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Назва наукового напрямку (модуля): Семестр: 12 Obstetrics and Gynecology (part 1) Опис: 6 course, 12 term Перелік питань: 1. A. B. C. D. * E. 2. A. B. * C. D. E. 3. A. B. * C. D. E. 4. A. B. C. D. * E. 5. A. B. * C. D. E. 6. A. B. C. D. E. * 7. A. B. C. * D. What is determined by the first Leopold maneuver in breech presentation? position of fetus; the lie and position of fetus; presenting part of fetus; head of the fetus; breech end of fetus. What is the first moment of biomehanism of labor in breech presentations? flexion of head; internal rotation of breech; flexion of trunk; internal rotation of shoulders and external rotation of trunk; internal rotation of head. What term of pregnancy is possible to conduct the prophylactic rotation of fetus on a head in breech presentations? in 28-32 weeks; in 34-36 weeks; in 36-38 weeks; in 32-38 weeks; without limitation of term. What is contraindication for the external rotation of fetus in breech presentations? early gestosis; contracted pelvis I degree; kidney disease of pregnant woman; scar on the uterus; all of the above Which aid is given in the labor at frank breech presentation? classic manual aid; Tsovianov’ I manual aid; caesarean section; perineum protective maneuvers; the Muller’ maneuver is used. What the aim of the Tsovyanov’ manual aid at frank breech presentation consists in? in providing of slow and gradual advancement of fetus; in perineum protection from injures; in the safe delivery of shoulders of fetus; in the safe delivery of fetal head; in the saving of correct fetal attitude. What is the aim of the classic manual aid? perineum protective maneuvers from injures; providing of slow and gradual advancement of fetus; delivery of the fetal arms and head; delivery of fetal breech; E. 8. A. B. * C. D. E. 9. A. B. C. D. E. * 10. A. B. * C. D. E. 11. A. B. C. D. E. * 12. A. B. C. D. E. * 13. A. B. C. D. * E. 14. A. B. C. * D. E. saving of correct fetal attitude. How often the breech presentations are there? in 10% in 3-4% in 1-2% in 12-14% in 6-8% To the reasons, which caused the breech presentations belong all, except for: polyhydramnion olighydramnion anomalies of development of uterus the decreased uterine tonus fetal hypoxia By the third Leopold’ maneuver in breech presentations is palpated: the posterior of fetus the breech of the fetus head of the fetus the level of uterine fundus position of fetus By the second Leopold’ maneuver in breech presentations is palpated: fetal extremities breech of fetus head of fetus legs and buttocks of the fetus position of fetus At ІІ position of breech presentation the fetal heart is listened at: on the left at the level of umbilicus right side below than umbilicus on the left below than umbilicus on the left higher than umbilicus right side higher than umbilicus At the internal obstetric examination the doctor palpates above the pelvic inlet only the breech of fetus. What is the type of breech presentation? complete breech; knee; incomplete breech frank breech; transversal. During the labor at internal obstetric examination the doctor palpates above the pelvic inlet only one foot of the fetus. What is the type of breech presentation? complete breech; knee; incomplete footling frank breech; complete footling. 15. A. * B. C. D. E. 16. A. B. * C. D. E. 17. A. * B. C. D. E. 18. A. B. C. D. * E. 19. A. B. * C. D. E. 20. A. B. * C. D. E. 21. A. B. C. D. * E. 22. A. * B. What is the circumference of breech with legs in frank breech presentation? 32 cm 34 cm 36 cm 38 cm 40 cm What is the circumference of breech in complete breech presentation? 32 cm 34 cm 36 cm 38 cm 40 cm What complications occur in the first stage of labor in breech presentation more frequent? preterm rupture of membrane preeclampsia bleeding arrested fetal shoulders strong uterine contractions Which cervical dilation indicates 6 cm contractile ring station above the symphysis? 2 cm 3 cm 4 cm 6 cm 5 cm What is the reason of the early gash of amniotic fluid in breech presentation? the large presenting part absence of the girdle of contact lost tonus of lower segment the abnormal tonus of uterus arrested fetal shoulders During the labor in breech presentation all complications are possible, except for: fetal hypoxia deflexed presentation early gash of amniotic fluid weakness of uterine contractions arrested fetal shoulders What is the third moment of biomehanizm of labor in breech presentation? flexion of head; internal rotation of breech; flexion of trunk; internal rotation of shoulders and external rotation of trunk; internal rotation of head. What is the last moment of biomehanizm of labor in breech presentation? flexion of head; internal rotation of breech; C. D. E. 23. A. B. C. D. * E. 24. A. * B. C. D. E. 25. A. B. C. * D. E. 26. A. B. * C. D. E. 27. A. B. * C. D. E. 28. A. B. C. * D. E. 29. A. B. C. D. * E. flexion of trunk; internal rotation of head. internal rotation of shoulders and external rotation of trunk; In relation to labor in frank breech presentation all assertions are correct, except for: the legs of fetus lies along a trunk the fetal arms are crossed on a chest circumference of the fetal thorax together with arms and legs is more than head labor in frank breech presentation is more favourable, than in cephalic manual aid by Tsov’yanov is given All of the below are indications for cesarean section in breech presentation EXEPT: Probable fetal weight less 3000 g Breech presentation of the first fetus in multiple pregnancy Breech presentation and infertility Foot link presentation Probable fetal weight more 3700g What is the aim of the Moriso-Leuvret maneuver? the delivery of the fetal breech the more rapid rotation of fetus maneuver helps to flex of the fetal head delivery of the fetal shoulders acceleration of labor of fetus What is the first moment of classic manual aid? the transferring of the anterior arm in the areas of sacrum delivery of posterior arm delivery of anterior arm delivery of head of fetus delivery of breech What is the feature of the first moment of classic manual aid? an obstetrician always delivers the anterior arm of fetus an obstetrician always delivers the posterior arm of fetus an obstetrician delivers the head of fetus, flexing it an obstetrician delivers the head of fetus, deflexing it an obstetrician helps for labor of breech What is the feature of the IV moment of classic manual aid? an obstetrician always delivers the posterior arm of fetus an obstetrician always delivers the anterior arm of fetus an obstetrician delivers the head of fetus, flexing it an obstetrician delivers the head of fetus, deflexing it an obstetrician helps for labor of breech What the purpose of the manual aid by Tsovianov’II method in footling presentation consists in? in perineum protective maneuvers from injuring; in providing of slow and gradual advancement of fetus; in delivery of shoulders of fetus; to transform the footling presentation to the incomplete breech; in saving of correct fetal attitude. 30. A. * B. C. D. E. 31. A. * B. C. D. E. 32. A. * B. C. D. E. 33. A. B. C. * D. E. 34. A. B. * C. D. E. 35. A. * B. C. D. E. 36. A. B. C. D. * E. 37. A. * Which type of presentation appear as a result of correct applying of the Tsov”yanov’ method in footling presentation? incomplete breech frank incomplete footling complete footling complete breech Which method of delivery in breech presentations is the best for minimizing of the infant mortality? cesarean section obstetric forceps Tsovyanov’ method classic manual aid breech extraction What the type of presentation is if the fetal buttocks are palpable: Frank breech presentation; Complete breech; Incomplete breech presentation; Footling ; Kneeling presentation. What the estimated weight of the fetus in breech presentation in which fetus considered to be large? 2500 g; 3000 g; 3700 g and more; 4000 g. 3800 g What type of the manual aids need the patients with a footling presentation? Manual aid by Tsovyanov I; Manual aid by Tsovyanov II; Classic manual aid; Breech extraction. All of the above What type of the manual aids need the patients with a frank breech presentation? Manual aid by Tsovyanov I. Manual aid by Tsovyanov II; Classic manual aid; Breech extraction. All of the above All of the following are the indications to the cesarean section, except: Breech presentation and the fetal weight 3800 g Breech presentation and any degree of contracted pelvis Breech presentation and uterine dysfunction Sinciput vertex presentation and probable fetal weight 3000g Breech presentation and fetal distress All of the following are the indications to the breech extraction, except: Breech presentation and the fetal weight 3800 g B. C. D. E. 38. A. B. * C. D. E. 39. A. * B. C. D. E. 40. A. B. * C. D. E. 41. A. B. C. D. * E. 42. A. B. C. * D. E. 43. A. B. C. D. E. * 44. A. B. * Breech presentation and maternal preeclampsia severe degree Breech presentation and uterine dysfunction Breech presentation and maternal heart or respiratory diseases Breech presentation and fetal distress All of the following are the conditions to the breech extraction, except: complete dilation of cervix intact amniotic membrane the normal fetopelvic proportions the rupture of membranes adequate anesthesia. The contraindication to the breech extraction is: fetopelvic disproportion fetal hypoxia the rupture of membranes breech presentation and maternal preeclampsia breech presentation and uterine dysfunction What is the presentation when the fetal neck is extended and the back and occiput are in contact? Vertex anterior Face Brow Sinciput Vertex posterior What is the presentation when the fetal head is partially deflexed and a large anterior fontanel is presenting? Occipital Face Brow Sinciput vertex Vertex posterior What is the circumference of the large segment of the fetal head in the face posterior presentation? 34 cm. 36 cm 32 cm 38 cm 41 cm Spontaneous vaginal delivery is possible in all types of presentations EXCEPT ? Occipital Anterior Face Vertex Occipital Posterior Brow During which cardinal movement of labor is the face linear of the fetal head is located in oblique diameter of the pelvic inlet? Internal rotation Extension C. D. E. 45. A. B. C. D. * E. 46. A. * B. C. D. E. 47. A. B. * C. D. E. 48. A. B. C. D. * E. 49. A. B. C. D. E. * 50. A. B. * C. D. E. 51. A. B. * C. D. External rotation Expulsion Flexion The base of the os hyoideus is brought into contact with the inferior margin of the symphysis during which cardinal movement of labor in fase presentation ? Extension Expulsion Descent Flexion Internal rotation of the fetal head Cesarean section is performed in all below situations EXCEPT ? Sinciput vertex presentation Face auterior presentation Brow presentation Oblique lie Transverse lie What is the presentation when the fetal head is extended and a chin is presenting? Vertex Anterior Face Brow Sinciput Vertex posterior What is the first moment in the biomechanism of labor in the face presentation? Fetal head flexion Additional flexion of the fetal head Internal rotation of the fetal head Fetal head extension External rotation of the fetal head and external rotation of the fetal body What is the circumference of the large segment of the fetal head in the brow presentation? 32 cm. 34 cm 36 cm 28 cm 39-41 cm In which plane of true pelvis internal rotation of the fetal head in the occipital presentation is finished? Pelvic inlet Pelvic outlet Plane of the greatest diameter Plane of the least diameter Correct answer is absent What is edematous swelling of the fetal scalp during labor? Molding Caput succedaneum Subdural hematoma Erythema nodusum E. 52. A. B. C. D. E. * 53. A. B. C. * D. E. 54. A. B. C. * D. E. 55. A. B. * C. D. E. 56. A. * B. C. D. E. 57. A. B. C. * D. E. 58. A. B. C. D. * E. Epidural hematoma What are the reasons of deflexed presentation: contracted pelvis relaxation of perineum mussels small or large sizes of fetus head thyroids tumor of fetus all answers are correct How can we diagnose the brow presentation: Ultrasound examination Leopold’ manuvers Vaginal examination X-ray examination Pelvic examination During vaginal examination fetal chin and nose was diagnosed. What is the presentation? deflexed vertex brow face anterior variety of vertex presentation posterior variety of vertex presentation During vaginal examination large fontanel, glabella of the fetus was palpated. What is the fetal presentation? deflexed vertex brow face anterior variety of vertex presentation postirior variety of vertex presentation During vaginal examination large fontanel, which is located below small fontanel was palpated. What is the type of presentation? sinciput vertex brow face anterior variety of occiput presentation posterior variety of occiput presentation The fetal head is delivered with its vertical size. What is the presentation? deflexed vertex brow face anterior variety of vertex presentation posterior variety of vertex presentation What is the management of delivery in case of sinciput vertex presentation? caesarian section vacuum extraction fetus destroying operation vaginal delivery Poro’ section 59. A. B. C. * D. E. 60. A. B. * C. D. E. 61. A. B. C. * D. E. 62. A. B. C. D. * E. 63. A. * B. C. D. E. 64. A. * B. C. D. E. 65. A. B. C. * D. E. 66. A. * The characteristics of caput succedenum include all of the following except: Crosses midline Crosses the suture line It does not disappear within 2-3 days It is a diffuse edematous swelling of the soft tissues of the scalp none During vaginal examination the leading point was midline of the frontal suture. What is the presentation? deflexed vertex brow face anterior variety of vertex presentation postirior variety of vertex presentation What size of obstetvic conjugate indicate true pelvic contraction? <10 cm <9 cm <11 cm <12 cm <13 cm What is the diagonal conjugate in women with normal pelvis? 8.0 cm 9.5 cm 11.5 cm 13.0 cm 15 cm What is the true conjugate in women with diagonal conjugate 13 cm? 11 cm 9.0 cm 12.0 cm 10.0 cm 15 cm What is the true conjugate in women with external conjugate 20 cm? 11 cm 9.0 cm 12.0 cm 10.0 cm 15 cm What is the average biparietal diameter of term infants? 8.5 cm 9.0 cm 9.5 cm 10.0 cm 11.0 cm The anatomically contracted pelvis is associated with: true conjugate 9 cm B. C. D. E. 67. A. B. C. D. E. * 68. A. B. C. D. E. * 69. A. B. * C. D. E. 70. A. B. C. * D. E. 71. A. * B. C. D. E. 72. A. B. C. D. * E. 73. A. B. * C. D. internal conjugate 11.5 cm external conjugate 20.5 cm diagonal conjugate 13.5 cm fetopelvic disproportion The clinically contracted pelvis is associated with: true conjugate 9 cm true conjugate 11.5 cm true conjugate 12.5 cm true conjugate 13.5 cm fetopelvic disproportion In a nullipara at term the diagonal conjugate is10.5 cm. What is true from the listed below? The pelvis is contracted. Oxytocin is contraindicate. Cesarean section is probably necessary. Fetaopelvic disproportion is common in labor Al of the above is true What is the main cause of fetopelvic disproportion? rachitis fetal macrosomia preterm labor twins fetal distress What may be a result of excessive compression of birth canal’ soft tissues? uterine rupture cervical rupture vesicovaginal fistules perineal rupture Vaginal rupture What may be a result of labor in patients with fetopelvic disproportion? uterine rupture cervical rupture vesicovaginal fistules perineal rupture Vaginal rupture The pathological contractile ring is a sign of: anatomically contracted pelvis fetal distress fetal macrosomia danger of uterine rupture all of above What is the management in the case of the clinically contracted pelvis? normal vaginal delivery cesarean section obstetrical version fetal destroying operation E. 74. A. * B. C. D. E. 75. A. B. C. D. E. * 76. A. B. * C. D. E. 77. A. B. C. * D. E. 78. A. B. C. D. * E. 79. A. B. C. * D. E. 80. A. * B. C. D. E. 81. A. External cephalic version The pelvic formula of the patient is 25 – 28 – 31 – 20 cm. What is the pelvic type? normal pelvis generally contracted pelvis flat pelvis flat rachitic pelvis Transverse contracted flat pelvis The pelvic sizes of the patient is 23 – 26 – 29 – 17 cm. What is the pelvic type? normal pelvis transverse contracted pelvis flat pelvis flat rachitic pelvis generally contracted pelvis The pelvic formula of the patient is 23 – 26 – 29 – 18 cm. What is the pelvic type? normal pelvis generally contracted pelvis flat pelvis flat rachitic pelvis transverse contracted pelvis The pelvic formula of the patient is 25 – 28 – 31 – 18 cm. What is the pelvic type? normal pelvis generally contracted pelvis simple flat pelvis flat rachitic pelvis transverse contracted pelvis The pelvic formula of the patient is 26 – 26 – 31 – 17 cm. What is the pelvic type? normal pelvis generally contracted pelvis flat pelvis flat rachitic pelvis transverse contracted flat pelvis What is the difference between the diagonal conjugate and the obstetrical conjugate? 1 to 2 cm longer 3 to 4 cm longer 1 to 2 cm shorter both the same size 3 to 4 cm shorter Generally contracted pelvis is characterized by: diminution of all pelvic diameters diminution of all pelvic anteroposterior diameters diminution of all pelvic transversal diameters diminution of true conjugate and increasing of the pelvic outlet combination of generally contracted and flat pelvis Simple flat pelvis is characterized by: diminution of all pelvic diameters B. * C. D. E. 82. A. B. C. D. * E. 83. A. * B. C. D. E. 84. A. B. C. * D. E. 85. A. * B. C. D. E. 86. A. B. * C. D. E. 87. A. B. * C. D. E. 88. A. B. C. * D. diminution of all pelvic anteroposterior diameters diminution of all pelvic transversal diameters diminution of true conjugate and increasing of the pelvic outlet combination of generally contracted and flat pelvis Flat rachitic pelvis is characterized by: diminution of all pelvic diameters diminution of all pelvic anteroposterior diameters diminution of all pelvic transversal diameters diminution of true conjugate and increasing of the pelvic outlet combination of generally contracted and flat pelvis What is the cause of fetopelvic disproportion? face presentation anterior face presentation posterior pretrm labor twins fetal distress Transversally contracted pelvis is characterized by: diminution of all pelvic diameters diminution of all pelvic anteroposterior diameters diminution of all pelvic transversal diameters diminution of true conjugate and increasing of the pelvic outlet combination of generally contracted and flat pelvis The true conjugate of the flat pelvis is 9.5 cm. What is the degree of pelvic contraction? I degree II degree III degree IV degree V degree The true conjugate of the flat pelvis is 8.5 cm. What is the degree of pelvic contraction? I degree II degree III degree IV degree V degree The true conjugate of the flat pelvis is 8.0 cm. What is the degree of pelvic contraction? I degree II degree III degree IV degree V degree The true conjugate of the generally contracted pelvis is 7.0 cm. What is the degree of pelvic contraction? I degree II degree III degree IV degree E. 89. A. B. C. * D. E. 90. A. B. C. D. * E. 91. A. * B. C. D. E. 92. A. B. C. * D. E. 93. A. B. C. * D. E. 94. A. B. * C. D. E. 95. A. B. * C. D. E. 96. A. * V degree The true conjugate of the generally contracted pelvis is 6.5 cm. What is the degree of pelvic contraction? I degree II degree III degree IV degree V degree The true conjugate of the generally contracted pelvis is 5.0 cm. What is the degree of pelvic Icontraction? degree II degree III degree IV degree V degree What type of pelvis does belong to rare occurred? osteomalatic pelvis generally contracted pelvis flat pelvis flat rachitic pelvis generally contracted pelvis What management is possible for the patients with I degree of pelvic contraction? vaginal delivery cesarean section only vaginal delivery or cesarean section fetal destroying operation Labor preparing operation What management is possible for the patients with II degree contracted pelvis? vaginal delivery cesarean section only vaginal delivery or cesarean section fetal destroying operation Labor preparing operation What management is possible for the patients with III degree contracted pelvis? vaginal delivery cesarean section only vaginal delivery or cesarean section fetal destroying operation Labor preparing operation What management is possible for the patients with IV degree contracted pelvis? vaginal delivery cesarean section only vaginal delivery or cesarean section fetal destroying operation correct answer is absent How is macrosomia defined? Birthweight > 4000 g B. C. D. E. 97. A. * B. C. D. E. 98. A. * B. C. D. E. 99. A. B. * C. D. E. 100. A. B. C. * D. E. 101. A. B. C. * D. E. 102. A. B. C. D. * E. 103. A. * B. C. D. Birthweight > 4100 g Birthweight > 4500 g Birthweight > 5000 g Birthweight > 5100 g Which of the following is a risk factor for macrosomia? Diabetes Pregnancy induced hypertension Maternal anemia Gestational age > 42 weeks Preterm labor What is the cause of fetopelvic disproportion? sinciput vertex presentation and large fetus face presentation posterior occiput presentation foot-lying presentation knee-lying presentation What is the cause of fetopelvic disproportion? frank breech presentation sinciput vertex presentatio and III degree of pelvic contraction occiput presentation foot-link presentation knee-link presentation Which cervical dilation indicates 5 cm contractile ring station above the symphysis? 1 cm 2 cm 5 cm 3 cm 4 cm Cesarean section undergo all types of multiple pregnancies EXCEPT: Breech – breech presentation Breech – transverse presentation cephalic – cephalic presentation breech– cephalic presentation Transverse – transverse How is fetus giant defined? Birthweight > 4000 g Birthweight > 4100 g Birthweight > 4500 g Birthweight > 5000 g Birthweight > 5100 g Which of the following is NOT a complication of macrosomia? placenta abruption Brachial plexus injury Shoulder dystocia Cephalopelvic disproportion E. 104. A. B. C. * D. E. 105. A. B. C. * D. E. 106. A. B. C. D. E. * 107. A. B. C. * D. E. 108. A. B. C. D. * E. 109. A. B. * C. D. E. 110. A. B. * C. D. E. 111. A. * Uterine rupture Which of the following is suggestive of dichorionic diamnionic twin pregnancy? Discordance Sonographic measurement of the dividing membranes thinner than 1 mm Two separate placentae none of the above all of the above With twins, which of the following is NOT true? Pregnancy hypervolemia approximates 50 to 60%. Cardiac output is increased. Pulse rate is decreased. Stroke volume is increased The body weight increased Which of the following is NOT a specific complication of monoamnionic twins? Cord entanglement Discordancy Conjoined twins Preterm labor Postdate labor Spantaneous vaginal delivery undergoes all types of clinical situations EXCEPT: Cephalic –cephalic presentation Cephalic –breech presentation Breech – cephalic presentation Cephalic – transverse presentation All of the above How is macrosomia in breech presentation defined? Birthweight > 4000 g Birthweight > 4100 g Birthweight > 3500 g Birthweight > 3700 g Birthweight > 5100 g What is the best management of labor in breech – breech presentation? vaginal delivery cesarean section vacuum extraction forceps application breech extraction What is the best management of labor in breech –cephalic presentation? vaginal delivery cesarean section vacuum ectraction forceps application breech extraction What is the best management of labor in cephalic – breech presentation? vaginal delivery B. C. D. E. 112. A. * B. C. D. E. 113. A. B. * C. D. E. 114. A. B. C. * D. E. 115. A. B. * C. D. E. 116. A. B. C. D. E. * 117. A. * B. C. D. E. 118. A. B. * C. D. cesarean section vacuum extraction forceps application breech extraction What is the best management of labor in cephalic – cephalic presentation? vaginal delivery cesarean section vacuum extraction forceps application breech extraction What is the best management of labor in breech – transverse presentation? vaginal delivery cesarean section vacuum extraction forceps application breech extraction A twin fetus is at risk for each of the following complications EXCEPT: stillbirth anomalies macrosomia malpresentation umbilical cord entanglement All of the below are patients at risk for macrosomic fetus EXCEPT: endocrine disorders multiple pregnancy obesity diabetes mellitus excessive nutrition Which of the following is associated with meconium-stained amniotic fluid? fetal macrosomia vaginal delivery alkalemia chorioamnionitis fetal distress What is present as compounds in the amnionic fluid only? vernix and ectodermal fetal cells mononuclear cells and macrophages lymphocytes and polymorphonucleocytes eosinophils and vernix erytyhrocytes What congenital anomaly is associated with polyhydramnion? ventral septal defect spina bifida omphalocele hypoplastic kidneys E. 119. A. B. C. * D. E. 120. A. B. C. D. E. * 121. A. B. C. D. * E. 122. A. * B. C. D. E. 123. A. B. C. D. E. * 124. A. B. C. D. E. * 125. A. B. C. * D. E. 126. A. fetal anemia At what point in normal gestation the amnionic fluid volume is approximately 1-1,5 mL? 16 weeks 28 weeks 36 weeks 40 weeks 42 weeks Polyhydramnios defines as increasing of amniotic fluid more than: 1000 mL 1400 mL 1600 mL 1800 mL 2000 mL Which of the following anomalies are not associated with polyhydramnios? central nervous system abnormalities duodenal atresia esophageal atresia renal agenesis immune hydrops What is the major source of amnionic fluid? amnionic epithelium fetal urination fetal swallowing fetal inspiration placental production What is the most likely cause of polyhydramnion? maternal anemia maternal cardiac diseases decreasing of maternal urination increased blood pressure maternal infections Which of the following maternal symptom is NOT associated with acute hydramnios? edema respiratory distress enlarged abdomen preterm labor normal maternal condition What is a frequent maternal complication of hydramnios? preeclampsia hypertonic uterine activity placental abruption postterm pregnancy anemia Which contractile ring station above the symphysis indicates 4cm cervical dilation? 1 cm B. C. D. E. * 127. A. B. C. D. * E. 128. A. B. C. D. * E. 129. A. B. * C. D. E. 130. A. B. C. D. E. * 131. A. B. C. * D. E. 132. A. B. C. D. * E. 133. A. B. C. D. * 2 cm 8 cm 6 cm 4 cm What is the most common cause of oligohydramnios? renal anomalies fetal growth retardation twin–twin transfusion premature rupture of fetal membranes Diabetus mellitus What is recommended for labor’ induction in patients with polyhydramnion? stimulation of uterine contractions episiotomy cesarean section early amniotomy obstetrics forceps Polyhydramnion is a risk factor of : postpartum infections early postpartum bleeding fetal macrosomia fetal malformations Pregnancy induced hypertension Which complication is typical for I stage of labor in patients with polyhydramnion? placenta previa bleeding maternal infection fetal distress hypotonic uterine contractions What is the normal average baseline fetal heart rate at term? 100 to 140 bpm 110 to 150 bpm 110 to 170 bpm 120 to 140 bpm 160-179 bpm What is bradycardia? baseline fetal heart rate < 130 for > 5 min baseline fetal heart rate < 140 for > 15 min baseline fetal heart rate < 120 for > 5 min baseline fetal heart rate < 110 for > 15 min baseline fetal heart rate < 120 for > 3 min Which of the following is NOT associated with fetal bradycardia? head compression congenital heart block fetal distress gestational pyelonephritis E. 134. A. B. C. D. * E. 135. A. B. * C. D. E. 136. A. B. C. * D. E. 137. A. B. * C. D. E. 138. A. B. C. D. E. * 139. A. B. C. D. * E. 140. A. B. C. D. * E. 141. A. placental abruption How are accelerations defined? increase in fetal heart rate of 10 bpm for 10 sec increase in fetal heart rate of 15 bpm for 10 sec increase in fetal heart rate of 10 bpm for 15 sec increase in fetal heart rate of 15 bpm for 15 sec increase in fetal heart rate of 5 bpm for 15 sec What is a gradual, smooth descent of the fetal heart rate 30 sec after the contraction called? early deceleration late deceleration variable deceleration acceleration accomodation What is the most common deceleration pattern encountered during labor? late decelerations early decelerations variable decelerations mixed decelerations long decelerations What is the definition of asphyxia? fetal distress hypoxia leading to acidemia acidemia alone severe variable decelerations absence of breath Direct electro fetal heart rate monitoring is made: during pregnancy in labor during pregnancy and un the first stage of labor in the second stage of labor after releasing of amniotic fluid All of the below take into account during electronic fetal heart rate minitoring EXCEPT: baseline rhythm fetal heart rate variability presence of accelerations ratio between amplitude and rhythm of oscillations presence of decelerations Which method is the best for evaluation of fetal well-being: amnioscopy ultrasonography fetal heart rate monitoring biophysical profile determination of a-fetoprotein in amniotic fluid How many minutes do you need for fetal heart rate monitoring? 10 B. C. * D. E. 142. A. B. * C. D. E. 143. A. * B. C. D. E. 144. A. B. C. D. E. * 145. A. B. C. D. * E. 146. A. B. C. D. * E. 147. A. B. * C. D. E. 148. A. B. C. D. 20 30 40 50 Nonstress test – is: amount of amniotic fluid response of the fetal heart rate to the fetal movement response of the fetal heart rate to physical irritation response of the fetal heart rate to contractile drugs response of the fetal heart rate to spasmolytics Reactive nonstress test is: increasing of fetal heart rate at least 15 bpm over a period 15 seconds following a fetal movement increasing of fetal heart rate at least 1 bpm over a period 1 seconds following a fetal movement decreasing of fetal heart rate at least 15 bpm over a period 15 seconds following a fetal movement decreasing of fetal heart rate at least 15 bpm over a period 15 seconds following a fetal movement absence of accelerations in response of fetal movement Nonreactive nonstress test is: increasing of fetal heart rate at least 15 bpm over a period 15 seconds following a fetal movement increasing of fetal heart rate at least 1 bpm over a period 1 seconds following a fetal movement decreasing of fetal heart rate at least 15 bpm over a period 15 seconds following a fetal movement decreasing of fetal heart rate at least 15 bpm over a period 15 seconds following a fetal movement absence of accelerations in response of fetal movement How many parameters of fetal well being are presented in determination of biophysical profile? 2 3 4 5 6 All of the below are the parameters of biophysical profile EXCEPT: amount of amniotic fluid fetal tone reactive nonstress test fetal urine output fetal breathing movements How can you estimate of the biophysical profile? during fetal heart rate monitoring in ultrasonography in cordocentesis in amnioscopy in amniocentesis How many points of biophysical profile is considered to be normal? 1-2 3-4 5-6 7- 8 E. * 149. A. B. * C. D. E. 150. A. B. C. * D. E. 151. A. * B. C. D. E. 152. A. B. C. * D. E. 153. A. B. * C. D. E. 154. A. B. C. D. E. * 155. A. B. C. 8 - 10 What are the characteristics of normal fetal breathing movements which corresponds with 2 points in biophysical profile? at least 5 FBM at least 5 seconds duration in 10 minutes at least 1 FBM of at least 30 seconds duration in 30 minutes at least 1 FBM of at least 20 seconds duration in 30 minutes at least 1 FBM of at least 15 seconds duration in 15 minutes at least 2 FBM of at least 30 seconds duration in 30 minutes What are the characteristics of normal fetal tone which correspond with 2 points in biophysical profile? at least 2 episodes of active extension with return to flexion of fetal limbs/trunk during 30 minutes at least 3 episode of active extension with return to flexion of fetal limbs/trunk in 15 minutes at least 1 episode of active extension with return to flexion of fetal limbs/trunk in 30 minutes at least 2 episodes of active extension with return to flexion of fetal limbs/trunk during 10 minutes at least 1 episode of active extension without return to flexion of fetal limbs/trunk during 10 minutes A reactive nonstress test (NST) is characterized by a fetal heart rate increase of how many beats per minute: 15 25 50 5 55 A biophysical profile in which there is one or more episodes of fetal breathing in 30 minutes, three or more discrete movements in 30 minutes, opening / closing of the fetal hand, a nonreactive nonstress test (NST), and no pockets of amniotic fluid greater than 1 cm would have a total score of: 2 4 6 8 10 In which gestational age does the second ultrasonography is recommended? 12-14 weeks 16 – 21 weeks 22-23 weeks 24-26 weeks 26-28 weeks All of the below complications should be present during amniocentesis EXCEPT: maternal trauma fetal trauma infection abortion placenta previa All of below are the main indications for cordocentesis EXCEPT: fetal distress fetal isoimmunization metabolic fetal disorders D. * E. 156. A. B. * C. D. E. 157. A. B. * C. D. E. 158. A. B. C. D. E. * 159. A. * B. C. D. E. 160. A. * B. C. D. E. 161. A. * B. C. D. E. 162. A. B. C. D. * E. 163. maternal pregnancy induced hypertension fetal karyotyping Cordocentesis – is: puncture of amniotic sac percutaneous umbilical blood sampling skin sample chorionic villus sampling fetoscopy Which size of pelvis is normally 20-21 cm?: distancia spinarum external conjugate distancia trochanterica distancia cristarum true conjuagete Decrease in fetal heart rate above baseline is called as: feceleration acceleration doceleration perceleration deceleration Variable decelerations are closely connected with: umbilical cord occlusion placental abruption placental previa diabetes mellitus pregnancy induced hypertension What is the normal perception of fetal movement by pregnant woman? more than 10 movements during 12 hours 2 movements for 2 hours 3 movements in 1 hour 5 movements in 30 minutes 1 movement for 24 hours What are the characteristics of normal amount of amniotic fluid volume in the biophysical profile? at least 1 pocket of amniotic fluid at least 1 cm in two perpendicular planes during 30 minutes at least 2 pockets of amniotic fluid at least 1 cm in two perpendicular planes during 30 minutes at least 1 pocket of amniotic fluid at least 1 cm in two perpendicular planes during 15 minutes at least 3 pockets of amniotic fluid at least 1 cm in two perpendicular planes during 20 minutes at least 1 pocket of amniotic fluid at least 1 cm in two perpendicular planes during 50 minutes How many minutes do you need for estimation of biophysical profile? 15 20 25 30 40 All of the below are the complications which should be present during cordocentesis EXCEPT: A. * B. C. D. E. 164. A. B. C. * D. E. 165. A. * B. C. D. E. 166. A. * B. C. D. E. 167. A. B. * C. D. E. 168. A. B. * C. D. E. 169. A. * B. C. D. E. 170. A. * oligohydramnios fetal trauma fever abortion placenta abruption How many points does the woman receive on biophysical profile for one fetal breath movement of at least 30 seconds duration in 30 minutes? 0 1 2 3 4 How many points does the woman receive on biophysical profile for absence of active extension with return to flexion of fetal limb/trunk? 0 1 2 3 4 Biophysical profile of the fetus determines from: 28 week of gestation 16 week of gestation 12 week of gestation 40 week of gestation 34 week of gestation Physiological fetus heart rate is: 120-140 per min. 110-170 per min. 140-160 per min. 120-160 per min. 110-160 per min According with the biophysical fetus profile, doubtful fetus condition is in case: 4 points and lower 5-6 points 7-10 points 3-6 points 5-10 points According with the biophysical fetus profile, pathological fetus condition is in case: 4 points and lower 5-6 points 7-10 points 3-6 points 5-10 points In case of pathological result of biophysical fetus condition: We decide to deliver this patient immediately B. C. D. E. 171. A. B. C. D. * E. 172. A. B. C. D. E. * 173. A. B. C. D. E. * 174. A. * B. C. D. E. 175. A. B. * C. D. E. 176. A. B. * C. D. E. 177. A. B. * C. D. To continue observation To stop delivery stimulation To perform ultrasonography Not necessary to do anything To diagnose fetus distress condition during labor we use all exept: Fetal heart rate assessment by obstetric stetoskope Electronic Fetal heart rate asessment Presence of meconium in amniotic fluid Assessment of the labor activity There is no correct Answer: In case of fetus distress condition in labor we undergo all below prescriptions EXEPT: Avoid supine position of the patient Stop oxytocin dropping Vacuum extraction Forceps delivery Continue oxytocin dropping In case of fetal distress we: Avoid supine position of the patient Stop oxitocin dropping Avoid prone position Allow patient to stay in supine position Answer:s A and B In case of fetal distress within the first period of labor: Perform Cesarean section immediately To continue observation Continue oxitocin dropping Continue labor through the natural passway There is no correct Answer: Which cervical delation indicates 2cm contractile ring station above the symphysis: 5 fingers 1 finger 4 fingers 3 fingers 2 fingers In case of fetal distress within the second period of labor in breach presentation: Perform Cesarean section immediately To perform breech extraction of the fetus Continue oxitocin dropping Continue labor through the natural passway There is no correct Answer: There are … degrees of fetus retardation: 2 3 4 5 E. 178. A. * B. C. D. E. 179. A. B. C. * D. E. 180. A. B. C. D. E. * 181. A. * B. C. D. E. 182. A. B. * C. D. E. 183. A. B. C. * D. E. 184. A. * B. C. D. E. 185. A. * 6 The first degree of fetus retardation matches with: 2 weeks retardations 3 weeks retardations 4 weeks retardations 5 weeks retardations 1 weeks retardations The second degree of fetus retardation matches with: 2 weeks retardations 6 weeks retardations 3-4 weeks retardations 5 weeks retardations 1 weeks retardations The third degree of fetus retardation matches with: 2 weeks retardations 3 weeks retardations 4 weeks retardations 1 week retardations more than 4 weeks The first degree hypotrophy of the newborn is: 15-20% weight deficit of normal. 21-30% weight deficit of normal 31% and more weight deficit of normal 41% and more weight deficit of normal 5-10% weight deficit of normal The second degree hypotrophy of the newborn is: 15-20% weight deficit of normal. 21-30% weight deficit of normal 31% and more weight deficit of normal 41% and more weight deficit of normal 5-10% weight deficit of normal The 3 degree hypotrophy of the newborn is: 15-20% weight deficit of normal. 21-30% weight deficit of normal 31% and more weight deficit of normal 41% and more weight deficit of normal 5-10% weight deficit of normal Matured newborn has: 47 cm height and 2500 g weight and more 45 cm height and 2300 g weight 46 cm height 2450 g weight 40 cm height and 2000 g weight 45 cm height and 2450 g weight Nonmatured newborn has: 45 cm height and 2499 g weight and less B. C. D. E. 186. A. * B. C. D. E. 187. A. * B. C. D. E. 188. A. B. * C. D. E. 189. A. B. C. * D. E. 190. A. * B. C. D. E. 191. A. B. * C. D. E. 192. A. B. C. D. * 45 cm height and 2600 g weight and less 46 cm height 2700 g weight 47 cm height and 2600 g weight 45 cm height and 2650 g weight Feto-placental insufficiency is: acute and chronic acute, chronic and hidden light and severe light, severe and moderate Moderate and severe In case of normal pregnancy width of the placenta on the 28th week of gestation is: 28 mm 31 mm 26 mm 25 mm 35 mm There are ….. degrees of placental maturity: 3 4 5 2 1 We perform auscultation of the fetus heart rate from the: 20th week of pregnancy 15th week of pregnancy 23-24th week of pregnancy 28th week of pregnancy 30th week of pregnancy We perform the first ultrasonography of the fetus in the: 11th week of pregnancy 5th week of pregnancy 8th week of pregnancy 20th week of pregnancy 24th week of pregnancy In case of normal pregnancy width of the placenta on the 31th week of gestation is: 28 mm 31 mm 26 mm 25 mm 40mm In case of normal pregnancy width of the placenta on the 36th week of gestation is: 28 mm 31 mm 26 mm 36 mm E. 193. A. * B. C. D. E. 194. A. B. * C. D. E. 195. A. B. * C. D. E. 196. A. B. C. * D. E. 197. A. B. C. * D. E. 198. A. B. * C. D. E. 199. A. * B. C. D. E. 200. A. 40mm We are talking about feto-placental insufficiency in case of: placenta becoming thinner than 20 mm and thicker than 50 mm placenta becoming thinner than 25 mm and thicker than 50 mm placenta becoming thinner than 20 mm and thicker than 40 mm placenta becoming thinner than 30 mm and thicker than 40 mm placenta becoming thinner than 30 mm and thicker than 55 mm We perform ultrasonography of the fetus in case of normal pregnancy: 3 times 2 times 4 times 5 times 6 times We perform ultrasonography of fetus in case of normal pregnancy: on the 16-18th week and 36th week of gestation on the 9 - 11th week and 16 - 18th week of gestation on the 21th week and 36th week of gestation on the 16-18th week and 26th week of gestation on the 24-28th week and 30th week of gestation Fetal heart beating and movement we can see on ultrasonography starting from the: 10-11th week 17-18th week 7-8th week 4-5th week 15-16th week Puncture of the fetal cord vessels is: Amnioscopy Fetoscopy Cordocentesis Amniocentesis Culdocentesis Fetal visualisation in the intrauterus space is called: Amnioscopy Fetoscopy Cordocentesis Amniocentesis Hysteroscopy Assessment of the lower part of the amniotic sac is called: Amnioscopy Fetoscopy Cordocentesis Amniocentesis Hysteroscopy Assessment of the lower part of the fetal sac is called: Amniography B. C. D. E. * 201. A. B. C. D. * E. 202. A. B. C. D. * E. 203. A. B. C. * D. E. 204. A. B. C. D. E. * 205. A. B. C. D. * E. 206. A. B. C. D. * E. 207. A. * B. C. D. Fetoscopy Cordocentesis Amniocentesis There is no correct Answer What is the average of transverse diameter of the pelvic inlet? 11.0 cm 10.0 cm 10.5 cm 13.0 cm 12.0 cm All of the below are the indications to hospitalization to pathologic pregnancy department EXEPT: Pregnancy induced hypertension; Anemia; Placental dysfunction Syphilis; Pyelonephritis The obstetric-gynecological center consists of: obstetric hospital, female dispensary. female dispensary, gynecological department. obstetric hospital, female dispensary, gynecological department. surgical department. obstetric hospital, female dispensary, department of new-born. What basic function of admitting office? medical help to the patient in the case of necessity. general inspection of the patient. measuring of temperature. filling of passport part of history of labor. all of the above. All of the below are the indications to hospitalization to pathologic pregnancy department EXEPT: Pregnancy induced hypertension; Anemia Glomerulonephtitis Tuberculosis Diabetus mellitus What of the following is not an indication for hospitalization to the second obstetric department? the death of fetus. rise of temperature of body.. tuberculosis. diabetes. syphilis. What of the following is an indication for hospitalization to the second obstetric department? antenatal death of fetus. preeclampsia of III degree. bleeding. diabetes. E. 208. A. B. C. D. * E. 209. A. B. * C. D. E. 210. A. B. C. * D. E. 211. A. * B. C. D. E. 212. A. B. C. * D. E. 213. A. * B. C. D. E. 214. A. B. * C. D. E. 215. A. fetal malpresentation Which of the following is NOT a component of the bony pelvis? coccyx sacrum ischium femoral head lumbal part of vertebrae Which of the following is NOT a part of the superior boundary of the true pelvis? linea terminalis linea interspinalis promontory of the sacrum pubic bones no correct answer: The true pelvis is bounded below by which of the following structures? sacral promontory alae of sacral pelvic outlet upper margins of pelvic bone linea interspinalis What is the average of transverse diameter of the pelvic outlet? 11.0 cm 10.0 cm 10.5 cm 11.5 cm 12 cm What is the average of interspinous diameter? 8.0 cm 10.0 cm 10.5 cm 12.0 cm 9.0 cm Which of the following is distantia spinarum? the distance between anterior superior iliac spines from the both sides the distance between iliac crista from the both sides the distance between iliac spines the distance between trochanter major from the both sides the distance between ishiadic spines Which of the following is distantia cristarum? the distance between anterior superior iliac spines from the both sides the distance between iliac crista from the both sides the distance between iliac spines the distance between trochanter major from the both sides the distance between ishiadic spines Which of the following is distantia trochanterica? the distance between anterior superior iliac spines from the both sides B. C. D. * E. 216. A. B. * C. D. E. 217. A. B. C. * D. E. 218. A. B. C. D. * E. 219. A. B. C. D. E. * 220. A. B. C. D. E. * 221. A. B. C. D. E. * 222. A. B. C. * D. the distance between iliac crista from the both sides the distance between iliac spines to the crista ilii the distance between trochanter major from the both sides the distance between trochanter minor from the both sides Which size of pelvis have normally 25-26 cm? true conjugate distantia spinarum distantia cristarum distantia trochanterica external conjugate Which size of pelvis have normally 28-29 cm? true conjugate distantia spinarum distantia cristarum distantia trochanteric external conjugate Which external size of pelvis have 30-31 cm? true conjugate distantia spinarum distantia cristarum distantia trochanterica external conjugate Which size of pelvis have normally 20-21 cm? obstetric conjugate distantia spinarum distantia cristarum distantia trochanterica external conjugate What is the average diameter of the obstetrical conjugate? 8.0 cm 9.0 cm 10 cm 12.0 cm 11 cm How is the obstetric conjugate determined? add 1.5 cm to the diagonal conjugate subtract 1.5 cm from the external conjugate the diagonal and true conjugate are equal add 1.5-2 cm to the true conjugate subtract 1.5-2 cm from the diagonal conjugate What is the average of Solovjov’ index? 10-12 cm 12-14 cm 14-16 cm 16-18 cm E. 223. A. * B. C. D. E. 224. A. B. * C. D. E. 225. A. B. C. D. E. * 226. A. B. C. * D. E. 227. A. B. C. D. * E. 228. A. * B. C. D. E. 229. A. * B. C. D. E. 230. A. 17-19 cm Which is the obstetric conjugate in patient with conjugate externa 21 and Solovjov’ index 15 cm? 12 cm 11 cm 10 cm 9 cm 8 cm Which of the following is NOT a part of the urogenital diaphragm? urethral sphincter m. transverses perinei profundus middle perineal fascia superficial perineal fascia sphincter ani What is the shortest diameter of the pelvic cavity? transverse diameter of the pelvic inlet obstetric conjugate true conjugate diagonal conjugate interspinosus Between which bones does sagittal suture is located? two frontal two occipital two parietal two temporal no correct answer: Which suture is the most important for the recognition of the fetal position during labor? frontal coronal lambdoid sagittal transversal. Which is the average of suboccipitobregmatic diameter? 9.5 10.0 10.5 11.0 11.5 The anterior fontanel is bounded by following bones EXCEPT? occipital frontal left parietal right parietal no correct answer In the fetus or neonate, what are the two sutures between the frontal and parietal bones? frontal B. E. sagittal lambdoid coronal occipital. The posterior fontanel is bounded by following bones, EXCEPT? occipital frontal left parietal right parietal no correct answer Which is the diameter of fetal shoulders? 9 cm 10 cm 11 cm 12 cm 13 cm Which of the following diameters is the greatest? occipitofrontal biparietal occipitomental suboccipitobregmatic suboccipitomental Which suture is NOT composed the anterior fontanel? coronal lambdoid sagittal frontal all of the above Which is the diameter of fetal pelvic part? 8.5 cm 9 cm 9.5 cm 10.5 cm 11 cm 236. A. * B. C. D. E. 237. A. B. C. D. Which size of the pelvis is normally 25-26 cm? spinarum external conjugate true conjugate trochanterica cristarum Which from the following diameters represents the smallest circumference of the head? occipitofrontal suboccipitofrontal. bitemporal biparietal C. D. * E. 231. A. B. * C. D. E. 232. A. B. C. D. * E. 233. A. B. C. * D. E. 234. A. B. * C. D. E. 235. A. B. C. * D. E. * B. C. suboccipitobregmatic When the production of amniotic fluids begin? from a 12 day of pregnancy from the 24th day of pregnancy from 12 weeks of pregnancy from 20 weeks of pregnancy from 24 weeks of pregnancy When the fertilized ovum is called “conceptus”? 1 week after fertilization; 2 weeks after fertilization; during all pregnancy. 3 weeks after fertilization; 5 weeks after fertilization. What is the „cortical reaction”? capacity of spermatozoon for the ovum penetration; result of spermatozoa capacity; impenetrability of shell of ovum after fertilization for other spermatozoa; release of ovum from an corona radiata. the moment of fertilization What stage of development does an embryo get on in an uterus? 2 blastomers; 4 blastomers; morula; blastocyst. embryo. What length is the fetus on the 6 th month of pregnancy? 16 cm; 25 cm; 30 cm; 35 cm; 40 cm. What week of fetal development transition to placental circulation of blood is completed on? on a 12-14 week; on a 10-12 week; on a 8-10 week; D. E. 244. A. B. C. * D. E. 245. A. on a 6-8 week; on a 4-6 week. During what time of development the result of conception is named an embryo? from the moment of fertilization to the moment of placentation; from the 2nd week of development to 12-14th week; from the 3rd week of development to 10th one; from a 4th week to 8th one. from the moment of implantation to the 12th week. What composition of amniotic fluids from composition of plasma of the maternal blood differs by? by the higher level of proteins 238. A. * B. C. D. E. 239. A. B. * C. D. E. 240. A. B. C. * D. E. 241. A. B. C. D. * E. 242. A. B. C. D. * E. 243. A. * B. * A. by lower level of proteins by the higher level of estrogens by more low level of estrogens by the higher level of progesteron What parts of the feto-placental complex stay in uterus after the fetal birth? placenta, membranes, umbilical cord, decidua; placenta, amniotic fluids, umbilical cord; placenta, decidua, umbilical cord; placenta, amnion and chorion membranes, all of the above Which day after fertilization implantation occur? on 3-4 day; on 5-6 day; on 7-8 day on 9-10 day. on 10-12 day What is the acrosomic reaction? increasing of high motive activity of spermatozoa; process of capacity; process of confluence of gamete nucleus; possibility to the penetration membranes of ovum loss of motive activity. The amniotic fluid execute such functions EXCEPT: an umbilical cord is protected from the compression; fluid are created conditions for development and motions of fetus; aiding to dilatation of cervix; the feeding of the fetus is provided; a fetus is protected from the mechanical damage, Name the fetal membranes, beginning from uterus: decidua, chorion, amnion; decidua, amnion, chorion; amnion, decidua, chorion; amnion, chorion, decidua; chorion, decidua, amnion. What quantity of amniotic fluids is considered normal on the 38th week of pregnancy? less than 0,5; B. C. D. * E. 252. A. B. C. D. 0,5-0,8 l; 0,5-1,0 l; 1,0-1,5 l; 1,5-2,5 l. What process is typical for the nervous system at pregnant? depression emotional instability the dominant of pregnancy is formed the changes of the taste C. D. E. 246. A. * B. C. D. E. 247. A. B. C. * D. E. 248. A. B. C. D. * E. 249. A. B. C. D. * E. 250. A. * B. C. D. E. 251. E. * C. D. all answers are correct What process is typical for adaptation of the cardiac system to pregnancy? reduction of blood volume increase of volume of blood on 30-50% reduction of plasma volume increase of blood volume on 10-20% increase of blood volume on 60-70% What level of gaemoglobin is considered normal for pregnant? 130-140 g/l 120-130 g/l 110-140 g/l 100-110 g/l 120-160 g/l What amount of leucocytes is considered as a normal in pregnant? 5-7,5х109 7,2-10,6х109 4-8,8х109 5,0-12х109 7,7-15,6х109 If at pregnant at the protracted position on the back there are bradycardia, decreasing of BP, dizziness, it testifies to: cardiac pathology organic heart disease decompensation of cardiac activity syndrome of lower hollow vein disorders of placental circulation Which cervical dilation indicates 5 cm contractile ring station above the symphysis? 1 cm 2 cm 5 cm 3 cm 4 cm What blood changes arise up at pregnant before the labor? the level of leucocytes rises coagulative properties of blood rise the level of red blood cells rises the volume of circulatory blood goes down E. 259. A. B. * C. D. E. 260. hypovolemia increases What is the reason of heartburn at pregnant? rise of gastric juice acidity decreasing of tone of cardial sphincter of stomach rise of stomach activity violation of diet disease of stomach Which contractile ring station above the symphysis indicates to 2cm cervical dilation? 253. A. B. * C. D. E. 254. A. B. C. * D. E. 255. A. B. C. D. * E. 256. A. B. C. D. * E. 257. A. B. C. * D. E. 258. A. B. * A. * B. * 2 cm above the symphysis 1 cm above the symphysis 5 cm above the symphysis 3 cm above the symphysis 4 cm above the symphysys What factors assist to frequent development of pyelonephritis at pregnant? shortening of ureters vezico-ureteral reflux frequent urination all answers are correct the correct answer is not present What hormone provides the “muscular relax” of uterus? estrogens progesteron prolactin oxytocin placental lactogen What is the weight of uterus at the end of pregnancy? 400-500 g 500-800 g 800-1000 g 1000-1500 g 1500-2000 g What hormone stimulates the appetite at pregnant? progesteron estrogens insulin prolactin lactogen What is the normal weight gain in pregnant? on 5-7 kg on 7-8 kg on 8-12 kg on 10-16 kg individually Which sources of calcium are the best for pregnant’ diet? garden fruits cheese and milk C. D. E. 267. A. * B. C. fish bread meat and liver Which sources of iron are the best for pregnant’ diet? meat and liver apricots the baked potatoes B. C. D. E. 261. A. B. * C. D. E. 262. A. B. * C. D. E. 263. A. B. C. D. * E. 264. A. B. C. * D. E. 265. A. B. C. * D. E. 266. A. D. E. 274. milk all of the above What quantity of liquid is used by pregnant in the second half of pregnancy? as few as possible 0,8-1 l 1-1,2 l 1,5-2 l without limitations What period a fetus is the most sensible to the harmful factors? in a 1-7 day after the implantation from 3th to the 8th week of pregnancy from 5 to a 16 week of pregnancy from 32th to the 36th week of pregnancy during all pregnancy What is important during conducting of test on pregnancy in early terms? to use morning portion of urine sterility of urine to collect urine after the careful hygiene of external genitalia before conducting of test a woman must not use fat food all answers are correct Standard urine pregnancy test is positive arproximately 1-2 week after last menstrual period 12 day after last menstrual period 3 weeks after last menstrual period 4 weeks after last menstrual period 16 days after last menstrual period From what week by means the ultrasound it is possible to expose cardiac activity of fetus? on a 2-3 day after the implantation on 2 weeks of pregnancy on 3 weeks of pregnancy on 4 weeks of pregnancy on a 8 week of pregnancy What information about the menstrual function of woman will help to set the term of pregnancy? age of beginning of menstruations regularity of menstruations duration of menstrual cycle date of the first day of the last menstruation all the above What question is more important only at collection of anamnesis on a genital function? A. B. C. D. E. * 275. quantity of pregnancies quantity of labors quantity of abortions presence of complications during previous pregnancies all the above What term of pregnancy does a multipara feel the first motions of fetus? E. 268. A. B. C. * D. E. 269. A. B. * C. D. E. 270. A. * B. C. D. E. 271. A. B. C. D. * E. 272. A. B. C. D. E. * 273. A. B. C. D. * A. B. C. in 17 weeks of pregnancy in 18 weeks of pregnancy in 20 weeks of pregnancy at 22 weeks of pregnancy at 24 weeks of pregnancy What form of external cervical os at a nulliparous woman? round transversal irregular form a right answer is not present right answers B also C It is exposed at bimanual examination, that the isthmus of uterus is softened; the ends of fingers are easily touch together. Who described this sign? Genter; Goubarev; Piscachec; Snegirov; neither of the above authors. During bimanual examination doctor exposed considerable softening the uterine isthmus. What scientist described this sign? Gegar; Genter; Piscachek; Snegirov; neither of above Sign Gorvits-Gegar – this: easy displacement of uterus softening of isthmus of uterus appearance of asymmetry of uterus appearance of the thickness on the front surface of uterus easy changeability of consistency of uterus The Gegar’ sign becomes manifest at: in 4-5 weeks of pregnancy in 5-6 weeks of pregnancy in 6-8 weeks of pregnancy in 8-10 weeks of pregnancy in 12 weeks of pregnancy What functions are executed by a placenta? interchange of gases; trophic; excretic; D. E. * 282. A. protects an umbilical cord from the compression; all the above What sign of pregnancy belongs to probable? nausea, vomiting; B. * C. D. E. 276. A. * B. C. D. E. 277. A. B. C. D. E. * 278. A. * B. C. D. E. 279. A. B. * C. D. E. 280. A. B. * C. D. E. 281. A. B. A. palpation of fetal parts in uterus; uterine enlargement; changes of taste; all the above What sign of pregnancy does not belong to presumptive? auscultation to fetal heart rate ; nausea, vomits in the morning; change of taste; fatigue; all the above. What sign of pregnancy belongs to positive? change of taste; stopping of menstruations; cyanosis of uterine cervix; uterine enlargement; neither of above. What sign of pregnancy does not belong to positive? palpation of fetal parts ; stopping of menstruations; auscultation to fetal heart rate ; presence of motions of fetus; all the above What sign of pregnancy does not belong to positive? palpation of fetal parts in an uterus; auscultation to fetal heart rate ; results of ultrasonic examination; stopping of menstruations; all the above. What sign of pregnancy belongs to positive? increase of abdomen; stopping of menstruations; auscultation to fetal heart rate; uterine enlargement; all the above; Term "longitudinal" lie of fetus in uterus is called as? habitus flexus situs longitudinalis situs obliqus presentatio cerhalica positio I What term “oblique lie” of fetus in uterus is determined by? habitus obliqus B. C. * D. situs longitudinalis situs obliqus presentatio obliqua C. * D. E. 283. A. * B. C. D. E. 284. A. B. C. D. E. * 285. A. B. * C. D. E. 286. A. B. C. D. * E. 287. A. B. C. * D. E. 288. A. B. * C. D. E. 289. E. C. positio obliqua A fetus is situated in the first position, if: its back is to the left wall of uterus; its back is to the right wall of uterus; its back is to the front wall of uterus; its back is to the back wall of uterus. no correct answer The fetal attitude: relation of head and extremities of fetus to its trunk attitude of vertical axis of fetus toward the axis of uterus attitude of axis of fetus toward the axis of pelvis attitude of the back of fetus toward the lateral walls of uterus attitude of head toward the entrance in a pelvis If the axis of fetus and uterus are perpendicular, head to the right, this is: longitudinal lie oblique lie, I position oblique lie, ІІ position transversal lie, I position transversal lie, ІІ position Where is the best place for auscultation of the fetal heart rate at longitudinal lie, cephalic presentation, ІІ position, anterior variety? right side, higher than umbilicus; on the left, higher than umbilicus; on the left, below than umbilicus; right side, below than umbilicus. at the level of umbilicus, on the left Where is the best place for auscultation of the fetal heart rate at longitudinal lie, breech presentation, I position, anterior variety? right side, higher than umbilicus; on the left, higher than umbilicus; on the left, below than umbilicus; right side, below than umbilicus. at the level of umbilicus, on the left Where is the best place for auscultation of the fetal heart rate at longitudinal lie, breech presentation, ІІ position, anterior variety? right side, higher than umbilicus; on the left, higher than umbilicus; on the left, below than umbilicus; right side, below than umbilicus. at the level of umbilicus, on the left All of the below can determine by the second Leopold’ maneuver EXEPT: height of standing of uterine fundus variety of the fetus position of fetus D. Fetal movements 290. A. * B. C. D. E. 291. A. * B. C. D. E. 292. A. B. C. D. E. * 293. A. B. C. D. * E. 294. A. B. * C. D. E. 295. A. * B. C. D. E. 296. A. * B. E. 297. A. B. C. D. E. * 298. A. B. * C. D. E. 299. A. B. C. D. * E. 300. A. * B. C. D. E. 301. A. B. C. * D. E. 302. A. B. * C. D. E. 303. A. * B. C. D. E. 304. quantity of amniotic fluid. Where is the best place for auscultation of the fetal heart rate at transversal lie, I position, anterior variety? right side, higher than umbilicus; on the left, higher than umbilicus; on the left, below than umbilicus; right side, below than umbilicus. at the level of umbilicus, on the left What we determine by the third Leopold’ maneuver? height of standing of uterine fundus; presenting part; variety and position of fetus; attitude of fetus toward the entrance in a pelvis. quantity of amniotic fluid. What we determine by the fourth Leopold’ maneuver? height of standing of uterine fundus; presenting part; variety and position of fetus; attitude of fetus toward the entrance in a pelvis. quantity of amniotic fluid. Which in a norm the frequency of fetal heart rate? 110-170 in 1 min. 110-190 in 1 min. 100-140 in 1 min. 100-120 in 1 min. 120-180 in 1 min. What reference points the abdominal circumference in pregnant is measured at? at the level of spina iliaca posterior-inferior and umbilicus at the level of spina iliaca anterior-superior and umbilicus at the level of spina iliaca posterior-superior and umbilicus at the level of middle spina iliaca and umbilicus at the level of the back sacrum os and umbilicus What term of pregnancy, if the uterine fundus is found at the level of umbilicus? 16 weeks; 24 weeks; 28 weeks; 30 weeks. 36 weeks What term of pregnancy, if the uterine fundus is found at the level of pubis? 12 weeks; 14 weeks; 16 weeks; 18 weeks. 20 weeks Indicate term of pregnancy when uterine fundus is found at the level of umbilicus? A. B. * C. D. E. 305. A. B. C. * D. E. 306. A. * B. C. D. E. 307. A. * B. C. D. E. 308. A. B. C. D. * E. 309. A. B. C. D. E. * 310. A. B. * C. D. E. 311. A. * B. 16 weeks; 24 weeks; 28 weeks; 30 weeks. 36 weeks In Which Leopold’ maneuver the presenting part of fetus is determined? first; second; third; fourth. any In which Leopold’ maneuver the level of uterine fundus is determined? first; second; third; fourth. any The last menstruation at a woman was 12.07. 2012. Define the date of the expected labor, using a formula Negele. 19.04.13 19.03.13 5.04.13 12 04.13 5.10.13 What percentages of fetuses are born in the occiput presentation at term? 80 85 90 95 99 What is the most common presentation of the fetus? posterior occiput breech face brow anterior occiput Which of the following is characteristic of synclitism? Sagittal suture is not parallel to the transverse axis of the inlet. Sagittal suture lies midway between the symphysis and sacral promontory. Sagittal suture, although parallel to the transverse axis of the inlet, does not lie exactly midway between the symphysis and sacral promontory. Sagittal suture rotates 45 degrees from the sacral spines. Sagittal suture lies closer to symphysis Which of the following is characteristic of posterior asynclitism? Sagittal suture lies closer to symphysis. Sagittal suture lies midway between the symphysis and sacral promontory. C. D. E. 312. A. * B. C. D. E. 313. A. B. C. D. * E. 314. A. B. C. D. E. * 315. A. B. C. D. E. * 316. A. B. C. * D. E. 317. A. * B. C. D. E. 318. A. Sagittal suture, although parallel to the transverse axis of the inlet, does not lie exactly midway between the symphysis and sacral promontory and lies closer to promontory. Sagittal suture rotates 45 degrees from the sacral spines. None of the above. During which cardinal movement of labor the fetal head delivered in anterior occiput presentation? extension internal rotation external rotation expulsion flexion When the internal rotation of the fetal head does begin? in the plane of pelvic inlet in the greatest pelvic dimension in the plane of the least pelvic dimension when the head descents from the plane of the greatest pelvic dimension to the plane of the least pelvic dimension on the pelvic floor Where the internal rotation of the fetal head is complete? in the plane of pelvic inlet in the greatest pelvic dimension in the plane of the least pelvic dimension when the head descents from the plane of the greatest pelvic dimension to the plane of the least pelvic dimension on the pelvic floor In the result of the internal rotation of the fetal head the sagittal suture is in the transversal size of pelvic inlet in the oblique size of the greatest pelvic dimension in the anterior-posterior size of the greatest pelvic dimension in the anterior-posterior size of the least pelvic dimension in the anterior-posterior size of the pelvic outlet The anterior shoulder appears under the symphysis during which cardinal movement of labor? extension expulsion external head rotation descent internal head rotation The base of the occiput is brought into contact with the inferior margin of the symphysis during which cardinal movement of labor? extension expulsion descent flexion external rotation What is the leading point in the anterior occiput presentation? fossa occipitalis B. C. D. E. * 319. A. B. C. D. * E. 320. A. B. * C. D. E. 321. A. B. C. * D. E. 322. A. B. * C. D. E. 323. A. B. C. D. * E. 324. A. B. C. * D. E. 325. A. B. tuber occipitalis the area of the border of the hair part the midpoint of sagittal suture small fontanel What is the leading point in the posterior occiput presentation? fossa occipitalis tuber occipitalis the area of the border of the hair part the midpoint of sagittal suture small fontanel How much centimetres does the suboccipitobregmaticus diameter have? 14 cm 9,5 cm 12 cm 11 cm 10 cm What is the first fixing point in the posterior occiput presentation? small fontanel tuber occipitalis the area of the border of the hair part the midpoint of sagittal suture fossa suboccipitalis Which diameter of the fetal head presents in the anterior occiput presentation? fronto-occipitalis suboccipitobregmatic biparietal sagittal suture bitemporal What is the presentation if Leopold maneuvers reveal the following: (1) breech in fundus, (2) resistant plane palpated through mother’s right flank, (3) head movable, (4) cephalic prominence on maternal left? breech presentation, I position breech presentation, II position occiput presentation, I position occiput presentation, II position transversal presentation What are the cardinal movements of labor in anterior occiput presentation (in order)? descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, expulsion flexion, engagement, internal rotation, external rotation flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation of the head, internal rotation of the body flexion, descent, internal rotation, extension, expulsion internal rotation, extension, external rotation, flexion What are the cardinal movements of labor in posterior occiput presentation (in order)? descent, flexion, internalrotation, extension, expulsion flexion, engagement, internalrotation, externalrotation C. D. * E. 326. A. * B. C. D. E. 327. A. B. * C. D. E. 328. A. B. C. D. E. * 329. A. B. C. D. E. * 330. A. * B. C. D. E. 331. A. B. C. D. E. * 332. A. B. * C. D. E. flexion, internalrotation, extension, externalrotation flexion, internal rotation, additional flexion. extension, expulsion additional flexion, internal rotation, extension, additional extension, external rotation Which circumference the fetal head is delivered in anterior occiput presentation? 32 cm 33 cm 34 cm 36 cm 38 cm Which circumference of fetal head is delivered in posterior occiput presentation? 32 cm 33 cm 34 cm 36 cm 38 cm Which of the following is essential for the generation of uterine contractions? prostaglandins calcium estrogen oxytocin all of the above Where is oxytocin primarily synthesized? adrenal gland placenta anterior pituitary ovary posterior pituitary All processes play the part in the labor initialization EXEPT progesterone increases prostaglandins increase oxytocin increases estrogens increases serotonin increases The basic elements involved in the uterine contractile system, EXEPT actin myosin adenosine triphospate calcium estrogens What is the most important in the characteristic of the uterine contractions? strong regular moderate painful strenght 333. A. B. * C. D. E. 334. A. B. C. * D. E. 335. A. B. C. * D. E. 336. A. * B. C. D. E. 337. A. B. C. D. E. * 338. A. * B. C. D. E. 339. A. B. C. D. * E. 340. A. B. * Which labor forces are present in I stage of labor? false uterine contractions true uterine contractions uterine contractions and pushing pushing all of the above Which labor forces are present in II stage of labor? false uterine contractions true uterine contractions uterine contractions and pushing pushing all of the above Which labor forces are present in III stage of labor? false uterine contractions true uterine contractions uterine contractions and pushing pushing all of the above Which moment is the beginning of I stage of labor? onset of regular uterine contractions complete dilatation of cervix rupture of amniotic sac onset of pushing delivery of the fetus Which moment is the end of II stage of labor? onset of uterine contractions complete dilatation of cervix rupture of amniotic sac complete cervical effacement delivery of the fetus Which moment is the beginning of III stage of labor? separation of placenta complete dilatation of cervix rupture of amniotic sac complete cervical effacement delivery of the fetus. Which moment is the end of 3 stage of labor? onset of pushing complete dilatation of cervix separation of placenta expulsion of placenta delivery of the fetus Which of the following is NOT associated with II stage of labor? uterine contractions placental separation C. D. E. 341. A. B. * C. D. E. 342. A. * B. C. D. E. 343. A. B. * C. D. E. 344. A. * B. C. D. E. 345. A. B. C. * D. E. 346. A. B. C. D. * E. 347. A. * B. C. D. fetal expulsion pushing fetal internal rotation The level of proteinuria in 24 hour collection is 0.2 g. For which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension does it characterized? pregestosis mild preeclampsia moderate preeclampsia severe preeclampsia eclampsia What is the scheme of methyldopha prescription in the treatment of moderate preeclampsia? 0.25 – 0.5 g 3-4 times a day 0.5 – 1.5g 3-4 times a day 0.25 g once a day 0,1 g once a day 0,5 g once a day To which group does atenolol belong to? central alpha2 adrenoagonists adrenoblockers vasodilators anticonvulsant calcium channel blocker What is the initial dose of magnesium sulfate in the treatment of moderate preeclampsia? 4g 6 mg 6g 8g 10g With preeclampsia, what is the significance of severe, right upper-quadrant pain? cholecystitis pancreatitis tension on Glisson’s capsule Teitze syndrome Terner’s syndrome When is eclampsia least likely to occur? antepartum intrapartum immediately postpartum after 48 hr postpartum after 2 hours postpartum Which of the following is true of blindness in conjunction with severe preeclampsia? likely central in origin often permanent usually unilateral common E. 348. A. B. C. * D. E. 349. A. B. C. * D. E. 350. A. B. C. D. E. * 351. A. B. C. D. E. * 352. A. B. * C. D. E. 353. A. B. C. D. * E. 354. A. B. C. D. * E. there is no correct answer Which of the following is NOT a sign of severe pregnancy-induced hypertension? upper abdominal pain oliguria convulsions fetal growth retardation visual disturbances How is magnesium toxicity treated? calcium chloride intravenously calcium phosphate orally calcium gluconate and discontinue magnesium dialysis there is no correct answer Which of the complications are NOT true about preeclampsia? placental abruption cerebral hemorrhage renal insufficiency intranatal fetal death anaphylactic shock Which of the following is considered an abnormal 24-hour urinary protein in women with severe preeclampsia? 300 mg in 24 hr 1 g in 24 hr 2 g in 24 hr 3 g in 24 hr >5 g in 24 hr How is the pathophysiology of preeclampsia characterized? vasodilatation vasospasm hemodilution hypervolemia there is no correct answer With eclampsia, which of the following is NOT true? Cerebral edema is present. Electroencephalogram abnormalities are frequent. Petechial hemorrhage is common. Cerebral blood flow is normal. convulsions are present Of the following, which is NOT considered to be a predisposing factor to preeclampsia? family history of preeclampsia multiple fetuses renal transplantation multiparity hypertensive disorders 355. A. B. C. D. * E. 356. A. B. * C. D. E. 357. A. B. C. D. E. * 358. A. B. C. D. E. * 359. A. B. C. D. E. * 360. A. * B. C. D. E. 361. A. B. * C. D. E. 362. A. The main characteristic signs of superimposed pregnancy induced hypertension are all of the below EXCEPT: early beginning; severe duration; isolated proteinuria, edema, or hypertension atypical clinical findings such as paresthesia, insomnia, hypersalivation combined proteinuria, edema, or hypertension Gestational hypertension defines as: occurs after 30 weeks of pregnancy and doesn’t accompanies with proteinuria occurs after 20 weeks of pregnancy and doesn’t accompanies with proteinuria occurs after 12 weeks of pregnancy and accompanies with proteinuria occurs after 20 weeks of pregnancy and accompanies with proteinuria occurs after 12 weeks of pregnancy and doesn’t accompanies with proteinuria Which of the following is NOT diagnostic of severe preeclampsia? increased serum creatinine more than 1200 mkmol/L 5 g proteinuria in 24 hour collection 45 hematocrit elevated liver enzymes 180.000 thrombocytes Which of the following is NOT diagnostic of severe preeclampsia? increased serum creatinine more than 120 mkmol/L >5 g proteinuria in 24 hour collection 42 hematocrit diastolic pressurE. 110 mm Hg 300.000 thrombocytes All drugs should be prescribed in Hyperemesis gravidarum EXEPT? regydration antiemetic intravenous droperidol-diphenhydramine metoclopramide parenterally intravenous oxytocin Which of the following is true in 24-hour urinary protein in women with mild preeclampsia? <300 mg in 24 hr <700 mg in 24 hr 2 g in 24 hr 3 g in 24 hr 1 g in 24 hr What is the normal duration of treatment in the case of moderate preeclampsia? 1-2 days 7-10 days 24 hours 12-14 days 5-6 hours All of the following are the main indications for cesarean section in preeclampsia EXCEPT: HELLP-syndrome; B. C. D. E. * 363. A. B. C. D. E. * 364. A. B. * C. D. E. 365. A. B. C. * D. E. 366. A. B. * C. D. E. 367. A. B. C. * D. E. 368. A. B. C. D. * E. 369. A. B. * C. eclampsia; pulmonary edema; cerebral symptoms; anemia What is the normal duration of treatment in the case of eclamptic seizure? 1-2 days 7-10 days 24 hours 12-14 days 5-6 hours What is the normal duration of treatment in the case of mild preeclampsia? 1-2 days 7-10 days 24 hours 12-14 days 5-6 hours What is the normal duration of treatment in the case of severe preeclampsia? 1-2 days 7-10 days 24 hours 12-14 days 5-6 hours What is the level of diastolic blood pressure in the mild preeclampsia? 80-89 mmHg 90 – 99 mm Hg 100 – 109 mm Hg 110 – 120 mm Hg 120 mm Hg What is the level of diastolic blood pressure in the moderate preeclampsia? 80-89 mmHg 90 – 99 mm Hg 100 – 109 mm Hg 110 – 120 mm Hg 120 mm Hg What is the level of diastolic blood pressure in the severe preeclampsia? 80-89 mmHg 90 – 99 mm Hg 100 – 109 mm Hg > 110 mm Hg 120 mm Hg The level of diastolic blood pressure is 95 mm Hg. For which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension does it characterized ? pregestosis mild preeclampsia moderate preeclampsia D. E. 370. A. B. C. * D. E. 371. A. B. C. D. * E. 372. A. B. * C. D. E. 373. A. B. C. * D. E. 374. A. B. C. * D. E. 375. A. B. C. * D. E. 376. severe preeclampsia eclampsia The level of diastolic blood pressure is 105mm Hg. For which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension does it characterized? pregestosis mild preeclampsia moderate preeclampsia severe preeclampsia eclampsia The level of diastolic blood pressure is 115mm Hg. For which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension does it characterized ? pregestosis mild preeclampsia moderate preeclampsia severe preeclampsia eclampsia The level of proteinuria in 24 hour collection is 0.1 g. For which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension does it characterized? pregestosis mild preeclampsia moderate preeclampsia severe preeclampsia eclampsia The level of proteinuria in 24 hour collection is 0.3 g. For which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension does it characterized? pregestosis mild preeclampsia moderate preeclampsia severe preeclampsia eclampsia The level of proteinuria in 24 hour collection is 0.5 g. For which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension does it characterized? pregestosis mild preeclampsia moderate preeclampsia severe preeclampsia eclampsia The level of proteinuria in 24 hour collection is 1.0. g. For which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension does it characterized? pregestosis mild preeclampsia moderate preeclampsia severe preeclampsia eclampsia The level of proteinuria in 24 hour collection is 6.0. g. For which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension does it characterized? A. B. C. D. * E. 377. A. B. * C. D. E. 378. A. B. C. * D. E. 379. A. B. C. D. * E. 380. A. B. * C. D. E. 381. A. B. C. * D. E. 382. A. B. C. D. * pregestosis mild preeclampsia moderate preeclampsia severe preeclampsia eclampsia The level of thrombocytes is > 150 x 109. For which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension does it characterized? pregestosis mild preeclampsia moderate preeclampsia severe preeclampsia eclampsia The level of thrombocytes is > 80 – 150 x 109. For which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension does it characterized? pregestosis mild preeclampsia moderate preeclampsia severe preeclampsia eclampsia The level of thrombocytes is < 80 x 109. For which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension does it characterized? pregestosis mild preeclampsia moderate preeclampsia severe preeclampsia eclampsia The level of proteinuria is<0,3g/L. For which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension does it characterized? pregestosis mild preeclampsia moderate preeclampsia severe preeclampsia eclampsia The level of protein is 3 g/L. For which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension does it characterized? pregestosis mild preeclampsia moderate preeclampsia severe preeclampsia eclampsia The level of creatinine is > 120 mkmol/L. For which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension does it characterized? pregestosis mild preeclampsia moderate preeclampsia severe preeclampsia E. 383. A. B. * C. D. E. 384. A. B. C. D. * E. 385. A. B. C. * D. E. 386. A. * B. C. D. E. 387. A. B. C. D. * E. 388. A. B. C. * D. E. 389. A. B. C. * D. E. 390. eclampsia What is the adequate management of mild preeclampsia? sedative expectant management hypotensive anticonvulsants spasmolytics Indications to hospitalization in mild preeclampsia are all of the below EXCEPT: gestational age more than 37 weeks presence of any sign of moderate preeclampsia fetoplacental insufficiency high temperature there is no correct answer What is the dose of acetylsalicylic acid for prevention of pregnancy induced hypertension? 20 mg a day 40 mg a day 60 - 100 mg a day 110 – 120 mg a day 120 mg a day What is the dose of calcium for prevention of pregnancy induced hypertension? 2 g a day 4 mg a day 6 mg a day 8 g a day 10 mg a day From which gestational age acetylsalicylic acid is prescribed for prevention of pregnancy induced hypertension? 8 weeks 10 weeks 16 weeks 20 weeks 22 weeks From which gestational age calcium is prescribed for prevention of pregnancy induced hypertension? 8 weeks 10 weeks 16 weeks 20 weeks 22 weeks What is the maximal dose of methyldopa in the treatment of moderate preeclampsia ? 1g in a day 2 g in a day 3 g in a day 4 g in a day 5 g in a day What is the maximal dose of niphedipine in the treatment of moderate preeclampsia? A. * B. C. D. E. 391. A. * B. C. D. E. 392. A. * B. C. D. E. 393. A. B. C. D. E. * 394. A. B. C. * D. E. 395. A. B. * C. D. E. 396. A. B. * C. D. E. 397. A. * B. C. 100 mg in a day 200 mg in a day 300 mg in a day 400 mg in a day 500 mg in a day What is the scheme of niphedipine prescription in the treatment of moderate preeclampsia? 10 mg 3-4 times a day 10 mg 2-3 times a day 20 mg once a day 40 mg a day 5 g once a day To which group does methyldopa belong to? central alpha2 adrenoagonists adrenoblockers spasmolytic anticonvulsant calcium channel blocker To which group does niphedipine belong to? central alpha2 adrenoagonists adrenoblockers vasodilator anticonvulsant calcium channel blocker To which group does hydralasin belong to? central alpha2 adrenoagonists adrenoblockers peripheral vasodilators anticonvulsant calcium channel blocker To which group does metoprolol belong to? central alpha2 adrenoagonists adrenoblockers vasodilators anticonvulsant calcium channel blocker What is the level of diastolic blood pressure in which magnesium sulfate is prescribed? < 100 mm Hg > 110 mm Hg 120 mm Hg < 90 mm Hg 130 mm Hg What is the maximal dose of labetolol in the treatment of severe preeclampsia ? 300 mg a day 400 mg a day 500 mg a day D. E. 398. A. * B. C. D. E. 399. A. B. C. D. E. * 400. A. * B. C. D. E. 401. A. B. C. D. * E. 402. A. B. C. D. * E. 403. A. B. C. D. E. * 404. A. B. C. D. * 700 mg in a day 800 mg in a day What is the initial dose of hydralasin in the treatment of moderate preeclampsia ? 20 mg 40 mg 50 mg 70 mg 80 mg Contraindications to magnesial therapy in the pregnancy induced hypertension include all of the below EXCEPT: decreasing level of calcium depression of centre of breathing arterial hypotension kachexia anemia Which should be normal diuresis in infusion therapy in pregnancy induced hypertension ? 60 ml per hour 80 ml per hour 100 ml per hour 40 ml per hour 20 ml per hour What is the general volume of infusion therapy in pregnancy induced hypertension? 10- 15ml /kg 15 – 20 ml/kg 20 – 25 ml/kg 30 – 35 ml/kg 40 – 45 ml/kg What is the normal duration of magnesial therapy in pregnancy induced hypertension? 12 hours after delivery 18 hours after delivery 20 hours after delivery 24-48 hours after delivery 48-56 hours after delivery All of the below should be checked during prescription magnesial therapy EXCEPT: diuresis per hour patellar reflex respirations fetal heart rate monitoring fetal movement All of the below prescribed for decreasing of blood pressure in pregnancy induced hypertension EXCEPT: central alpha2 adrenoagonists adrenoblockers vasodilators magnesium sulfate E. 405. A. B. C. D. E. * 406. A. B. C. D. * E. 407. A. B. C. D. * E. 408. A. B. C. * D. E. 409. A. B. C. * D. E. 410. A. * B. C. D. E. 411. A. B. C. * D. E. calcium channel blockers All of the below prescribed for decreasing of blood pressure in pregnancy induced hypertension EXCEPT: calcium channel blocker adrenoblockers vasodilators central alpha2 adrenoagonists angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE) inhibitors To major predisposing factors of pregnancy induced hypertension are all of the below EXCEPT: nulliparity familial history of preeclampsia–eclampsia multiple fetuses anemia diabetes To major predisposing factors of pregnancy induced hypertension are all of the below EXCEPT: chronic vascular disease hydatidiform mole fetal hydrops early maternal age familial history of preeclampsia–eclampsia All of the below are the main steps in treatment of eclampsia EXCEPT: control of convulsions correction of hypoxia and acidosis correction of weight gain blood pressure control delivery after control of convulsions. All of the following below prescribed for decreasing of blood pressure in pregnancy induced hypertension EXCEPT: calcium channel blocker adrenoblockers diuretics padrenoblockers central alpha2 adrenoagonists The patient with moderate preeclampsia undergoes to pass urine analysis: once a day twice a day once a week twice a week once a month The patient with moderate preeclampsia undergoes to pass blood analysis for thrombocytes: once a day twice a day once a 3 days once a week once a month 412. A. B. C. * D. E. 413. A. B. C. * D. E. 414. A. B. C. * D. E. 415. A. * B. C. D. E. 416. A. * B. C. D. E. 417. A. B. C. D. * E. 418. A. B. C. D. E. * 419. A. B. * The patient with moderate preeclampsia undergoes to pass blood analysis for creatinin: once a day twice a day once a 3 days once a week once a month The patient with severe preeclampsia undergoes to pass urine analysis: once a day twice a day every 4 hours every 12 hours every 6 hours All of the below are the main forms of gestosis in early terns of pregnancy EXCEPT: hypersalivation mild vomiting severe anemia moderate vomiting severe vomiting All of the below belong to rare forms of gestosis during pregnancy EXCEPT: hyperemesis gravidarum acute fatty liver dermatosis of pregnancy tetania of pregnancy osteomalacia of pregnancy How many times a day the patient with mild vomiting complaints of vomiting? 2-4 times a day 4-6 times a day 6-8 times in 3 days 8-10 times a day every 12 hours How many times a day the patient with moderate vomiting complaints of vomiting? 2-4 times a day 4-6 times a day 6-8 times in 3 days 8-10 times a day more than 10 times a day How many times a day the patient with severe vomiting complaints of vomiting? 2-4 times a day 4-6 times a day 6-8 times in 3 days 8-10 times a day more than 10 times a day All of the below are the main signs of mild vomiting EXCEPT: tachycardia edema C. D. E. 420. A. B. C. * D. E. 421. A. * B. C. D. E. 422. A. B. C. D. E. * 423. A. B. C. D. * E. 424. A. B. C. D. E. * 425. A. B. C. D. E. * 426. A. B. C. * D. E. normal diuresis normal blood pressure general weakness All of the below are the main signs of moderate vomiting EXCEPT: tachycardia increasing of the temperature normal diuresis acetonuria weight loss All of the below are the main signs of severe vomiting EXCEPT: bradycardia increasing of the temperature decreasing of diuresis ketonuria weight loss Which form of early gestosis of pregnancy is called as hyperemesis gravidarum? hypersalivation mild vomiting severe anemia moderate vomiting severe vomiting With all of the above diseases should you differentiate hyperemesis gravidarum EXCEPT? gastroenteritis hepatitis fatty liver of pregnancy bronchial asthma peptic ulcer What is the leading cause of hyperemesis gravidarum? increasing of progesterone decreasing b-subunits of chorionic gonadotropin increasing of b-subunits of chorionic gonadotropin decreasing of progesterone decreasing of estrogens All of the below are the main signs of hyperemesis gravidarum EXCEPT: weight loss dehydration acidosis from starvation alkalosis from loss of hydrochloric acid in vomitus hyperkalemia All of the following belong to the anti-emetics drugs which have been used in early gestosis EXCEPT: promethazine prochlorperazine niphedipine metoclopramide droperidol-diphenhydramine 427. A. * B. C. D. E. 428. A. B. C. D. * E. 429. A. B. C. D. E. * 430. A. B. * C. D. E. 431. A. * B. C. D. E. 432. A. B. C. D. E. * 433. A. B. * C. D. E. 434. A. B. * Which of the following is a mechanism of parenteral metoclopramide efficiency? stimulation of the upper intestinal tract motility stimulatiion gastric secretions stimulation biliary function depression of pancreatic secretion depression of gastric secretions Metoclopramide’ anti-emetic properties apparently result from: increasing of estrogenes increasing of chorionic gonatotropine hormone decreasing of chorionic gonatotropine hormone central antagonism of dopamine receptors decreasing of estrogenes All of the below are the main laboratory findings in hyperemesis gravidarum EXCEPT: ketonuria increasing of hemoglonin increasing of erythrocytes hypokalemia decreasing of hemoglobin All of the below drugs should be prescribed in hyperemesis gravidarum EXCEPT: sedative hypotensive anti-emetic infusion therapy vitamins Which drug should prescribed for decreasing of hypersalivation? atropine sulfatis natrii benzoates niphedipine sodium chloride etaperazine The patient with severe vomiting should pass all of the below laboratory analysis EXCEPT: urine level of thrombocytes hematocrite electrolytes feces What is the best management of pregnancy in the case of acute fatty liver? infusion therapy pregnancy interrupting vitamins sedative drugs spasmolytics drugs What is the best management of pregnancy in the case of osteomalacia of pregnancy? infusion therapy pregnancy interrupting C. D. E. 435. A. B. * C. D. E. 436. A. B. * C. D. E. 437. A. B. C. D. E. * 438. A. * B. C. D. E. 439. A. B. * C. D. E. 440. A. B. C. D. * E. 441. A. B. * C. D. vitamins sedative drugs calcium containing drugs All of the below should be prescribed in infusion therapy in pregnancy induced hypertension EXCEPT: fresh frozen plasma 5 % glucose isotonic solution refortan stabisol Which type of anesthesia is recommended in labor in patients with moderate pregnancy induced hypertension? pudendal epidural general paracervical infiltrative Presence of convulsions characterizes which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension? pregestosis mild preeclampsia moderate preeclampsia severe preeclampsia eclampsia All of the below are the main rare forms of gestosis during pregnancy EXCEPT: hyperemesis gravidarum acute fatty liver dermatosis of pregnancy tetania of pregnancy osteomalacia of pregnancy How many times a day the patient with mild vomiting complaints of vomiting? 4-6 times a day 2-4 times a day 6-8 times in 3 days 8-10 times a day every 12 hours How many times a day the patient with moderate vomiting complaints of vomiting? 2-3 times a day 4-5 times a day 5-6 times in 3 days 8-9 times a day more than 10 times a day How many times a day the patient with severe vomiting complaints of vomiting? 2-4 times a day more than 10 times a day 6-8 times in 3 days 8-10 times a day E. 442. A. B. * C. D. E. 443. A. B. C. * D. E. 444. A. * B. C. D. E. 445. A. B. C. D. E. * 446. A. B. C. D. * E. 447. A. B. C. D. E. * 448. A. B. C. D. E. * 449. A. 4-6 times a day All of the below are the main signs of mild vomiting EXCEPT: tachycardia diarrhea normal diuresis normal blood pressure general weakness All of the below are the main signs of moderate vomiting EXCEPT: tachycardia increasing of the temperature polyuria acetonuria weight loss All of the below are the main signs of severe vomiting EXCEPT: diarrhea increasing of the temperature decreasing of diuresis ketonuria weight loss Which form of early gestosis of pregnancy is severe vomiting: as hyperemesis gravidarum? hypersalivation mild vomiting severe anemia moderate vomiting hyperemesis gravidarum With all of the above diseases should you differentiate hyperemesis gravidarum EXCEPT? gastroenteritis hepatitis fatty liver of pregnancy hypersalivation peptic ulcer What is the leading cause of hyperemesis gravidarum? increasing of progesterone low level b-subunits of chorionic gonadotropin increasing of b-subunits of chorionic gonadotropin low level of progesterone low level of estrogens All of the below are the main signs of hyperemesis gravidarum EXCEPT: weight loss dehydration acidosis from starvation alkalosis from loss of hydrochloric acid in vomitus hypercalcemia All of the following belong to the anti-emetics drugs which have been used in early gestosis EXCEPT: promethazine B. C. * D. E. 450. A. * B. C. D. E. 451. A. B. C. D. * E. 452. A. B. C. D. E. * 453. A. B. * C. D. E. 454. A. * B. C. D. E. 455. A. B. C. D. * E. 456. A. B. * C. D. prochlorperazine labetalol metoclopramide droperidol-diphenhydramine Which of the following is a mechanism of parenteral metoclopramide efficiency? dophamin receptor block stimulatiion gastric secretions stimulation biliary function depression of pancreatic secretion depression of gastric secretions Promethazine’ anti-emetic properties apparently result from: increasing of estrogenes increasing of chorionic gonatotropine hormone decreasing of chorionic gonatotropine hormone H-1 histamin receptor block, anticholinergic effects decreasing of estrogenes All of the below are the main laboratory findings in hyperemesis gravidarum EXCEPT: ketonuria increasing of hemoglonin increasing of erythrocytes hypokalemia decreasing of leukocytes All of the below drugs should be prescribed in hyperemesis gravidarum EXCEPT: sedative antianemic anti-emetic infusion therapy vitamins Which should be recommended for decreasing of hypersalivation? salvia decoction natrii benzoates niphedipine sodium chloride etaperazine The patient with severe vomiting should pass all of the below laboratory analysis EXCEPT: urine level of thrombocytes hematocrite Zimnitsky test electrolytes What is the best management of pregnancy in the case of acute fatty liver? infusion therapy symptomatic treatment and pregnancy interrupting vitamins antyhistamin drugs E. 457. A. B. * C. D. E. 458. A. B. * C. D. E. 459. A. * B. C. D. E. 460. A. B. C. D. E. * 461. A. B. C. * D. E. 462. A. B. C. * D. E. 463. A. B. C. * D. E. spasmolytics drugs What is the management of pregnancy in the case of HELLP -syndrom? infusion therapy pregnancy interrupting vitamins sedative drugs calcium containing drugs All of the below should be prescribed in infusion therapy in pregnancy induced hypertension EXCEPT: fresh frozen plasma blood transfusion isotonic solution refortan stabisol Which type of anesthesia is Not recommended in labor in patients with moderate pregnancy induced hypertension? pudendal epidural general all abovel nothing above Which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension characterizes presence of convulsions? pregestosis mild preeclampsia moderate preeclampsia severe preeclampsia eclampsia What is the World Health Organization definition of a premature infant? <2500 g 38 weeks or less 37 weeks or less 36 weeks or less < 2000 g In days, how is a postterm pregnancy defined? >280 days >287 days >294 days >300 days 310 days In a woman with a favourable cervix and an estimated fetal weight of 3850 g, what is the appropriate management at a certain 42 weeks’ gestation? expectant management start fetal surveillance induce labor schedule cesarean section there is no correct answer 464. A. B. C. * D. E. 465. A. B. C. D. * E. 466. A. B. C. * D. E. 467. A. B. C. D. * E. 468. A. * B. C. D. E. 469. A. B. C. D. * E. 470. A. * B. C. D. E. 471. At what gestational age does the incidence of complications due to prematurity equal that of term infants? 25 to 26 weeks 28 to 30 weeks 32 to 34 weeks 36 weeks or more 22-24 weeks What is the preferred management of preterm rupture of membranes on the 36 week of gestation? antibiotics tocolytics steroids expectant spasmolitics How is postterm pregnancy defined? beyond 37 weeks beyond 40 weeks beyond 42 weeks beyond 44 weeks beyond 46 weeks In a woman with an unfavorable cervix and an estimated fetal weight of 3800 g, what is the appropriate management at a certain 42 weeks’ gestation? labor induction cesarean section fetal surveillance plus hospitalization cervical ripening there is no correct answer How is preterm labor defined? from 22 to 36 weeks from 24 to 38 weeks from 28 to 37 weeks from 28 to 38 weeks from 22 to 38 weeks Which of the following is NOT true concerning indomethacin? is used to treat preterm labor is a prostaglandin synthetase inhibitor may cause premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus decreases neonatal intracranial hemorrhage there is no correct answer Which of the following vaginal infections is positively associated with preterm birth? bacterial vaginosis trichomonal vaginalis candida vaginalis herpes simplex infections gardnerella vaginalis What is the mechanism of action of b-adrenergic agents? A. B. * C. D. E. 472. A. * B. C. D. E. 473. A. B. C. D. * E. 474. A. B. * C. D. E. 475. A. B. * C. D. E. 476. A. B. * C. D. E. 477. A. B. * C. D. E. 478. A. * B. C. blocks thymidine kinase activates adenylcyclase blocks conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP increases intracellular calcium there is no correct answer Which of the following is NOT a description associated with the postterm infant? smooth skin patchy peeling skin long, thin body worried looking face there is no correct answer What is the management of the preterm labor in the case breech presentation? expectant management start fetal surveillance induce labor cesarean section there is no correct answer All of the below are prescribes in the case of danger of preterm labor EXCEPT: spasmolytics contractil drugs sedative drugs Prostaglandines’ synthesis inhibitors b-adrenomimetic drugs According to Friedman, what is prolongation of the latent phase of labor in a primigravida? 14 hr 20 hr 24 hr 48 hr 52 hr What is the duration of active-phase labor in nulliparous women? <3 hr 4 to 5 hr 6 to 8 hr ~12 hr there is no correct answer Which prostaglandin has been used for cervical ripening? F2a E2 F10 М1 A2 What is the mean half-life of oxytocin in plasma? 5 min 10 min 15 min D. E. 479. A. B. C. * D. E. 480. A. B. * C. D. E. 481. A. * B. C. D. E. 482. A. B. C. D. * E. 483. A. B. * C. D. E. 484. A. B. * C. D. E. 485. A. B. C. * D. E. 486. 20 min there is no correct answer All of the following are the main signs of false labor EXCEPT: Irregular intervals and duration Painful uterine contractions Presence cervical dilation Increased uterine tone Unchanged intensity of uterine contractions In the parous woman, how is the prolonged latent phase defined? >6 hr >14 hr >20 hr >24 hr there is no correct answer Where in the myometrium uterine contractions of normal labor begin and last longest? fundus lower uterine segment cervix laterally in miduterus there is no correct answer How long does it take oxytocin to reach steady state levels in the plasma? 5 min 10 min 20 min 40 min there is no correct answer All of the below are prescribes in the case of false labor EXCEPT: Therapeutic rest contractiles drugs sedative drugs Prostaglandines’ synthesis inhibitors beta-adrenomimetic drugs Management of the uterine inertia in the second stage of labor includes all of the following EXCEPT: Augmentation of labor Spasmolytics Forceps application Vacuum application Cesarean section According to Friedman, what are the phases of cervical dilatation? preparatory–active preparatory–latent latent- active active pelvic there is no correct answer Which factor likely contributes to the prolongation of the latent phase? A. B. C. * D. E. 487. A. B. * C. D. E. 488. A. B. C. * D. E. 489. A. B. * C. D. E. 490. A. B. * C. D. E. 491. A. B. * C. D. E. 492. A. B. C. D. * E. 493. A. B. excessive sedation conduction analgesia uneffaced and undilated cervix all of the above there is no correct answer In a multiparous woman, secondary arrest of dilatation is defined as no cervical dilatation for how long? >1 hr >2 hr >3 hr >14 hr 15 hr In a nulliparous woman, how long is the prolonged deceleration phase? >1 hr >2 hr >3 hr >20 hr 22 hr All of the below are prescribes in the case of excessive uterine activity EXCEPT: Therapeutic rest contractiles drugs sedative drugs Prostaglandines’ synthesis inhibitors beta-adrenomimetic drugs In a primigravida, what is the minimum rate of dilation of the cervix in the active phase of labor? 0.5 cm/hr 1.2 cm/hr 1.5 cm/hr 2.0 cm/hr there is no correct answer What is the preferred treatment for a nulliparous patient with prolonged deceleration phase and no signs of cephalopelvic disproportion? sedation oxytocin cesarean section increased hydration there is no correct answer Which of the following is NOT true of hypertonic dysfunction? may be associated with placental abruption painful contraction ineffective cervical dilation occurs usually after 4 cm there is no correct answer All of the following belong the signs of uterine inertia EXCEPT Inadequate uterine activity Lack of the progressive cervical effacement C. D. * E. 494. A. * B. C. D. E. 495. A. B. * C. D. E. 496. A. B. C. D. E. * 497. A. B. * C. D. E. 498. A. B. C. * D. E. 499. A. B. C. D. * E. 500. A. B. * C. D. Station of presenting part in the pelvic inlet (- 3, -2 station) for a long period of time and slowly descent of the fetus in the case of “cephalopelvic disproportion” absence adequate cervical dilation Increased duration of labor All of the below are prescribes in the case of discoordinative uterine activity EXCEPT: contractile drugs Therapeutic rest sedative drugs Prostaglandines’ synthesis inhibitors beta-adrenomimetic drugs All of the below are prescribes in the case of false labor EXCEPT: Therapeutic rest contractiles drugs sedative drugs Prostaglandines’ synthesis inhibitors beta-adrenomimetic drugs All of the below are the types of abnormal labour EXCEPT: False labor primary uterine inertia secondary uterine inertia Incoordinative uterine activity danger of uterine inertia All of the below are the types of incoordinative uterine activity EXCEPT: dyscoordination primary uterine inertia hyperactivity of lower uterine segment uterine tetania circulative dystocia All of the below are the signs of false labor EXCEPT: Painful uterine contractions Irregular intervals and duration of uterine contractions Painless uterine contractions No cervical dilation Relief from sedation All of the below are the signs of false labor EXCEPT: Painful uterine contractions Irregular intervals and duration of uterine contractions uterine contractions don’t increased with physical activity cervical effacement, dilation Relief from sedation All of the below are the signs of false labor EXCEPT: Increased uterine tone Regular intervals and duration of uterine contractions uterine contractions don’t increased with physical activity absence of cervical dilation E. B. lasts more than 6 hours All of the below are prescribes in the case of false labor EXCEPT: spasmolytics oxytocin sedative indomethacine partusisten All of the below are the main causes of uterine contractions abnormality EXCEPT: maternal exhaustion pathological changes of uterine cervix and uterus Cephalopelvic disproportion postdate pregnancy placental abruption All of the below are the main causes of uterine contractions abnormality EXCEPT: polyhydramnion multiple pregnancy administration of excess anesthesia placental previa there is no correct answer Which type of uterine inertia is called as primary? occurs from the 2cm cervical dilation till the end of labor occurs from the 4 cm cervical dilation till the end of labor occurs from the early onset of labor and lasts until the end of labor. occurs from the 6 cm cervical dilation till 8 cm dilation occurs in the second stage of labor All of the below are the main signs of uterine inertia EXCEPT: Inadequate uterine activity Lack of the progressive cervical effacement and dilation Increased duration of labor -2 station of the fetal head for a long period of time 0- station of the fetal head for 30 minutes What firstly should you prescribe for uterine inertia treatment? Therapeutic rest in the case of maternal exhaustion. amniotomy C. D. E. 507. A. B. C. * D. E. 508. A. induction of labor by oxytocin induction of labor by prostaglandins spasmolytics All of the below are prescribed for therapeutic rest in the case of uterine inertia EXCEPT: Promedol Atropin Sulfatis Enzaprost Droperidol Natrii Oxybuturatis Which of the following is NOT associated with III stage of labor? uterine contractions 501. A. B. * C. D. E. 502. A. B. C. D. E. * 503. A. B. C. D. * E. 504. A. B. C. * D. E. 505. A. B. C. D. E. * 506. A. * B. E. 514. placental expulsion placental separation pushing fetal internal rotation Which of the following characterizes I stage of labor? myometrial relaxation uterine awakening fetal expulsion pushing cervical dilatation Which contraction duration (sec) characterizes active labor? 20 30 60 90 100 What is the minimal dilatation during the first stage of labor in multiparous? 0,5-0,8 cm/hour 0,8-1.0 cm/hour 1.0-1.2 cm/hour 1.2-1.5 cm/hour 2.0-2.5 cm/hour What is the most important measure of labor progression? contraction frequency contraction intensity contraction duration cervical dilatation cervical effacement Which of the following characterizes phase 2 of labor? fetal expulsion uterine awakening cervical effacement cervical dilatation placental separation Which of the following characterizes III stage of labor? A. B. C. D. E. * 515. A. B. C. D. myometrial tranquility fetal expulsion cervical effacement cervical dilatation placental separation Where are prostaglandins synthesized? adrenal gland placenta posterior pituitary ovary C. D. E. * 509. A. B. C. D. E. * 510. A. B. C. * D. E. 511. A. B. C. D. * E. 512. A. B. C. D. * E. 513. A. * B. C. D. E. * D. decidua Which of the following is characteristic the I stage of true labor? irregular contractions discomfort in lower abdomen cervical dilatation discomfort relieved by sedation fetal expulsion How often should the fetal heart rate be auscultated during the second stage of labor? 5 min 10 min 15 min 30 min after every uterine contraction What is the maximal duration of the second stage of labor in primiparas? 5 min 20 min 50 min 100 min 120 min What is the station where the presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines? -2 -1 0 +1 +2 What is the station where the presenting part is at the level of the pelvic inlet? -2 -1 0 +1 +2 When the cervix and vagina should be inspected for lacerations? after first signs of placental separation after fetal delivery after placental delivery after suturing of the lacerations of vagina E. 522. A. B. C. D. * E. 523. A. 2 hours after delivery Which is the first of perineal protective maneuver? the decreasing of perineal tension the delivery of the fetal head out of the pushing delivery of the shoulders prevention of preterm fetal extension regulation of maternal efforts Which is the second of perineal protective maneuver? the decreasing of perineal tension 516. A. B. C. * D. E. 517. A. B. C. D. E. * 518. A. B. C. D. E. * 519. A. B. C. * D. E. 520. A. * B. C. D. E. 521. A. B. C. * B. * C. D. E. 524. A. * B. C. D. E. 525. A. B. C. D. E. * 526. A. B. C. * D. E. 527. A. B. C. D. E. * 528. A. B. C. D. E. * 529. A. B. C. * D. E. 530. A. B. * C. the delivery of the fetal head out of the pushing delivery of the shoulders prevention of preterm fetal extension regulation of maternal efforts Which is the third of perineal protective maneuver? the decreasing of perineal tension by borrowing tissues the delivery of the fetal head out of the pushing delivery of the shoulders prevention of preterm fetal extension regulation of maternal efforts Which is the fourth of perineal protective maneuver? the decreasing of perineal tension the delivery of the fetal head out of the pushing delivery of the shoulders prevention of preterm fetal extension regulation of maternal efforts Which is the fifth of perineal protective maneuver? the decreasing of perineal tension the delivery of the fetal head out of the pushing delivery of the shoulders prevention of preterm fetal extension regulation of maternal efforts What is the most reliable indicator of rupture of the fetal membranes? fluid per cervical os positive nitrazine test positive ferning test membranes are not palpated all of the above Which moment of the fetal membranes rupture is considered as a normal? before the beginning of uterine contraction at the beginning of I stage of labor at the end of I stage of labor at the beginning of II stage of labor all of the above What is the maximal duration of the third stage of labor? 5 min 20 min 30 min 50 min 120 min How often during the first stage of labor should the fetal heart rate be auscultated in a low-risk pregnancy? every 5 min before a contraction every 15 min after a contraction every 40 min before a contraction D. E. 531. A. B. C. D. * E. 532. A. B. * C. D. E. 533. A. B. * C. D. E. 534. A. B. * C. D. E. 535. A. B. C. D. E. * 536. A. * B. C. D. E. 537. A. B. * every 45 min after a contraction after every uterine contraction The pregnant woman at term complaints on the irregular lower abdomen pains. The cervix is not effaced, close. What is the diagnosis? second stage of labor the beginning of the first stage of labor the end of the first stage of labor the false labor third stage of labor The pregnant woman at term complaints on the regular lower abdomen pains. The cervix is effaced, dilated on 2-3 cm. What is the diagnosis? second stage of labor latent phase of first stage of labor the end of the first stage of labor the false labor third stage of labor The baby was born 5 min ago. The signs of placental separation are negative. The bleeding begins. The blood lost is 450 ml. What is the doctor’s tactic? to continue the observation to perform the manual placental separation to propose the patient to push to pull on the umbilical cord to perform the massage of the uterus What factor is determining the forming of pain intensity during labor? level of oxytocin in the organism; level of pain sensitiveness; force of cerebral impulses; force of uterine contractions; patient’s behavior. What is the aim of conducting of psychoprophylaxis classes? to remove the emotional component of labor pain; to remove the sense of fear; to form the positive dominant of labor; to acquaint with duration of labor act; all transferred. What is the aim of a I psychoprophylaxis class? to acquaint the patient with an anatomy and physiology of female genitalia and processes, that take place in an organism during labor; to teach patient to behave correctly in I period of labor, to use the methods of anaesthetizing; to teach the patient to push correctly; to teach the patient to breathe between pushing correctly; to acquaint pregnant with physiology duration of puerperium and to take care of new-born. What is the aim of ІІ psychoprophylaxis class? to acquaint patient with an anatomy and physiology of female genitalia and processes, that take place in an organism during labor; to teach patient to behave correctly in I period of labor, to use the methods of anaesthetizing; C. D. E. 538. A. B. C. D. * E. 539. A. * B. C. D. E. 540. A. * B. C. D. E. 541. A. * B. C. D. E. 542. A. B. C. * D. E. 543. A. B. C. D. E. * 544. A. B. C. * D. to teach the patient to push correctly; to teach the patient to breathe between pushing correctly; to acquaint pregnant with physiology duration of puerperium and to take care of new-born. What is an obligatory condition for the beginning of the medicinal anaesthetizing of labor? the fluid gash; normal feto-pelvic proportions; physiology duration of labor; presence of regular uterine contractions and opening of uterine cervix on 3-4 cm; primapara. What condition is obligatory for the beginning of the medicinal anaesthetizing of labor? opening of uterine cervix on 3-4 cm; normal feto-pelvic proportions; physiology duration of labor; the fluid gash; primapara. What side effect of promedol limits the term of its introduction in labor? depresses the respiratory center of fetus; causes bradicardia at a mother; causes a somnolence; causes tachicardia at a mother; causes the allergic reactions. What is the peculiarity of introduction of promedol for anaesthetizing of labor? should be given at least 2 hours to the birth of fetus; should be given only in the ІІ period of labor; should be given only one time; should be given only intravenously; should be given in combination with spasmolytics. What requirement is obligatory for medicines, which are used for the medicinal anaesthetizing? to decrease the uterine contractions; to improve the state of fetus; do not depress the contractive activity of uterus; not to cause a somnolence; to have short time of action. What medicine is used for the protracted operations with uterine relaxation? trilen; viadril; promedol; nitrous oxide; phtorotan. The second stage of labor at patient is finished by obstetric forceps applying. What anaesthetizing is the best? inhalation anesthesia; epidural anesthesia; intravenous anesthesia; local anaesthetizing; E. B. it is possible to perform without any anesthesia. Which of the follows is the most effective for cervical dilation in the I stage of labor? analgin in pills; no-shpa in pills; novocaine 0,25%; baralgin 5 ml intravenously; papaverin 2% 2 ml i/m. What method of anaesthetizing is used in I and ІІ stage of preterm labor? epidural anesthesia; inhalation anesthesia; intravenous anesthesia; local anaesthetizing; spazmolitics. What middle weight of uterus at once after labor? 100-200 g; 300-400 g; 500-600 g; 700-800 g; 900-1000 g. How long is the early puerperium? 30 min; 3 days 12 days; 2 hours 6-8 weeks. Lochia rubra consist of all the following, EXEPT blood shreds of the membranes parts of placenta decidual membrane erythrocytes. Lochia alba consist of all the following, EXEPT blood mucus leucocytes decidual cells erythrocytes. What level the fundus of uterus on the 1 day after labor is found at? on a 1 transversal finger below than umbilicus; on 2 transversal fingers below than umbilicus; C. D. E. 552. A. on 2 transversal fingers higher than pubis; on a middle between a umbilicus and pubis; at the level of pubis. What level the fundus of uterus on a 4th day after labor is found at? on a 1 transversal finger below than umbilicus; 545. A. B. C. D. * E. 546. A. * B. C. D. E. 547. A. B. C. D. E. * 548. A. B. C. D. * E. 549. A. B. C. * D. E. 550. A. * B. C. D. E. 551. A. * B. C. * D. E. 553. A. * B. C. D. E. 554. A. B. C. D. * E. 555. A. B. C. D. * E. 556. A. B. C. D. E. * 557. A. B. * C. D. E. 558. A. B. C. * D. E. 559. A. B. C. on 2 transversal fingers below than umbilicus; on a middle between an umbilicus and pubis; on 2 transversal fingers higher than pubis; at the level of pubis. What character does lochia in first 3 days after labor have? bloody; bloody-serosal; serosal-bloody; serosal; mucousal. What character does lochia on a 7-9 day after labor have ? bloody; bloody-serosal; serosal; serosal-bloody; mucous. What character does lochia on a 10 day after labor have? bloody; bloody-serosal; serosal-bloody; serosal; mucous. What affirmation in relation to the state of cervix just after labor is correct? the cervix is closed; the cervix admits a 1 transversal finger; the cervix admits 3-4 transversal fingers; the cervix is formed. the cervix admits a hand; What assertion in relation to the state of cervix on a 9 day after labor is correct? the cervix is closed; the cervix admits a 1 transversal finger; the cervix admits 3-4 transversal fingers; the cervix admits a hand; the cervix is formed. What hormone response for proliferation of secretory tissue of breast ? prolactin; lyoteinizied hormone; estrogens; prostaglandins; corticosteroids. What factor can be negatively reflected on the gemodinamic parameters of puerperal woman at first hours of puerperium? fatigue after the labor; beginning of lactation; contraction of uterus; D. B. perineal ruptures; stopping of functioning of utero-placental circle of blood circulation and related to it redistribution of blood. What complications can develop due to the incorrect suturing of cervical rupture in a future? cervical ectropion; violation of function of pelvic muscles; prolaps of uterus; endometritis; bleeding. Physiological blood lost of puerperal woman by mass 76 kg is: 260 ml; 380 ml; 320 ml; 240 ml; 450 ml. What assertion is wrong in relation to a colostrum? the producing started on 2nd day after labor; is the yellow liquid; the producing started on 4-5th day after labor; contains the high quantity of fats; contains albumens and antibodies. For a valuable lactation there are the necessary following factors, except for: early applying of child to the breasts; correct technique of applying the baby to the breasts; rational feeding of the mother; feeding of child “on call”; feeding of child exactly on hours. The physiologycal blood lost of puerperal woman by mass 64 kg is: 260 ml; 380 ml; 320 ml; 240 ml; 450 ml. What hormone is produced by a pituitary gland under the act of nipple compression at feeding of child? oxythocin; vasopressin; progesteron; prolactin; estradiol. What is contra-indication for mother and child staying togetherin postnatal wards? perineal rupture 1st; cervical rupture; C. D. E. * uterine subinvolution; the birth trauma of child; preeclampsia ІІІ st. E. * 560. A. * B. C. D. E. 561. A. B. * C. D. E. 562. A. B. C. * D. E. 563. A. B. C. D. E. * 564. A. B. C. * D. E. 565. A. B. C. D. * E. 566. A. 567. E. 574. All of below is recommended for the diet of lactating woman, except: plenty of fluids; adequate amount of protein plenty of vitamins, fat, minerals limitation of the use of liquid; high calories. What is excluded from the diet of lactating woman? plenty of fluids; adequate amount of protein chocolate milk; meat. What the uterine subinvolution is? deceleration of process of uterine involution; speed-up of the uterine involution; delay of lochia in the uterine cavity; initial stage of endometritis; slow closing of cervix. At which time of puerperium does milk become mature? on 2-3; on 5-6; on 8-10; on 10-12; on 15-16. Whant is the maximal physiologycal blood lost in labor? 0,1 % from body weight 0,3 % from body weight 0,5 % from body weight 0,7 % from body weight 1 % from body weight Physiologycal blood lost of puerperal woman by mass 68 kg is: 260 ml; 380 ml; 360 ml; 340 ml; 420 ml. What hormone initiates lactogenesis? prolactin; progesteron; estradiol; oxytocin; luteotropin. When a baby is at the first time put to the mother’ breasts? A. B. * 2 hours after birth; during the first 30 minutes after birth; A. * B. C. D. E. 568. A. B. C. * D. E. 569. A. * B. C. D. E. 570. A. B. * C. D. E. 571. A. B. C. * D. E. 572. A. B. C. D. * E. 573. A. * B. C. D. C. B. C. D. * after 2 days after birth; after adjusting of lactation at a mother; in 2-3 days after birth. What is contraindicated at the breasts feeding of baby? the use of baby's dummy; feeding “on call of” baby; frequent feeding of child; early beginning of the breasts-feeding. rational feed of mother. Which of the following is characteristic of true labor? Irregular contractions Discomfort in lower abdomen Cervical dilatation Discomfort relieved by sedation Passage of the blood-tinged When should the fetal heart rate be auscultated during observation for labor in the II stage? Before the contraction During the contraction At the end and immediately after a contraction Any time After delivery What is the station where the fetal head is visible at the introitus? +2 +3 +4 +5 0 What is the most reliable indicator of rupture of the fetal membranes? Fluid per cervical os Positive nitrazine test Positive ferning Positive oncofetal fibronectin Bloody discharge What is the station where the presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines? -2 -1 0 +1 +2 During the third stage of labor, which of the following is NOT a sign of placenta separation? A gush of blood Uterus rises in the abdomen Umbilical cord protrudes out of the vagina A sudden, sharp, unrelenting contraction E. Cessation of umbilical vessels pulsation D. E. 575. A. * B. C. D. E. 576. A. B. C. * D. E. 577. A. B. C. * D. E. 578. A. B. * C. D. E. 579. A. B. C. * D. E. 580. A. B. C. * D. E. 581. A. 582. A. B. C. * D. E. 583. A. B. C. * D. E. 584. A. * B. C. D. E. 585. A. B. * C. D. E. 586. A. * B. C. D. E. 587. A. B. * C. D. E. 588. A. B. C. D. E. * 589. A. * B. What is the primary mechanism of placental site hemostasis? Vasoconstriction by contracted myometrium Oxytocin Ergonovine maleate Methylergonovine Prostaglandines Level of contractile ring above the symphysis 3 fingers suggests about: 4 cm cervical dilation 2 cm cervical dilation 6 cm cervical dilation Amniotic fluid gush Complete cervical dilation What is edematous swelling of the fetal scalp during labor? Molding Caput succedaneum Subdural hematoma Erythema nodusum Epidural hematoma What is the minimal physiologic blood loss in labor? 100 ml 250 ml 300 ml 350 ml 450 ml Level of contractile ring above the symphysis 2 fingers suggests about: 4 cm cervical dilation 2 cm cervical dilation 6 cm cervical dilation Amniotic fluid gush Complete cervical dilation Level of contractile ring above the symphysis 1 finger suggests about: 4 cm cervical dilation 2 cm cervical dilation 6 cm cervical dilation Amniotic fluid gush Complete cervical dilation Level of contractile ring above the symphysis 5 fingers suggests about: 4 cm cervical dilation 2 cm cervical dilation 6 cm cervical dilation Amniotic fluid gush Complete cervical dilation Which uterine contractions in the beginning of the first stage of labor are called as regular: 1- 2 uterine contractions every 10-15 minutes by duration 15-20 seconds 1 uterine contraction every 10-15 minutes by duration 10 seconds C. D. E. 590. A. B. C. D. E. * 591. A. B. C. * D. E. 592. A. * B. C. D. E. 593. A. B. C. * D. E. 594. A. B. C. D. E. * 595. A. * B. C. D. E. 596. A. * B. C. D. E. 2- 3 uterine contractions every 5-6 minutes by duration 15-20 seconds 2 uterine contractions every 25-30 minutes by duration 5-10 seconds 4 uterine contractions every 10 minutes by duration 5-10 seconds In which cervical dilation of normal labor releasing of amniotic fluid gush is presented: 4 cm cervical dilation 2 cm cervical dilation 6 cm cervical dilation 7 cm cervical dilation 8-10 cm cervical dilation Where does the fetal head is located in full cervical dilation? 2 station 1 station 0 station +1 station +2 station Positive Alfeld’ sign in the placental stage of labor is: Lenghtening of the umbilical cord A gush of blood Uterus rises in the abdomen A sudden, sharp, unrelenting contraction Cessation of umbilical vessels pulsation Positive Shreder’ sign in the placental stage of labor is: Lengthening of the umbilical cord A gush of blood Uterus rises in the abdomen A sudden, sharp, unrelenting contraction Cessation of umbilical vessels pulsation Positive Strasman’ sign in the placental stage of labor is: Lengthening of the umbilical cord A gush of blood Uterus rises in the abdomen A sudden, sharp, unrelenting contraction Cessation of umbilical vessels pulsation Positive Chukalov -Kustner’ sign in the placental stage of labor is: umbilical cord doesn’t change its length in pressing by palm above the symphysis A gush of blood Uterus rises in the abdomen Painful uterine contraction Cessation of umbilical vessels pulsation How do you called the sign in the placental stage of labor if umbilical cord doesn’t change its length in pressing by palm above the symphysis Positive Chukalov -Kustner’ sign Negative Chukalov -Kustner’ sign Positive Strasman’ sign Positive Shreder’ sign Positive Alfeld’ sign 597. A. B. C. * D. E. 598. A. B. C. D. * E. 599. A. B. C. D. E. * 600. A. B. * C. D. E. 601. A. * B. C. D. E. 602. A. * B. C. D. E. 603. A. * B. C. D. E. 604. A. B. Cessation of umbilical vessels pulsation in the placental stage of labor is: Positive Chukalov -Kustner’ sign: Positive Vasten sign Positive Strasman’ sign Positive Shreder’ sign Positive Alfeld’ sign Uterus rises in the abdomen in the placental stage of labor is: Positive Chukalov -Kustner’ sign Positive Vasten sign Positive Strasman’ sign Positive Shreder’ sign Positive Alfeld’ sign Lengthening of the umbilical cord in the placental stage of labor is: Positive Chukalov -Kustner’ sign Positive Vasten sign Positive Strasman’ sign Positive Shreder’ sign Positive Alfeld’ sign Cervical effacement - is: A gush of blood Thinning of the cervix Braxton- Hicks contractions Passage of the blood-tinged mucus Increasing of the cervix How many stages does the placental stage of labor have? 2 3 4 5 1 What is the average duration of the second stage of labor in nulliparous women? 20 min- 2 hours 2 hours 15 – 20 minutes < 15 minutes 2- 3 hours What is the average duration of the placental stage of labor in nulliparous women? 5- 20 minutes < 5- 20 minutes 5- 20 minutes 2-3 minutes 1 hour All of the below are the main compounds of pushing efforts EXCEPT: uterine contractions contractions of prelum abdominale C. pelvic floor muscles contractions D. E. * 605. A. B. C. D. * E. 606. A. B. C. * D. contractions of the diaphragm contractions of the pharynx Where does the fetal head is located in the beginning of the pushing efforts? in the pelvic inlet in the plane of the greatest dimension in the mid pelvisleast plane +4 in the outlet above the pelvic inlet Cervical stage of labor starts from: regular uterine contractions till 4 cm dilation of the cervix irregular uterine contractions till 6 cm dilation of the cervix regular uterine contractions till 10 cm dilation of the cervix regular uterine contractions till 6 cm dilation of the cervix regular uterine contractions till releasing of the amniotic fluid Fetal stage of labor starts from: regular uterine contractions till 4 cm dilation of the cervix full dilation of the cervix till delivery of the fetus full dilation of the cervix till delivery of the placenta 6 cm dilation of the cervix till delivery of the placenta regular uterine contractions till releasing of the amniotic fluid Placental stage of labor starts from: delivery of the placenta till 2 hours full dilation of the cervix till delivery of the fetus full dilation of the cervix till delivery of the placenta delivery of the fetus till delivery of the placenta regular uterine contractions till releasing of the amniotic fluid How often during the first stage of labor the vaginal examination should the performed in the case of normal duration of labor? Every 30 min Every 45 minutes Every 2 hours Every 4 hours Once in a hour Latent phase of the first stage of labor starts from: regular uterine contractions till 3-4 cm dilation of the cervix irregular uterine contractions till 6 cm dilation of the cervix regular uterine contractions till 10 cm dilation of the cervix regular uterine contractions till 6 cm dilation of the cervix regular uterine contractions till releasing of the amniotic fluid Active phase of the first stage of labor starts from: regular uterine contractions till 3-4 cm dilation of the cervix regular uterine contractions till 6 cm dilation of the cervix regular uterine contractions till 10 cm dilation of the cervix regular uterine contractions till 6 cm dilation of the cervix E. 607. A. B. * C. D. E. 608. A. B. C. D. * E. 609. A. B. C. D. * E. 610. A. * B. C. D. E. 611. A. B. C. D. E. * 612. A. B. C. D. * E. 613. A. B. C. D. E. * 614. A. * B. C. D. E. 615. A. * B. C. D. E. 616. A. B. * C. D. E. 617. A. * B. C. D. E. 618. A. B. C. * 3-4 cm dilation of the cervix till full cervical dilation How do you called the peripheral way of the placenta separation from the uterine wall? Abuladze Henter’s Krede- Lazarevich Dunkan Shultse How do you called the central way of the placenta separation from the uterine wall? Abuladze Henter’s Krede- Lazarevich Dunkan Shultse How do you called the method of separated placental removal: “The uterus is situated in the midline position. The abdominal wall is grasped by the fingers in the longitudinal fold an asked the woman to push”. Abuladze Henter’s Krede- Lazarevich Dunkan Shultse How do you called the method of separated placental removal: “The uterus is situated in the midline position. Two firsts are located in the uterine fundus and a doctor …………”. Abuladze Henter’s Krede- Lazarevich Dunkan Shultse How do you called the method of separated placental removal: “The uterus is situated in the midline position. Catheherization of urinary bladder is performed. Large finger is located in the anterior uterine wall, the rests – on the posterior one. The uterus is grasped in the anterior-posterior direction. Abuladze Henter’s Krede- Lazarevich Dunkan Shultse Which method of manual removal of the sepatared placenta is the least traumatic? Abuladze Henter’s Krede- Lazarevich Dunkan Shultse Which operation does belong to the birth preparing operations? obstetric forceps cesarean section amniotomy D. E. 619. A. B. C. D. E. * 620. A. B. C. D. E. * 621. A. B. C. * D. E. 622. A. B. C. * D. E. 623. A. * B. C. D. E. 624. A. B. C. * D. E. 625. A. * B. C. D. E. 626. craniotomy cervical cerclage Choose indication for cervical cerclage: threatened abortion inevitable abortion incomplete abortion placenta previa cervical incompetence What is the normal duration of false labor? >1 hr >2 hr >3 hr 4 hr > 6 hr All of the above are the indications for forceps application, exept: fetal distress primary uterine inertia contracted pelvis placenta abruption in the second stage of labor secondary uterine inertia What is the indication for the operation of applying obstetric forceps? placenta previa placenta abruption hypotonic uterine contractions contracted pelvis high direct standing of the fetal head Which of the following is true of blindness in conjunction of pregnancy induced hypertension? occur in severe preeclampsia occur in moderate preeclampsia occur in mild preeclampsia is not present in pregnancy induced hypertension there is no correct answer Which of the following is NOT a sign of severe pregnancy-induced hypertension? upper abdominal pain oliguria polyuria fetal growth retardation visual disturbances Which sign suggest about magnesium toxicity? decreasing of patellar reflex Depression increasing of breathing polyuria there is no correct answer Which sign suggest about magnesium toxicity? A. * B. C. D. E. 627. A. B. C. D. E. * 628. A. B. C. D. * E. 629. A. B. * C. D. E. 630. A. B. * C. D. E. 631. A. B. * C. D. E. 632. A. B. * C. D. E. 633. A. * B. C. oliguria increasing of breathing polyuria insomnia there is no correct answer All drugs should be prescribed in Hyperemesis gravidarum EXEPT? infusion therapy antiemetic intravenous droperidol-diphenhydramine metoclopramide parenterally intravenous prostaglandyns Which operation is performed for reduction of fetal shoulders in labor? amniotomy; embriotomy; craniotomy; cleidotomy; cranioklazia What type of cesarean section is more frequent performed in obstetric? corporal transverse lower segment vertical lower segment extraperitoneal intraperitoneal Choose the contraindications for cesarean section anatomic contracted pelvis endometritis in labor cefaloopelvic disproportion deflexed position of the fetal head breech presentation What is contraindication for performing of operation of external version of the fetus? premature fetus multifetal pregnancy breech presentation transverse fetal lie oblique fetal lie Choose the indication episiotomy in labor? danger for perineal rupture fetal distress large fetus brow presentation deflexed vertex presentation Chose the indication for episiotomy? breech presentation uterine inertia placental abruption D. E. 634. A. * B. C. D. E. 635. A. * B. C. D. E. 636. A. B. * C. D. E. 637. A. * B. C. D. E. 638. A. * B. C. D. E. 639. A. B. C. * D. E. 640. A. B. C. D. * E. 641. placenta previa diabetus mellitus in pregnancy Choose the indication for episiotomy? scar in the perineal region placental dysfunction transverse fetal lie oblique fetal lie multifetal pregnancy Choose indications to corporal cesarean section: adhesions in the lower uterine segment breech presentation oblique fetal lie deflexed fetal presentation scar insufficiency in the uterus Choose indications to corporal cesarean section: breech presentation large intramural node in the lower uterine segment oblique fetal lie scar insufficiency in the uterus placental abruption What index in the general blood analysis indicate the severity of pregnancy induced hypertetnsion ? thrombocytes leukocytes hemoglobin basophiles neutrophiles Indications to planned cesarean section in diabetus mellitus and pregnancy? ”fresh” hemorrhages in retinae placenta abruption placenta previa cervical incompetence probable fetal weight 3700 g In regard to preeclampsia, proteinuria is defined as how much urinary excretion? 100 mg/24 hr 200 mg/24 hr 300 mg/24 hr 500 mg/24 hr 600 mg/24 hr Which of the following is NOT diagnostic of moderate preeclampsia? serum creatinine from 75 – 120 mkmol/L <0,3 – 5 g proteinuria in 24 hour collection 39 - 42 hematocrit diastolic blood pressure 110 mm. Hg 180-150.000 thrombocytes What is the significance of maternal thrombocytopenia in a patient with preeclampsia? A. B. * C. D. E. 642. A. * B. C. D. E. 643. A. B. C. * D. E. 644. A. B. C. D. E. * 645. A. B. C. D. E. * 646. A. B. C. D. E. * 647. A. B. C. D. E. * is a fetal indication for cesarean section indicates severity of disease requires therapy with platelets is a contraindication to scalp pH determination there is no correct answer Chronic hypertension defined as: hypertension present before the 12 week of gestation or beyond 6 weeks' postpartum. hypertension present before the 22 week of gestation or beyond 6 weeks' postpartum hypertension present before the 24 week of gestation or beyond 8 weeks' postpartum hypertension present before the 34 week of gestation or beyond 10 weeks' postpartum hypertension present before the 4 week of gestation or beyond 12 weeks' postpartum Hypertension in pregnancy defined as: diastolic blood pressure of 85 mm Hg or greater, as a systolic blood pressure at or above 140 mm Hg at three estimations with the interval 1 hour diastolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg or greater, as a systolic blood pressure at or above 135 mm Hg at two estimations with the interval 4 hours diastolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg or greater, as a systolic blood pressure at or above 140 mm Hg at two estimations with the interval 4 hours. diastolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg or greater, as a systolic blood pressure at or above 145 mm Hg at two estimations with the interval 3 hours diastolic blood pressure of 80 mm Hg or greater, as a systolic blood pressure at or above 140 mm Hg at one estimation with the interval 2 hours The main fertility indicators are: Basal temperature cervical secretions (cervical mucus) the length of the menstrual cycle. all are wrong all answers are correct. How long does the fertile time last? for around 8–9 days of each menstrual cycle. for 20 days of each menstrual cycle. for around 2–3 days of each menstrual cycle. all are wrong all answers are correct. What are the advantages of natural family planning? can help to plan a pregnancy It does not involve using any chemicals or physical devices. There are no physical side effects. can help to avoid a pregnancy. all answers are correct. What are the disadvantages of natural family planning? It takes 3–6 menstrual cycles to learn effectively. Woman has to keep daily records. Woman needs to avoid sex or use male or female condoms during the fertile time. Natural methods don't protect woman against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). all answers are correct. 648. A. B. C. D. E. * 649. A. B. C. D. E. * 650. A. B. C. D. E. * 651. A. B. C. D. E. * 652. A. B. C. D. E. * 653. A. B. C. D. E. * 654. A. B. C. D. E. * 655. A. B. What does belong to emergency contraception: the emergency contraceptive pill, Postinor the emergency contraceptive pill, ellaOne the emergency intrauterine device (IUD). all are wrong all answers are correct. What are the disadvantages of sterilisation? The tubes may rejoin and woman will be fertile again. Sterilisation cannot be easily reversed. Sterilisation does not protect woman against sexually transmitted infections. It takes between four weeks to at least three months for sterilisation to be effective. all answers are correct. The most common methods of endometrial sampling are: Endometrial biopsy Dilatation and curettage (D&C) Hysteroscopy all are wrong all answers are correct. Non-surgical treatment options for vaginal prolapse Kegel Exercises Pelvic Floor Therapy Vaginal Pessary all are wrong all answers are correct. Surgical treatment options for vaginal prolapse Anterior Colporrhaphy Paravaginal Defect Repair Posterior Colporrhaphy Perineorrhaphy all answers are correct. Surgical treatment options for vaginal prolapse Vaginal Vault Suspension Hysterectomy Prolift all are wrong all answers are correct. Risk factors for the development of vaginal prolapse are: pregnancy, vaginal delivery, hysterectomy, obesity, all answers are correct. Risk factors for the development of vaginal prolapse are: chronic cough, chronic constipation, C. D. * E. 656. A. B. C. D. * E. 657. A. * B. C. D. E. 658. A. B. C. * D. E. 659. A. B. C. D. E. * 660. A. B. C. D. E. * 661. A. B. C. D. * E. 662. A. B. C. D. * E. repetitive heavy lifting, all answers are correct. all are wrong Risk factors for the development of vaginal prolapse are: menopause, and genetic connective tissue weakness. chronic constipation, all answers are correct. all are wrong Synonym of an anterior vaginal wall prolapse cystocele enterocele Rectocele all answers are correct. all are wrong Synonym of a posterior vaginal wall prolapse cystocele enterocele Rectocele all answers are correct. all are wrong Complications of surgical abortion may include: Heavy Bleeding Incomplete Abortion Sepsis Damage to the Cervix all answers are correct. Complications of surgical abortion may include: Scarring of the Uterine Lining Perforation of the Uterus Damage to Internal Organs Death all answers are correct. Possible reasons for abnormal uterine bleeding include: Endometrial polyps. Uterine fibroids. Endometrial hyperplasia all answers are correct. all are wrong Possible reasons for abnormal uterine bleeding include: Hormonal imbalance. Cancer. Miscarriage all answers are correct. all are wrong 663. A. B. C. D. * E. 664. A. * B. C. D. E. 665. A. B. * C. D. E. 666. A. * B. C. D. E. 667. A. B. C. D. * E. 668. A. B. C. D. * E. 669. A. B. C. D. E. * 670. A. B. Reasons for surgical removing of polyps: To establish the diagnosis To rule out malignant cancer To cure irregular bleeding , by removing the polyp. all answers are correct. all are wrong What is the inflammation of the serous layer of the uterus Perymetritis. parametritis. endometritis. Metroendometritis. Sepsis Definition of perimetritis inflammation or irritation of the the endometrium of the uterus. Inflammation of the uterus involving the perimetrial covering. inflammation of the muscular layers of the uterus. inflammation of the mucosal layers of the uterus. Inflammation of the vagina. Definition of endometritis inflammation or irritation of the the endometrium of the uterus. Inflammation of the uterus involving the perimetrial covering. inflammation of the muscular layers of the uterus. Inflammation of the vagina. inflammation of the mucosal layers of the uterus. Definition of Vaginitis Inflammation or irritation of the the endometrium of the uterus. Inflammation of the uterus involving the perimetrial covering. inflammation of the muscular layers of the uterus. Inflammation of the vagina. inflammation of the mucosal layers of the uterus. Hormonal treatments of endometriosis may include: Progesterone pills Progesterone injections Gonadotropin-agonist medications all answers are correct. all are wrong Symptoms of endometritis may include: Abdominal distention or swelling Abnormal vaginal bleeding Abnormal vaginal discharge Discomfort with bowel movement (constipation may occur) all answers are correct. Symptoms of endometritis may include: Fever General discomfort C. D. * E. 671. A. B. C. D. * E. 672. A. B. C. D. * E. 673. A. * B. C. D. E. 674. A. B. C. D. E. * 675. A. B. C. D. E. * 676. A. B. C. D. * E. 677. A. * B. C. D. E. Lower abdominal or pelvic pain (uterine pain) all answers are correct. all are wrong Possible Complications of endometritis is: Infertility Pelvic peritonitis (generalized pelvic infection) Pelvic or uterine abscess formation all answers are correct. all answers are wrong Possible Complications of endometritis Septicemia Septic shock Pelvic or uterine abscess formation all answers are correct. all are wrong The main symptom of endometriosis is. Pain uterine abscess formation Heavy Bleeding Hormonal imbalance. Fever The main symptom of endometriosis is. uterine abscess formation Heavy Bleeding Hormonal imbalance. Fever all are wrong A woman with endometriosis may have: Painful periods Pain in the lower abdomen before and during menstruation Cramps for a week or two before menstruation Cramps during menstruation; all answers are correct. A woman with endometriosis may have: Pain during or following sexual intercourse Pain with bowel movements Pelvic or low back pain that may occur at any time during the menstrual cycle all answers are correct. all are wrong What is endometrial ablation? the surgical destruction of the endometrium. Perforation of the Uterus the hormonal destruction of the endometrium. all answers are correct. all are wrong 678. A. B. C. * D. E. 679. A. B. * C. D. E. 680. A. * B. C. D. E. 681. A. B. C. D. * E. 682. A. B. C. D. * E. 683. A. * B. C. D. E. 684. A. B. * C. D. E. 685. A. B. Menopause is defined as: 2 or more irregular periods after age 40 The start of hot flashes No menstrual period for 12 consecutive monts An increase in mood swings all are wrong Endometriosis occurs deep inside the uterus. True False Depends on age After 50 years After 30 years Endometriosis is a common gynecological disease. True False After 50 years After 30 years After 40 years When are endometrial cells shed? Daily weekly Shedding is unpredictable during menstruation all are wrong What is one of the most common symptoms of endometriosis. Bloating Pelvic muscle spasm Diarrhea Infertility all are wrong Women with endometriosis have a higher risk of ovarian cancer. True False Depends on age After 50 years After 30 years Most women with endometriosis will not be able to conceive. True False Depends on age After 50 years After 30 years Why does endometriosis cause pain in some women? Endometriosis tissues cannot leave the body Endometriosis areas make chemicals that irritate pelvic tissues C. D. * E. 686. A. B. C. * D. E. 687. A. B. C. D. * E. 688. A. B. C. * D. E. 689. A. * B. C. D. E. 690. A. * B. C. D. E. 691. A. B. * C. D. E. 692. A. B. C. D. * E. Endometriosis produces chemicals that are known to cause pain All of the above all are wrong How often is recommended breast self-exams? Once per day Once per week Once per month Twice per year all are wrong Which is NOT a term describing a normal part of the breast? Ducts Lymph nodes Fat Mastalgia all are wrong Abnormal cells that do not function like the body's normal cells are called... Stem cells Muscle cells Cancerous cells Mitochondrial cells all are wrong What causes breast cancer? No one knows Living near highly industrialized cities Low levels of bodily hormones Vaccines all are wrong Which is the most common form of breast cancer? Invasive ductal carcinoma Ductal carcinoma in situ Infiltrating lobular carcinoma invasive lobular carcinoma None of the above The medical term for the spread of cancer is called. Mammary embolism Metastasis Suffusion Diffusion None of the above What are breast cancer risk factors for women? Childbearing later in life Having never had children Being overweight after menopause All of the above None of the above 693. A. * B. C. D. E. 694. A. B. C. D. * E. 695. A. B. * C. D. E. 696. A. B. C. D. * E. 697. A. B. C. * D. E. 698. A. B. C. * D. E. 699. A. B. C. D. * E. 700. A. B. Recommendation for a woman who has found a lump in the breast Make an appointment with a doctor Do nothing Go immediately to the nearest emergency room Apply ice packs to the breast to reduce swelling None of the above The first sign of pregnancy is most often: Food cravings Fatigue and tiredness Mood swings and stress Missed menstrual period None of the above HIV is an abbreviation for: Human immune virus Human immunodeficiency virus Humanoid immunodeficiency virus Humanus immunocompromisation virus None of the above Which is NOT considered a common method of transmission for HIV? Blood Genital secretions Breast milk Urine None of the above About one-fourth of all people with HIV/AIDS are: Homosexual men Living in southern U.S. states Over the age of 50 Bisexual women None of the above People with HIV and AIDS are largely prone to... Systemic infections. Superficial infections. Opportunistic infections. Hospital-acquired infections. None of the above Which of the following is NOT a characteristic, AIDS-related physical change? Lipodystrophy Loss of subcutaneous fat Wasting syndrome hyperpigmentation None of the above What is a major factor for infertility in women. Age Weight C. D. * E. 701. A. B. C. * D. E. 702. A. B. C. D. * E. 703. A. B. C. D. * E. 704. A. B. C. * D. E. 705. A. B. C. * D. E. 706. A. * B. C. D. E. 707. A. * B. C. D. E. Anovulation All of the above None of the above Which sexually transmitted disease can result in infertility in women? Human papillomavirus (HPV) Genital herpes Pelvic inflammatory disease All of the above None of the above A 35-year-old woman is considered infertile after ____ of trying to conceive. 1 month 2 months 4 months 6 months None of the above Where does ovarian cancer occur? On tissue within the ovary On the surface of the ovary In egg-forming germ cells within the ovary Any of the above None of the above Who is most at risk for developing ovarian cancer? A woman who has had multiple children A woman who is underweight A woman over the age of 60 Any of the above None of the above Ovarian cancer is classified into _ stages, depending upon the extent of spread. 2 3 4 5 None of the above Usually, the first treatment for ovarian cancer is... Surgery Chemotherapy Radiation Any of the above None of the above Subserosal fibroids are located : beneath the serosa inside the uterine cavity beneath the lining of the uterus within the muscular wall of the uterus. None of the above 708. A. B. C. D. * E. 709. A. * B. C. D. * E. 710. A. * B. C. D. E. 711. A. B. C. D. E. * 712. A. B. C. D. E. * 713. A. B. C. D. * E. 714. A. B. C. D. E. * 715. A. B. Submucosal fibroids are located: beneath the serosa inside the uterine cavity inside the fallopian tubes beneath the lining of the uterus within the muscular wall of the uterus. None of the above Intramural fibroids are located: beneath the serosa inside the uterine cavity beneath the lining of the uterus within the muscular wall of the uterus. None of the above The most common symptom of submucous uterine fibroid is: abnormal uterine bleeding. pelvic pain pressure on the bladder with frequent or even obstructed urination pressure on the rectum with pain during defecation. None of the above Large uterine fibroids can cause: pressure pelvic pain, pressure on the bladder with frequent or even obstructed urination pressure on the rectum with pain during defecation. All of the above What is the treatment for uterine fibroids? hysterectomy myomectomy cryosurgery uterine artery embolization All of the above Medical treatments of uterine fibroids include: danazol raloxifene low dose formulations of oral contraceptives. All of the above None of the above Which contraceptive can be used for emergency contraception. Marvelon. Novinet. Ovidon. Regulon. Postinor. Intrauterine system"Mirena" is introduced to: Women with endometriosis. 2. Women with a fibroid uterus. C. D. E. * 716. A. B. C. D. E. * 717. A. B. C. D. E. * 718. A. B. C. D. E. * 719. A. B. C. D. * E. 720. A. B. C. D. E. * 721. A. B. C. D. * E. 722. A. * B. C. D. E. 3. Women with a syndrome Ashermana. 4. Women with infertility. 5. All of the above. A hormonal IUD should NOT be used by women who: Have abnormal vaginal bleeding that has not been explained Have untreated cervical cancer Have untreated uterine cancer Have certain abnormalities of the uterus 5. All of the above. A hormonal IUD should NOT be used by women who: Have had pelvic inflammatory disease within the past 3 months Have had an STI such as chlamydia or gonorrhea within the past 3 months Have severe liver disease None of the above All of the above. Advantages of using hormonal IUD Is one of the most effective forms of reversible birth control It can be used while breastfeeding No preparations needed before sex to ensure it works Ability to become pregnant returns quickly when removed All of the above. Advantages of using hormonal IUD Fewer menstrual cramps Lighter periods Effective for five years All of the above. None of the above What is Indication for Hormonal IUD using: birth control, Menorrhagia Endometriosis chronic pelvic pain All of the above. Indication for Hormonal IUD using: Endometriosis Adenomyosis Dysmenorrhea All of the above. None of the above Side effects of hormonal IUD Expulsion Fewer menstrual cramps Menorrhagia All of the above. None of the above 723. A. * B. C. D. E. 724. A. B. C. D. E. * 725. A. B. C. * D. E. 726. A. B. * C. D. E. 727. A. B. C. D. E. * 728. A. B. C. D. E. * 729. A. B. C. D. E. * 730. A. * B. What is the main complaint in patients with mastopathy? Pain. Disorders of the menstrual cycle. Increased body temperature Increased libido. Increasing of breast size. Which method is the most effective in detecting early breast cancer? Inspection. Palpation. Thermography. Cytological examination of discharge from the nipple. Mammography. Major role in the regulation of growth and development of breast play all hormones EXCEPT: Progesterone. Prolactin. FSH Estradiol. None of the above What hormonal disorders lead to premature puberty in adrenogenital syndrome? Hypoestrogenemia Hyperandrogenism Hyperestrogenism None of the above All of the above. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition characterized by: the accumulation of numerous cysts on the ovaries associated with high male hormone levels chronic anovulation metabolic disturbances None of the above All of the above. Classic symptoms of Polycystic ovary syndrome include: excess facial and body hair acne obesity None of the above All of the above. What do classic symptoms of Polycystic ovary syndrome include? irregular menstrual cycles infertility excess facial hair excess body hair All of the above. What is Follicle stimulating hormone ? A hormone that stimulates the growth and maturation of mature eggs in the ovary. Hormone produced by the ovaries C. D. E. 731. A. B. * C. D. E. 732. A. B. C. D. E. * 733. A. B. C. D. * E. 734. A. B. C. D. E. * 735. A. B. C. * D. E. 736. A. B. C. D. * E. 737. A. B. C. D. * E. Hormone produced by the adrenal glands Hormone produced by the testes None of the above Estrogens is— Hormones produced by the adrenal glands Hormones produced by the ovaries Hormones produced by the pancreas Hormones produced by the hypophysis Hormones produced by the hypothalamus gland The general functions of the hypothalamus are: pituitary gland regulation blood pressure regulation body temperature regulation regulation of ovarian function All of the above Tests of functional diagnostics include: investigation of cervical mucous layer; changes of basal temperature; colpocytology; all answers are correct; all are incorrect. Physiological аmenorrhoea is typical for: childhood period; postmenopause; period of lactation; to pregnancy; all answers are correct. Which of these is not common for ovarian polycystic syndrome: amenorrhoea; hirsutism; ovulatory menstrual cycles; obesity; infertility. Causes of primary algomenorrhoea: infantilism; retrodeviation of uterus; high production of prostaglandins; all the above factors. none of the above Associated syndromes with hypergonadotropic amenoroea are: ovary depletion syndrome; resistant ovary syndrome; Shereshevski-Turner syndrome; all of the above. none of the above 738. A. B. C. D. E. * 739. A. B. C. * D. E. 740. A. B. * C. D. E. 741. A. * B. C. D. E. 742. A. B. C. D. E. * 743. A. * B. C. D. E. 744. A. B. C. D. * E. 745. A. B. Secondary аmenorrhoea can result from: psychic stress; massive blood loss during labour; expressed deficiency of the body mass; genital tuberculosis; all of the above. What quantity of blood is lost by a woman during normal menstruation? less than 50 ml. 50-100 ml. 50-150 ml. 150-200 ml. 200-250 ml. Duration of proliferation phase in uterine cycle is: from 1 to 5 day . from 5 to 14 day. from 14 to 28day . from 10 to 14 day. from 15 to 20 day Select a disease which is a violation of the rhythm of menstruation. Tachimenoreya Amenorrhea Polymenorrhea Oligomenorrhea none of the above Physiological аmenorrhoea is the absence of menstruations: in girls of 10-12 years; during pregnancy; during period of lactation; at senile age; all of the above If menopause occurs in a woman younger than ___ years, it is considered to be premature. 40 45 50 30 60 Characteristic of anovulatory uterine bleeding: Monophasic basal temperature below 37 degrees Absence of s "fern" and "pupil" symptoms in the middle of the menstrual cycle Absence of secretory transformation of the endometrium All of the above None of the above Duration of secretion phase in uterine cycle is: from 1 to 5 day . from 5 to 14 day. C. * D. E. 746. A. * B. C. D. E. 747. A. B. C. D. * E. 748. A. * B. C. D. E. 749. A. B. C. * D. E. 750. A. B. * C. D. E. 751. A. B. C. D. * E. 752. A. * B. C. D. from 14 to 28day . from 10 to 14 day. from 15 to 20 day Which method of gynacological examination does belong to basic? inspection of external genitalia. taking of smear on a flora. taking of smear on oncocytology. ultrasonic examination. biopsy. Which of the following is the cause of ovarian form of amenorrhea? congenital gonades’ dysgenesia the Shereshevsky-Terner’s syndrome the Shtein-Levental syndrome All of the above None of the above Prepuberty - is: a period of two years immediately prior to the onset of puberty when growth and changes leading to sexual maturity occur Age of menarche The first year after the onset of menarche Age from 5 to 8 years None of the above Treatment of juvenile uterine bleeding provides all of the above, except: stopping Haemorrhage Normalization of menstrual function Stimulation of Ovulation with clomifene Antianaemia therapy All of above Which of medicines should NOT BE USED for treatment of endometriosis? danasol sinestrol dufaston zoladex danogen How is the state named, when less than 2 days proceed to menstruation? spaniomenorrhea hypomenorrhea proyomenorrhea oligomenorrhea opsomenorrhea What is the highest level of menstrual regulation? brain cortex hypothalamus ovaries uterus E. 753. A. B. C. * D. E. 754. A. B. * C. D. E. 755. A. B. * C. D. E. 756. A. B. * C. D. E. 757. A. * B. C. D. E. 758. A. * B. C. D. E. 759. A. B. C. D. E. * 760. A. * all above Ovarian amenorrhea is at: Itsenco-Kushing syndrome false pregnancy Shtein-Levental syndrome syndrome Shikhane all above In climacteric age the medical treatment of dysfunctional uterine bleeding begin with: setting of estrogens diagnostic curettage of uterine cavity colposcopy setting of androgens setting of gestagens What is spaniomenorrhea? menstruations come in 6-8 weeks menstruations come 1 time per 4-6 monthes menstruations are absent quantity of menstrual blood less than 50ml duration of menstruation 1-2 days Menorrhagia is: acyclic uterine bleeding cyclic uterine bleeding in connection with menstruate cycle painfull and abundant menstruation pre- & post menstruation bloody allocation short period of menstruation cycle The change of basal temperature is based on? on influence of progesteron on hypothalamus. on influence of estrogens on hypothalamus. on influence of estrogens on a hypophysis. on influence of progesteron on a hypophysis. on influence of progesteron on an uterus. The cause of secondary amenorrhea could be: Stein-Leventhal syndrome Ovarian dysgenesie Imperforate hymen, All of the above Nothing above How to start a survey of gynecological patients? from the life history taking. from the disease history taking. from allergic anamnesis. from professional anamnesis. complaints of patient. What does the presence of positive symptom “pupillus”during all menstrual cycle testify about? about the high saturation of organism of estrogens. B. C. D. E. 761. A. B. C. D. E. * 762. A. B. C. * D. E. 763. A. * B. C. D. E. 764. A. B. * C. D. E. 765. A. B. C. D. * E. 766. A. B. * C. D. E. 767. A. B. C. D. * about estrogen insufficiency. about the presence of ovulation. about the presence of lutein phase. about the presence of early follicular phase. Symptoms of Stein-Leventhal syndrome: obesity irregular or no menstruation acne excess hair growth All of the above When in a norm the “fern” symptom is most positive? at once after menstruation. in the early follicular phase. in time of ovulation. in the early lutein phase. in end of menstruation. Treatment of juvenile bleeding can not start from: Fractional curettage of the endometrial cavity Hormone Hemostatic agents All methods are used None of the above To hypothalamic amenorrhea does not belong: psychogenic amenorrhea amenorrhea at a syndrome Shikhane amenorrhea at false pregnancy amenorrhea at adipozogenital dystrophy amenorrhea at a syndrome Kiary-Frommel Which hormone provides lactation process: estrogen cortizol insulin prolactin all are correct Commonest site of endometriosis: Vagina, uterus. urinary bladder, Peritoneal cavity. Umbilicus Danazol is used in all cases, except: Hirsulism Endometriosis Dysfunctional Uterine bleeding Fibroid E. 768. A. B. C. D. * E. 769. A. B. C. D. E. * 770. A. B. C. D. * E. 771. A. B. C. * D. E. 772. A. * B. C. D. E. 773. A. B. C. D. E. * 774. A. B. * C. D. E. 775. A. * Nothing above The following statements are true regarding osteoporosis expect; It affects one-third to one-half of postmenopausal women It increases as women age It puts women at high risk for hip fractures It occurs as a result of arthritis All of the above What appearance of the first menstruation in 14 years can testify about? about the presence of inflammatory disease of uterus. about the presence of inflammatory disease of adnexa. about the presence of abnormal position of uterus. about the presence of of genius infantilism. about normal development of organism of girl. What is the average age of menarche? 8-9 years. 9-10 years. 10-11 years. 12 year. 16 year. When in a norm the “pupil” symptom is most positive? after menstruation. in an early follicular phase. in time of ovulation. in an early lutein phase. during the menstruation. Hypomenstrual syndrome includes: Oligomenorrhea, opsomenorrhea, hypo menorrhea Opsomenorrhea, polimenorrhea Proyomenorrhea, hypomenorrhea Oligomenorrhea, hypermenorrhea All of the above Which types of dysfunctional uterine bleeding are presented below, exist? Ovulatory Anovulatory Cyclic Acyclic All of the above The complication of false amenorrhea: Hypotrophy of the mammary glands Hematocolpos Anovulation opsomenorrhoea All listed The Shereshevsky-Terner’s syndrome is the result of: a complex of genetic defects, connected with chromosomes anomaly B. C. D. E. 776. A. * B. C. D. E. 777. A. B. C. D. * E. 778. A. B. C. * D. E. 779. A. * B. C. D. E. 780. A. B. * C. D. E. 781. A. B. C. D. * E. 782. A. B. C. D. * Presence of double uterus Absence of ovaries Vaginal atresia Polycystic ovarian syndrome In premature sexual maturation secondary sexual signs and menarche appeared: In 9 years In 11 years In 13 years None of these cases In all these cases Estrogen possess the following action: promotes peristalsis in uterus and tube promotes processes of ossification stimulates activity of cellular immunity all answers are correct all are wrong What kind of endometriosis belongs to internal? endometriosis of uterine cervix endometriosis of vagine endometriosis of uterus All above Nothing above Which from transferred syndromes DOES NOT BELONG to neuroendocrine? Shershevscy-Terner Shtain-Levental syndrome climacteric postovarioectomy all above Deficiency of which hormone presents in case of dysfunctional uterine bleeding Oestrogen Progesterone Thyroxin A.C.T.H. Cortisol What appearance of the first menstruation in 16 years can testify about? about the presence of inflammatory disease of uterus. about the presence of inflammatory disease of adnexa. about the presence of abnormal position of uterus. about the presence of genital infantilism. about normal development of organism of girl. Appearance of “fern symptom” is based on: on the change of type of uterine cervix. on diameter of cervical canal. on the rise of viscidity of cervical mucus. on power of mucus to crystallize at drying. E. 783. A. B. C. D. E. * 784. A. B. C. * D. E. 785. A. B. C. D. * E. 786. A. B. C. D. * E. 787. A. B. * C. D. E. 788. A. * B. C. D. E. 789. A. B. C. * D. E. 790. A. * on hyperthermic influence of progesteron on hypothalamus. Indicate factor which doesn't lead to menstrual dysfunction: Chronic intoxication Sexual infantilism Long-term chronic infection Abnormal development of genital organs none of the above Which type of amenorrhea DOES NOT EXIST? Secondary False Combined Physiological Pathological When hypotonic uterine bleeding starts: on cervical stage on the expulsive stage after the delivery of the fetus After the placental separation Non above The cause of uterine bleeding in the postpartum period is Not Birth canal trauma violation of the contractile activity of the uterus Abnormal clotting of blood Hypertonic disease All above Bleeding in the uterus hypotonic is characterizes: Bleeding from birth canal continuous like a stream Bleeding with clots Bleeding with the formation of light clots Bleeding without clots All are possible Bleeding in case of parts of the placenta staying in the uterus is characterized by: Appearance after the delivery of defective placenta particles l after the placental separation there is no bleeding bleeding without clots All are possible Nothing above Characteristics of uterine hypotonic and atonic bleeding are: Uterus is firm, its fundus at the level of or below the navel After emptying and massage is firm Relaxed, soft, light or no reaction after stimulation Uterus fundus turns aside to the left part of the abdomen All are possible When the bleeding at the early postpartum period it is necessary to: Review and suturing of birth canal injuries B. C. D. E. 791. A. * B. C. D. E. 792. A. B. C. D. * E. 793. A. B. C. * D. E. 794. A. B. * C. D. E. 795. A. B. C. * D. E. 796. A. B. C. D. * E. 797. A. * B. C. Kolposkopy Hysterotokografy Laparoskopy Nothing above First aid in case of early postpartum bleeding includes: Use of uterotonik Application diuretyks Use of vikasol Using of mezaton becose low blood pressure Nothing above Postpartum hemostasis is provide with following factors: Retraction of myometrium and body temperature blood clots in the vessels of the placental sections and hematocrit levels hyperkoahulation and number of platelets Retraction myometrium and local hemostatic factors Nothing above Delay of additional part of the placenta in uterus is diagnosed by Abnormal shape of the placenta Delay of amniotic membranes Broken vessels in the placenta thin platsenta Nothing above In later postpartum period the delay of placental tissue in uterus can be diagnosed during palpation of the uterus ultrasound examination X ray examination Vaginal examination Nothing above Bleeding in early postpartum period usually stops without treatment does not lead to serious consequences If not treated can lead to lethal exit belongs to the rarely labor complications Nothing above After examination of birth canal and bleeding in early postpartum period it is necessary to To perform external massage of the uterus and blood transfusion examination, suturing of injuries of birth canal and blood transfusion manual examination of the uterus and massage, blood transfusion The external uterine massage, an examination of birth canal, manual examination of the uterus, massage Nothing above When bleeding on 6 day of postpartum period it is necessary to Curettage of the uterus cavity Pudendal block puncture of the duglas spase D. E. 798. A. B. * C. D. E. 799. A. * B. C. D. E. 800. A. B. C. D. E. * Nothing above All above Measures to stop bleeding in the early postpartum period usually begin when bloodlost more than 1000 ml More than 250 ml more than 400 ml more than 100 ml Nothing above For prophylaxy of bleeding in late postpartum period is necessary to appoint Ultrasonic investigation of uterus General blood test General urine test Oxytocin Nothing above Which term termination of pregnancy can be in case of medical indication? Up to 10 weeks To12 weeks To14 weeks Up to 8 weeks To 22 weeks