Download Astro/Geo Mid Term Exam

Astro/Geo Mid Term Exam
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or
answers the question.
1. The existence of coal beds in Antarctica indicates that
the continent once had ____.
a. been part of Africa b. a temperate, rainy climate
c. a cold, dry climate d. been farther from the
equator
2. ____ is a fossil fern that helped support Wegener’s
hypothesis of continental drift.
a. Gondwanaland b. Kannemeyerid
c. Mesosaurus d. Glossopteris
11. Crust is neither destroyed nor formed along which of
the following boundaries?
a. convergent b. divergent c. transform
d. magnetic
12. The driving forces of tectonic plates are related to
convection currents in Earth’s ____.
a. crust b. mantle c. inner core d. outer core
13. A narrow, elongated depression in the seafloor is
called a(n) _________.
a. deep-sea trench b. oceanic crust c. ocean ridge
d. ocean floor sediment
14. Crater Lake in southern Oregon is not a crater but
actually a ___.
a. conduit b. vent c. caldera d. magma
chamber
3. The youngest part of the ocean floor is found ____.
a. along deep sea trenches b. where ocean
sediments are thickest c. near ocean ridges
d. where Earth’s magnetic field changes polarity
4. At an oceanic-oceanic convergent boundary, ____.
a. new crust is created b. old crust is recycled by
subduction c. old crust is deformed or fractured
d. plates side past one another
5. The downward part of a convection current causes a
sinking force that ____.
a. pulls tectonic plates toward one another b. moves
plates apart from one another c. lifts and splits the
lithosphere d. creates a divergent boundary
6. Many early mapmakers thought Earth’s continents
had moved based on ____.
a. plate boundary locations b. fossil evidence
c. climatic data d. matching coastlines
7. Continental drift was not widely accepted when it
was first proposed because ____.
a. Wegener couldn’t explain why or how the
continents moved b. continental landmasses were
too big to move slowly over Earth’s surface
c. magnetic and sonar data proved that Wegener’s
hypothesis was incorrect d. mantle convection
currents weren’t in motion at that time
8. Compared to ocean crust near deep-sea trenches,
crust near ocean ridges is ____.
a. younger b. older c. the same age
d. magnetically reversed
9. Features found at divergent boundaries include ____.
a. ocean ridges b. deep-sea trenches c. crumpled
mountains d. island arc volcanoes
10. Continental-continental plate collisions produce
____.
a. island arcs b. rift valleys c. deep-sea trenches
d. very tall mountain ranges
Use the graph to answer the questions.
15. What is the difference in melting points of dry albite
and albite with water at a depth of 12 km?
a. 1940°C b. 460°C c. 560°C d. 1200°C
16. How does the melting point of albite with water
change as the depth of its burial increases from 0 to 3
km?
a. It decreases by 220°C. b. It increases by 220°C.
c. It increases by 20°C. d. It decreases by 20°C.
17. All of the following affect the temperature at which
magma forms EXCEPT ____.
a. pressure b. composition of source material
c. water d. viscosity
18. Types of plutons include ____.
a. shields, cinder-cones, and composites b. vents,
craters, and calderas c. dust, ash, lapilli, volcanic
blocks, and volcanic bombs d. batholiths, stocks,
sills, dikes, and laccoliths
19. Which of the following are landscape features
associated with volcanoes?
a. uplift, erosion, weathering, and deposition b. hot
spots and flood basalts c. vents, craters, and
calderas d. batholiths, stocks, sills, dikes, and
laccoliths
20. Movement occurs along fractures in rocks when
_____.
a. stress equals the strength of the rocks involved
b. stress overcomes the strength of the rocks involved
c. stress is applied to the rocks involved d. stress is
less than the rocks involved
21. The strain which causes a material to twist is known
as ____.
a. stress b. compression c. tension d. shear
22. The strain which causes a material to pull apart is
known as ____.
a. stress b. compression c. tension d. shear
23. P-waves and S-waves are also known as ____.
a. surface waves b. ground waves c. body waves
d. first waves
Use the diagram to answer the questions.
27. What keeps the stable part of this seismometer from
moving during an earthquake?
a. inertia b. gravity c. its mass d. its location
28. Which part of the seismometer does not shake during
an earthquake?
a. the frame b. the spring c. the rotating drum
d. the pendulum and pen
29. Seismologists have assessed a particular area and
predict that an earthquake occurs every 17 years in
that area. If the last earthquake occurred in 1998,
when will the next earthquake most likely occur?
a. 2010 b. 2015 c. 2017 d. 2025
Use the diagram to answer the questions.
24. Which point marks the epicenter of the earthquake?
a. A b. B c. C d. D
25. At which point will the most damage as a result of the
earthquake occur?
a. A b. B c. C d. D
26. What is true about the focus?
a. It is the point where the most surface damage will
occur. b. It is the point where the surface waves
originate and spread out. c. It is the point where the
waves are attracted. d. It is the point of failure
where the waves originate.
30. ____ and the amount of strain released during the last
quake are used in earthquake probability studies.
a. Seismic belts b. Strain accumulation c. Fault
scarps d. Tsunamis
31. On a seismometer, vibrations of the ground do not
move the ____.
a. frame b. spring c. recording drum
d. suspended mass
32. A ____ fault forms as a result of horizontal
compression.
a. blind b. normal c. strike-slip d. reverse
33. The San Andreas Fault, a result of horizontal shear, is
a ____ fault.
a. blind b. normal c. strike-slip d. reverse
34. The locations of seismic belts are determined by
plotting ____.
a. earthquake epicenters b. seismic gaps
c. earthquake foci d. epicentral distances
35. A numerical scale of earthquake magnitude that takes
into account the size of the fault rupture is the ____.
a. Richter scale b. modified Mercalli scale
c. moment magnitude scale d. epicentral distance
scale
36. Deaths associated with earthquake deaths in sloping
areas can result from ____.
a. tsunamis b. landslides c. formation of fault
scarps d. surface ruptures
37. Which section of the diagram best represents the most
common elevation range of areas that are above sea
level?
42. Which label best summarizes the trend represented by
the arrow in the diagram?
a. increasing temperature b. decreasing density
c. decreasing age d. increasing density
43. The Lesser Antilles and the Appalachian Mountains
are similar in that they were both formed
.
a. by convergence b. by faulting c. by volcanoes
d. by oceanic plate movement
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
38. Which factor would be most useful in predicting the
amount of mantle a certain volume of crust will
displace?
a. temperature of the mantle b. density of the crust
c. chemical composition of the mantle
d. temperature of the crust
39. Which lists the types of convergent boundaries in
order, from those that produce the smallest mountain
belts to those that produce the largest mountain belts?
a. oceanic-oceanic; oceanic-continental;
continental-continental b. oceanic-continental;
oceanic-oceanic; continental-continental
c. continental-continental; oceanic-continental;
oceanic-oceanic d. oceanic-oceanic;
continental-continental; oceanic-continental
44. Which lists Earth materials in order of increasing
density?
a. oceanic crust, continental crust, mantle
b. mantle, oceanic crust, continental crust
c. continental crust, oceanic crust, mantle
d. continental crust, mantle, oceanic crust
45. What is the difference between the average depth of
the ocean and the average elevation of exposed land,
as shown on the diagram?
40. The Himalayas are one of Earth’s tallest mountain
ranges. Marine sedimentary rock can be found at the
top of some of the individual peaks in the Himalayas.
These characteristics would allow you to classify the
Himalayas in which column of the chart?
a. 841 m
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
41. At time interval A on the timeline, ancestral
North America separated from Ancestral Africa
along two divergent boundaries. This was the
beginning of which process?
a. formation of the Appalachian Mountains
b. formation of the Himalayas c. formation of
the Lesser Antilles d. formation of the
Adirondack Mountains
b. 3024 m
c. 3865 m
d. 4706 m
46. Subduction zones form at
.
a. only oceanic-oceanic boundaries b. only
oceanic-continental boundaries c. both
oceanic-oceanic boundaries and oceanic-continental
boundaries d. neither oceanic-oceanic boundaries
or oceanic continental boundaries
47. A good model for isostasy is ____.
a. a collision between two cars b. the water line of
a boat when someone boards or leaves it
c. scraping food off a plate d. stretching a cracked,
old rubber band
48. In the process of isostatic rebound, mountains are
eroded over hundreds of millions of years, while the
crust below them ____.
a. rises b. sinks c. splits to form a rift
d. converges at a boundary
49. After millions of years of erosion, the Appalachian
Mountains still exist because of ____.
a. continental drift b. orogeny c. erosion
d. isostatic rebound
50. Uplifted mountains ____.
a. form when a large region of Earth’s crust rises up
as a unit b. have rocks that are not very deformed
c. are the result of erosional forces d. all of the
above
51. Fault-block mountains ____.
a. form when two continental plates collide b. form
above a subduction zone c. form when large pieces
of crust are dropped between large faults d. all of
the above
52. The Himalayas formed as the result of ____.
a. hot spot volcanism b. divergence on the ocean
floor c. continental-continental convergence
d. oceanic-oceanic convergence
53. What information about Earth’s materials can be
inferred by their arrangement in layers, as shown
here?
a. their relative densities b. their order of formation
c. their relative ages d. their temperatures
54. Which point on this time line should be labeled
“Formation of Earth?”
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
55. Which summarizes the relationship between density
of an element and its distribution in Earth?
a. The greater an element’s density, the greater the
amount of it found in the crust.
b. The denser an element is, the smaller the amount of
it in Earth’s core.
c. The lower an element’s density, the smaller the
amount of it found in the crust.
d. The greater an element’s density, the smaller the
amount of it found in the crust.
56. The oldest known mineral on Earth is ____.
a. fluorite b. mica c. zircon d. quartz
57. The process by which volcanoes vent water vapor,
carbon dioxide, nitrogen, and other substances is
called ____.
a. oxidation b. glaciation c. differentiation
d. outgassing
58. When there is no tectonic activity along the edge of a
continent, the edge is referred to as a ____.
a. coastline b. passive margin c. transgression
d. regression
59. As North America rifted from Europe and Africa, a
continuous rift system called the ____ was formed.
a. Gulf of Mexico b. Cordillera c. Mid-Atlantic
Ridge d. East African Rift Valley
60. What force draws the matter in an interstellar cloud
together to form a star?
a. electric b. gravity c. magnetism d. friction
Astro/Geo Mid Term Exam
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS:
STA:
2. ANS:
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3. ANS:
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24. ANS:
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25. ANS:
STA:
26. ANS:
B
S11.D.1.1.3
D
S11.D.1.1.3
C
S11.D.1.1.2
B
S11.D.1.1.2
A
S11.D.1.1.2
D
S11.D.1.1.2
A
S11.D.1.1.2
A
S11.D.1.1.2
A
S11.D.1.1.2
D
S11.D.1.1.2
C
S11.D.1.1.2
B
S11.D.1.1.2
A
S11.D.1.1.2
C
S11.D.1.1.3
B
S11.D.1.1.1
A
S11.D.1.1.1
D
S11.D.1.1.2
D
S11.D.1.1.2
C
S11.D.1.1.3
B
S11.D.1.1.2
D
S11.D.1.1.2
C
S11.D.1.1.2
C
S11.D.1.1.2
C
S11.D.1.1.2
C
S11.D.1.1.2
D
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
DIF: Bloom's Level 3
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
DIF: Bloom's Level 1
DIF: Bloom's Level 1
DIF: Bloom's Level 1
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
DIF: Bloom's Level 3
DIF: Bloom's Level 1
DIF: Bloom's Level 3
DIF: Bloom's Level 3
DIF: Bloom's Level 4
STA: S11.D.1.1.2
27. ANS: A
STA: S11.A.2.2.2
28. ANS: D
STA: S11.A.2.2.2
29. ANS: B
NAT:S11.D.1.1.2
UCP4 | D3
STA:
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
DIF: Bloom's Level 4
DIF: Bloom's Level 3
30. ANS: B
DIF: Bloom's Level 1
NAT:S11.D.1.1.2
UCP4 | D3
STA:
31. ANS: D
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
NAT:S11.A.2.2
UCP2 | D1 | D3
STA:
32. ANS: D
DIF: Bloom's Level 1
NAT:S11.D.1.1.3
UCP1 | D3
STA:
33. ANS: C
DIF: Bloom's Level 1
NAT:S11.D.1.1.3
UCP2 | A1 | B5 | D1
STA:
34. ANS: A
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
NAT:
UCP2
|
D3
STA: S11.D.1.1.2
35. ANS: C
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
NAT:S11.D.1.1.2
UCP2 | A1 | D3 | G3
STA:
36. ANS: B
DIF: Bloom's Level 1
NAT:S11.D.1.1.2
UCP2 | D1 | D3
STA:
37. ANS: B
DIF: Bloom's Level 3
NAT:S11.D.1.1
UCP1 | D3
STA:
38. ANS: B
DIF: Bloom's Level 3
NAT:S11.D.1.1.2
UCP3 | D1 | D3
STA:
39. ANS: A
DIF: Bloom's Level 4
NAT:S11.D.1.1.2
UCP1 | D3
STA:
40. ANS: C
DIF: Bloom's Level 4
NAT:S11.D.1.1.3
UCP2 | A1 | B5
STA:
41. ANS: A
DIF: Bloom's Level 4
NAT:S11.D.1.1.3
B.2
STA:
42. ANS: D
DIF: Bloom's Level 4
NAT:
B.2
STA: S11.D.1.1.3
43. ANS: A
DIF: Bloom's Level 4
NAT:S11.D.1.1.3
B.2
STA:
44. ANS: C
DIF: Bloom's Level 4
NAT:S11.D.1.1
B.2
STA:
45. ANS: D
DIF: Bloom's Level 3
NAT:S11.D.1.1.3
UCP2 | A1 | B2 | D1
STA:
DIF: Bloom's Level 4
46. ANS: C
DIF: Bloom's Level 4
NAT:S11.D.1.1.2
UCP2 | D3
STA:
47. ANS: B
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
NAT:S11.D.1.1.2
UCP5 | B2 | D1 | D3
STA:
48. ANS: A
DIF: Bloom's Level 1
NAT:S11.D.1.1.2
B.6
STA:
49. ANS: D
DIF: Bloom's Level 1
NAT:S11.D.1.1.2
B.6
STA:
50. ANS: D
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
NAT:
B.6
STA: S11.D.1.1.2
51. ANS: C
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
NAT:S11.D.1.1.2
B.6
STA:
52. ANS: C
DIF: Bloom's Level 1
NAT:S11.D.1.1.2
B.6
STA:
53. ANS: A
DIF: Bloom's Level 4
NAT:S11.D.1.1
B.6
STA:
DIF: Bloom's Level 5
54. ANS: B
NAT:S11.D.3.1
B.6
STA:
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
DIF: Bloom's Level 1
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
DIF: Bloom's Level 1
DIF: Bloom's Level 4
DIF: Bloom's Level 1
55. ANS:
STA:
56. ANS:
STA:
57. ANS:
STA:
58. ANS:
STA:
59. ANS:
STA:
60. ANS:
STA:
D
S11.D.3.1
C
S11.D.1.1.1
D
S11.D.1.1.2
B
S11.D.1.1.2
C
S11.D.1.1.2
B
S11.D.3.1.2
DIF: Bloom's Level 3
NAT: D.3
DIF: Bloom's Level 1
NAT: UCP3 | A1 | D1 | D3 | D4
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
NAT: UCP4 | D1 | D3
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
NAT: UCP2 | D1 | D3
DIF: Bloom's Level 1
NAT: UCP2 | D1 | D3
DIF: Bloom's Level 2
NAT: D.4