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Math 401: Homework 2 Due September 12, 2016 Solutions Exercise 1.4.1: Recall that I stands for the set of irrational numbers. (a) Show that if a, b ∈ Q then ab and a + b ∈ Q as well. (b) Show that if a ∈ Q and t ∈ I then a + t ∈ I and if a , 0 then at ∈ I as well. (c) Part (a) says that the rational numbers are closed under multiplication and addition. What can be said about st and s + t when s, t ∈ I? Solution: (a) Suppose a, t ∈ Q. Then a = m/n and b = p/q where m, n, p, q ∈ Z and n, q , 0. But then a + b = (mq + np)/(nq) since mq + np ∈ Z and nq ∈ Z we conclude that a + b ∈ Q. Similarly, at = (mp)/(nq) so at ∈ Q. (b) Suppose a + t = c where a and c are rational. Then t = c − a which, by part a, is rational. Hence if a is rational and t is irrational, then c is irrational. Suppose that at = c where a and c are rational and a , 0. Then t = c/a ∈ Q. So if a ∈ Q and t ∈ I with a , 0, then at ∈ I (c) Not much√can be√ said about √ the product and sum of √ irrational √ numbers. For example, the sum 2 + 2 = 2 2 ∈ I by part b). But 2 + (− 2) = √ 0 ∈ Q. Similarly, √ √ √ 2 · (1/ √ 2) = 1. Note that 1/ 2 is irrational, for otherwise if 1/ 2 = c is rational, then 2 = 1/c and is also rational. So the √product √ irrational number can be √ of two 2, 3 and 6 are all irrational (emulate rational. On the other hand, it is known that √ √ √ √ the proof for 2). Since 6 = 2 3 it is also possible for the product of irrational numbers to be irrational. Exercise 1.4.2: Let A ⊆ R be nonempty and bounded above. Let s ∈ R have the property that for all n ∈ N, s + (1/n) is an upper bound for A but s − (1/n) is not an upper bound for A. Show that s = sup A. Solution: We first show that if x < s, then x is not an upper bound for A. Indeed, suppose x < s and pick n ∈ N such that 1/n < s − x. Observe that x < s − (1/n). Since s − (1/n) is not an upper bound for A there exists a ∈ A such that s − (1/n) < a. But then x < a as well, so x is not an upper bound. We conclude, therefore, that if x is an upper bound for A then s ≤ a. To show that s = sup A it remains to show that s is an upper bound for A. Indeed, suppose x > s and pick n ∈ N such that 1/n < x − s. Hence s + (1/n) < x. Now s + (1/n) is an upper bound for A and therefore x < A. We have therefore shown that if x > s then x < A. Equivalently, if x ∈ A then x ≤ s. Exercise 1.4.3: Show that ∩∞ n=1 (0, 1/n) = ∅. Math 401: Homework 2 Due September 12, 2016 Solutions Solution: We need show that 0 is a lower bound, and that if b is any other lower bound, then b ≤ 0. Clearly 0 is a lower bound since 1/n > 0 for every n ∈ N. Suppose b is any other lower bound. We cannot have b > 0, for otherwise (by Theorem 1.4.2) there exists n ∈ N such that 1/n < b and b is not a lower bound. Hence b ≤ 0 as required. Exercise 1.4.4: (W) (Hand this one in to David.) Let a < b be real numbers and let T = [a, b] ∩ Q. Show that sup T = b. Solution: We observe trivially that b is an upper bound for T . Thus, we need only show that if c is an upper bound for T , then b ≤ c. Proceeding via the contrapositive, suppose c < b; we will show that c is not an upper bound for T . Indeed, consider d = max(a, c). Since d < b, there is a rational number q ∈ (d, b). Since (d, b) ⊆ [c, d] we know that q ∈ T . Since c ≤ d < q, c is not an upper bound for T . Exercise 1.4.5: Use √ Exercise√1.4.1 to provide a proof of Corollary 1.4.4 by considering real numbers a − 2 and b − 2. Solution: Suppose a < √b. We wish √ to find an irrational number c with a < c < b. Consider the number r such that interval √ (a − 2, b − √ 2). By Theorem√1.4.3 we can find a rational √ a − 2 < r < b − 2. Hence a < r + 2 < b. Let c = r + 2. By exercise 1.4.2, c is the sum of a rational number and an irrational number, and is therefore irrational. Thus c satisfies the desired properties. Exercise Supplemental 1: Show that the sets [0, 1) and (0, 1) have the same cardinality. Solution: Let xn = 1/(n + 1). Define f : [0, 1) → (0, 1) by xn+1 f (x) = x1 x x = xn x=0 otherwise. To show that f is surjective consider x ∈ (0, 1). Then either x = xn for some n or not. If x , xn for any n, then (noting that x ∈ (0, 1) and is in the domain of f ) we have f (x) = x. Otherwise either x = xn for some n > 1, or x = x1 . If x = x1 , then f (0) = x. Otherwise, f (xn−1 ) = xn = x. We now show that f is injective. Let A = {xn : n ∈ N}, B = {0} and C = (0, 1) \ A. Suppose a, b ∈ A and f (a) = f (b). Then a = xn and b = xm for some n, m and f (a) = xn+1 = 1/(n + 2) and f (b) = xm+1 = 1/(m + 2). So n + 2 = m + 2 and n = m. That is, a = b. 2 Math 401: Homework 2 Due September 12, 2016 Solutions Suppose a, b ∈ B and f (a) = f (b). Then a, b = 0. So a = b. Suppose a, b ∈ C and f (a) = f (b). Then f (a) = a and f (b) = b. So a = f (a) = f (b) = b. We have now shown that if f (a) = f (b), and if a and b are both in A or B or C, then a = b. On the other hand, if a ∈ A and b ∈ B, then f (a) = xn for some n > 1 while f (b) = x1 . So a , b. If a ∈ A and b ∈ C then f (a) = xn for some n > 1 and f (b) = b. Since b ∈ C, b , xn for any n, so a , b. Finally, if a ∈ B and b ∈ C then f (a) = x1 and f (b) = b , x1 . 3