 = 0, π‘₯ π‘š +𝑛 = π‘₯ π‘š = π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ 0 = π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ 𝑛 as required.
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘₯ π‘š +π‘˜ = π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ π‘˜ for
some non-negative integer π‘˜. We need to show that π‘₯ π‘š +π‘˜+1 = π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ π‘˜+1 . Then, by
inductive definition and inductive hypothesis, π‘₯ π‘š +π‘˜+1 = π‘₯π‘₯ π‘š +π‘˜ = π‘₯π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ π‘˜ =
π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯π‘₯ π‘˜ = π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ π‘˜+1 as required to prove the result for 𝑛 = π‘˜ + 1.
Conclusion: Hence, by induction on 𝑛, π‘₯ π‘š +𝑛 = π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ 𝑛 for any non-zero real
number π‘₯ and non-negative integers π‘š and 𝑛.
Now we prove the result for the non-positive integers by proving that
1
1
= π‘š 𝑛
π‘š
+𝑛
π‘₯
π‘₯ π‘₯
for all non-negative integers π‘š and 𝑛. Then, by the definition of π‘₯ βˆ’π‘š , we can
conclude that the result is true for all the non-positive integers.
Base case: For 𝑛 = 0,
1
1
1
1
= π‘š = π‘š 0= π‘š 𝑛
π‘š
+𝑛
π‘₯
π‘₯
π‘₯ π‘₯
π‘₯ π‘₯
as required.
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that
1
1
= π‘š π‘˜
π‘š
+π‘˜
π‘₯
π‘₯ π‘₯
for some non-negative integer π‘˜. We need to show that
1
1
= π‘š π‘˜+1 .
π‘š
+π‘˜+1
π‘₯
π‘₯ π‘₯
Then, by inductive definition and inductive hypothesis,
1
1
1
1
1
= π‘š +π‘˜ = π‘š π‘˜ = π‘š π‘˜ = π‘š π‘˜+1
π‘š
+π‘˜+1
π‘₯
π‘₯π‘₯
π‘₯π‘₯ π‘₯
π‘₯ π‘₯π‘₯
π‘₯ π‘₯
as required to prove the result for 𝑛 = π‘˜ + 1.
Conclusion: Hence, by induction on 𝑛,
1
1
= π‘š 𝑛
π‘š
+𝑛
π‘₯
π‘₯ π‘₯
for any non-zero real number π‘₯ and non-negative integers π‘š and 𝑛.
Therefore π‘₯ π‘š +𝑛 = π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ 𝑛 for any non-zero real number π‘₯ and any integers π‘š and
𝑛.
(iii) First, we prove the result for the non-negative integers.
Base case: For 𝑛 = 0, π‘₯ π‘š 𝑛 = 1 = π‘₯ 0 = π‘₯ π‘šπ‘› as required.
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘₯ π‘š π‘˜ = π‘₯ π‘šπ‘˜ for some
non-negative integer π‘˜. We need to show that π‘₯ π‘š π‘˜+1 = π‘₯ π‘š π‘˜+1 . Then, by
inductive definition and inductive hypothesis, π‘₯ π‘š π‘˜+1 = π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ π‘š π‘˜ =
π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ π‘šπ‘˜ = π‘₯ π‘š +π‘šπ‘˜ (by part (ii) of the problem) = π‘₯ π‘š π‘˜+1 as required to prove
the result for 𝑛 = π‘˜ + 1.
Conclusion: Hence, by induction on 𝑛, π‘₯ π‘š 𝑛 = π‘₯ π‘šπ‘› for any non-zero real
number π‘₯ and non-negative integers π‘š and 𝑛.
Now we prove the result for the non-positive integers by proving that
1
1
= π‘šπ‘›
π‘š
𝑛
π‘₯
π‘₯
for all non-negative integers 𝑛. Then, by the definition of π‘₯ βˆ’π‘š , we can conclude
that the result is true for all the non-positive integers.
Base case: For 𝑛 = 0,
1
1
1
= 1 = 0 = π‘šπ‘›
π‘₯π‘š 𝑛
π‘₯
π‘₯
as required.
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that
1
1
= π‘šπ‘˜
π‘š
π‘˜
π‘₯
π‘₯
for some non-negative integer π‘˜. We need to show that
1
1
= π‘š π‘˜+1 .
π‘š
π‘˜+1
π‘₯
π‘₯
Then, by inductive definition, inductive hypothesis, and part (ii) of the problem
1
1
1
1
1
= π‘š
= π‘š π‘šπ‘˜ = π‘š +π‘šπ‘˜ = π‘š π‘˜+1
π‘š
π‘˜+1
π‘š
π‘˜
π‘₯
π‘₯
π‘₯
π‘₯ π‘₯
π‘₯
π‘₯
as required to prove the result for 𝑛 = π‘˜ + 1.
Conclusion: Hence, by induction on 𝑛,
1
1
= π‘šπ‘›
π‘š
𝑛
π‘₯
π‘₯
for any non-zero real number π‘₯ and non-negative integers π‘š and 𝑛.
Therefore π‘₯ π‘š 𝑛 = π‘₯ π‘šπ‘› for any non-zero real number π‘₯ and any integers π‘š and
𝑛.
24. Fibonacci’s rabbit problem may be stated as follows:
How many pairs of rabbits will be produced in a year, beginning with a single
pair, if in every month each pair bears a new pair which become productive
from the second month on?
Assuming that no rabbits die, express the number after 𝑛 months as a Fibonacci
number and hence answer the problem. Using a calculator and the Binnet
formula (Proposition 5.4.3) find the number after three years.
The 𝑛th Fibonacci number is given by the following formula:
𝛼 𝑛 βˆ’ 𝛽𝑛
𝑒𝑛 =
5
where 𝛼 = 1 + 5 2 and 𝛽 = 1 βˆ’ 5 2 and 𝑛 is the number of months.
Thus after one year (12 months) there are
𝛼 12 βˆ’ 𝛽12
𝑒12 =
= 144 rabbits
5
and after three years (36 months) there are
𝛼 36 βˆ’ 𝛽 36
𝑒36 =
= 14930352 rabbits
5
25. Let 𝑒𝑛 be the 𝑛th Fibonacci number (Definition 5.4.2). Prove, by induction on 𝑛
(Without using the Binnet formula Proposition 5.4.3), that
π‘’π‘š +𝑛 = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 𝑒𝑛 + π‘’π‘š 𝑒𝑛+1
for all positive integers π‘š and 𝑛.
Deduce, again using induction on 𝑛, that π‘’π‘š divides π‘’π‘šπ‘› .
Strong induction is used.
Base case: For 𝑛 = 1, π‘’π‘š +𝑛 = π‘’π‘š +1 = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 𝑒1 + π‘’π‘š 𝑒2 = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 + π‘’π‘š (since, by
the inductive definition of the Fibonacci sequence, 𝑒1 = 𝑒2 = 1). For 𝑛 = 2,
π‘’π‘š +𝑛 = π‘’π‘š +2 = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 𝑒2 + π‘’π‘š 𝑒3 = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 + 2π‘’π‘š (since 𝑒3 = 𝑒1 + 𝑒2 = 1 + 1 =
2). Note that by the first case π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 = π‘’π‘š +1 βˆ’ π‘’π‘š . Then π‘’π‘š +2 = π‘’π‘š +1 βˆ’ π‘’π‘š +
2π‘’π‘š = π‘’π‘š +1 + π‘’π‘š as required.
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘’π‘š +π‘˜ = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 π‘’π‘˜ +
π‘’π‘š π‘’π‘˜+1 for all positive integers 𝑛 ≀ π‘˜ for some positive integer π‘˜ β‰₯ 2. We need
to show that π‘’π‘š +π‘˜+1 = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 π‘’π‘˜+1 + π‘’π‘š π‘’π‘˜+2 . Then, by the inductive definition of
the Fibonacci sequence, π‘’π‘š +π‘˜+1 = π‘’π‘š +π‘˜ + π‘’π‘š +π‘˜βˆ’1 and by inductive hypothesis
π‘’π‘š +π‘˜+1 = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 π‘’π‘˜ + π‘’π‘š π‘’π‘˜+1 + π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 π‘’π‘˜βˆ’1 + π‘’π‘š π‘’π‘˜
= π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 π‘’π‘˜ + π‘’π‘˜βˆ’1 + π‘’π‘š π‘’π‘˜+1 + π‘’π‘˜
= π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 π‘’π‘˜+1 + π‘’π‘š π‘’π‘˜+2
= π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 π‘’π‘˜+1 + π‘’π‘š π‘’π‘˜+2
as required.
Conclusion: Hence, by induction on 𝑛, π‘’π‘š +𝑛 = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 𝑒𝑛 + π‘’π‘š 𝑒𝑛+1 for all positive
integers π‘š and 𝑛.
π‘’π‘š divides π‘’π‘šπ‘› means that π‘’π‘šπ‘› = π‘’π‘š π‘ž for some integer π‘ž.
Base case: For 𝑛 = 1, π‘’π‘šπ‘› = π‘’π‘š and so π‘’π‘š divides π‘’π‘šπ‘› as required.
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that there exists some
integer π‘ž such that π‘’π‘šπ‘˜ = π‘’π‘š π‘ž for some positive integers π‘š and π‘˜. We need to
show that π‘’π‘š π‘˜+1 = π‘’π‘š 𝑝 for some integer 𝑝. Observe that all the Fibonacci
numbers are integers since every number is the sum of the previous two
numbers, which in turn are integers. Then, by the first part of the problem and
by inductive hypothesis,
π‘’π‘š π‘˜+1 = π‘’π‘šπ‘˜ +π‘š
= π‘’π‘šπ‘˜ βˆ’1 π‘’π‘š + π‘’π‘šπ‘˜ π‘’π‘š +1
= π‘’π‘šπ‘˜ βˆ’1 π‘’π‘š + π‘’π‘š π‘žπ‘’π‘š +1
= π‘’π‘š π‘’π‘šπ‘˜ βˆ’1 + π‘žπ‘’π‘š +1
= π‘’π‘š 𝑝
where 𝑝 = π‘’π‘šπ‘˜ βˆ’1 + π‘žπ‘’π‘š +1 is an integer and so π‘’π‘š divides π‘’π‘š π‘˜+1 as required.
Conclusion: Hence, by induction on 𝑛, π‘’π‘š divides π‘’π‘šπ‘› for all positive integers π‘š
and 𝑛.
26. Suppose that 𝑛 points on a circle are all joined in pairs. The points are positioned
so that no three joining lines are concurrent in the interior of the circle. Let π‘Žπ‘›
be the number of regions into which the interior of the circle is divided. Draw
diagrams to find π‘Žπ‘› for 𝑛 ≀ 6.
Prove that π‘Žπ‘› is given by the following formula.
π‘Žπ‘› = 𝑛 + 𝐢 𝑛 βˆ’ 1,2 + 𝐢 𝑛 βˆ’ 1,3 + 𝐢 𝑛 βˆ’ 1,4
= 1 + 𝑛 𝑛 βˆ’ 1 𝑛2 βˆ’ 5𝑛 + 18 24.
The following are the drawings corresponding to π‘Ž1 , π‘Ž2 , π‘Ž3 , π‘Ž4 , π‘Ž5 , and π‘Ž6 .
For π‘Ž6 , it is not feasible to show that the center is not the intersection of three
lines since we are working with small diagrams. However note that the points
on the circle do not form a regular hexagon circumscribed about a circle for
otherwise we would obtain three lines concurrent at the center of the circle.
Thus there is another region (not visible in such diagram) at the center of the
figure.
Base case: For 𝑛 = 1, we can see that the interior of the circle is divided into one
region
and
π‘Žπ‘› = 𝑛 + 𝐢 𝑛 βˆ’ 1,2 + 𝐢 𝑛 βˆ’ 1,3 + 𝐢 𝑛 βˆ’ 1,4 = 1 = 1 +
𝑛 𝑛 βˆ’ 1 𝑛2 βˆ’ 5𝑛 + 18 24 as required.
Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘Žπ‘˜ = 1 + π‘˜ π‘˜ βˆ’
1 π‘˜ 2 βˆ’ 5π‘˜ + 18 24 for some positive integer π‘˜. We need to show that
π‘Žπ‘˜+1 = 1 + π‘˜ π‘˜ + 1 π‘˜ + 1 2 βˆ’ 5 π‘˜ + 1 + 18 24. Then by definition,
π‘Žπ‘˜+1 = π‘˜ + 1 + 𝐢 π‘˜, 2 + 𝐢 π‘˜, 3 + 𝐢 π‘˜, 4
π‘˜!
π‘˜!
π‘˜!
=π‘˜+1+
+
+
2! π‘˜ βˆ’ 2 ! 3! π‘˜ βˆ’ 3 ! 4! π‘˜ βˆ’ 4 !
1
1
1
= π‘˜+1+ π‘˜ π‘˜βˆ’1 + π‘˜ π‘˜βˆ’1 π‘˜βˆ’2 + π‘˜ π‘˜βˆ’1 π‘˜βˆ’2 π‘˜βˆ’3
2
6
24
7
11 2
1 3
1 4
=1+ π‘˜+ π‘˜ βˆ’ π‘˜ + π‘˜
12
24
12
24
2
3
π‘˜ 14 + 11π‘˜ βˆ’ 2π‘˜ + π‘˜
=1+
24
π‘˜ π‘˜ + 1 π‘˜ 2 βˆ’ 3π‘˜ + 14
=1+
24
π‘˜ π‘˜ + 1 π‘˜ + 1 2 βˆ’ 5 π‘˜ + 1 + 18
=1+
24
as required to prove the result for 𝑛 = π‘˜ + 1.
Conclusion: Hence, by induction on 𝑛, π‘Žπ‘› = 1 + 𝑛 𝑛 βˆ’ 1 𝑛2 βˆ’ 5𝑛 + 18 24 for
all positive integers 𝑛.