Download Midterm Review Answers 1

1. During the winter Lake Michigan freezes over trapping
the living organisms under a sheet of solid ice. As the
temperature drops the hydrogen bonds between water
molecules get locked into a crystalline lattice.
Which of the following can be attributed to the fact that
the bottom of the lake doesn't freeze solid?
A) Water expands as it solidifies making ice water
less dense than liquid water.
B) Hydrogen bonds are constantly breaking and
reforming.
C) The organisms' metabolic activity produces
enough heat to prevent solidification.
D) The solutes distributed in the lake have a higher
freezing point.
E) The hydration shell surround the ice prevents it
from extending past the surface.
2. Which of the following characteristics of water
contribute to capillary action in the xylem of plants?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Surface tension
Cohesion
High boiling point
High heat of vaporization
Ionic bonds
3. Which of the following is directly responsible for water
being liquid at room temperature?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Covalent bonds are weaker than hydrogen bonds
Water has a high heat capacity
Hydrogen bonds link water molecules together
Water is a universal solvent
Water is stable due to strong covalent bonds
5. Which are formed through dehydration synthesis?
A) 1 only
C) 1 and 4 only
E) 3 and 4 only
B) 4 only
D) 2 and 3 only
6. All of the following are organic compounds EXCEPT
A) lactic acid
C) ethanol
E) fats
B) water
D) proteins
7. Each of the following are properties of water EXCEPT
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
it has a low heat of vaporization
it expands when it freezes
it is a useful solvent
it has cohesive properties
it has a high specific heat
8. All of the following are properties of water EXCEPT
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
water is an excellent solvent
water has a high heat capacity
water has low surface tension
water adheres to other molecules
as water freezes it becomes less dense than its liquid
form
9. Humans cannot digest which of the following
carbohydrates?
A) Fructose
C) Cellulose
E) Sucrose
B) Glucose
D) Glycogen
10. Base your answer to the following question on the
glucose molecule depicted below.
Base your answer to questions 4 and 5 on the molecules
depicted below.
If the glucose molecule depicted above reacted with a
similar molecule with the H + and OH – groups switched
on carbon 1, they would bond with a
4. The main component of sex hormones is
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 4 only E) 5 only
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
– ester bond
– glycosidic linkage
– saccharidic bond
– ester bond
– glycosidic linkage
11. Which of the following molecules is correctly paired
with its function?
18. Base your answer to the following question on the
diagram below.
A) glycogen – energy storage in plants
B) cellulose – main component of insect exoskeletons
C) chitin – withstands turgor pressure in Fungi
cell walls
D) amylose - energy reserve stored in animal liver
E) lignin - main component in Moneran cell walls
12. Starch and glycogen both
I. serve as energy storage for organisms
II. provide structure and support
III. are structural isomers of glucose
A) I only
C) I and II only
E) I, II and III
B) II only
D) I and III only
13. Which of the following is a similarity between starch
and glycogen?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Both are glucose polymers.
Both are disaccharides of glucose.
Both are stored in animals.
Neither provide structure and support.
There are no similarities between the molecules.
14. The monosaccharide products of hydrolysis of a
molecule of lactose are
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
maltose and glucose
maltose and galactose
glucose and galactose
glucose and sucrose
two molecules of galactose
15. In mammals, carbohydrates are stored mainly as
A) maltose
C) galactose
E) fructose
B) glucose
D) glycogen
16. The empirical formula for monosaccharides is
A) CnH 2nO n
C) C2nHnOn
E) CnHnO2n
B) CnHnOn
D) C2nHnO2n
17. Lactose is
A) a disaccharide
B) a monosaccharide
C) a polysaccharide
D) an oligosaccharide
E) stored in plant cells
Which of the following is responsible for forming the
bonds that cause the tertiary structure of a protein?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
19. The formation of a peptide bond requires a reaction
between
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
carbonyl and amide groups
carboxyl and amino groups
carbohydryl and amide groups
nitryl and amino groups
nitro and amino groups
20. The monomer responsible for the formation of sulfide
bonds in polypeptides is
A) cysteine
C) threonine
E) none of the above
B) methionine
D) valine
Base your answer to questions 21 and 22 on the diagrams of organic molecules below.
21.
This lipid maintains the fluidity in cell membranes.
22.
Pepsin, an enzyme in the stomach works on this molecule.
23. The protein albumin can be denatured by all of the
following EXCEPT
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
enzyme concentration
heat
pH
chemical
hydrolysis
24. Triglycerides are composed of
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Glycerol and one fatty acid
Glycerin and two fatty acids
Glycerol and three fatty acids
Glycerin and three fatty acids
Glycogen and three fatty acids
25. The phase in which a lipid exists at room temperature is
determined by
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
the number of fatty acid chains it contains
the number of hydrogens it contains
the number of double bonds it contains
the presence of phosphate
the presence of sulfur
26.
The diagram above depicts the formation of
I. an ester bond
II. a glyceride bond
III. a triglyceride
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
27. In water, lipids naturally form droplets or a film
because of
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
anti-hydrogen forces
hydrophilic interactions
hydrophobic interactions
ionic bonds
van der Waals forces
28. Glycerol is essential for which of the following?
A) Lipid synthesis
B) The breakdown of glucagon
C) The storage of carbohydrates in animal muscle
cells
D) Alcoholic fermentation
E) Nitrogenous base formation
29. DNA is the polymer for which class of compounds?
A) Nucleic acids
C) Proteins
E) Genes
B) RNA
D) Amino acids
30. All of the following are characteristic of nucleotides
EXCEPT
A) they are composed of a nitrogenous base, a
five-carbon sugar, and a phosphate group
B) they are joined by phosphodiester bonds
C) the nitrogenous bases include the purines, adenine
and guanine, and the pyrimidines, cytosine and
thymine
D) the nitrogenous bases include the purines,
adenine and cytosine, and the pyrimidines,
guanine and uracil
E) they are joined double bonds
D) I and III only
E) I, II and III
31. A sample of double-stranded DNA has equal numbers
of
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
adenine nucleotides and guanine nucleotides
adenine nucleotides and cytosine nucleotides
cytosine nucleotides and thymine nucleotides
purines and pyrimidines
thymine and uracil molecules
Base your answer to questions 32 and 33 on the
following diagram:
32. The molecule depicted above is a
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
DNA adenosine nucleoside
DNA adenosine nucleotide
RNA adenosine nucleoside
RNA adenosine nucleotide
RNA adenosine phosphate
33. The above molecule can be found in
I. nucleolus
II. rough endoplasmic reticulum
III. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
A) I only
C) I and II only
E) I, II and III
B) II only
D) II and III only
34. Which of the following nucleotides is not present in
DNA?
A) Adenine
C) Thymine
E) Cytosine
41. Base your answer to the following question on the
graph below.
B) Guanine
D) Uracil
35. Adenine is found in which of the following two
compounds?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
RNA and ADP
Chlorophyll and vitamin A
Mitochondria and protein
Protein and carbohydrate
Vitamins and carbohydrates
The reaction labeled B is
Base your answer to questions 36 and 37 on the
following diagram:
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
endergonic and catalyzed
endergonic and uncatalyzed
exergonic and catalyzed
exergonic and uncatalyzed
irreversible and spontaneous
42. Base your answer to the following question on the free
energy diagram below.
36. The activation energy of the above reaction is indicated
by
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
37. The activation energy of the reverse reaction is
indicated by
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
The G of this reaction is
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) a + c E) b + c
43. Hydrolysis, the splitting of a molecule via the addition
of a molecule of water, is an example of what type of
38. The activation energy of a reaction can be altered by the
reaction?
addition of
A) An exergonic reaction
A) substrates
B) heat energy
B) An endergonic reaction
C) enzymes
D) ATP
C) A condensation reaction
E) ADP
D) Dehydration synthesis
39. In which of the following reaction types is the
E) A hydrophobic reaction
activation energy of the forward reaction greater than
44. A reaction in which synthetic chemical activity
the activation energy of the reverse reaction?
produces a more highly ordered chemical organization
A) Exothermic
B) Endothermic
and a higher free energy state is called:
C) Displacement
D) Combination
A) chemiosmosis
B) catabolism
E) None of the above
C) anabolism
D) photolysis
40. The process of dehydration synthesis is both
E) electron transport
A) anabolic and endergonic
B) anabolic and exergonic
C) catabolic and endergonic
D) catabolic and exergonic
E) none of the above
45. All of the following are functions of an allosteric
enzyme EXCEPT
A) the binding of a substrate may stabilize the active
conformation
B) the allosteric site serves as the active site in the
presence of competitive inhibitors
C) the binding of a substrate may stabilize the
inactive conformation
D) they control key reactions in metabolic pathways
E) their activity changes in response to fluctuating
concentrations of regulators
Base your answer to questions 46 through 49 on the molecules depicted below.
46. Compound known as a thiol
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
D) D
E) E
47. May form the high energy bond found in ATP
A) A
B) B
C) C
48. Placement of the functional group determines whether the molecule is a ketone or an aldehyde
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
D) D
E) E
49. Contains group that attaches to the 5’ end of a DNA nucleotide
A) A
B) B
C) C
50. Base your answer to the following question on the
picture below.
54. Mitochondria are thought to be descendants of
endosymbiotic bacterial cells. Which of the following
statements best supports this statement?
A) Mitochondria and bacteria possess different
ribosomes and DNA.
B) Mitochondria and bacteria possess similar
ribosomes and DNA.
C) Both mitochondria and bacteria have cristae.
D) Neither mitochondria nor bacteria possess
chloroplasts.
E) Glycolysis occurs in both mitochondria and
bacteria.
Indicate the structure(s) thought to be descendant of
endosymbiotic bacterial cells.
A) A only
C) A and C
E) B and C
B) C only
D) A and B
51. Chloroplasts of eukaryotes evolved from which of the
following?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Cyanobacteria
Photosynthetic prokaryotes
Photosynthetic protista
Plants
Any kind of eukaryote
52. The mitochondria of eukaryotes evolved from what
type of organism?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Anaerobic bacteria
Aerobic bacteria
Euglena
Ameoba
Any kind of eukaryote
53. Mitochondria and bacteria share which similarities?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
They both have similar ribosomes and DNA.
They both have cell walls.
They both have chromosomes.
They both reproduce sexually.
There are no similarities.
55. In comparison to plant cell walls, bacterial cell walls
contain
A) peptidoglycan
C) phospholipids
E) chitin
B) starch
D) cellulose
56. Cyanobacteria may contain all of these EXCEPT
A) cell membrane
C) mitochondria
E) ribosomes
B) chromatin
D) cytochromes
57. Prokaryotes and eukaryotes tend to have which of the
following features in common?
A) Ribosomes
C) Mitochondria
E) Lysosomes
B) Nuclear membrane
D) Golgi apparatus
58. Prokaryotes may contain each of the following
structures EXCEPT
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
lysosomes
cell wall
cell membrane
flagella
photosynthetic apparatus
59. A small circle of DNA found outside the main
chromosome in bacteria is called a
A) pilus
C) phage
E) plasmid
B) retrovirus
D) capsid
60. Prokaryotes differ from eukaryotes in that only
eukaryotes
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
include bacteria
have ribosomes sized 70S
have naked DNA without proteins
have a nucleus
have flagella which are not constructed of
microtubules
61. Person A spends her time at the library on the weekends
and refrains from consuming any drugs or alcohol.
However, person B consumes a large quantity of
alcohol and drugs numerous times a week.
Which of the following organelles is responsible for
person B's increased tolerance for drugs and alcohol?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Lysosomes
Peroxisomes
Ribosomes
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi apparatus
62. Which of the following structure-function pairs is
matched incorrectly?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Microtubules; muscle contraction
Mitochondria; cell respiration
Central vacuoles; storage
lysosomes; degradation
Golgi apparatus; modification
63. Which of the following cytoskeletal elements forms the
centrioles within a cell?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Collagen
Microtubules
Microfilaments
Intermediate filaments
Pseudopodia
64. In plants, how is the living content connected to
adjacent cells?
A) Pores
C) Plasmodesmata
E) Desmosomes
B) Tight junctions
D) Gap junctions
65. Microfilaments, such as actin, differ from intermediate
filaments because microfilaments
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
maintain the cell shape
form the nuclear lamina
anchor the nucleus and other organelles
function in cell motility
have a greater diameter
66. Proteins made by free ribosomes will most likely
function in which of the following locations?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Endoplasmic reticulum
Plasma membrane
Lysosomes
Cytosol
Nucleus
67. Which of the following would occur if the nucleolus
was removed from the cell?
A) The nucleus would not divide.
B) The rough endoplasmic reticulum would not
remain attached to the nuclear lamina.
C) Ribosomal RNA would not be synthesized and
assembled with proteins.
D) DNA would replicate uncontrollably.
E) The mRNA would have to be made in the
cytoplasm.
68. Besides the nucleus, where is genetic material located
within a cell?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
mitochondria and chloroplasts
ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum
lysosomes and Golgi apparatus
centrosome and plasmodesmata
peroxisome and ribosomes
69. Chloroplasts are mostly located in what part of the plant
cell?
A) Mitochondria
C) Mesophyll tissue
E) Grana
B) Chlorophyll
D) Upper epidermis
70. Alcohol is detoxified in
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
lysosomes
peroxisomes
rough endoplasmic reticulum
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
none of the above
71. Lysosomes operate within the cell by
A) metabolizing food within the cytoplasm
B) entering the endoplasmic reticulum to metabolize
proteins
C) fusing with vacuoles to catalyze food and dead
organelles
D) acting as a defense mechanism for DNA outside
the nucleus
E) none of the above
Base your answer to questions 72 through 74 on the
following choices. Select the choice that best fits the
description given. Each choice may be used once, more
than once, or not at all within this group.
( A ) Cilia and Flagella
( B ) Dynein
( C ) Intermediate Filaments
( D ) Microfilaments
( E ) Tropomyosin
72. Responsible for cytoplasmic streaming in plant cells
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
D) D
E) E
73. Hold organelles in place
A) A
B) B
C) C
74. Undergo rotating or undulating motion
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
75. During the creation of a secretory protein, a vacuole
will travel which of the following pathways?
A) nucleolus — Golgi apparatus — ribosome —
plasma membrane
B) nucleus — RER — Golgi apparatus — plasma
membrane
C) nucleus — RER — lysosome — plasma
membrane
D) plasma membrane — SER — ribosome — nucleus
E) ribosome — Golgi apparatus — nucleolus —
plasma membrane
76. Programmed cell death is known as
A) anabolism
C) catalysis
E) denaturation
B) apoptosis
D) decomposition
77. A cell at equilibrium with its environment is
A) hypertonic
C) isobaric
E) isotonic
B) hypotonic
D) isochoric
78. A cell with a cytoplasmic solute concentration that is
lower than its environment is said to be
A) hydrophilic
C) hypotonic
E) isomorphic
B) hypertonic
D) isotonic
79. In the cell, the instructions to make rRNA and ribosome
protein is found in the
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
mitochondria
nucleolus
peroxisomes and glyoxysomes
rough endoplasmic reticulum
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
80. Gap junctions between animal cells most closely
resemble
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
G-proteins in fungi
plasmodesmata in plants
synaptic junctions in humans
tight junctions in algae
none of the above
81. If the steps by which a molecule is transferred from the
nucleus of a cell to the extracellular matrix are as
follows: 1-nuclear membrane; 2-vesicle; 3-Golgi
apparatus; 4-endoplasmic reticulum, which of the
following represents the correct sequence?
A) 2-1-3-4
C) 4-3-2-1
E) 1-4-2-3
B) 3-4-2-1
D) 1-4-3-2
82. The organelle which consists of flattened membrane
sacs and can be considered the final packaging location
for proteins and lipids is the
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
peroxisome
endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi apparatus
lysosome
vacuole
83. Cell surface carbohydrates are important for
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
cell-cell recognition
structural integrity
fluidity
selectivity of the membrane
active transportation
84. Membrane proteins function in all of the following
ways EXCEPT
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
transportation of oxygen
signal transduction
cell-cell recognition
enzymatic activity
transportation of ions
85. Cells are held together by keratin patches known as
A) adherent junctions
C) gap junctions
E) plasmodesmata
B) desmosomes
D) hemisomes
86. Which of the following is NOT a component in an
animal cell membrane?
A) Nucleotides
C) Proteins
E) Cholesterol
Base your answer to questions 91 and 92 on the image
below.
B) Carbohydrates
D) Microtubules
87. If a Paramecium living in pond water were to lose
function of its contractile vacuole, what would be the
result?
A) It would not be able to consume the proper amount
of nutrients.
B) It would activate its sodium-potassium pumps.
C) It would rapidly undergo mitosis.
D) It would fill with water and lyse.
E) It would shrink.
Base your answer to questions 88 and 89 on the picture
below. (Before and after pictures of a cell placed in a
particular solution.)
91. What event occurred once the plant cell was placed into
solution X?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
It became turgid
It became hypotonic
It lysed
It became porous
It plasmolyzed
92. Solution X must be
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
hypertonic to the cell
hypotonic to the cell
isotonic to the cell
distilled H 20
cytosol
88. The cell in picture B is considered
A) lysed
C) turgid
E) water
B) impermeable
D) flaccid
89. Cell A was placed in a solution that is
A) hypertonic
C) isotonic
E) supertonic
B) hypotonic
D) flaccid
90. The movement of water out of a cell that results in the
collapse of the cell is called
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
plasmolysis
dialysis
facilitated diffusion
counter-current exchange
simple diffusion
93. Which of the following is the direct cause of the
conformational change during the sodium-potassium
pump?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The expulsion of Na + from the inside of the axon
K+ release from the inside of the axon
Phosphorylation of ATP
Na+ binding to signal proteins
A sudden change in the membrane potential
94. The pumps that move Na+/K +, H+/K +, and Ca2+ of
skeletal muscle across cell membranes are examples of
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Active transport
Passive transport
Facilitated diffusion
Ligand-gated channel
Exocytosis
95. Base your answer to the following question on the figure below.
Without the process indicated in the above figure a cell would NOT be able to
A) ingest large materials
C) carry out cyclosis
E) ingest small materials
B) form the plasma membrane
D) undergo passive transport
96. Base your answer to the following question on the 5
lettered headings listed below. Select the single
heading that most directly applies to the subsequent
statement. Each heading may be used once, more than
once, or not at all within its group. (A) Receptor-Mediated Endocytosis
(B) Exocytosis
(C) Phagocytosis
(D) Pinocytosis
(E) Cotransport
An amoeba's pseudopodia wrap around a food particle,
engulf it, and package it into a vacuole.
Base your answer to questions 97 through 99 on the
choices below. (A) Exocytosis
(B) Endocytosis
(C) Phagocytosis
(D) Pinocytosis
(E) Receptor-mediated endocytosis
97. Occurs when dissolved substances enter the cell and the
plasma membrane folds inward to form a channel
allowing the liquid to enter
98. Describes the process of vesicles fusing with the plasma
membrane and releasing their contents to the outside of
the cell
99. Occurs when specific molecules in the fluid
surrounding the cell bind to specialized receptors that
concentrate in coated pits in the plasma membrane
100. The structure of ATP most closely resembles that of
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
acetylcholine
adenine nucleoside
glutamate
thymine nucleotide
norepinephrine
101. What is true of aerobic respiration but NOT of
anaerobic respiration?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2 ATP are required for activation.
A chemiosmotic gradient is established.
Glycolysis is the primary process.
Proteins are metabolized.
Reduction-oxidation reactions occur.
Answer Key
Midterm Review
1.
A
37.
E
73.
C
2.
B
38.
C
74.
A
3.
C
39.
B
75.
B
4.
E
40.
A
76.
B
5.
C
41.
C
77.
E
6.
B
42.
B
78.
C
7.
A
43.
A
79.
B
8.
C
44.
C
80.
B
9.
C
45.
B
81.
D
10.
E
46.
E
82.
C
11.
C
47.
C
83.
A
12.
A
48.
B
84.
A
13.
A
49.
C
85.
B
14.
C
50.
B
86.
A
15.
D
51.
A
87.
D
16.
A
52.
B
88.
D
17.
A
53.
A
89.
A
18.
D
54.
B
90.
A
19.
B
55.
A
91.
E
20.
A
56.
C
92.
A
21.
A
57.
A
93.
C
22.
D
58.
A
94.
A
A
23.
A
59.
E
95.
24.
C
60.
D
96.
C
25.
C
61.
D
97.
D
26.
D
62.
A
98.
A
27.
C
63.
B
99.
E
28.
A
64.
C
100.
B
29.
A
65.
D
101.
B
30.
D
66.
D
31.
D
67.
C
32.
D
68.
A
33.
C
69.
C
34.
D
70.
D
35.
A
71.
C
36.
B
72.
D