Download Earth Science Semester Exam Study Guide #1 Answer Section

Earth Science Semester Exam Study Guide #1
True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
____
1. Meteorology is the branch of Earth science that deals with the blanket of air that surrounds Earth.
____
2. In scientific notation, a number is expressed as a value between 10 and 100 multiplied by a power of
10.
____
3. An experiment is a suggested explanation for an observation.
____
4. he study of objects beyond Earth’s atmosphere is ecology.
____
5. Earth’s four main systems are independent of one another.
____
6. Earth’s core consists of an outer, liquid part and an inner, solid part.
____
7. Earth’s atmosphere contains about 78 percent carbon dioxide.
____
8. Scientific laws and theories cannot change.
____
9. About 97 percent of Earth’s water is salt water.
____ 10. Lines of latitude are parallel.
____ 11. The science of mapmaking is called cartography.
____ 12. The prime meridian represents 0° longitude.
____ 13. A contour line on a world map connects points of equal elevation.
____ 14. A map legend explains what the symbols on a map represent.
____ 15. The wavelength of an electromagnetic wave is the number of waves that pass a particular point each
second.
____ 16. Satellites in the Global Positioning System help users determine their exact weight.
____ 17. An atom that gains or loses an electron is a charged particle called a(n) isotope.
____ 18. Bases are solutions characterized by the formation of hydroxide ions (OH-).
____ 19. Most compounds have the same properties as the elements in them.
____ 20. Mineral crystals may begin to precipitate out of a solution that has become saturated.
____ 21. The most common minerals, feldspar and quartz, are carbonates.
____ 22. Gems are prized for their great availability and beauty.
____ 23. There are at least 3000 known minerals in Earth’s crust.
____ 24. Minerals form from cooled magma and from elements in gases.
____ 25. The most reliable way to identify a mineral is by using a combination of several tests.
____ 26. Trace elements in a mineral do not affect the color or the value of mineral.
____ 27. Magma is a slushy mix of molten rock, gases, and mineral crystals.
____ 28. Valuable ore deposits are often associated with igneous extrusions.
____ 29. Different minerals melt and crystallize at different temperatures.
____ 30. The continuous changing and reforming of rocks is called graded bedding.
____ 31. During physical weathering, minerals remain chemically unchanged.
____ 32. During sedimentary rock formation, cementation occurs before weathering.
____ 33. The porosity of sandstone allows it to hold oil, gas, and water.
____ 34. Landslides create sorted deposits when sediment moves downhill in a jumbled mass.
____ 35. Sedimentary rocks form from rock and mineral fragments, and metamorphic rocks form from
existing rock.
____ 36. To some extent, the density of rocks determines the effects that chemical weathering will have on
them.
____ 37. The parent bedrock determines what kinds of minerals a soil will contain.
____ 38. After weathering processes take place, mass movements may occur.
____ 39. Because a heavy saturation of water greatly increases the weight of soils, the force of friction is more
likely to pull the material downhill.
____ 40. When glaciers with embedded rocks move over bedrock valley walls, they grind out perpendicular
grooves and scratches.
____ 41. Both water velocity and volume increase during times of heavy precipitation.
____ 42. Lakes can be common in areas where limestone is the dominant bedrock.
____ 43. When a zone of saturation overlies an aquiclude and separates it from the water table below, it forms
a(n) perched water table.
____ 44. The most easily polluted groundwater reservoirs are water table confined aquifers.
____ 45. The depth of the water table in stream valleys is close to Earth’s surface.
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 46. Which of the following is NOT an activity usually performed by oceanographers?
a. studying the creatures that inhabit salty water
b. measuring physical and chemical properties of the oceans
c. studying the processes that cause the atmosphere to produce weather
d. examining the effects of human activities on Earth's saltwater bodies
____ 47. Which of these steps would be the first step in a scientific method?
a. Analyze the data and draw a conclusion.
b. Make a hypothesis.
c. Test the hypothesis by doing an experiment.
d. Identify the problem and determine what you want to know.
____ 48. What is the SI unit of mass?
a. kilogram
b. kilometer
c. newton
d. gram per cubic centimeter
____ 49. Which of the following conditions must apply if a scientific theory is to be valid?
a. The theory is inconsistent with observations.
b. The theory is the simplest explanation of observations.
c. The theory makes predictions that cannot be tested.
d. The theory is based on a single observation during one experiment.
____ 50. What is the longitude of the prime meridian?
a. 0°
c. 90° west
b. 90° east
d. 180°
____ 51. Which of the following is used extensively for navigation by airplanes and ships?
a. depression contour line
c. Topex/Poseidon satellite
b. Landsat satellite
d. Global Positioning System
____ 52. What is the latitude of the north pole?
a. 0° north
b. 90° north
c. 180° north
d. 360° north
____ 53. Each degree of latitude or longitude is divided into 60 smaller units called ____.
a. meridians
c. seconds
b. grids
d. minutes
____ 54. Which statement about lines of longitude is true?
a. They converge at the equator.
b. They converge at the poles.
c. They are parallel.
d. They locate positions in north and south directions.
____ 55. Into how many time zones is Earth divided?
a. 12
c. 24
b. 15
d. 360
____ 56. All flat maps distort either the shapes or the areas of landmasses because ____.
a. the boundaries of landmasses are not known with certainty
b. such large structures cannot be drawn accurately
c. lines of latitude are not perfectly parallel
d. Earth is a curved, three-dimensional object
____ 57. What is a graphic scale?
a. a statement that expresses distance, such as one centimeter equals one kilometer
b. a ratio that expresses distance, such as 1:50 000
c. a line broken into sections that represent units with each section representing a
distance on Earth’s surface
d. a diagram that shows the elevation of the hills and valleys of an area
____ 58. The nucleus of an atom is made up of ____.
a. electrons and neutrons
c. protons and electrons
b. protons, neutrons, and electrons
d. protons and neutrons
____ 59. Solutions characterized by the formation of hydroxide ions (OH-) are ____.
a. bases
b. solids
c. elements
d. acids
____ 60. A combination of two or more components that retain their identity is a(n) ____.
a. mixture
c. acid
b. compound
d. base
____ 61. Densely packed, ever-changing arrangements of atoms and molecules are ____.
a. solids
c. gases
b. liquids
d. plasma
____ 62. Which of the following changes of state releases thermal energy?
a. melting
c. condensation
b. sublimation
d. evaporation
____ 63. Granite is an example of a ____.
a. homogeneous mixture
b. solid solution
c. solution
d. heterogeneous mixture
____ 64. Glass is an example of ____.
a. a solid
b. a liquid
c. a gas
d. both a and b
____ 65. Tomatoes have a pH of 4. They are considered to be ____.
a. acidic
c. neutral
b. basic
d. both a and b
____ 66. The basic building blocks of matter are ____.
a. atoms
c. molecules
b. elements
d. compounds
____ 67. The nucleus of an atom is made up of ____.
a. electrons and neutrons
c. protons and electrons
b. protons, neutrons, and electrons
d. protons and neutrons
____ 68. Chemical behavior is determined by the number of electrons located in the ____.
a. innermost energy level
c. third energy level
b. second energy level
d. outermost energy level
____ 69. A combination of two or more components that retain their identity is a(n) ____.
a. mixture
c. acid
b. solution
d. base
____ 70. Which of the following changes of state releases thermal energy?
a. melting
c. condensation
b. sublimation
d. evaporation
____ 71. In how many physical states does matter exist in the universe?
a. two
c. four
b. three
d. five
____ 72. An atom in which the outermost energy level is more than half full tends to form which of the
following ions?
a. positive ions
c. both positive and negative ions
b. negative ions
d. neither positive nor negative ions
____ 73. Tomatoes have a pH of 4. They are considered to be ____.
a. acidic
c. neutral
b. basic
____ 74. Minerals always exist in a(n) ____ form.
a. liquid
b. gaseous
d. both acidic and basic
c. solid
d. organic
____ 75. The most abundant elements in Earth’s crust are ____.
a. aluminum and potassium
c. oxides and carbonates
b. halite and coal
d. oxygen and silicon
____ 76. Silver, gold, and copper have shiny surfaces and thus are said to have ____.
a. dull luster
c. waxy luster
b. metallic luster
d. nonmetallic luster
____ 77. Ores near Earth’s surface generally are obtained from ____.
a. waste-removal facilities
b. underground mines
c. open-pit mines
d. bodies of water with high concentrations of dissolved minerals
____ 78. A model that illustrates the predictable patterns of mineral formation from cooling magma is ____.
a. Bowen's reaction series
c. layered intrusion formation
b. crystal separation
d. mineral composition
____ 79. Intrusive igneous rocks form ____.
a. fine-grained rocks
b. when a molten mass of rocks cools quickly
c. on Earth's surface
d. coarse-grained rocks
____ 80. Rocks are formed when magma ____.
a. erodes
b. undergoes radioactive decay
c. crystallizes
d. weathers
____ 81. Igneous rocks that cool quickly on Earth’s surface are ____.
a. extrusive
c. metamorphic
b. intrusive
d. always magnetic
____ 82. Valuable ore deposits and gem crystals are often associated with ____.
a. oceans
c. thin crustal areas
b. oil deposits
d. igneous intrusions
____ 83. What type of sediment particles have worn surfaces and rounded corners?
a. sorted
c. clastic
b. unsorted
d. dissolved
____ 84. What type of bedding has the heaviest and coarsest material is on the bottom?
a. graded
c. cementation
b. clastic
d. metamorphic
____ 85. What results when rocks come in contact with molten rocks such as those in an igneous intrusion?
a. precipitation
c. contact metamorphism
b. regional
d. hydrothermal metamorphism
____ 86. The metamorphism of limestone results in the formation of ____.
a. quartzite
c. gneiss
b. marble
d. silver
____ 87. Most of the weathering of Cleopatra’s Needle is caused by ____.
a. hydrolysis
c. oxidation
b. chemical weathering
d. frost wedging
____ 88. In which of the following climates would chemical weathering most readily occur?
a. wet and warm
c. wet and cool
b. dry and warm
d. dry and cool
____ 89. Barrier islands are formed when ____.
a. the ocean floor is uplifted
b. the wind continuously blows sand out to sea
c. sand is repeatedly picked up, moved, and deposited by ocean currents
d. sand bars are worn away
____ 90. Which of the following has the potential for the most erosion?
a. water flowing across a flatland
b. wind blowing materials in the air, against the force of gravity
c. wind blowing materials down a slope
d. water flowing down a steep slope
____ 91. What is one source of organic matter in soil?
a. acid precipitation
c. weathered topsoil
b. dead fungi, bacteria, and protozoa
d. eroding bedrock
____ 92. Which of the following characteristics of water can be responsible for mechanical weathering?
a. Water flows downstream under gravity.
b. Water expands when it freezes.
c. Water combines with atmospheric gases to form acid rain.
d. Water reacts with and can dissolve many kinds of minerals.
____ 93. Which of the following statements is NOT true of soil?
a. It is a loose covering of broken rock particles and decaying organic matter.
b. There is one kind of soil in the United States.
c. Living organisms add nutrients to it.
d. It takes a long time to form.
____ 94. Which of the following could increase the rate of chemical weathering of a rock?
a. moving it to a location with few plants and animals
b. moving it to a drier climate
c. increasing its total surface area
d. moving it to a colder climate
____ 95. Which of the following happens when a river enters a large body of water?
a. The river water slows down and deposits large amounts of sediments.
b. The river water increases its speed and carries out gully erosion.
c. The river water flows over the delta, causing exfoliation.
d. The river water erodes the shoreline and deposits barrier islands.
____ 96. The color of a soil ____.
a. is a reliable indicator of its fertility
b. is always dark brown or black
c. is not dependent on the amount of humus
d. is determined by its composition and climate
____ 97. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the deposition of eroded materials in bodies of
____ 98.
____ 99.
____ 100.
____ 101.
____ 102.
____ 103.
____ 104.
____ 105.
____ 106.
____ 107.
water?
a. It improves the quality of ecosystems.
b. It limits the availability of water for hydroelectric energy.
c. It reduces water supplies for personal consumption.
d. It can restrict navigation through the water bodies.
Which of the following statements is NOT true of soils in sloped areas?
a. Smaller particles remain on the slopes, while coarser particles move downslope.
b. Soils on slopes tend to be infertile.
c. Valley soils are usually thick.
d. South-facing slopes have somewhat thicker soils than slopes facing other
directions.
There can be no stream erosion or glacial erosion without ____.
a. gravity
c. wind
b. hydrolysis
d. deposition
Which of the following statements is NOT true about the factors affecting mass movement?
a. Sudden mass movements are usually started by triggers such as earthquakes.
b. After a heavy rain, sediment moves along with the water.
c. A small amount of water may make the slope more stable.
d. An important force that determines a material’s resistance to downhill movement
is friction.
Which of the following statements is true about wind transport?
a. Wind, like water, can only move materials downhill.
b. Wind and water have the same relative ability to erode materials.
c. Wind transport and erosion primarily occur in areas with little vegetative cover.
d. Generally, wind can carry particles as large as those transported by moving water.
Dune formation will take place when ____.
a. high winds, sand, and no vegetation are present
b. sand, high winds, and vegetation are present
c. only with quartz sand, high winds, and vegetation are present
d. high winds are available
Where there is limited sand available and strong prevailing winds, ____.
a. longitudinal dunes are formed
c. no dune formation can take place
b. parabolic dunes form
d. transverse dunes are formed
A ridge consisting of mixed debris deposited by a glacier is a(n) ____.
a. outwash plain
c. moraine
b. kettle
d. esker
Which of the following is NOT an indication that creep has occurred?
a. Parallel grooves form in bedrock.
c. Trees become bent.
b. Vertical structures become tilted.
d. Underground pipelines break.
Which of the following causes deflation?
a. glacial erosion
c. wind deposition
b. deposition by meltwaters
d. wind erosion
When two cirques on opposite sides of a valley meet, they form a(n) ____.
a. arête
c. moraine
b. drumlin
d. avalanche
____ 108. Potholes form in the stream bottom when ____.
a. the water dissolves the bedrock
b. turbulence causes pebbles to swirl
c. an increase in suspended load occurs
d. the stream’s carrying capacity decreases
____ 109. The carrying capacity of a stream is its ____.
a. ability to transport sediment
c. volume of flow
b. rate of runoff entering the channel
d. stream bank height
____ 110. Streams lengthen through ____.
a. eutrophication
b. suspension
c. headward erosion
d. upstream flooding
____ 111. V-shaped channels like the Grand Canyon are formed by ____.
a. a sudden decrease in stream gradient
c. streams overflowing their banks
b. stream downcutting
d. streams capturing another stream
____ 112. Which of the following statements is NOT true about wetlands?
a. Wetlands result from the eutrophication of a lake.
b. Lack of oxygen and lack of minerals create an atmosphere that is inhospitable to
many plants.
c. Freshwater marshes often form along the stream’s mouth and in areas with deltas.
d. Wetlands only exist in freshwater areas.
____ 113. Much of the water that falls on the ground as precipitation ____.
a. enters the ground through the process of infiltration
b. evaporates back into the atmosphere
c. becomes runoff and finds its way back to the ocean
d. forms small pools
____ 114. What is responsible for the production of most ions in groundwater?
a. precipitation of calcium carbonate
b. groundwater surges
c. dissolution of carbonic acid and calcium carbonate
d. geyserite reacting with carbonic acid
____ 115. What two materials are necessary for the formation of most caves?
a. water and carbon dioxide
c. soft water and travertine
b. carbonic acid and groundwater
d. acidic groundwater and limestone
____ 116. A(n) ____ thunderstorm forms because of unequal heating of Earth’s surface within one air mass.
a. frontal mass
c. air mass
b. cold front
d. air pressure
____ 117. The rising, moist updrafts and the falling, cool downdrafts form a convection cell that produces the
____ associated with thunderstorms.
a. temperatures
c. humidity
b. thunder
d. gusty surface winds
____ 118. An extended period of well-below-normal rainfall is a ____.
a. flood
c. heat wave
b. drought
d. tropical cyclone
Completion
Complete each sentence or statement.
119. A basic fact that describes the behavior of a natural phenomenon is called a(n)
_________________________.
120. A base can ____________________ an acid by combining with hydrogen ions of the acid to form
water.
121. The corona around the Sun is formed from ____________________.
122. Because their hydrogen bonds continually break and reform, ____________________ take the shape
of the container they are in.
123. The law of the conservation of energy is also called the first law of _________________________.
124. A(n) _________________________ is the attraction of two atoms for a shared pair of electrons that
holds the atoms together.
125. ____________________ are solutions characterized by the formation of hydroxide ions (OH–).
126. ____________________ make up the most common mineral group.
127. Geologists commonly use _________________________ as a measure of density for accurate
identification of a mineral.
128. _________________________ are characteristic of sediments transported by water and wind.
129. The primary feature of sedimentary rocks is horizontal layering called ____________________.
130. A major problem in farming areas is _________________________, which is the deepening and
widening of rill channels.
131. A(n) _________________________ is a distinct layer, or zone, within a soil profile.
132. The process by which rocks on or near Earth’s surface break down and change is
____________________.
133. Water that flows downslope along Earth’s surface is called ____________________.
134. Any high land area that separates one watershed from another is termed a(n)
____________________.
135. A stream’s ____________________ consists of all sand, pebbles, and cobbles that the stream’s
water can roll or push along the bed of the stream.
136. Flowing surface water carves a(n) _________________________, or a narrow pathway, into rock.
137. Through the process of ____________________, most precipitation that falls on land becomes
groundwater.
138. The percentage of pore space, or ____________________, of sand is about 30 percent.
139. The ______________________________ is an area below Earth’s surface that is completely
saturated with water.
140. Materials, such as sand, with large, connected pores have a high ____________________.
141. Many ____________________ are three-dimensional underground passages, shafts, and chambers
that stretch for many kilometers.
142. Calcium carbonate deposits that hang from the ceiling of a cave are called ____________________.
143. Dripstone formations are composed of ____________________, which is a type of limestone.
144. The localized natural discharges of groundwater are called ____________________.
Earth Science Semester Exam Study Guide #1
Answer Section
MODIFIED TRUE/FALSE
1. ANS: T
OBJ: 1-1a
2. ANS: F, 1 and 10
PTS: 1
DIF:
PTS: 1
DIF: B
3. ANS: F, hypothesis
OBJ: 1-2d
STA: PA7
PTS: 1
DIF: B
4. ANS: F, astronomy
OBJ: 1-2a
STA: PA2 | PA3
PTS: 1
DIF: B
5. ANS: F, interact with
OBJ: 1-1a
STA: PA2
PTS:
6. ANS:
OBJ:
7. ANS:
OBJ: 1-1b
PTS: 1
STA: ES17 | EN28
DIF: B
OBJ: 1-1b
STA: ES17 | EN28
1
DIF: B
T
1-1a
STA: PA2
T
2-1a
T
2-1a
T
2-1a
F, topographic
OBJ: 1-3b
PTS: 1
DIF:
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
B
1
DIF: B
T
2-2c
F, frequency
OBJ: 2-2b
PTS: 1
DIF:
B
1
T
1-1a
F, nitrogen
PTS: 1
8. ANS: F, can
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
PTS:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
PTS:
14. ANS:
OBJ:
15. ANS:
B
STA: PA2
DIF: B
STA: PA2
DIF: B
PTS: 1
16. ANS: F, position
DIF: B
OBJ: 2-3a
STA: ES25
PTS: 1
17. ANS: F, ion
DIF: B
OBJ: 2-3c
STA: ES15 | G15
PTS:
18. ANS:
OBJ:
19. ANS:
1
DIF: B
T
3-2c
F, different properties from
PTS:
20. ANS:
OBJ:
21. ANS:
1
T
4-1b
F, silicates
OBJ: 3-2a
PTS: 1
DIF:
B
OBJ: 3-2a
PTS: 1
STA: ES17 | G27 | G28
DIF:
B
PTS: 1
22. ANS: F, rarity
DIF: B
STA: G29 | EN17 | G17
PTS:
23. ANS:
OBJ:
24. ANS:
1
T
4-1c
F, solutions
DIF: B
PTS:
25. ANS:
OBJ:
26. ANS:
1
DIF: B
OBJ: 4-1b
T
PTS: 1
4-2b
STA: G28 | PA3 | G29
F, can affect
STA: ES17 | G27 | G28
DIF: B
PTS:
27. ANS:
OBJ:
28. ANS:
1
DIF: B
OBJ: 4-2b
T
PTS: 1
5-1b
STA: G17 | G27 | G31
F, intrusions
STA: G28 | PA3 | G29
DIF: B
PTS:
29. ANS:
OBJ:
30. ANS:
1
DIF: B
OBJ: 5-2c
T
PTS: 1
5-1c
STA: G22 | G27 | G31
F, the rock cycle
STA: G15
DIF: B
PTS:
31. ANS:
OBJ:
32. ANS:
1
T
6-1a
F, after
DIF: B
OBJ: 6-3c
PTS: 1
STA: G22 | G30 | G31
STA: G22 | G31 | G39
DIF: B
PTS:
33. ANS:
OBJ:
34. ANS:
1
T
6-2a
F, unsorted
DIF: B
OBJ: 6-1a
PTS: 1
STA: G22 | G31 | G34
STA: G22 | G30 | G31
DIF: B
PTS:
35. ANS:
OBJ:
36. ANS:
1
DIF: B
OBJ: 6-1a
T
PTS: 1
6-3d
STA: G22 | G27 | ES17
F, composition
STA: G22 | G30 | G31
DIF: B
DIF: B
OBJ: 4-1c
OBJ: 4-2c
PTS: 1
STA: G29 | EN17 | G17
STA: G15
DIF: B
PTS:
37. ANS:
OBJ:
38. ANS:
OBJ:
39. ANS:
1
T
7-3a
T
8-1a
F, gravity
DIF: B
PTS: 1
40. ANS: F, parallel
DIF: B
OBJ: 8-1a
1
DIF: B
T
9-1c
T
9-3a
T
10-3a
F, unconfined
PTS:
41. ANS:
OBJ:
42. ANS:
OBJ:
43. ANS:
OBJ:
44. ANS:
PTS: 1
45. ANS: T
OBJ: 10-1a
OBJ: 7-1b
PTS: 1
DIF:
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
B
OBJ: 8-3c
PTS: 1
DIF:
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
B
DIF: B
OBJ: 10-3c
PTS: 1
STA: AQ27
DIF: B
PTS: 1
DIF: B
OBJ: 1-1a
PTS: 1
DIF: B
OBJ: 1-2a
PTS: 1
DIF: B
OBJ: 1-2c
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: B
DIF: B
DIF: B
OBJ: 1-3b
OBJ: 2-1a
OBJ: 2-3c
PTS:
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OBJ:
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OBJ:
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OBJ:
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MULTIPLE CHOICE
46. ANS:
STA:
47. ANS:
STA:
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STA:
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54. ANS:
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57. ANS:
58. ANS:
59. ANS:
60. ANS:
61. ANS:
STA:
C
PA2
D
PA2 | PA3
A
PA7
B
A
D
ES15 | G15
B
D
B
C
D
C
D
A
A
B
ES25 | EN17
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
2-1a
2-1a
2-1a
2-1b
2-2a
2-2c
3-1a
3-2c
3-2c
3-3a
62. ANS:
STA:
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64. ANS:
STA:
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85. ANS:
STA:
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STA:
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89. ANS:
90. ANS:
91. ANS:
92. ANS:
C
PTS:
ES25
D
PTS:
D
PTS:
ES25 | EN17
A
PTS:
A
PTS:
D
PTS:
D
PTS:
A
PTS:
C
PTS:
ES25
C
PTS:
ES25 | EN17
B
PTS:
A
PTS:
C
PTS:
G28
D
PTS:
G29 | EN17 | G17
B
PTS:
PA2 | PA3 | PA7
C
PTS:
G28 | PA3 | G29
A
PTS:
G22 | G27 | G31
D
PTS:
G30 | G31 | G37
C
PTS:
G30 | G31 | G37
A
PTS:
G30 | G31 | G37
D
PTS:
G22 | G27 | G31
C
PTS:
G22 | G31 | G34
A
PTS:
G30 | G34 | G35
C
PTS:
G22 | G27 | G31
B
PTS:
G22 | G31 | G39
B
PTS:
A
PTS:
C
PTS:
D
PTS:
B
PTS:
B
PTS:
1
DIF: B
OBJ: 3-3c
1
1
DIF: A
DIF: A
OBJ: 3-2c
OBJ: 3-3a
1
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
1
DIF: B
OBJ: 3-3a
1
1
1
DIF: B
DIF: B
DIF: B
OBJ: 3-2b
OBJ: 3-2c
OBJ: 4-1a
1
DIF: B
OBJ: 4-1c
1
DIF: B
OBJ: 4-2a
1
DIF: B
OBJ: 4-2b
1
DIF: B
OBJ: 5-1c
1
DIF: B
OBJ: 5-1a
1
DIF: B
OBJ: 5-1a
1
DIF: B
OBJ: 5-1a
1
DIF: B
OBJ: 5-1c
1
DIF: B
OBJ: 6-1b
1
DIF: B
OBJ: 6-1c
1
DIF: B
OBJ: 6-3a
1
DIF: B
OBJ: 6-3c
1
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
A
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
3-2c
3-1a
3-1a
3-1b
3-2c
3-3c
7-1b
7-1b
7-2a
7-2b
7-3b
7-1b
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
STA:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
STA:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
B
C
A
D
A
A
A
B
C
B
A
C
A
D
A
B
A
ES17
C
B
D
A
C
ES17
D
C
D
B
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
7-3c
7-1b
7-2b
7-3c
7-2a
7-3c
7-2b
8-1a
8-2a
8-2c
8-2c
8-3d
8-1a
8-2b
8-3c
9-2a
9-1b
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
B
B
B
B
B
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
9-2b
9-2a
9-3a
10-1a
10-2a
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
B
B
B
B
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
10-2b
13-1b
13-1c
13-4a
COMPLETION
119. ANS: scientific law
PTS: 1
120. ANS: neutralize
DIF: B
OBJ: 1-3b
PTS: 1
121. ANS: plasma
DIF: B
OBJ: 3-2c
PTS: 1
122. ANS: liquids
DIF: B
OBJ: 3-3a
STA: ES25 | EN17
PTS: 1
DIF: B
123. ANS: thermodynamics
OBJ: 3-3b
STA: ES25
PTS: 1
DIF: B
124. ANS: covalent bond
OBJ: 3-3c
STA: ES25
PTS: 1
125. ANS: Bases
DIF: B
OBJ: 3-2b
PTS: 1
126. ANS: Silicates
DIF: B
OBJ: 3-2c
PTS: 1
DIF: B
127. ANS: specific gravity
OBJ: 4-1c
STA: G29 | EN17 | G17
PTS: 1
DIF: B
128. ANS: Sorted deposits
OBJ: 4-2a
STA: PA2 | PA3 | PA7
PTS: 1
129. ANS: bedding
DIF: B
OBJ: 6-1a
STA: G22 | G30 | G31
PTS: 1
DIF: B
130. ANS: gully erosion
OBJ: 6-1c
STA: G30 | G34 | G35
PTS: 1
DIF: B
131. ANS: soil horizon
OBJ: 7-2a
PTS: 1
132. ANS: weathering
DIF: B
OBJ: 7-3c
PTS: 1
133. ANS: runoff
DIF: B
OBJ: 7-1a
PTS: 1
134. ANS: divide
DIF: B
OBJ: 9-1a
PTS: 1
135. ANS: bed load
DIF: B
OBJ: 9-1a
PTS: 1
DIF: B
136. ANS: stream channel
OBJ: 9-1b
PTS: 1
137. ANS: infiltration
DIF: B
OBJ: 9-2a
PTS: 1
138. ANS: porosity
DIF: B
OBJ: 10-1a
PTS: 1
DIF: B
139. ANS: zone of saturation
OBJ: 10-1a
PTS: 1
DIF: B
140. ANS: permeability
OBJ: 10-1a
STA: G41
STA: ES17
PTS: 1
141. ANS: caves
DIF: B
OBJ: 10-1a
PTS: 1
142. ANS: stalactites
DIF: B
OBJ: 10-2b
PTS: 1
143. ANS: travertine
DIF: B
OBJ: 10-2b
PTS: 1
144. ANS: springs
DIF: B
OBJ: 10-2b
PTS: 1
DIF: B
OBJ: 10-3a