Download Astro/Geo Q1 Test 2014 Multiple Choice Identify the choice

Astro/Geo Q1 Test 2014
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers
the question.
1.The existence of coal beds in Antarctica indicates that the
continent once had ____.
a. been part of Africa
c. a cold, dry climate
b. a temperate, rainy
d. been farther from
climate
the equator
2.____ is a fossil fern that helped support Wegener’s hypothesis
of continental drift.
a. Gondwanaland
c. Mesosaurus
b. Kannemeyerid
d. Glossopteris
3.The youngest part of the ocean floor is found ____.
a. along deep sea trenches
b. where ocean sediments are thickest
c. near ocean ridges
d. where Earth’s magnetic field changes polarity
4.At an oceanic-oceanic convergent boundary, ____.
a. new crust is created c. old crust is
deformed or
fractured
b. old crust is recycled d. plates side past one
by subduction
another
5.Convection currents transfer thermal energy ____.
a. between continents
b. from cooler regions to warmer regions
c. from warmer regions to cooler regions
d. as a result of buoyancy
6.The downward part of a convection current causes a sinking
force that ____.
a. pulls tectonic plates toward one another
b. moves plates apart from one another
c. lifts and splits the lithosphere
d. creates a divergent boundary
7.Many early mapmakers thought Earth’s continents had moved
based on ____.
a. plate boundary
c. climatic data
locations
b. fossil evidence
d. matching coastlines
8.Continental drift was not widely accepted when it was first
proposed because ____.
a. Wegener couldn’t explain why or how the
continents moved
b. continental landmasses were too big to move
slowly over Earth’s surface
c. magnetic and sonar data proved that Wegener’s
hypothesis was incorrect
d. mantle convection currents weren’t in motion
at that time
9.Compared to ocean crust near deep-sea trenches, crust near
ocean ridges is ____.
a. younger
c. the same age
b. older
d. magnetically reversed
10.The magnetic pattern of ocean-floor rocks on one side of an
ocean ridge is ____.
a. a mirror image of that of the other side
b. younger than on the other side
c. much different from the magnetic pattern
found in rocks on land
d. at right angles to the ocean ridge
11.Isochron maps of the seafloor indicate that ocean crust is
____.
a. oldest near ocean
c. youngest near ocean
ridges
ridges
b. youngest at deep-sea d. thinnest in subduction
trenches
zones
12.Each cycle of spreading and intrusion of magma during
seafloor spreading results in ____.
a. magnetic reversals c. subduction
b. new ocean crust
d. plates colliding
13.Features found at divergent boundaries include ____.
a. ocean ridges
c. crumpled mountains
b. deep-sea trenches
d. island arc volcanoes
14.Continental-continental plate collisions produce ____.
a. island arcs
c. deep-sea trenches
b. rift valleys
d. very tall mountain
ranges
15.Crust is neither destroyed nor formed along which of the
following boundaries?
a. convergent
c. transform
b. divergent
d. magnetic
16.The driving forces of tectonic plates are related to convection
currents in Earth’s ____.
a. crust
c. inner core
b. mantle
d. outer core
17.A vast, underwater mountain chain is called a(n) _________.
a. deep-sea trench
c. ocean ridge
b. oceanic crust
d. ocean floor sediment
18.A narrow, elongated depression in the seafloor is called a(n)
_________.
a. deep-sea trench
c. ocean ridge
b. oceanic crust
d. ocean floor sediment
19._____________ is defined as the study of the history of
earth’s magnetic field.
a. paleogeology
c. paleomagnetism
b. ocean topography
d. magnetic symmetry
Use the table to answer the questions.
Lava from a hot spot flowed out of a fissure at the
rate of 0.8 km/h.
Time (hours)
Distance (km)
12
9.6
___
24
45
___
25.How long did it take for the lava to flow 24km?
a. 19.2 hours
c. 30 hours
b. 2 hours
d. 192 hours
Use the diagram to answer the questions.
20.According to the diagram, which Hawaiian Island is the
oldest?
a. Loihi
c. Kauai
b. Hawaii
d. Molokai
21.Where would the most active volcano be located on this
diagram?
a. Maui
c. Oahu
b. Kauai
d. Hawaii
22.Crater Lake in southern Oregon is not a crater but actually a
___.
a. conduit
c. caldera
b. vent
d. magma chamber
26.After 45 hours the lava reached its maximum distance from
the fissure and cooled. How many kilometer was
the resulting flood basalt?
a. 56.25 km
c. 56 km
b. 36 km
d. 5.625 km
27.All of the following affect the temperature at which magma
forms EXCEPT ____.
a. pressure
c. water
b. composition of source d. viscosity
material
28.Which of the following are landscape features associated
with volcanoes?
a. uplift, erosion, weathering, and deposition
b. hot spots and flood basalts
c. vents, craters, and calderas
d. batholiths, stocks, sills, dikes, and laccoliths
29.Movement occurs along fractures in rocks when _____.
a. stress equals the
c. stress is applies to
strength of the rocks
the rocks involved
involved
b. stress overcomes the d. stress is less than the
strength of the rocks
rocks involved
involved
30.The strain which causes a material to twist is known as ____.
a. stress
c. tension
b. compression
d. shear
Use the graph to answer the questions.
23.What is the difference in melting points of dry albite and
albite with water at a depth of 12 km?
a. 1940°C
c. 560°C
b. 460°C
d. 1200°C
24.How does the melting point of albite with water change as
the depth of its burial increases from 0 to 3 km?
a. It decreases by
c. It increases by 20°C.
220°C.
b. It increases by
d. It decreases by 20°C.
220°C.
31.The strain which causes a material to pull apart is known as
____.
a. stress
c. tension
b. compression
d. shear
32.P-waves and S-waves are also known as ____.
a. surface waves
c. body waves
b. ground waves
d. first waves
Use the diagram to answer the questions.
33.Which point marks the epicenter of the earthquake?
a. A
c. C
b. B
d. D
34.At which point will the most damage as a result of the
earthquake occur?
a. A
c. C
b. B
d. D
35.What is true about the focus?
a. It is the point where c. It is the point where
the most surface
the waves are
damage will occur.
attracted.
b. It is the point where d. It is the point of
the surface waves
failure where the
originate and spread
waves originate.
out.
Use the graph to answer the questions.
38.A seismogram is located 4500 miles away from the epicenter
of an earthquake. What is the difference in time
between when the P-waves reach the seismogram
and the S-waves reach the seismogram?
a. 5 1/2 minutes
c. 10 minutes
b. 6 minutes
d. 22 minutes
39.P-waves reaches a seismogram 4 minutes after an earthquake
occurs and the S-waves arrive 3 and a half minutes
later. How far is the seismogram from the
earthquakes epicenter?
a. 1000 km
c. 3000 km
b. 2000 km
d. 4000 km
40.Seismologists have assessed a particular area and predict that
an earthquake occurs every 17 years in that area.
If the last earthquake occurred in 1998, when will
the next earthquake most likely occur?
a. 2010
c. 2017
b. 2015
d. 2025
41.Over the past 250 years a city has experienced 23
earthquakes at rather regular intervals.
Approximately how often have these earthquakes
occurred?
a. every 50 years
c. every 100 years
b. every 10 years
d. every 5 years
Use the diagram to answer the questions.
36.What keeps the stable part of this seismometer from moving
during an earthquake?
a. inertia
c. its mass
b. gravity
d. its location
37.Which part of the seismometer does not shake during an
earthquake?
a. the frame
c. the rotating drum
b. the spring
d. the pendulum and pen
42.A city is located over an active fault, but has not experienced
an earthquake for a long period of time. The city is
most likely located where?
a. over a seismic gap c. over minimal strain
accumulation
b. in an area of low
d. at a location of low
recurrence
seismic risk
43.____ and the amount of strain released during the last quake
are used in earthquake probability studies.
a. Seismic belts
c. Fault scarps
b. Strain accumulation
d. Tsunamis
44.On a seismometer, vibrations of the ground do not move the
____.
a. frame
c. recording drum
b. spring
d. suspended mass
45.A ____ fault forms as a result of horizontal compression.
a. blind
c. strike-slip
b. normal
d. reverse
46.The San Andreas Fault, a result of horizontal shear, is a ____
fault.
a. blind
c. strike-slip
b. normal
d. reverse
47.The locations of seismic belts are determined by plotting
____.
a. earthquake
c. earthquake foci
epicenters
b. seismic gaps
d. epicentral distances
48.A numerical scale of earthquake magnitude that takes into
account the size of the fault rupture is the ____.
a. Richter scale
c. moment magnitude
scale
b. modified Mercalli
d. epicentral distance
scale
scale
49.Deaths associated with earthquake deaths in sloping areas
can result from ____.
a. tsunamis
c. formation of fault
scarps
b. landslides
d. surface ruptures
50.What information about Earth’s materials can be inferred by
their arrangement in layers, as shown here?
52.Which summarizes the relationship between density of an
element and its distribution in Earth?
a. The greater an element’s density, the greater
the amount of it found in the crust.
b. The denser an element is, the smaller the
amount of it in Earth’s core.
c. The lower an element’s density, the smaller the
amount of it found in the crust.
d. The greater an element’s density, the smaller
the amount of it found in the crust.
53.The oldest known mineral on Earth is ____.
a. fluorite
c. zircon
b. mica
d. quartz
54.The process by which volcanoes vent water vapor, carbon
dioxide, nitrogen, and other substances is called
____.
a. oxidation
c. differentiation
b. glaciation
d. outgassing
55.When there is no tectonic activity along the edge of a
continent, the edge is referred to as a ____.
a. coastline
c. transgression
b. passive margin
d. regression
56.As North America rifted from Europe and Africa, a
continuous rift system called the ____ was formed.
a. Gulf of Mexico
c. Mid-Atlantic Ridge
b. Cordillera
d. East African Rift
Valley
57.What force draws the matter in an interstellar cloud together
to form a star?
a. electric
c. magnetism
b. gravity
d. friction
a. their relative
densities
b. their order of
formation
c. their relative ages
d. their temperatures
51.Which point on this time line should be labeled “Formation
of Earth?”
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
58.Bodies of interplanetary debris that orbit the Sun with most
in the area between Mars and Jupiter are called
____.
a. meteors
c. asteroids
b. comets
d. meteorites
59.Small, icy bodies that have highly eccentric orbits and can be
found in the Oort cloud or the Kuiper belt are
called ____.
a. meteors
c. asteroids
b. comets
d. meteorites
60.Interplanetary material that enters the Earth's atmosphere and
collides with the ground rather than burning up is
called a(n) ____.
a. meteor
c. asteroid
b. comet
d. meteorite
14. ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 2
NAT: UCP3 | D1 | D3
STA:
S11.D.1.1.2
Astro/Geo Q1 Test 2014
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: B
DIF:
NAT: UCP4 | D3
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 2
STA: S11.D.1.1.3
15. ANS: C
DIF:
NAT: UCP1 | D3
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 2
STA: S11.D.1.1.2
2. ANS: D
DIF:
NAT: UCP4 | D3
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 2
STA: S11.D.1.1.3
16. ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 2
NAT: UCP2 | A1 | B5
STA:
S11.D.1.1.2
3. ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 2
NAT: UCP2 | D1 | D3
STA:
S11.D.1.1.2
17. ANS: C
DIF:
NAT: B.2
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 3
STA: S11.D.1.1.2
4. ANS: B
DIF:
NAT: UCP1 | D3
18. ANS: A
DIF:
NAT: B.2
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 3
STA: S11.D.1.1.2
19. ANS: C
DIF:
NAT: G.2
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 2
STA: S11.D.1.1
20. ANS: C
DIF:
NAT: B.2
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 4
STA: S11.D.1.1
21. ANS: D
DIF:
NAT: B.2
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 6
STA: S11.D.1.1.2
22. ANS: C
DIF:
NAT: B.2
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 1
STA: S11.D.1.1.3
23. ANS: B
DIF:
NAT: B.2
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 3
STA: S11.D.1.1.1
24. ANS: A
DIF:
NAT: B.2
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 3
STA: S11.D.1.1.1
25. ANS: C
DIF:
NAT: B.2
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 3
STA: S11.D.1.1
26. ANS: B
DIF:
NAT: B.2
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 3
STA: S11.D.1.1
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 2
STA: S11.D.1.1.2
5. ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 2
NAT: UCP2 | A1 | B5
STA:
S11.D.1.1.2
6. ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 3
NAT: UCP2 | A1 | B5 | D1
STA:
S11.D.1.1.2
7. ANS: D
DIF:
NAT: UCP2 | D3
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 2
STA: S11.D.1.1.2
8. ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 1
NAT: UCP2 | A1 | D3 | G3
STA:
S11.D.1.1.2
9. ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 1
NAT: UCP2 | D1 | D3
STA:
S11.D.1.1.2
10. ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 2
NAT: UCP2 | D1 | D3
STA:
S11.D.1.1.3
11. ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 2
NAT: UCP2 | D1 | D3
STA:
S11.D.1.1.3
12. ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 2
NAT: UCP2 | D1 | D3
STA:
S11.D.1.1.2
13. ANS: A
DIF:
NAT: UCP1 | D3
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 1
STA: S11.D.1.1.2
27. ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 4
NAT: UCP2 | A1 | B2 | D1
STA:
S11.D.1.1.2
28. ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 2
NAT: UCP5 | B2 | D1 | D3
STA:
S11.D.1.1.3
29. ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
NAT: B.6
Bloom's Level 1
STA: S11.D.1.1.2
30. ANS: D
DIF:
NAT: B.6
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 2
STA: S11.D.1.1.2
31. ANS: C
DIF:
NAT: B.6
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 2
STA: S11.D.1.1.2
32. ANS: C
DIF:
NAT: B.6
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 1
STA: S11.D.1.1.2
33. ANS: C
DIF:
NAT: B.6
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 4
STA: S11.D.1.1.2
34. ANS: C
DIF:
NAT: B.6
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 4
STA: S11.D.1.1.2
49. ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 1
NAT: UCP3 | B6 | E1 | E2 | F5 | F6 | G1
STA:
S11.D.1.1.2
35. ANS: D
DIF:
NAT: B.6
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 5
STA: S11.D.1.1.2
50. ANS: A
DIF:
NAT: D.3
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 4
STA: S11.D.1.1
36. ANS: A
DIF:
NAT: B.6
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 2
STA: S11.A.2.2.2
51. ANS: B
DIF:
NAT: D.3
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 1
STA: S11.D.3.1
37. ANS: D
DIF:
NAT: B.6
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 4
STA: S11.A.2.2.2
52. ANS: D
DIF:
NAT: D.3
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 3
STA: S11.D.3.1
38. ANS: B
DIF:
NAT: B.6
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 3
STA: S11.A.2.2.2
53. ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 1
NAT: UCP3 | A1 | D1 | D3 | D4
STA:
S11.D.1.1.1
39. ANS: C
DIF:
NAT: B.6
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 3
STA: S11.A.2.2.2
40. ANS: B
DIF:
NAT: F.5
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 3
STA: S11.D.1.1.2
41. ANS: B
DIF:
NAT: F.5
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 3
STA: S11.D.1.1.2
42. ANS: A
DIF:
NAT: F.5
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 5
STA: S11.D.1.1.2
43. ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 1
NAT: UCP3 | A1 | A2 | D1 | D3 | F5 | F6
STA:
S11.D.1.1.2
44. ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 2
NAT: UCP2 | A1 | E1 | E2
STA:
S11.A.2.2
45. ANS: D
DIF:
NAT: UCP1 | D3
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 1
STA: S11.D.1.1.3
46. ANS: C
DIF:
NAT: UCP1 | D3
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 1
STA: S11.D.1.1.3
47. ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 2
NAT: UCP1 | A1 | D3 | F5 | F6
STA:
S11.D.1.1.2
48. ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 2
NAT: UCP3 | A1 | A2 | B6 | F5 | F6
STA:
S11.D.1.1.2
54. ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 2
NAT: UCP4 | D1 | D3
STA:
S11.D.1.1.2
55. ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 2
NAT: UCP2 | D1 | D3
STA:
S11.D.1.1.2
56. ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF:
Bloom's Level 1
NAT: UCP2 | D1 | D3
STA:
S11.D.1.1.2
57. ANS: B
DIF:
NAT: D.4
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 2
STA: S11.D.3.1.2
58. ANS: C
DIF:
NAT: UCP4 | D4
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 2
STA: S11.D.3.1
59. ANS: B
DIF:
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 1
NAT: UCP4 | D4
60. ANS: D
DIF:
NAT: UCP4 | D4
STA:
S11.D.3.1
PTS: 1
Bloom's Level 1
STA: S11.D.3.1