Download Назва наукового напрямку (модуля): Семестр: 12 Obstetrics and

Назва наукового напрямку (модуля):
Семестр: 12
Obstetrics and Gynecology (part 1)
Опис:
6 course, 12 term
Перелік питань:
1.
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B.
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E.
2.
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B. *
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E.
3.
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5.
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6.
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7.
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C. *
D.
What is determined by the first Leopold maneuver in breech presentation?
position of fetus;
the lie and position of fetus;
presenting part of fetus;
head of the fetus;
breech end of fetus.
What is the first moment of biomehanism of labor in breech presentations?
flexion of head;
internal rotation of breech;
flexion of trunk;
internal rotation of shoulders and external rotation of trunk;
internal rotation of head.
What term of pregnancy is possible to conduct the prophylactic rotation of fetus on a head in breech
presentations?
in 28-32 weeks;
in 34-36 weeks;
in 36-38 weeks;
in 32-38 weeks;
without limitation of term.
What is contraindication for the external rotation of fetus in breech presentations?
early gestosis;
contracted pelvis I degree;
kidney disease of pregnant woman;
scar on the uterus;
all of the above
Which aid is given in the labor at frank breech presentation?
classic manual aid;
Tsovianov’ I manual aid;
caesarean section;
perineum protective maneuvers;
the Muller’ maneuver is used.
What the aim of the Tsovyanov’ manual aid at frank breech presentation consists in?
in providing of slow and gradual advancement of fetus;
in perineum protection from injures;
in the safe delivery of shoulders of fetus;
in the safe delivery of fetal head;
in the saving of correct fetal attitude.
What is the aim of the classic manual aid?
perineum protective maneuvers from injures;
providing of slow and gradual advancement of fetus;
delivery of the fetal arms and head;
delivery of fetal breech;
E.
8.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
9.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
10.
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B. *
C.
D.
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11.
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B.
C.
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E. *
12.
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C.
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E. *
13.
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B.
C.
D. *
E.
14.
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B.
C. *
D.
E.
saving of correct fetal attitude.
How often the breech presentations are there?
in 10%
in 3-4%
in 1-2%
in 12-14%
in 6-8%
To the reasons, which caused the breech presentations belong all, except for:
polyhydramnion
olighydramnion
anomalies of development of uterus
the decreased uterine tonus
fetal hypoxia
By the third Leopold’ maneuver in breech presentations is palpated:
the posterior of fetus
the breech of the fetus
head of the fetus
the level of uterine fundus
position of fetus
By the second Leopold’ maneuver in breech presentations is palpated:
fetal extremities
breech of fetus
head of fetus
legs and buttocks of the fetus
position of fetus
At ІІ position of breech presentation the fetal heart is listened at:
on the left at the level of umbilicus
right side below than umbilicus
on the left below than umbilicus
on the left higher than umbilicus
right side higher than umbilicus
At the internal obstetric examination the doctor palpates above the pelvic inlet only the breech of
fetus. What is the type of breech presentation?
complete breech;
knee;
incomplete breech
frank breech;
transversal.
During the labor at internal obstetric examination the doctor palpates above the pelvic inlet only one
foot of the fetus. What is the type of breech presentation?
complete breech;
knee;
incomplete footling
frank breech;
complete footling.
15.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
16.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
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17.
A. *
B.
C.
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18.
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B.
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21.
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B.
C.
D. *
E.
22.
A. *
B.
What is the circumference of breech with legs in frank breech presentation?
32 cm
34 cm
36 cm
38 cm
40 cm
What is the circumference of breech in complete breech presentation?
32 cm
34 cm
36 cm
38 cm
40 cm
What complications occur in the first stage of labor in breech presentation more frequent?
preterm rupture of membrane
preeclampsia
bleeding
arrested fetal shoulders
strong uterine contractions
Which cervical dilation indicates 6 cm contractile ring station above the symphysis?
2 cm
3 cm
4 cm
6 cm
5 cm
What is the reason of the early gash of amniotic fluid in breech presentation?
the large presenting part
absence of the girdle of contact
lost tonus of lower segment
the abnormal tonus of uterus
arrested fetal shoulders
During the labor in breech presentation all complications are possible, except for:
fetal hypoxia
deflexed presentation
early gash of amniotic fluid
weakness of uterine contractions
arrested fetal shoulders
What is the third moment of biomehanizm of labor in breech presentation?
flexion of head;
internal rotation of breech;
flexion of trunk;
internal rotation of shoulders and external rotation of trunk;
internal rotation of head.
What is the last moment of biomehanizm of labor in breech presentation?
flexion of head;
internal rotation of breech;
C.
D.
E.
23.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
24.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
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25.
A.
B.
C. *
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26.
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B. *
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27.
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B. *
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28.
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29.
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B.
C.
D. *
E.
flexion of trunk;
internal rotation of head.
internal rotation of shoulders and external rotation of trunk;
In relation to labor in frank breech presentation all assertions are correct, except for:
the legs of fetus lies along a trunk
the fetal arms are crossed on a chest
circumference of the fetal thorax together with arms and legs is more than head
labor in frank breech presentation is more favourable, than in cephalic
manual aid by Tsov’yanov is given
All of the below are indications for cesarean section in breech presentation EXEPT:
Probable fetal weight less 3000 g
Breech presentation of the first fetus in multiple pregnancy
Breech presentation and infertility
Foot link presentation
Probable fetal weight more 3700g
What is the aim of the Moriso-Leuvret maneuver?
the delivery of the fetal breech
the more rapid rotation of fetus
maneuver helps to flex of the fetal head
delivery of the fetal shoulders
acceleration of labor of fetus
What is the first moment of classic manual aid?
the transferring of the anterior arm in the areas of sacrum
delivery of posterior arm
delivery of anterior arm
delivery of head of fetus
delivery of breech
What is the feature of the first moment of classic manual aid?
an obstetrician always delivers the anterior arm of fetus
an obstetrician always delivers the posterior arm of fetus
an obstetrician delivers the head of fetus, flexing it
an obstetrician delivers the head of fetus, deflexing it
an obstetrician helps for labor of breech
What is the feature of the IV moment of classic manual aid?
an obstetrician always delivers the posterior arm of fetus
an obstetrician always delivers the anterior arm of fetus
an obstetrician delivers the head of fetus, flexing it
an obstetrician delivers the head of fetus, deflexing it
an obstetrician helps for labor of breech
What the purpose of the manual aid by Tsovianov’II method in footling presentation consists in?
in perineum protective maneuvers from injuring;
in providing of slow and gradual advancement of fetus;
in delivery of shoulders of fetus;
to transform the footling presentation to the incomplete breech;
in saving of correct fetal attitude.
30.
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B.
C.
D.
E.
31.
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C.
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C.
D. *
E.
37.
A. *
Which type of presentation appear as a result of correct applying of the Tsov”yanov’ method in
footling presentation?
incomplete breech
frank
incomplete footling
complete footling
complete breech
Which method of delivery in breech presentations is the best for minimizing of the infant mortality?
cesarean section
obstetric forceps
Tsovyanov’ method
classic manual aid
breech extraction
What the type of presentation is if the fetal buttocks are palpable:
Frank breech presentation;
Complete breech;
Incomplete breech presentation;
Footling ;
Kneeling presentation.
What the estimated weight of the fetus in breech presentation in which fetus considered to be large?
2500 g;
3000 g;
3700 g and more;
4000 g.
3800 g
What type of the manual aids need the patients with a footling presentation?
Manual aid by Tsovyanov I;
Manual aid by Tsovyanov II;
Classic manual aid;
Breech extraction.
All of the above
What type of the manual aids need the patients with a frank breech presentation?
Manual aid by Tsovyanov I.
Manual aid by Tsovyanov II;
Classic manual aid;
Breech extraction.
All of the above
All of the following are the indications to the cesarean section, except:
Breech presentation and the fetal weight 3800 g
Breech presentation and any degree of contracted pelvis
Breech presentation and uterine dysfunction
Sinciput vertex presentation and probable fetal weight 3000g
Breech presentation and fetal distress
All of the following are the indications to the breech extraction, except:
Breech presentation and the fetal weight 3800 g
B.
C.
D.
E.
38.
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B. *
C.
D.
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39.
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B.
C.
D.
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40.
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B. *
C.
D.
E.
41.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
42.
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B.
C. *
D.
E.
43.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
44.
A.
B. *
Breech presentation and maternal preeclampsia severe degree
Breech presentation and uterine dysfunction
Breech presentation and maternal heart or respiratory diseases
Breech presentation and fetal distress
All of the following are the conditions to the breech extraction, except:
complete dilation of cervix
intact amniotic membrane
the normal fetopelvic proportions
the rupture of membranes
adequate anesthesia.
The contraindication to the breech extraction is:
fetopelvic disproportion
fetal hypoxia
the rupture of membranes
breech presentation and maternal preeclampsia
breech presentation and uterine dysfunction
What is the presentation when the fetal neck is extended and the back and occiput are in contact?
Vertex anterior
Face
Brow
Sinciput
Vertex posterior
What is the presentation when the fetal head is partially deflexed and a large anterior fontanel is
presenting?
Occipital
Face
Brow
Sinciput vertex
Vertex posterior
What is the circumference of the large segment of the fetal head in the face posterior presentation?
34 cm.
36 cm
32 cm
38 cm
41 cm
Spontaneous vaginal delivery is possible in all types of presentations EXCEPT ?
Occipital Anterior
Face
Vertex
Occipital Posterior
Brow
During which cardinal movement of labor is the face linear of the fetal head is located in oblique
diameter of the pelvic inlet?
Internal rotation
Extension
C.
D.
E.
45.
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B.
C.
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46.
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B.
C.
D.
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47.
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C.
D.
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48.
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B.
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49.
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B.
C.
D.
E. *
50.
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B. *
C.
D.
E.
51.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
External rotation
Expulsion
Flexion
The base of the os hyoideus is brought into contact with the inferior margin of the symphysis during
which cardinal movement of labor in fase presentation ?
Extension
Expulsion
Descent
Flexion
Internal rotation of the fetal head
Cesarean section is performed in all below situations EXCEPT ?
Sinciput vertex presentation
Face auterior presentation
Brow presentation
Oblique lie
Transverse lie
What is the presentation when the fetal head is extended and a chin is presenting?
Vertex Anterior
Face
Brow
Sinciput
Vertex posterior
What is the first moment in the biomechanism of labor in the face presentation?
Fetal head flexion
Additional flexion of the fetal head
Internal rotation of the fetal head
Fetal head extension
External rotation of the fetal head and external rotation of the fetal body
What is the circumference of the large segment of the fetal head in the brow presentation?
32 cm.
34 cm
36 cm
28 cm
39-41 cm
In which plane of true pelvis internal rotation of the fetal head in the occipital presentation is
finished?
Pelvic inlet
Pelvic outlet
Plane of the greatest diameter
Plane of the least diameter
Correct answer is absent
What is edematous swelling of the fetal scalp during labor?
Molding
Caput succedaneum
Subdural hematoma
Erythema nodusum
E.
52.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
53.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
54.
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B.
C. *
D.
E.
55.
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B. *
C.
D.
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56.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
57.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
58.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
Epidural hematoma
What are the reasons of deflexed presentation:
contracted pelvis
relaxation of perineum mussels
small or large sizes of fetus head
thyroids tumor of fetus
all answers are correct
How can we diagnose the brow presentation:
Ultrasound examination
Leopold’ manuvers
Vaginal examination
X-ray examination
Pelvic examination
During vaginal examination fetal chin and nose was diagnosed. What is the presentation?
deflexed vertex
brow
face
anterior variety of vertex presentation
posterior variety of vertex presentation
During vaginal examination large fontanel, glabella of the fetus was palpated. What is the fetal
presentation?
deflexed vertex
brow
face
anterior variety of vertex presentation
postirior variety of vertex presentation
During vaginal examination large fontanel, which is located below small fontanel was palpated. What
is the type of presentation?
sinciput vertex
brow
face
anterior variety of occiput presentation
posterior variety of occiput presentation
The fetal head is delivered with its vertical size. What is the presentation?
deflexed vertex
brow
face
anterior variety of vertex presentation
posterior variety of vertex presentation
What is the management of delivery in case of sinciput vertex presentation?
caesarian section
vacuum extraction
fetus destroying operation
vaginal delivery
Poro’ section
59.
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B.
C. *
D.
E.
60.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
61.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
62.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
63.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
64.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
65.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
66.
A. *
The characteristics of caput succedenum include all of the following except:
Crosses midline
Crosses the suture line
It does not disappear within 2-3 days
It is a diffuse edematous swelling of the soft tissues of the scalp
none
During vaginal examination the leading point was midline of the frontal suture. What is the
presentation?
deflexed vertex
brow
face
anterior variety of vertex presentation
postirior variety of vertex presentation
What size of obstetvic conjugate indicate true pelvic contraction?
<10 cm
<9 cm
<11 cm
<12 cm
<13 cm
What is the diagonal conjugate in women with normal pelvis?
8.0 cm
9.5 cm
11.5 cm
13.0 cm
15 cm
What is the true conjugate in women with diagonal conjugate 13 cm?
11 cm
9.0 cm
12.0 cm
10.0 cm
15 cm
What is the true conjugate in women with external conjugate 20 cm?
11 cm
9.0 cm
12.0 cm
10.0 cm
15 cm
What is the average biparietal diameter of term infants?
8.5 cm
9.0 cm
9.5 cm
10.0 cm
11.0 cm
The anatomically contracted pelvis is associated with:
true conjugate 9 cm
B.
C.
D.
E.
67.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
68.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
69.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
70.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
71.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
72.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
73.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
internal conjugate 11.5 cm
external conjugate 20.5 cm
diagonal conjugate 13.5 cm
fetopelvic disproportion
The clinically contracted pelvis is associated with:
true conjugate 9 cm
true conjugate 11.5 cm
true conjugate 12.5 cm
true conjugate 13.5 cm
fetopelvic disproportion
In a nullipara at term the diagonal conjugate is10.5 cm. What is true from the listed below?
The pelvis is contracted.
Oxytocin is contraindicate.
Cesarean section is probably necessary.
Fetaopelvic disproportion is common in labor
Al of the above is true
What is the main cause of fetopelvic disproportion?
rachitis
fetal macrosomia
preterm labor
twins
fetal distress
What may be a result of excessive compression of birth canal’ soft tissues?
uterine rupture
cervical rupture
vesicovaginal fistules
perineal rupture
Vaginal rupture
What may be a result of labor in patients with fetopelvic disproportion?
uterine rupture
cervical rupture
vesicovaginal fistules
perineal rupture
Vaginal rupture
The pathological contractile ring is a sign of:
anatomically contracted pelvis
fetal distress
fetal macrosomia
danger of uterine rupture
all of above
What is the management in the case of the clinically contracted pelvis?
normal vaginal delivery
cesarean section
obstetrical version
fetal destroying operation
E.
74.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
75.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
76.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
77.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
78.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
79.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
80.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
81.
A.
External cephalic version
The pelvic formula of the patient is 25 – 28 – 31 – 20 cm. What is the pelvic type?
normal pelvis
generally contracted pelvis
flat pelvis
flat rachitic pelvis
Transverse contracted flat pelvis
The pelvic sizes of the patient is 23 – 26 – 29 – 17 cm. What is the pelvic type?
normal pelvis
transverse contracted pelvis
flat pelvis
flat rachitic pelvis
generally contracted pelvis
The pelvic formula of the patient is 23 – 26 – 29 – 18 cm. What is the pelvic type?
normal pelvis
generally contracted pelvis
flat pelvis
flat rachitic pelvis
transverse contracted pelvis
The pelvic formula of the patient is 25 – 28 – 31 – 18 cm. What is the pelvic type?
normal pelvis
generally contracted pelvis
simple flat pelvis
flat rachitic pelvis
transverse contracted pelvis
The pelvic formula of the patient is 26 – 26 – 31 – 17 cm. What is the pelvic type?
normal pelvis
generally contracted pelvis
flat pelvis
flat rachitic pelvis
transverse contracted flat pelvis
What is the difference between the diagonal conjugate and the obstetrical conjugate?
1 to 2 cm longer
3 to 4 cm longer
1 to 2 cm shorter
both the same size
3 to 4 cm shorter
Generally contracted pelvis is characterized by:
diminution of all pelvic diameters
diminution of all pelvic anteroposterior diameters
diminution of all pelvic transversal diameters
diminution of true conjugate and increasing of the pelvic outlet
combination of generally contracted and flat pelvis
Simple flat pelvis is characterized by:
diminution of all pelvic diameters
B. *
C.
D.
E.
82.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
83.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
84.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
85.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
86.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
87.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
88.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
diminution of all pelvic anteroposterior diameters
diminution of all pelvic transversal diameters
diminution of true conjugate and increasing of the pelvic outlet
combination of generally contracted and flat pelvis
Flat rachitic pelvis is characterized by:
diminution of all pelvic diameters
diminution of all pelvic anteroposterior diameters
diminution of all pelvic transversal diameters
diminution of true conjugate and increasing of the pelvic outlet
combination of generally contracted and flat pelvis
What is the cause of fetopelvic disproportion?
face presentation anterior
face presentation posterior
pretrm labor
twins
fetal distress
Transversally contracted pelvis is characterized by:
diminution of all pelvic diameters
diminution of all pelvic anteroposterior diameters
diminution of all pelvic transversal diameters
diminution of true conjugate and increasing of the pelvic outlet
combination of generally contracted and flat pelvis
The true conjugate of the flat pelvis is 9.5 cm. What is the degree of pelvic contraction?
I degree
II degree
III degree
IV degree
V degree
The true conjugate of the flat pelvis is 8.5 cm. What is the degree of pelvic contraction?
I degree
II degree
III degree
IV degree
V degree
The true conjugate of the flat pelvis is 8.0 cm. What is the degree of pelvic contraction?
I degree
II degree
III degree
IV degree
V degree
The true conjugate of the generally contracted pelvis is 7.0 cm. What is the degree of pelvic
contraction?
I degree
II degree
III degree
IV degree
E.
89.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
90.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
91.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
92.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
93.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
94.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
95.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
96.
A. *
V degree
The true conjugate of the generally contracted pelvis is 6.5 cm. What is the degree of pelvic
contraction?
I degree
II degree
III degree
IV degree
V degree
The true conjugate of the generally contracted pelvis is 5.0 cm. What is the degree of pelvic
Icontraction?
degree
II degree
III degree
IV degree
V degree
What type of pelvis does belong to rare occurred?
osteomalatic pelvis
generally contracted pelvis
flat pelvis
flat rachitic pelvis
generally contracted pelvis
What management is possible for the patients with I degree of pelvic contraction?
vaginal delivery
cesarean section only
vaginal delivery or cesarean section
fetal destroying operation
Labor preparing operation
What management is possible for the patients with II degree contracted pelvis?
vaginal delivery
cesarean section only
vaginal delivery or cesarean section
fetal destroying operation
Labor preparing operation
What management is possible for the patients with III degree contracted pelvis?
vaginal delivery
cesarean section only
vaginal delivery or cesarean section
fetal destroying operation
Labor preparing operation
What management is possible for the patients with IV degree contracted pelvis?
vaginal delivery
cesarean section only
vaginal delivery or cesarean section
fetal destroying operation
correct answer is absent
How is macrosomia defined?
Birthweight > 4000 g
B.
C.
D.
E.
97.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
98.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
99.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
100.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
101.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
102.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
103.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
Birthweight > 4100 g
Birthweight > 4500 g
Birthweight > 5000 g
Birthweight > 5100 g
Which of the following is a risk factor for macrosomia?
Diabetes
Pregnancy induced hypertension
Maternal anemia
Gestational age > 42 weeks
Preterm labor
What is the cause of fetopelvic disproportion?
sinciput vertex presentation and large fetus
face presentation posterior
occiput presentation
foot-lying presentation
knee-lying presentation
What is the cause of fetopelvic disproportion?
frank breech presentation
sinciput vertex presentatio and III degree of pelvic contraction
occiput presentation
foot-link presentation
knee-link presentation
Which cervical dilation indicates 5 cm contractile ring station above the symphysis?
1 cm
2 cm
5 cm
3 cm
4 cm
Cesarean section undergo all types of multiple pregnancies EXCEPT:
Breech – breech presentation
Breech – transverse presentation
cephalic – cephalic presentation
breech– cephalic presentation
Transverse – transverse
How is fetus giant defined?
Birthweight > 4000 g
Birthweight > 4100 g
Birthweight > 4500 g
Birthweight > 5000 g
Birthweight > 5100 g
Which of the following is NOT a complication of macrosomia?
placenta abruption
Brachial plexus injury
Shoulder dystocia
Cephalopelvic disproportion
E.
104.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
105.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
106.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
107.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
108.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
109.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
110.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
111.
A. *
Uterine rupture
Which of the following is suggestive of dichorionic diamnionic twin pregnancy?
Discordance
Sonographic measurement of the dividing membranes thinner than 1 mm
Two separate placentae
none of the above
all of the above
With twins, which of the following is NOT true?
Pregnancy hypervolemia approximates 50 to 60%.
Cardiac output is increased.
Pulse rate is decreased.
Stroke volume is increased
The body weight increased
Which of the following is NOT a specific complication of monoamnionic twins?
Cord entanglement
Discordancy
Conjoined twins
Preterm labor
Postdate labor
Spantaneous vaginal delivery undergoes all types of clinical situations EXCEPT:
Cephalic –cephalic presentation
Cephalic –breech presentation
Breech – cephalic presentation
Cephalic – transverse presentation
All of the above
How is macrosomia in breech presentation defined?
Birthweight > 4000 g
Birthweight > 4100 g
Birthweight > 3500 g
Birthweight > 3700 g
Birthweight > 5100 g
What is the best management of labor in breech – breech presentation?
vaginal delivery
cesarean section
vacuum extraction
forceps application
breech extraction
What is the best management of labor in breech –cephalic presentation?
vaginal delivery
cesarean section
vacuum ectraction
forceps application
breech extraction
What is the best management of labor in cephalic – breech presentation?
vaginal delivery
B.
C.
D.
E.
112.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
113.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
114.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
115.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
116.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
117.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
118.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
cesarean section
vacuum extraction
forceps application
breech extraction
What is the best management of labor in cephalic – cephalic presentation?
vaginal delivery
cesarean section
vacuum extraction
forceps application
breech extraction
What is the best management of labor in breech – transverse presentation?
vaginal delivery
cesarean section
vacuum extraction
forceps application
breech extraction
A twin fetus is at risk for each of the following complications EXCEPT:
stillbirth
anomalies
macrosomia
malpresentation
umbilical cord entanglement
All of the below are patients at risk for macrosomic fetus EXCEPT:
endocrine disorders
multiple pregnancy
obesity
diabetes mellitus
excessive nutrition
Which of the following is associated with meconium-stained amniotic fluid?
fetal macrosomia
vaginal delivery
alkalemia
chorioamnionitis
fetal distress
What is present as compounds in the amnionic fluid only?
vernix and ectodermal fetal cells
mononuclear cells and macrophages
lymphocytes and polymorphonucleocytes
eosinophils and vernix
erytyhrocytes
What congenital anomaly is associated with polyhydramnion?
ventral septal defect
spina bifida
omphalocele
hypoplastic kidneys
E.
119.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
120.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
121.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
122.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
123.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
124.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
125.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
126.
A.
fetal anemia
At what point in normal gestation the amnionic fluid volume is approximately 1-1,5 mL?
16 weeks
28 weeks
36 weeks
40 weeks
42 weeks
Polyhydramnios defines as increasing of amniotic fluid more than:
1000 mL
1400 mL
1600 mL
1800 mL
2000 mL
Which of the following anomalies are not associated with polyhydramnios?
central nervous system abnormalities
duodenal atresia
esophageal atresia
renal agenesis
immune hydrops
What is the major source of amnionic fluid?
amnionic epithelium
fetal urination
fetal swallowing
fetal inspiration
placental production
What is the most likely cause of polyhydramnion?
maternal anemia
maternal cardiac diseases
decreasing of maternal urination
increased blood pressure
maternal infections
Which of the following maternal symptom is NOT associated with acute hydramnios?
edema
respiratory distress
enlarged abdomen
preterm labor
normal maternal condition
What is a frequent maternal complication of hydramnios?
preeclampsia
hypertonic uterine activity
placental abruption
postterm pregnancy
anemia
Which contractile ring station above the symphysis indicates 4cm cervical dilation?
1 cm
B.
C.
D.
E. *
127.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
128.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
129.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
130.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
131.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
132.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
133.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
2 cm
8 cm
6 cm
4 cm
What is the most common cause of oligohydramnios?
renal anomalies
fetal growth retardation
twin–twin transfusion
premature rupture of fetal membranes
Diabetus mellitus
What is recommended for labor’ induction in patients with polyhydramnion?
stimulation of uterine contractions
episiotomy
cesarean section
early amniotomy
obstetrics forceps
Polyhydramnion is a risk factor of :
postpartum infections
early postpartum bleeding
fetal macrosomia
fetal malformations
Pregnancy induced hypertension
Which complication is typical for I stage of labor in patients with polyhydramnion?
placenta previa
bleeding
maternal infection
fetal distress
hypotonic uterine contractions
What is the normal average baseline fetal heart rate at term?
100 to 140 bpm
110 to 150 bpm
110 to 170 bpm
120 to 140 bpm
160-179 bpm
What is bradycardia?
baseline fetal heart rate < 130 for > 5 min
baseline fetal heart rate < 140 for > 15 min
baseline fetal heart rate < 120 for > 5 min
baseline fetal heart rate < 110 for > 15 min
baseline fetal heart rate < 120 for > 3 min
Which of the following is NOT associated with fetal bradycardia?
head compression
congenital heart block
fetal distress
gestational pyelonephritis
E.
134.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
135.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
136.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
137.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
138.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
139.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
140.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
141.
A.
placental abruption
How are accelerations defined?
increase in fetal heart rate of 10 bpm for 10 sec
increase in fetal heart rate of 15 bpm for 10 sec
increase in fetal heart rate of 10 bpm for 15 sec
increase in fetal heart rate of 15 bpm for 15 sec
increase in fetal heart rate of 5 bpm for 15 sec
What is a gradual, smooth descent of the fetal heart rate 30 sec after the contraction called?
early deceleration
late deceleration
variable deceleration
acceleration
accomodation
What is the most common deceleration pattern encountered during labor?
late decelerations
early decelerations
variable decelerations
mixed decelerations
long decelerations
What is the definition of asphyxia?
fetal distress
hypoxia leading to acidemia
acidemia alone
severe variable decelerations
absence of breath
Direct electro fetal heart rate monitoring is made:
during pregnancy
in labor
during pregnancy and un the first stage of labor
in the second stage of labor
after releasing of amniotic fluid
All of the below take into account during electronic fetal heart rate minitoring EXCEPT:
baseline rhythm
fetal heart rate variability
presence of accelerations
ratio between amplitude and rhythm of oscillations
presence of decelerations
Which method is the best for evaluation of fetal well-being:
amnioscopy
ultrasonography
fetal heart rate monitoring
biophysical profile
determination of a-fetoprotein in amniotic fluid
How many minutes do you need for fetal heart rate monitoring?
10
B.
C. *
D.
E.
142.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
143.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
144.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
145.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
146.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
147.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
148.
A.
B.
C.
D.
20
30
40
50
Nonstress test – is:
amount of amniotic fluid
response of the fetal heart rate to the fetal movement
response of the fetal heart rate to physical irritation
response of the fetal heart rate to contractile drugs
response of the fetal heart rate to spasmolytics
Reactive nonstress test is:
increasing of fetal heart rate at least 15 bpm over a period 15 seconds following a fetal movement
increasing of fetal heart rate at least 1 bpm over a period 1 seconds following a fetal movement
decreasing of fetal heart rate at least 15 bpm over a period 15 seconds following a fetal movement
decreasing of fetal heart rate at least 15 bpm over a period 15 seconds following a fetal movement
absence of accelerations in response of fetal movement
Nonreactive nonstress test is:
increasing of fetal heart rate at least 15 bpm over a period 15 seconds following a fetal movement
increasing of fetal heart rate at least 1 bpm over a period 1 seconds following a fetal movement
decreasing of fetal heart rate at least 15 bpm over a period 15 seconds following a fetal movement
decreasing of fetal heart rate at least 15 bpm over a period 15 seconds following a fetal movement
absence of accelerations in response of fetal movement
How many parameters of fetal well being are presented in determination of biophysical profile?
2
3
4
5
6
All of the below are the parameters of biophysical profile EXCEPT:
amount of amniotic fluid
fetal tone
reactive nonstress test
fetal urine output
fetal breathing movements
How can you estimate of the biophysical profile?
during fetal heart rate monitoring
in ultrasonography
in cordocentesis
in amnioscopy
in amniocentesis
How many points of biophysical profile is considered to be normal?
1-2
3-4
5-6
7- 8
E. *
149.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
150.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
151.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
152.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
153.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
154.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
155.
A.
B.
C.
8 - 10
What are the characteristics of normal fetal breathing movements which corresponds with 2 points in
biophysical profile?
at least 5 FBM at least 5 seconds duration in 10 minutes
at least 1 FBM of at least 30 seconds duration in 30 minutes
at least 1 FBM of at least 20 seconds duration in 30 minutes
at least 1 FBM of at least 15 seconds duration in 15 minutes
at least 2 FBM of at least 30 seconds duration in 30 minutes
What are the characteristics of normal fetal tone which correspond with 2 points in biophysical
profile?
at least 2 episodes of active extension with return to flexion of fetal limbs/trunk during 30 minutes
at least 3 episode of active extension with return to flexion of fetal limbs/trunk in 15 minutes
at least 1 episode of active extension with return to flexion of fetal limbs/trunk in 30 minutes
at least 2 episodes of active extension with return to flexion of fetal limbs/trunk during 10 minutes
at least 1 episode of active extension without return to flexion of fetal limbs/trunk during 10 minutes
A reactive nonstress test (NST) is characterized by a fetal heart rate increase of how many beats per
minute:
15
25
50
5
55
A biophysical profile in which there is one or more episodes of fetal breathing in 30 minutes, three or
more discrete movements in 30 minutes, opening / closing of the fetal hand, a nonreactive nonstress
test (NST), and no pockets of amniotic fluid greater than 1 cm would have a total score of:
2
4
6
8
10
In which gestational age does the second ultrasonography is recommended?
12-14 weeks
16 – 21 weeks
22-23 weeks
24-26 weeks
26-28 weeks
All of the below complications should be present during amniocentesis EXCEPT:
maternal trauma
fetal trauma
infection
abortion
placenta previa
All of below are the main indications for cordocentesis EXCEPT:
fetal distress
fetal isoimmunization
metabolic fetal disorders
D. *
E.
156.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
157.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
158.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
159.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
160.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
161.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
162.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
163.
maternal pregnancy induced hypertension
fetal karyotyping
Cordocentesis – is:
puncture of amniotic sac
percutaneous umbilical blood sampling
skin sample
chorionic villus sampling
fetoscopy
Which size of pelvis is normally 20-21 cm?:
distancia spinarum
external conjugate
distancia trochanterica
distancia cristarum
true conjuagete
Decrease in fetal heart rate above baseline is called as:
feceleration
acceleration
doceleration
perceleration
deceleration
Variable decelerations are closely connected with:
umbilical cord occlusion
placental abruption
placental previa
diabetes mellitus
pregnancy induced hypertension
What is the normal perception of fetal movement by pregnant woman?
more than 10 movements during 12 hours
2 movements for 2 hours
3 movements in 1 hour
5 movements in 30 minutes
1 movement for 24 hours
What are the characteristics of normal amount of amniotic fluid volume in the biophysical profile?
at least 1 pocket of amniotic fluid at least 1 cm in two perpendicular planes during 30 minutes
at least 2 pockets of amniotic fluid at least 1 cm in two perpendicular planes during 30 minutes
at least 1 pocket of amniotic fluid at least 1 cm in two perpendicular planes during 15 minutes
at least 3 pockets of amniotic fluid at least 1 cm in two perpendicular planes during 20 minutes
at least 1 pocket of amniotic fluid at least 1 cm in two perpendicular planes during 50 minutes
How many minutes do you need for estimation of biophysical profile?
15
20
25
30
40
All of the below are the complications which should be present during cordocentesis EXCEPT:
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
164.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
165.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
166.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
167.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
168.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
169.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
170.
A. *
oligohydramnios
fetal trauma
fever
abortion
placenta abruption
How many points does the woman receive on biophysical profile for one fetal breath movement of at
least 30 seconds duration in 30 minutes?
0
1
2
3
4
How many points does the woman receive on biophysical profile for absence of active extension with
return to flexion of fetal limb/trunk?
0
1
2
3
4
Biophysical profile of the fetus determines from:
28 week of gestation
16 week of gestation
12 week of gestation
40 week of gestation
34 week of gestation
Physiological fetus heart rate is:
120-140 per min.
110-170 per min.
140-160 per min.
120-160 per min.
110-160 per min
According with the biophysical fetus profile, doubtful fetus condition is in case:
4 points and lower
5-6 points
7-10 points
3-6 points
5-10 points
According with the biophysical fetus profile, pathological fetus condition is in case:
4 points and lower
5-6 points
7-10 points
3-6 points
5-10 points
In case of pathological result of biophysical fetus condition:
We decide to deliver this patient immediately
B.
C.
D.
E.
171.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
172.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
173.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
174.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
175.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
176.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
177.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
To continue observation
To stop delivery stimulation
To perform ultrasonography
Not necessary to do anything
To diagnose fetus distress condition during labor we use all exept:
Fetal heart rate assessment by obstetric stetoskope
Electronic Fetal heart rate asessment
Presence of meconium in amniotic fluid
Assessment of the labor activity
There is no correct Answer:
In case of fetus distress condition in labor we undergo all below prescriptions EXEPT:
Avoid supine position of the patient
Stop oxytocin dropping
Vacuum extraction
Forceps delivery
Continue oxytocin dropping
In case of fetal distress we:
Avoid supine position of the patient
Stop oxitocin dropping
Avoid prone position
Allow patient to stay in supine position
Answer:s A and B
In case of fetal distress within the first period of labor:
Perform Cesarean section immediately
To continue observation
Continue oxitocin dropping
Continue labor through the natural passway
There is no correct Answer:
Which cervical delation indicates 2cm contractile ring station above the symphysis:
5 fingers
1 finger
4 fingers
3 fingers
2 fingers
In case of fetal distress within the second period of labor in breach presentation:
Perform Cesarean section immediately
To perform breech extraction of the fetus
Continue oxitocin dropping
Continue labor through the natural passway
There is no correct Answer:
There are … degrees of fetus retardation:
2
3
4
5
E.
178.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
179.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
180.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
181.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
182.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
183.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
184.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
185.
A. *
6
The first degree of fetus retardation matches with:
2 weeks retardations
3 weeks retardations
4 weeks retardations
5 weeks retardations
1 weeks retardations
The second degree of fetus retardation matches with:
2 weeks retardations
6 weeks retardations
3-4 weeks retardations
5 weeks retardations
1 weeks retardations
The third degree of fetus retardation matches with:
2 weeks retardations
3 weeks retardations
4 weeks retardations
1 week retardations
more than 4 weeks
The first degree hypotrophy of the newborn is:
15-20% weight deficit of normal.
21-30% weight deficit of normal
31% and more weight deficit of normal
41% and more weight deficit of normal
5-10% weight deficit of normal
The second degree hypotrophy of the newborn is:
15-20% weight deficit of normal.
21-30% weight deficit of normal
31% and more weight deficit of normal
41% and more weight deficit of normal
5-10% weight deficit of normal
The 3 degree hypotrophy of the newborn is:
15-20% weight deficit of normal.
21-30% weight deficit of normal
31% and more weight deficit of normal
41% and more weight deficit of normal
5-10% weight deficit of normal
Matured newborn has:
47 cm height and 2500 g weight and more
45 cm height and 2300 g weight
46 cm height 2450 g weight
40 cm height and 2000 g weight
45 cm height and 2450 g weight
Nonmatured newborn has:
45 cm height and 2499 g weight and less
B.
C.
D.
E.
186.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
187.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
188.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
189.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
190.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
191.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
192.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
45 cm height and 2600 g weight and less
46 cm height 2700 g weight
47 cm height and 2600 g weight
45 cm height and 2650 g weight
Feto-placental insufficiency is:
acute and chronic
acute, chronic and hidden
light and severe
light, severe and moderate
Moderate and severe
In case of normal pregnancy width of the placenta on the 28th week of gestation is:
28 mm
31 mm
26 mm
25 mm
35 mm
There are ….. degrees of placental maturity:
3
4
5
2
1
We perform auscultation of the fetus heart rate from the:
20th week of pregnancy
15th week of pregnancy
23-24th week of pregnancy
28th week of pregnancy
30th week of pregnancy
We perform the first ultrasonography of the fetus in the:
11th week of pregnancy
5th week of pregnancy
8th week of pregnancy
20th week of pregnancy
24th week of pregnancy
In case of normal pregnancy width of the placenta on the 31th week of gestation is:
28 mm
31 mm
26 mm
25 mm
40mm
In case of normal pregnancy width of the placenta on the 36th week of gestation is:
28 mm
31 mm
26 mm
36 mm
E.
193.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
194.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
195.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
196.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
197.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
198.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
199.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
200.
A.
40mm
We are talking about feto-placental insufficiency in case of:
placenta becoming thinner than 20 mm and thicker than 50 mm
placenta becoming thinner than 25 mm and thicker than 50 mm
placenta becoming thinner than 20 mm and thicker than 40 mm
placenta becoming thinner than 30 mm and thicker than 40 mm
placenta becoming thinner than 30 mm and thicker than 55 mm
We perform ultrasonography of the fetus in case of normal pregnancy:
3 times
2 times
4 times
5 times
6 times
We perform ultrasonography of fetus in case of normal pregnancy:
on the 16-18th week and 36th week of gestation
on the 9 - 11th week and 16 - 18th week of gestation
on the 21th week and 36th week of gestation
on the 16-18th week and 26th week of gestation
on the 24-28th week and 30th week of gestation
Fetal heart beating and movement we can see on ultrasonography starting from the:
10-11th week
17-18th week
7-8th week
4-5th week
15-16th week
Puncture of the fetal cord vessels is:
Amnioscopy
Fetoscopy
Cordocentesis
Amniocentesis
Culdocentesis
Fetal visualisation in the intrauterus space is called:
Amnioscopy
Fetoscopy
Cordocentesis
Amniocentesis
Hysteroscopy
Assessment of the lower part of the amniotic sac is called:
Amnioscopy
Fetoscopy
Cordocentesis
Amniocentesis
Hysteroscopy
Assessment of the lower part of the fetal sac is called:
Amniography
B.
C.
D.
E. *
201.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
202.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
203.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
204.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
205.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
206.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
207.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
Fetoscopy
Cordocentesis
Amniocentesis
There is no correct Answer
What is the average of transverse diameter of the pelvic inlet?
11.0 cm
10.0 cm
10.5 cm
13.0 cm
12.0 cm
All of the below are the indications to hospitalization to pathologic pregnancy department EXEPT:
Pregnancy induced hypertension;
Anemia;
Placental dysfunction
Syphilis;
Pyelonephritis
The obstetric-gynecological center consists of:
obstetric hospital, female dispensary.
female dispensary, gynecological department.
obstetric hospital, female dispensary, gynecological department.
surgical department.
obstetric hospital, female dispensary, department of new-born.
What basic function of admitting office?
medical help to the patient in the case of necessity.
general inspection of the patient.
measuring of temperature.
filling of passport part of history of labor.
all of the above.
All of the below are the indications to hospitalization to pathologic pregnancy department EXEPT:
Pregnancy induced hypertension;
Anemia
Glomerulonephtitis
Tuberculosis
Diabetus mellitus
What of the following is not an indication for hospitalization to the second obstetric department?
the death of fetus.
rise of temperature of body..
tuberculosis.
diabetes.
syphilis.
What of the following is an indication for hospitalization to the second obstetric department?
antenatal death of fetus.
preeclampsia of III degree.
bleeding.
diabetes.
E.
208.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
209.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
210.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
211.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
212.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
213.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
214.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
215.
A.
fetal malpresentation
Which of the following is NOT a component of the bony pelvis?
coccyx
sacrum
ischium
femoral head
lumbal part of vertebrae
Which of the following is NOT a part of the superior boundary of the true pelvis?
linea terminalis
linea interspinalis
promontory of the sacrum
pubic bones
no correct answer:
The true pelvis is bounded below by which of the following structures?
sacral promontory
alae of sacral
pelvic outlet
upper margins of pelvic bone
linea interspinalis
What is the average of transverse diameter of the pelvic outlet?
11.0 cm
10.0 cm
10.5 cm
11.5 cm
12 cm
What is the average of interspinous diameter?
8.0 cm
10.0 cm
10.5 cm
12.0 cm
9.0 cm
Which of the following is distantia spinarum?
the distance between anterior superior iliac spines from the both sides
the distance between iliac crista from the both sides
the distance between iliac spines
the distance between trochanter major from the both sides
the distance between ishiadic spines
Which of the following is distantia cristarum?
the distance between anterior superior iliac spines from the both sides
the distance between iliac crista from the both sides
the distance between iliac spines
the distance between trochanter major from the both sides
the distance between ishiadic spines
Which of the following is distantia trochanterica?
the distance between anterior superior iliac spines from the both sides
B.
C.
D. *
E.
216.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
217.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
218.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
219.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
220.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
221.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
222.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
the distance between iliac crista from the both sides
the distance between iliac spines to the crista ilii
the distance between trochanter major from the both sides
the distance between trochanter minor from the both sides
Which size of pelvis have normally 25-26 cm?
true conjugate
distantia spinarum
distantia cristarum
distantia trochanterica
external conjugate
Which size of pelvis have normally 28-29 cm?
true conjugate
distantia spinarum
distantia cristarum
distantia trochanteric
external conjugate
Which external size of pelvis have 30-31 cm?
true conjugate
distantia spinarum
distantia cristarum
distantia trochanterica
external conjugate
Which size of pelvis have normally 20-21 cm?
obstetric conjugate
distantia spinarum
distantia cristarum
distantia trochanterica
external conjugate
What is the average diameter of the obstetrical conjugate?
8.0 cm
9.0 cm
10 cm
12.0 cm
11 cm
How is the obstetric conjugate determined?
add 1.5 cm to the diagonal conjugate
subtract 1.5 cm from the external conjugate
the diagonal and true conjugate are equal
add 1.5-2 cm to the true conjugate
subtract 1.5-2 cm from the diagonal conjugate
What is the average of Solovjov’ index?
10-12 cm
12-14 cm
14-16 cm
16-18 cm
E.
223.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
224.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
225.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
226.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
227.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
228.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
229.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
230.
A.
17-19 cm
Which is the obstetric conjugate in patient with conjugate externa 21 and Solovjov’ index 15 cm?
12 cm
11 cm
10 cm
9 cm
8 cm
Which of the following is NOT a part of the urogenital diaphragm?
urethral sphincter
m. transverses perinei profundus
middle perineal fascia
superficial perineal fascia
sphincter ani
What is the shortest diameter of the pelvic cavity?
transverse diameter of the pelvic inlet
obstetric conjugate
true conjugate
diagonal conjugate
interspinosus
Between which bones does sagittal suture is located?
two frontal
two occipital
two parietal
two temporal
no correct answer:
Which suture is the most important for the recognition of the fetal position during labor?
frontal
coronal
lambdoid
sagittal
transversal.
Which is the average of suboccipitobregmatic diameter?
9.5
10.0
10.5
11.0
11.5
The anterior fontanel is bounded by following bones EXCEPT?
occipital
frontal
left parietal
right parietal
no correct answer
In the fetus or neonate, what are the two sutures between the frontal and parietal bones?
frontal
B.
E.
sagittal
lambdoid
coronal
occipital.
The posterior fontanel is bounded by following bones, EXCEPT?
occipital
frontal
left parietal
right parietal
no correct answer
Which is the diameter of fetal shoulders?
9 cm
10 cm
11 cm
12 cm
13 cm
Which of the following diameters is the greatest?
occipitofrontal
biparietal
occipitomental
suboccipitobregmatic
suboccipitomental
Which suture is NOT composed the anterior fontanel?
coronal
lambdoid
sagittal
frontal
all of the above
Which is the diameter of fetal pelvic part?
8.5 cm
9 cm
9.5 cm
10.5 cm
11 cm
236.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
237.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which size of the pelvis is normally 25-26 cm?
spinarum
external conjugate
true conjugate
trochanterica
cristarum
Which from the following diameters represents the smallest circumference of the head?
occipitofrontal
suboccipitofrontal.
bitemporal
biparietal
C.
D. *
E.
231.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
232.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
233.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
234.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
235.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E. *
B.
C.
suboccipitobregmatic
When the production of amniotic fluids begin?
from a 12 day of pregnancy
from the 24th day of pregnancy
from 12 weeks of pregnancy
from 20 weeks of pregnancy
from 24 weeks of pregnancy
When the fertilized ovum is called “conceptus”?
1 week after fertilization;
2 weeks after fertilization;
during all pregnancy.
3 weeks after fertilization;
5 weeks after fertilization.
What is the „cortical reaction”?
capacity of spermatozoon for the ovum penetration;
result of spermatozoa capacity;
impenetrability of shell of ovum after fertilization for other spermatozoa;
release of ovum from an corona radiata.
the moment of fertilization
What stage of development does an embryo get on in an uterus?
2 blastomers;
4 blastomers;
morula;
blastocyst.
embryo.
What length is the fetus on the 6 th month of pregnancy?
16 cm;
25 cm;
30 cm;
35 cm;
40 cm.
What week of fetal development transition to placental circulation of blood is completed on?
on a 12-14 week;
on a 10-12 week;
on a 8-10 week;
D.
E.
244.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
245.
A.
on a 6-8 week;
on a 4-6 week.
During what time of development the result of conception is named an embryo?
from the moment of fertilization to the moment of placentation;
from the 2nd week of development to 12-14th week;
from the 3rd week of development to 10th one;
from a 4th week to 8th one.
from the moment of implantation to the 12th week.
What composition of amniotic fluids from composition of plasma of the maternal blood differs by?
by the higher level of proteins
238.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
239.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
240.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
241.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
242.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
243.
A. *
B. *
A.
by lower level of proteins
by the higher level of estrogens
by more low level of estrogens
by the higher level of progesteron
What parts of the feto-placental complex stay in uterus after the fetal birth?
placenta, membranes, umbilical cord, decidua;
placenta, amniotic fluids, umbilical cord;
placenta, decidua, umbilical cord;
placenta, amnion and chorion membranes,
all of the above
Which day after fertilization implantation occur?
on 3-4 day;
on 5-6 day;
on 7-8 day
on 9-10 day.
on 10-12 day
What is the acrosomic reaction?
increasing of high motive activity of spermatozoa;
process of capacity;
process of confluence of gamete nucleus;
possibility to the penetration membranes of ovum
loss of motive activity.
The amniotic fluid execute such functions EXCEPT:
an umbilical cord is protected from the compression;
fluid are created conditions for development and motions of fetus;
aiding to dilatation of cervix;
the feeding of the fetus is provided;
a fetus is protected from the mechanical damage,
Name the fetal membranes, beginning from uterus:
decidua, chorion, amnion;
decidua, amnion, chorion;
amnion, decidua, chorion;
amnion, chorion, decidua;
chorion, decidua, amnion.
What quantity of amniotic fluids is considered normal on the 38th week of pregnancy?
less than 0,5;
B.
C.
D. *
E.
252.
A.
B.
C.
D.
0,5-0,8 l;
0,5-1,0 l;
1,0-1,5 l;
1,5-2,5 l.
What process is typical for the nervous system at pregnant?
depression
emotional instability
the dominant of pregnancy is formed
the changes of the taste
C.
D.
E.
246.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
247.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
248.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
249.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
250.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
251.
E. *
C.
D.
all answers are correct
What process is typical for adaptation of the cardiac system to pregnancy?
reduction of blood volume
increase of volume of blood on 30-50%
reduction of plasma volume
increase of blood volume on 10-20%
increase of blood volume on 60-70%
What level of gaemoglobin is considered normal for pregnant?
130-140 g/l
120-130 g/l
110-140 g/l
100-110 g/l
120-160 g/l
What amount of leucocytes is considered as a normal in pregnant?
5-7,5х109
7,2-10,6х109
4-8,8х109
5,0-12х109
7,7-15,6х109
If at pregnant at the protracted position on the back there are bradycardia, decreasing of BP,
dizziness, it testifies to:
cardiac pathology
organic heart disease
decompensation of cardiac activity
syndrome of lower hollow vein
disorders of placental circulation
Which cervical dilation indicates 5 cm contractile ring station above the symphysis?
1 cm
2 cm
5 cm
3 cm
4 cm
What blood changes arise up at pregnant before the labor?
the level of leucocytes rises
coagulative properties of blood rise
the level of red blood cells rises
the volume of circulatory blood goes down
E.
259.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
260.
hypovolemia increases
What is the reason of heartburn at pregnant?
rise of gastric juice acidity
decreasing of tone of cardial sphincter of stomach
rise of stomach activity
violation of diet
disease of stomach
Which contractile ring station above the symphysis indicates to 2cm cervical dilation?
253.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
254.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
255.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
256.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
257.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
258.
A.
B. *
A. *
B. *
2 cm above the symphysis
1 cm above the symphysis
5 cm above the symphysis
3 cm above the symphysis
4 cm above the symphysys
What factors assist to frequent development of pyelonephritis at pregnant?
shortening of ureters
vezico-ureteral reflux
frequent urination
all answers are correct
the correct answer is not present
What hormone provides the “muscular relax” of uterus?
estrogens
progesteron
prolactin
oxytocin
placental lactogen
What is the weight of uterus at the end of pregnancy?
400-500 g
500-800 g
800-1000 g
1000-1500 g
1500-2000 g
What hormone stimulates the appetite at pregnant?
progesteron
estrogens
insulin
prolactin
lactogen
What is the normal weight gain in pregnant?
on 5-7 kg
on 7-8 kg
on 8-12 kg
on 10-16 kg
individually
Which sources of calcium are the best for pregnant’ diet?
garden fruits
cheese and milk
C.
D.
E.
267.
A. *
B.
C.
fish
bread
meat and liver
Which sources of iron are the best for pregnant’ diet?
meat and liver
apricots
the baked potatoes
B.
C.
D.
E.
261.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
262.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
263.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
264.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
265.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
266.
A.
D.
E.
274.
milk
all of the above
What quantity of liquid is used by pregnant in the second half of pregnancy?
as few as possible
0,8-1 l
1-1,2 l
1,5-2 l
without limitations
What period a fetus is the most sensible to the harmful factors?
in a 1-7 day after the implantation
from 3th to the 8th week of pregnancy
from 5 to a 16 week of pregnancy
from 32th to the 36th week of pregnancy
during all pregnancy
What is important during conducting of test on pregnancy in early terms?
to use morning portion of urine
sterility of urine
to collect urine after the careful hygiene of external genitalia
before conducting of test a woman must not use fat food
all answers are correct
Standard urine pregnancy test is positive arproximately
1-2 week after last menstrual period
12 day after last menstrual period
3 weeks after last menstrual period
4 weeks after last menstrual period
16 days after last menstrual period
From what week by means the ultrasound it is possible to expose cardiac activity of fetus?
on a 2-3 day after the implantation
on 2 weeks of pregnancy
on 3 weeks of pregnancy
on 4 weeks of pregnancy
on a 8 week of pregnancy
What information about the menstrual function of woman will help to set the term of pregnancy?
age of beginning of menstruations
regularity of menstruations
duration of menstrual cycle
date of the first day of the last menstruation
all the above
What question is more important only at collection of anamnesis on a genital function?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
275.
quantity of pregnancies
quantity of labors
quantity of abortions
presence of complications during previous pregnancies
all the above
What term of pregnancy does a multipara feel the first motions of fetus?
E.
268.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
269.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
270.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
271.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
272.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
273.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
A.
B.
C.
in 17 weeks of pregnancy
in 18 weeks of pregnancy
in 20 weeks of pregnancy
at 22 weeks of pregnancy
at 24 weeks of pregnancy
What form of external cervical os at a nulliparous woman?
round
transversal
irregular form
a right answer is not present
right answers B also C
It is exposed at bimanual examination, that the isthmus of uterus is softened; the ends of fingers are
easily touch together. Who described this sign?
Genter;
Goubarev;
Piscachec;
Snegirov;
neither of the above authors.
During bimanual examination doctor exposed considerable softening the uterine isthmus. What
scientist described this sign?
Gegar;
Genter;
Piscachek;
Snegirov;
neither of above
Sign Gorvits-Gegar – this:
easy displacement of uterus
softening of isthmus of uterus
appearance of asymmetry of uterus
appearance of the thickness on the front surface of uterus
easy changeability of consistency of uterus
The Gegar’ sign becomes manifest at:
in 4-5 weeks of pregnancy
in 5-6 weeks of pregnancy
in 6-8 weeks of pregnancy
in 8-10 weeks of pregnancy
in 12 weeks of pregnancy
What functions are executed by a placenta?
interchange of gases;
trophic;
excretic;
D.
E. *
282.
A.
protects an umbilical cord from the compression;
all the above
What sign of pregnancy belongs to probable?
nausea, vomiting;
B. *
C.
D.
E.
276.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
277.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
278.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
279.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
280.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
281.
A.
B.
A.
palpation of fetal parts in uterus;
uterine enlargement;
changes of taste;
all the above
What sign of pregnancy does not belong to presumptive?
auscultation to fetal heart rate ;
nausea, vomits in the morning;
change of taste;
fatigue;
all the above.
What sign of pregnancy belongs to positive?
change of taste;
stopping of menstruations;
cyanosis of uterine cervix;
uterine enlargement;
neither of above.
What sign of pregnancy does not belong to positive?
palpation of fetal parts ;
stopping of menstruations;
auscultation to fetal heart rate ;
presence of motions of fetus;
all the above
What sign of pregnancy does not belong to positive?
palpation of fetal parts in an uterus;
auscultation to fetal heart rate ;
results of ultrasonic examination;
stopping of menstruations;
all the above.
What sign of pregnancy belongs to positive?
increase of abdomen;
stopping of menstruations;
auscultation to fetal heart rate;
uterine enlargement;
all the above;
Term "longitudinal" lie of fetus in uterus is called as?
habitus flexus
situs longitudinalis
situs obliqus
presentatio cerhalica
positio I
What term “oblique lie” of fetus in uterus is determined by?
habitus obliqus
B.
C. *
D.
situs longitudinalis
situs obliqus
presentatio obliqua
C. *
D.
E.
283.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
284.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
285.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
286.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
287.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
288.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
289.
E.
C.
positio obliqua
A fetus is situated in the first position, if:
its back is to the left wall of uterus;
its back is to the right wall of uterus;
its back is to the front wall of uterus;
its back is to the back wall of uterus.
no correct answer
The fetal attitude:
relation of head and extremities of fetus to its trunk
attitude of vertical axis of fetus toward the axis of uterus
attitude of axis of fetus toward the axis of pelvis
attitude of the back of fetus toward the lateral walls of uterus
attitude of head toward the entrance in a pelvis
If the axis of fetus and uterus are perpendicular, head to the right, this is:
longitudinal lie
oblique lie, I position
oblique lie, ІІ position
transversal lie, I position
transversal lie, ІІ position
Where is the best place for auscultation of the fetal heart rate at longitudinal lie, cephalic
presentation, ІІ position, anterior variety?
right side, higher than umbilicus;
on the left, higher than umbilicus;
on the left, below than umbilicus;
right side, below than umbilicus.
at the level of umbilicus, on the left
Where is the best place for auscultation of the fetal heart rate at longitudinal lie, breech presentation,
I position, anterior variety?
right side, higher than umbilicus;
on the left, higher than umbilicus;
on the left, below than umbilicus;
right side, below than umbilicus.
at the level of umbilicus, on the left
Where is the best place for auscultation of the fetal heart rate at longitudinal lie, breech presentation,
ІІ position, anterior variety?
right side, higher than umbilicus;
on the left, higher than umbilicus;
on the left, below than umbilicus;
right side, below than umbilicus.
at the level of umbilicus, on the left
All of the below can determine by the second Leopold’ maneuver EXEPT:
height of standing of uterine fundus
variety of the fetus
position of fetus
D.
Fetal movements
290.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
291.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
292.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
293.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
294.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
295.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
296.
A. *
B.
E.
297.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
298.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
299.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
300.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
301.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
302.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
303.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
304.
quantity of amniotic fluid.
Where is the best place for auscultation of the fetal heart rate at transversal lie, I position, anterior
variety?
right side, higher than umbilicus;
on the left, higher than umbilicus;
on the left, below than umbilicus;
right side, below than umbilicus.
at the level of umbilicus, on the left
What we determine by the third Leopold’ maneuver?
height of standing of uterine fundus;
presenting part;
variety and position of fetus;
attitude of fetus toward the entrance in a pelvis.
quantity of amniotic fluid.
What we determine by the fourth Leopold’ maneuver?
height of standing of uterine fundus;
presenting part;
variety and position of fetus;
attitude of fetus toward the entrance in a pelvis.
quantity of amniotic fluid.
Which in a norm the frequency of fetal heart rate?
110-170 in 1 min.
110-190 in 1 min.
100-140 in 1 min.
100-120 in 1 min.
120-180 in 1 min.
What reference points the abdominal circumference in pregnant is measured at?
at the level of spina iliaca posterior-inferior and umbilicus
at the level of spina iliaca anterior-superior and umbilicus
at the level of spina iliaca posterior-superior and umbilicus
at the level of middle spina iliaca and umbilicus
at the level of the back sacrum os and umbilicus
What term of pregnancy, if the uterine fundus is found at the level of umbilicus?
16 weeks;
24 weeks;
28 weeks;
30 weeks.
36 weeks
What term of pregnancy, if the uterine fundus is found at the level of pubis?
12 weeks;
14 weeks;
16 weeks;
18 weeks.
20 weeks
Indicate term of pregnancy when uterine fundus is found at the level of umbilicus?
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
305.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
306.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
307.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
308.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
309.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
310.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
311.
A. *
B.
16 weeks;
24 weeks;
28 weeks;
30 weeks.
36 weeks
In Which Leopold’ maneuver the presenting part of fetus is determined?
first;
second;
third;
fourth.
any
In which Leopold’ maneuver the level of uterine fundus is determined?
first;
second;
third;
fourth.
any
The last menstruation at a woman was 12.07. 2012. Define the date of the expected labor, using a
formula Negele.
19.04.13
19.03.13
5.04.13
12 04.13
5.10.13
What percentages of fetuses are born in the occiput presentation at term?
80
85
90
95
99
What is the most common presentation of the fetus?
posterior occiput
breech
face
brow
anterior occiput
Which of the following is characteristic of synclitism?
Sagittal suture is not parallel to the transverse axis of the inlet.
Sagittal suture lies midway between the symphysis and sacral promontory.
Sagittal suture, although parallel to the transverse axis of the inlet, does not lie exactly midway
between the symphysis and sacral promontory.
Sagittal suture rotates 45 degrees from the sacral spines.
Sagittal suture lies closer to symphysis
Which of the following is characteristic of posterior asynclitism?
Sagittal suture lies closer to symphysis.
Sagittal suture lies midway between the symphysis and sacral promontory.
C.
D.
E.
312.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
313.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
314.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
315.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
316.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
317.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
318.
A.
Sagittal suture, although parallel to the transverse axis of the inlet, does not lie exactly midway
between the symphysis and sacral promontory and lies closer to promontory.
Sagittal suture rotates 45 degrees from the sacral spines.
None of the above.
During which cardinal movement of labor the fetal head delivered in anterior occiput presentation?
extension
internal rotation
external rotation
expulsion
flexion
When the internal rotation of the fetal head does begin?
in the plane of pelvic inlet
in the greatest pelvic dimension
in the plane of the least pelvic dimension
when the head descents from the plane of the greatest pelvic dimension to the plane of the least
pelvic dimension
on the pelvic floor
Where the internal rotation of the fetal head is complete?
in the plane of pelvic inlet
in the greatest pelvic dimension
in the plane of the least pelvic dimension
when the head descents from the plane of the greatest pelvic dimension to the plane of the least
pelvic dimension
on the pelvic floor
In the result of the internal rotation of the fetal head the sagittal suture is
in the transversal size of pelvic inlet
in the oblique size of the greatest pelvic dimension
in the anterior-posterior size of the greatest pelvic dimension
in the anterior-posterior size of the least pelvic dimension
in the anterior-posterior size of the pelvic outlet
The anterior shoulder appears under the symphysis during which cardinal movement of labor?
extension
expulsion
external head rotation
descent
internal head rotation
The base of the occiput is brought into contact with the inferior margin of the symphysis during
which cardinal movement of labor?
extension
expulsion
descent
flexion
external rotation
What is the leading point in the anterior occiput presentation?
fossa occipitalis
B.
C.
D.
E. *
319.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
320.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
321.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
322.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
323.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
324.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
325.
A.
B.
tuber occipitalis
the area of the border of the hair part
the midpoint of sagittal suture
small fontanel
What is the leading point in the posterior occiput presentation?
fossa occipitalis
tuber occipitalis
the area of the border of the hair part
the midpoint of sagittal suture
small fontanel
How much centimetres does the suboccipitobregmaticus diameter have?
14 cm
9,5 cm
12 cm
11 cm
10 cm
What is the first fixing point in the posterior occiput presentation?
small fontanel
tuber occipitalis
the area of the border of the hair part
the midpoint of sagittal suture
fossa suboccipitalis
Which diameter of the fetal head presents in the anterior occiput presentation?
fronto-occipitalis
suboccipitobregmatic
biparietal
sagittal suture
bitemporal
What is the presentation if Leopold maneuvers reveal the following: (1) breech in fundus, (2)
resistant plane palpated through mother’s right flank, (3) head movable, (4) cephalic prominence on
maternal left?
breech presentation, I position
breech presentation, II position
occiput presentation, I position
occiput presentation, II position
transversal presentation
What are the cardinal movements of labor in anterior occiput presentation (in order)?
descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, expulsion
flexion, engagement, internal rotation, external rotation
flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation of the head, internal rotation of the body
flexion, descent, internal rotation, extension, expulsion
internal rotation, extension, external rotation, flexion
What are the cardinal movements of labor in posterior occiput presentation (in order)?
descent, flexion, internalrotation, extension, expulsion
flexion, engagement, internalrotation, externalrotation
C.
D. *
E.
326.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
327.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
328.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
329.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
330.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
331.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
332.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
flexion, internalrotation, extension, externalrotation
flexion, internal rotation, additional flexion. extension, expulsion
additional flexion, internal rotation, extension, additional extension, external rotation
Which circumference the fetal head is delivered in anterior occiput presentation?
32 cm
33 cm
34 cm
36 cm
38 cm
Which circumference of fetal head is delivered in posterior occiput presentation?
32 cm
33 cm
34 cm
36 cm
38 cm
Which of the following is essential for the generation of uterine contractions?
prostaglandins
calcium
estrogen
oxytocin
all of the above
Where is oxytocin primarily synthesized?
adrenal gland
placenta
anterior pituitary
ovary
posterior pituitary
All processes play the part in the labor initialization EXEPT
progesterone increases
prostaglandins increase
oxytocin increases
estrogens increases
serotonin increases
The basic elements involved in the uterine contractile system, EXEPT
actin
myosin
adenosine triphospate
calcium
estrogens
What is the most important in the characteristic of the uterine contractions?
strong
regular
moderate
painful
strenght
333.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
334.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
335.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
336.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
337.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
338.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
339.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
340.
A.
B. *
Which labor forces are present in I stage of labor?
false uterine contractions
true uterine contractions
uterine contractions and pushing
pushing
all of the above
Which labor forces are present in II stage of labor?
false uterine contractions
true uterine contractions
uterine contractions and pushing
pushing
all of the above
Which labor forces are present in III stage of labor?
false uterine contractions
true uterine contractions
uterine contractions and pushing
pushing
all of the above
Which moment is the beginning of I stage of labor?
onset of regular uterine contractions
complete dilatation of cervix
rupture of amniotic sac
onset of pushing
delivery of the fetus
Which moment is the end of II stage of labor?
onset of uterine contractions
complete dilatation of cervix
rupture of amniotic sac
complete cervical effacement
delivery of the fetus
Which moment is the beginning of III stage of labor?
separation of placenta
complete dilatation of cervix
rupture of amniotic sac
complete cervical effacement
delivery of the fetus.
Which moment is the end of 3 stage of labor?
onset of pushing
complete dilatation of cervix
separation of placenta
expulsion of placenta
delivery of the fetus
Which of the following is NOT associated with II stage of labor?
uterine contractions
placental separation
C.
D.
E.
341.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
342.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
343.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
344.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
345.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
346.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
347.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
fetal expulsion
pushing
fetal internal rotation
The level of proteinuria in 24 hour collection is 0.2 g. For which degree of pregnancy induced
hypertension does it characterized?
pregestosis
mild preeclampsia
moderate preeclampsia
severe preeclampsia
eclampsia
What is the scheme of methyldopha prescription in the treatment of moderate preeclampsia?
0.25 – 0.5 g 3-4 times a day
0.5 – 1.5g 3-4 times a day
0.25 g once a day
0,1 g once a day
0,5 g once a day
To which group does atenolol belong to?
central alpha2 adrenoagonists
adrenoblockers
vasodilators
anticonvulsant
calcium channel blocker
What is the initial dose of magnesium sulfate in the treatment of moderate preeclampsia?
4g
6 mg
6g
8g
10g
With preeclampsia, what is the significance of severe, right upper-quadrant pain?
cholecystitis
pancreatitis
tension on Glisson’s capsule
Teitze syndrome
Terner’s syndrome
When is eclampsia least likely to occur?
antepartum
intrapartum
immediately postpartum
after 48 hr postpartum
after 2 hours postpartum
Which of the following is true of blindness in conjunction with severe preeclampsia?
likely central in origin
often permanent
usually unilateral
common
E.
348.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
349.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
350.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
351.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
352.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
353.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
354.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
there is no correct answer
Which of the following is NOT a sign of severe pregnancy-induced hypertension?
upper abdominal pain
oliguria
convulsions
fetal growth retardation
visual disturbances
How is magnesium toxicity treated?
calcium chloride intravenously
calcium phosphate orally
calcium gluconate and discontinue magnesium
dialysis
there is no correct answer
Which of the complications are NOT true about preeclampsia?
placental abruption
cerebral hemorrhage
renal insufficiency
intranatal fetal death
anaphylactic shock
Which of the following is considered an abnormal 24-hour urinary protein in women with severe
preeclampsia?
300 mg in 24 hr
1 g in 24 hr
2 g in 24 hr
3 g in 24 hr
>5 g in 24 hr
How is the pathophysiology of preeclampsia characterized?
vasodilatation
vasospasm
hemodilution
hypervolemia
there is no correct answer
With eclampsia, which of the following is NOT true?
Cerebral edema is present.
Electroencephalogram abnormalities are frequent.
Petechial hemorrhage is common.
Cerebral blood flow is normal.
convulsions are present
Of the following, which is NOT considered to be a predisposing factor to preeclampsia?
family history of preeclampsia
multiple fetuses
renal transplantation
multiparity
hypertensive disorders
355.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
356.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
357.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
358.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
359.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
360.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
361.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
362.
A.
The main characteristic signs of superimposed pregnancy induced hypertension are all of the below
EXCEPT:
early beginning;
severe duration;
isolated proteinuria, edema, or hypertension
atypical clinical findings such as paresthesia, insomnia, hypersalivation
combined proteinuria, edema, or hypertension
Gestational hypertension defines as:
occurs after 30 weeks of pregnancy and doesn’t accompanies with proteinuria
occurs after 20 weeks of pregnancy and doesn’t accompanies with proteinuria
occurs after 12 weeks of pregnancy and accompanies with proteinuria
occurs after 20 weeks of pregnancy and accompanies with proteinuria
occurs after 12 weeks of pregnancy and doesn’t accompanies with proteinuria
Which of the following is NOT diagnostic of severe preeclampsia?
increased serum creatinine more than 1200 mkmol/L
5 g proteinuria in 24 hour collection
45 hematocrit
elevated liver enzymes
180.000 thrombocytes
Which of the following is NOT diagnostic of severe preeclampsia?
increased serum creatinine more than 120 mkmol/L
>5 g proteinuria in 24 hour collection
42 hematocrit
diastolic pressurE. 110 mm Hg
300.000 thrombocytes
All drugs should be prescribed in Hyperemesis gravidarum EXEPT?
regydration
antiemetic
intravenous droperidol-diphenhydramine
metoclopramide parenterally
intravenous oxytocin
Which of the following is true in 24-hour urinary protein in women with mild preeclampsia?
<300 mg in 24 hr
<700 mg in 24 hr
2 g in 24 hr
3 g in 24 hr
1 g in 24 hr
What is the normal duration of treatment in the case of moderate preeclampsia?
1-2 days
7-10 days
24 hours
12-14 days
5-6 hours
All of the following are the main indications for cesarean section in preeclampsia EXCEPT:
HELLP-syndrome;
B.
C.
D.
E. *
363.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
364.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
365.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
366.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
367.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
368.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
369.
A.
B. *
C.
eclampsia;
pulmonary edema;
cerebral symptoms;
anemia
What is the normal duration of treatment in the case of eclamptic seizure?
1-2 days
7-10 days
24 hours
12-14 days
5-6 hours
What is the normal duration of treatment in the case of mild preeclampsia?
1-2 days
7-10 days
24 hours
12-14 days
5-6 hours
What is the normal duration of treatment in the case of severe preeclampsia?
1-2 days
7-10 days
24 hours
12-14 days
5-6 hours
What is the level of diastolic blood pressure in the mild preeclampsia?
80-89 mmHg
90 – 99 mm Hg
100 – 109 mm Hg
110 – 120 mm Hg
120 mm Hg
What is the level of diastolic blood pressure in the moderate preeclampsia?
80-89 mmHg
90 – 99 mm Hg
100 – 109 mm Hg
110 – 120 mm Hg
120 mm Hg
What is the level of diastolic blood pressure in the severe preeclampsia?
80-89 mmHg
90 – 99 mm Hg
100 – 109 mm Hg
> 110 mm Hg
120 mm Hg
The level of diastolic blood pressure is 95 mm Hg. For which degree of pregnancy induced
hypertension does it characterized ?
pregestosis
mild preeclampsia
moderate preeclampsia
D.
E.
370.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
371.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
372.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
373.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
374.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
375.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
376.
severe preeclampsia
eclampsia
The level of diastolic blood pressure is 105mm Hg. For which degree of pregnancy induced
hypertension does it characterized?
pregestosis
mild preeclampsia
moderate preeclampsia
severe preeclampsia
eclampsia
The level of diastolic blood pressure is 115mm Hg. For which degree of pregnancy induced
hypertension does it characterized ?
pregestosis
mild preeclampsia
moderate preeclampsia
severe preeclampsia
eclampsia
The level of proteinuria in 24 hour collection is 0.1 g. For which degree of pregnancy induced
hypertension does it characterized?
pregestosis
mild preeclampsia
moderate preeclampsia
severe preeclampsia
eclampsia
The level of proteinuria in 24 hour collection is 0.3 g. For which degree of pregnancy induced
hypertension does it characterized?
pregestosis
mild preeclampsia
moderate preeclampsia
severe preeclampsia
eclampsia
The level of proteinuria in 24 hour collection is 0.5 g. For which degree of pregnancy induced
hypertension does it characterized?
pregestosis
mild preeclampsia
moderate preeclampsia
severe preeclampsia
eclampsia
The level of proteinuria in 24 hour collection is 1.0. g. For which degree of pregnancy induced
hypertension does it characterized?
pregestosis
mild preeclampsia
moderate preeclampsia
severe preeclampsia
eclampsia
The level of proteinuria in 24 hour collection is 6.0. g. For which degree of pregnancy induced
hypertension does it characterized?
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
377.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
378.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
379.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
380.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
381.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
382.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
pregestosis
mild preeclampsia
moderate preeclampsia
severe preeclampsia
eclampsia
The level of thrombocytes is > 150 x 109. For which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension
does it characterized?
pregestosis
mild preeclampsia
moderate preeclampsia
severe preeclampsia
eclampsia
The level of thrombocytes is > 80 – 150 x 109. For which degree of pregnancy induced
hypertension does it characterized?
pregestosis
mild preeclampsia
moderate preeclampsia
severe preeclampsia
eclampsia
The level of thrombocytes is < 80 x 109. For which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension does
it characterized?
pregestosis
mild preeclampsia
moderate preeclampsia
severe preeclampsia
eclampsia
The level of proteinuria is<0,3g/L. For which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension does it
characterized?
pregestosis
mild preeclampsia
moderate preeclampsia
severe preeclampsia
eclampsia
The level of protein is 3 g/L. For which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension does it
characterized?
pregestosis
mild preeclampsia
moderate preeclampsia
severe preeclampsia
eclampsia
The level of creatinine is > 120 mkmol/L. For which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension
does it characterized?
pregestosis
mild preeclampsia
moderate preeclampsia
severe preeclampsia
E.
383.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
384.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
385.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
386.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
387.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
388.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
389.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
390.
eclampsia
What is the adequate management of mild preeclampsia?
sedative
expectant management
hypotensive
anticonvulsants
spasmolytics
Indications to hospitalization in mild preeclampsia are all of the below EXCEPT:
gestational age more than 37 weeks
presence of any sign of moderate preeclampsia
fetoplacental insufficiency
high temperature
there is no correct answer
What is the dose of acetylsalicylic acid for prevention of pregnancy induced hypertension?
20 mg a day
40 mg a day
60 - 100 mg a day
110 – 120 mg a day
120 mg a day
What is the dose of calcium for prevention of pregnancy induced hypertension?
2 g a day
4 mg a day
6 mg a day
8 g a day
10 mg a day
From which gestational age acetylsalicylic acid is prescribed for prevention of pregnancy induced
hypertension?
8 weeks
10 weeks
16 weeks
20 weeks
22 weeks
From which gestational age calcium is prescribed for prevention of pregnancy induced hypertension?
8 weeks
10 weeks
16 weeks
20 weeks
22 weeks
What is the maximal dose of methyldopa in the treatment of moderate preeclampsia ?
1g in a day
2 g in a day
3 g in a day
4 g in a day
5 g in a day
What is the maximal dose of niphedipine in the treatment of moderate preeclampsia?
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
391.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
392.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
393.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
394.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
395.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
396.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
397.
A. *
B.
C.
100 mg in a day
200 mg in a day
300 mg in a day
400 mg in a day
500 mg in a day
What is the scheme of niphedipine prescription in the treatment of moderate preeclampsia?
10 mg 3-4 times a day
10 mg 2-3 times a day
20 mg once a day
40 mg a day
5 g once a day
To which group does methyldopa belong to?
central alpha2 adrenoagonists
adrenoblockers
spasmolytic
anticonvulsant
calcium channel blocker
To which group does niphedipine belong to?
central alpha2 adrenoagonists
adrenoblockers
vasodilator
anticonvulsant
calcium channel blocker
To which group does hydralasin belong to?
central alpha2 adrenoagonists
adrenoblockers
peripheral vasodilators
anticonvulsant
calcium channel blocker
To which group does metoprolol belong to?
central alpha2 adrenoagonists
adrenoblockers
vasodilators
anticonvulsant
calcium channel blocker
What is the level of diastolic blood pressure in which magnesium sulfate is prescribed?
< 100 mm Hg
> 110 mm Hg
120 mm Hg
< 90 mm Hg
130 mm Hg
What is the maximal dose of labetolol in the treatment of severe preeclampsia ?
300 mg a day
400 mg a day
500 mg a day
D.
E.
398.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
399.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
400.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
401.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
402.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
403.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
404.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
700 mg in a day
800 mg in a day
What is the initial dose of hydralasin in the treatment of moderate preeclampsia ?
20 mg
40 mg
50 mg
70 mg
80 mg
Contraindications to magnesial therapy in the pregnancy induced hypertension include all of the
below EXCEPT:
decreasing level of calcium
depression of centre of breathing
arterial hypotension
kachexia
anemia
Which should be normal diuresis in infusion therapy in pregnancy induced hypertension ?
60 ml per hour
80 ml per hour
100 ml per hour
40 ml per hour
20 ml per hour
What is the general volume of infusion therapy in pregnancy induced hypertension?
10- 15ml /kg
15 – 20 ml/kg
20 – 25 ml/kg
30 – 35 ml/kg
40 – 45 ml/kg
What is the normal duration of magnesial therapy in pregnancy induced hypertension?
12 hours after delivery
18 hours after delivery
20 hours after delivery
24-48 hours after delivery
48-56 hours after delivery
All of the below should be checked during prescription magnesial therapy EXCEPT:
diuresis per hour
patellar reflex
respirations
fetal heart rate monitoring
fetal movement
All of the below prescribed for decreasing of blood pressure in pregnancy induced hypertension
EXCEPT:
central alpha2 adrenoagonists
adrenoblockers
vasodilators
magnesium sulfate
E.
405.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
406.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
407.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
408.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
409.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
410.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
411.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
calcium channel blockers
All of the below prescribed for decreasing of blood pressure in pregnancy induced hypertension
EXCEPT:
calcium channel blocker
adrenoblockers
vasodilators
central alpha2 adrenoagonists
angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
To major predisposing factors of pregnancy induced hypertension are all of the below EXCEPT:
nulliparity
familial history of preeclampsia–eclampsia
multiple fetuses
anemia
diabetes
To major predisposing factors of pregnancy induced hypertension are all of the below EXCEPT:
chronic vascular disease
hydatidiform mole
fetal hydrops
early maternal age
familial history of preeclampsia–eclampsia
All of the below are the main steps in treatment of eclampsia EXCEPT:
control of convulsions
correction of hypoxia and acidosis
correction of weight gain
blood pressure control
delivery after control of convulsions.
All of the following below prescribed for decreasing of blood pressure in pregnancy induced
hypertension EXCEPT:
calcium channel blocker
adrenoblockers
diuretics
padrenoblockers
central alpha2 adrenoagonists
The patient with moderate preeclampsia undergoes to pass urine analysis:
once a day
twice a day
once a week
twice a week
once a month
The patient with moderate preeclampsia undergoes to pass blood analysis for thrombocytes:
once a day
twice a day
once a 3 days
once a week
once a month
412.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
413.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
414.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
415.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
416.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
417.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
418.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
419.
A.
B. *
The patient with moderate preeclampsia undergoes to pass blood analysis for creatinin:
once a day
twice a day
once a 3 days
once a week
once a month
The patient with severe preeclampsia undergoes to pass urine analysis:
once a day
twice a day
every 4 hours
every 12 hours
every 6 hours
All of the below are the main forms of gestosis in early terns of pregnancy EXCEPT:
hypersalivation
mild vomiting
severe anemia
moderate vomiting
severe vomiting
All of the below belong to rare forms of gestosis during pregnancy EXCEPT:
hyperemesis gravidarum
acute fatty liver
dermatosis of pregnancy
tetania of pregnancy
osteomalacia of pregnancy
How many times a day the patient with mild vomiting complaints of vomiting?
2-4 times a day
4-6 times a day
6-8 times in 3 days
8-10 times a day
every 12 hours
How many times a day the patient with moderate vomiting complaints of vomiting?
2-4 times a day
4-6 times a day
6-8 times in 3 days
8-10 times a day
more than 10 times a day
How many times a day the patient with severe vomiting complaints of vomiting?
2-4 times a day
4-6 times a day
6-8 times in 3 days
8-10 times a day
more than 10 times a day
All of the below are the main signs of mild vomiting EXCEPT:
tachycardia
edema
C.
D.
E.
420.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
421.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
422.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
423.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
424.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
425.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
426.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
normal diuresis
normal blood pressure
general weakness
All of the below are the main signs of moderate vomiting EXCEPT:
tachycardia
increasing of the temperature
normal diuresis
acetonuria
weight loss
All of the below are the main signs of severe vomiting EXCEPT:
bradycardia
increasing of the temperature
decreasing of diuresis
ketonuria
weight loss
Which form of early gestosis of pregnancy is called as hyperemesis gravidarum?
hypersalivation
mild vomiting
severe anemia
moderate vomiting
severe vomiting
With all of the above diseases should you differentiate hyperemesis gravidarum EXCEPT?
gastroenteritis
hepatitis
fatty liver of pregnancy
bronchial asthma
peptic ulcer
What is the leading cause of hyperemesis gravidarum?
increasing of progesterone
decreasing b-subunits of chorionic gonadotropin
increasing of b-subunits of chorionic gonadotropin
decreasing of progesterone
decreasing of estrogens
All of the below are the main signs of hyperemesis gravidarum EXCEPT:
weight loss
dehydration
acidosis from starvation
alkalosis from loss of hydrochloric acid in vomitus
hyperkalemia
All of the following belong to the anti-emetics drugs which have been used in early gestosis
EXCEPT:
promethazine
prochlorperazine
niphedipine
metoclopramide
droperidol-diphenhydramine
427.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
428.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
429.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
430.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
431.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
432.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
433.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
434.
A.
B. *
Which of the following is a mechanism of parenteral metoclopramide efficiency?
stimulation of the upper intestinal tract motility
stimulatiion gastric secretions
stimulation biliary function
depression of pancreatic secretion
depression of gastric secretions
Metoclopramide’ anti-emetic properties apparently result from:
increasing of estrogenes
increasing of chorionic gonatotropine hormone
decreasing of chorionic gonatotropine hormone
central antagonism of dopamine receptors
decreasing of estrogenes
All of the below are the main laboratory findings in hyperemesis gravidarum EXCEPT:
ketonuria
increasing of hemoglonin
increasing of erythrocytes
hypokalemia
decreasing of hemoglobin
All of the below drugs should be prescribed in hyperemesis gravidarum EXCEPT:
sedative
hypotensive
anti-emetic
infusion therapy
vitamins
Which drug should prescribed for decreasing of hypersalivation?
atropine sulfatis
natrii benzoates
niphedipine
sodium chloride
etaperazine
The patient with severe vomiting should pass all of the below laboratory analysis EXCEPT:
urine
level of thrombocytes
hematocrite
electrolytes
feces
What is the best management of pregnancy in the case of acute fatty liver?
infusion therapy
pregnancy interrupting
vitamins
sedative drugs
spasmolytics drugs
What is the best management of pregnancy in the case of osteomalacia of pregnancy?
infusion therapy
pregnancy interrupting
C.
D.
E.
435.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
436.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
437.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
438.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
439.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
440.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
441.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
vitamins
sedative drugs
calcium containing drugs
All of the below should be prescribed in infusion therapy in pregnancy induced hypertension
EXCEPT:
fresh frozen plasma
5 % glucose
isotonic solution
refortan
stabisol
Which type of anesthesia is recommended in labor in patients with moderate pregnancy induced
hypertension?
pudendal
epidural
general
paracervical
infiltrative
Presence of convulsions characterizes which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension?
pregestosis
mild preeclampsia
moderate preeclampsia
severe preeclampsia
eclampsia
All of the below are the main rare forms of gestosis during pregnancy EXCEPT:
hyperemesis gravidarum
acute fatty liver
dermatosis of pregnancy
tetania of pregnancy
osteomalacia of pregnancy
How many times a day the patient with mild vomiting complaints of vomiting?
4-6 times a day
2-4 times a day
6-8 times in 3 days
8-10 times a day
every 12 hours
How many times a day the patient with moderate vomiting complaints of vomiting?
2-3 times a day
4-5 times a day
5-6 times in 3 days
8-9 times a day
more than 10 times a day
How many times a day the patient with severe vomiting complaints of vomiting?
2-4 times a day
more than 10 times a day
6-8 times in 3 days
8-10 times a day
E.
442.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
443.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
444.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
445.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
446.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
447.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
448.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
449.
A.
4-6 times a day
All of the below are the main signs of mild vomiting EXCEPT:
tachycardia
diarrhea
normal diuresis
normal blood pressure
general weakness
All of the below are the main signs of moderate vomiting EXCEPT:
tachycardia
increasing of the temperature
polyuria
acetonuria
weight loss
All of the below are the main signs of severe vomiting EXCEPT:
diarrhea
increasing of the temperature
decreasing of diuresis
ketonuria
weight loss
Which form of early gestosis of pregnancy is severe vomiting: as hyperemesis gravidarum?
hypersalivation
mild vomiting
severe anemia
moderate vomiting
hyperemesis gravidarum
With all of the above diseases should you differentiate hyperemesis gravidarum EXCEPT?
gastroenteritis
hepatitis
fatty liver of pregnancy
hypersalivation
peptic ulcer
What is the leading cause of hyperemesis gravidarum?
increasing of progesterone
low level b-subunits of chorionic gonadotropin
increasing of b-subunits of chorionic gonadotropin
low level of progesterone
low level of estrogens
All of the below are the main signs of hyperemesis gravidarum EXCEPT:
weight loss
dehydration
acidosis from starvation
alkalosis from loss of hydrochloric acid in vomitus
hypercalcemia
All of the following belong to the anti-emetics drugs which have been used in early gestosis
EXCEPT:
promethazine
B.
C. *
D.
E.
450.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
451.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
452.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
453.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
454.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
455.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
456.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
prochlorperazine
labetalol
metoclopramide
droperidol-diphenhydramine
Which of the following is a mechanism of parenteral metoclopramide efficiency?
dophamin receptor block
stimulatiion gastric secretions
stimulation biliary function
depression of pancreatic secretion
depression of gastric secretions
Promethazine’ anti-emetic properties apparently result from:
increasing of estrogenes
increasing of chorionic gonatotropine hormone
decreasing of chorionic gonatotropine hormone
H-1 histamin receptor block, anticholinergic effects
decreasing of estrogenes
All of the below are the main laboratory findings in hyperemesis gravidarum EXCEPT:
ketonuria
increasing of hemoglonin
increasing of erythrocytes
hypokalemia
decreasing of leukocytes
All of the below drugs should be prescribed in hyperemesis gravidarum EXCEPT:
sedative
antianemic
anti-emetic
infusion therapy
vitamins
Which should be recommended for decreasing of hypersalivation?
salvia decoction
natrii benzoates
niphedipine
sodium chloride
etaperazine
The patient with severe vomiting should pass all of the below laboratory analysis EXCEPT:
urine
level of thrombocytes
hematocrite
Zimnitsky test
electrolytes
What is the best management of pregnancy in the case of acute fatty liver?
infusion therapy
symptomatic treatment and pregnancy interrupting
vitamins
antyhistamin drugs
E.
457.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
458.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
459.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
460.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
461.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
462.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
463.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
spasmolytics drugs
What is the management of pregnancy in the case of HELLP -syndrom?
infusion therapy
pregnancy interrupting
vitamins
sedative drugs
calcium containing drugs
All of the below should be prescribed in infusion therapy in pregnancy induced hypertension
EXCEPT:
fresh
frozen plasma
blood transfusion
isotonic solution
refortan
stabisol
Which type of anesthesia is Not recommended in labor in patients with moderate pregnancy induced
hypertension?
pudendal
epidural
general
all abovel
nothing above
Which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension characterizes presence of convulsions?
pregestosis
mild preeclampsia
moderate preeclampsia
severe preeclampsia
eclampsia
What is the World Health Organization definition of a premature infant?
<2500 g
38 weeks or less
37 weeks or less
36 weeks or less
< 2000 g
In days, how is a postterm pregnancy defined?
>280 days
>287 days
>294 days
>300 days
310 days
In a woman with a favourable cervix and an estimated fetal weight of 3850 g, what is the appropriate
management at a certain 42 weeks’ gestation?
expectant management
start fetal surveillance
induce labor
schedule cesarean section
there is no correct answer
464.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
465.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
466.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
467.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
468.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
469.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
470.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
471.
At what gestational age does the incidence of complications due to prematurity equal that of term
infants?
25 to 26 weeks
28 to 30 weeks
32 to 34 weeks
36 weeks or more
22-24 weeks
What is the preferred management of preterm rupture of membranes on the 36 week of gestation?
antibiotics
tocolytics
steroids
expectant
spasmolitics
How is postterm pregnancy defined?
beyond 37 weeks
beyond 40 weeks
beyond 42 weeks
beyond 44 weeks
beyond 46 weeks
In a woman with an unfavorable cervix and an estimated fetal weight of 3800 g, what is the
appropriate management at a certain 42 weeks’ gestation?
labor induction
cesarean section
fetal surveillance plus hospitalization
cervical ripening
there is no correct answer
How is preterm labor defined?
from 22 to 36 weeks
from 24 to 38 weeks
from 28 to 37 weeks
from 28 to 38 weeks
from 22 to 38 weeks
Which of the following is NOT true concerning indomethacin?
is used to treat preterm labor
is a prostaglandin synthetase inhibitor
may cause premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus
decreases neonatal intracranial hemorrhage
there is no correct answer
Which of the following vaginal infections is positively associated with preterm birth?
bacterial vaginosis
trichomonal vaginalis
candida vaginalis
herpes simplex infections
gardnerella vaginalis
What is the mechanism of action of b-adrenergic agents?
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
472.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
473.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
474.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
475.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
476.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
477.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
478.
A. *
B.
C.
blocks thymidine kinase
activates adenylcyclase
blocks conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP
increases intracellular calcium
there is no correct answer
Which of the following is NOT a description associated with the postterm infant?
smooth skin
patchy peeling skin
long, thin body
worried looking face
there is no correct answer
What is the management of the preterm labor in the case breech presentation?
expectant management
start fetal surveillance
induce labor
cesarean section
there is no correct answer
All of the below are prescribes in the case of danger of preterm labor EXCEPT:
spasmolytics
contractil drugs
sedative drugs
Prostaglandines’ synthesis inhibitors
b-adrenomimetic drugs
According to Friedman, what is prolongation of the latent phase of labor in a primigravida?
14 hr
20 hr
24 hr
48 hr
52 hr
What is the duration of active-phase labor in nulliparous women?
<3 hr
4 to 5 hr
6 to 8 hr
~12 hr
there is no correct answer
Which prostaglandin has been used for cervical ripening?
F2a
E2
F10
М1
A2
What is the mean half-life of oxytocin in plasma?
5 min
10 min
15 min
D.
E.
479.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
480.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
481.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
482.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
483.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
484.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
485.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
486.
20 min
there is no correct answer
All of the following are the main signs of false labor EXCEPT:
Irregular intervals and duration
Painful uterine contractions
Presence cervical dilation
Increased uterine tone
Unchanged intensity of uterine contractions
In the parous woman, how is the prolonged latent phase defined?
>6 hr
>14 hr
>20 hr
>24 hr
there is no correct answer
Where in the myometrium uterine contractions of normal labor begin and last longest?
fundus
lower uterine segment
cervix
laterally in miduterus
there is no correct answer
How long does it take oxytocin to reach steady state levels in the plasma?
5 min
10 min
20 min
40 min
there is no correct answer
All of the below are prescribes in the case of false labor EXCEPT:
Therapeutic rest
contractiles drugs
sedative drugs
Prostaglandines’ synthesis inhibitors
beta-adrenomimetic drugs
Management of the uterine inertia in the second stage of labor includes all of the following EXCEPT:
Augmentation of labor
Spasmolytics
Forceps application
Vacuum application
Cesarean section
According to Friedman, what are the phases of cervical dilatation?
preparatory–active
preparatory–latent
latent- active
active pelvic
there is no correct answer
Which factor likely contributes to the prolongation of the latent phase?
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
487.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
488.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
489.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
490.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
491.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
492.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
493.
A.
B.
excessive sedation
conduction analgesia
uneffaced and undilated cervix
all of the above
there is no correct answer
In a multiparous woman, secondary arrest of dilatation is defined as no cervical dilatation for how
long?
>1 hr
>2 hr
>3 hr
>14 hr
15 hr
In a nulliparous woman, how long is the prolonged deceleration phase?
>1 hr
>2 hr
>3 hr
>20 hr
22 hr
All of the below are prescribes in the case of excessive uterine activity EXCEPT:
Therapeutic rest
contractiles drugs
sedative drugs
Prostaglandines’ synthesis inhibitors
beta-adrenomimetic drugs
In a primigravida, what is the minimum rate of dilation of the cervix in the active phase of labor?
0.5 cm/hr
1.2 cm/hr
1.5 cm/hr
2.0 cm/hr
there is no correct answer
What is the preferred treatment for a nulliparous patient with prolonged deceleration phase and no
signs of cephalopelvic disproportion?
sedation
oxytocin
cesarean section
increased hydration
there is no correct answer
Which of the following is NOT true of hypertonic dysfunction?
may be associated with placental abruption
painful contraction
ineffective cervical dilation
occurs usually after 4 cm
there is no correct answer
All of the following belong the signs of uterine inertia EXCEPT
Inadequate uterine activity
Lack of the progressive cervical effacement
C.
D. *
E.
494.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
495.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
496.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
497.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
498.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
499.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
500.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
Station of presenting part in the pelvic inlet (- 3, -2 station) for a long period of time and slowly
descent of the fetus in the case of “cephalopelvic disproportion” absence
adequate cervical dilation
Increased duration of labor
All of the below are prescribes in the case of discoordinative uterine activity EXCEPT:
contractile drugs
Therapeutic rest
sedative drugs
Prostaglandines’ synthesis inhibitors
beta-adrenomimetic drugs
All of the below are prescribes in the case of false labor EXCEPT:
Therapeutic rest
contractiles drugs
sedative drugs
Prostaglandines’ synthesis inhibitors
beta-adrenomimetic drugs
All of the below are the types of abnormal labour EXCEPT:
False labor
primary uterine inertia
secondary uterine inertia
Incoordinative uterine activity
danger of uterine inertia
All of the below are the types of incoordinative uterine activity EXCEPT:
dyscoordination
primary uterine inertia
hyperactivity of lower uterine segment
uterine tetania
circulative dystocia
All of the below are the signs of false labor EXCEPT:
Painful uterine contractions
Irregular intervals and duration of uterine contractions
Painless uterine contractions
No cervical dilation
Relief from sedation
All of the below are the signs of false labor EXCEPT:
Painful uterine contractions
Irregular intervals and duration of uterine contractions
uterine contractions don’t increased with physical activity
cervical effacement, dilation
Relief from sedation
All of the below are the signs of false labor EXCEPT:
Increased uterine tone
Regular intervals and duration of uterine contractions
uterine contractions don’t increased with physical activity
absence of cervical dilation
E.
B.
lasts more than 6 hours
All of the below are prescribes in the case of false labor EXCEPT:
spasmolytics
oxytocin
sedative
indomethacine
partusisten
All of the below are the main causes of uterine contractions abnormality EXCEPT:
maternal exhaustion
pathological changes of uterine cervix and uterus
Cephalopelvic disproportion
postdate pregnancy
placental abruption
All of the below are the main causes of uterine contractions abnormality EXCEPT:
polyhydramnion
multiple pregnancy
administration of excess anesthesia
placental previa
there is no correct answer
Which type of uterine inertia is called as primary?
occurs from the 2cm cervical dilation till the end of labor
occurs from the 4 cm cervical dilation till the end of labor
occurs from the early onset of labor and lasts until the end of labor.
occurs from the 6 cm cervical dilation till 8 cm dilation
occurs in the second stage of labor
All of the below are the main signs of uterine inertia EXCEPT:
Inadequate uterine activity
Lack of the progressive cervical effacement and dilation
Increased duration of labor
-2 station of the fetal head for a long period of time
0- station of the fetal head for 30 minutes
What firstly should you prescribe for uterine inertia treatment?
Therapeutic rest in the case of maternal exhaustion.
amniotomy
C.
D.
E.
507.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
508.
A.
induction of labor by oxytocin
induction of labor by prostaglandins
spasmolytics
All of the below are prescribed for therapeutic rest in the case of uterine inertia EXCEPT:
Promedol
Atropin Sulfatis
Enzaprost
Droperidol
Natrii Oxybuturatis
Which of the following is NOT associated with III stage of labor?
uterine contractions
501.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
502.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
503.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
504.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
505.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
506.
A. *
B.
E.
514.
placental expulsion
placental separation
pushing
fetal internal rotation
Which of the following characterizes I stage of labor?
myometrial relaxation
uterine awakening
fetal expulsion
pushing
cervical dilatation
Which contraction duration (sec) characterizes active labor?
20
30
60
90
100
What is the minimal dilatation during the first stage of labor in multiparous?
0,5-0,8 cm/hour
0,8-1.0 cm/hour
1.0-1.2 cm/hour
1.2-1.5 cm/hour
2.0-2.5 cm/hour
What is the most important measure of labor progression?
contraction frequency
contraction intensity
contraction duration
cervical dilatation
cervical effacement
Which of the following characterizes phase 2 of labor?
fetal expulsion
uterine awakening
cervical effacement
cervical dilatation
placental separation
Which of the following characterizes III stage of labor?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
515.
A.
B.
C.
D.
myometrial tranquility
fetal expulsion
cervical effacement
cervical dilatation
placental separation
Where are prostaglandins synthesized?
adrenal gland
placenta
posterior pituitary
ovary
C.
D.
E. *
509.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
510.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
511.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
512.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
513.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E. *
D.
decidua
Which of the following is characteristic the I stage of true labor?
irregular contractions
discomfort in lower abdomen
cervical dilatation
discomfort relieved by sedation
fetal expulsion
How often should the fetal heart rate be auscultated during the second stage of labor?
5 min
10 min
15 min
30 min
after every uterine contraction
What is the maximal duration of the second stage of labor in primiparas?
5 min
20 min
50 min
100 min
120 min
What is the station where the presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines?
-2
-1
0
+1
+2
What is the station where the presenting part is at the level of the pelvic inlet?
-2
-1
0
+1
+2
When the cervix and vagina should be inspected for lacerations?
after first signs of placental separation
after fetal delivery
after placental delivery
after suturing of the lacerations of vagina
E.
522.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
523.
A.
2 hours after delivery
Which is the first of perineal protective maneuver?
the decreasing of perineal tension
the delivery of the fetal head out of the pushing
delivery of the shoulders
prevention of preterm fetal extension
regulation of maternal efforts
Which is the second of perineal protective maneuver?
the decreasing of perineal tension
516.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
517.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
518.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
519.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
520.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
521.
A.
B.
C. *
B. *
C.
D.
E.
524.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
525.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
526.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
527.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
528.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
529.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
530.
A.
B. *
C.
the delivery of the fetal head out of the pushing
delivery of the shoulders
prevention of preterm fetal extension
regulation of maternal efforts
Which is the third of perineal protective maneuver?
the decreasing of perineal tension by borrowing tissues
the delivery of the fetal head out of the pushing
delivery of the shoulders
prevention of preterm fetal extension
regulation of maternal efforts
Which is the fourth of perineal protective maneuver?
the decreasing of perineal tension
the delivery of the fetal head out of the pushing
delivery of the shoulders
prevention of preterm fetal extension
regulation of maternal efforts
Which is the fifth of perineal protective maneuver?
the decreasing of perineal tension
the delivery of the fetal head out of the pushing
delivery of the shoulders
prevention of preterm fetal extension
regulation of maternal efforts
What is the most reliable indicator of rupture of the fetal membranes?
fluid per cervical os
positive nitrazine test
positive ferning test
membranes are not palpated
all of the above
Which moment of the fetal membranes rupture is considered as a normal?
before the beginning of uterine contraction
at the beginning of I stage of labor
at the end of I stage of labor
at the beginning of II stage of labor
all of the above
What is the maximal duration of the third stage of labor?
5 min
20 min
30 min
50 min
120 min
How often during the first stage of labor should the fetal heart rate be auscultated in a low-risk
pregnancy?
every 5 min before a contraction
every 15 min after a contraction
every 40 min before a contraction
D.
E.
531.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
532.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
533.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
534.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
535.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
536.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
537.
A.
B. *
every 45 min after a contraction
after every uterine contraction
The pregnant woman at term complaints on the irregular lower abdomen pains. The cervix is not
effaced, close. What is the diagnosis?
second stage of labor
the beginning of the first stage of labor
the end of the first stage of labor
the false labor
third stage of labor
The pregnant woman at term complaints on the regular lower abdomen pains. The cervix is effaced,
dilated on 2-3 cm. What is the diagnosis?
second stage of labor
latent phase of first stage of labor
the end of the first stage of labor
the false labor
third stage of labor
The baby was born 5 min ago. The signs of placental separation are negative. The bleeding begins.
The blood lost is 450 ml. What is the doctor’s tactic?
to continue the observation
to perform the manual placental separation
to propose the patient to push
to pull on the umbilical cord
to perform the massage of the uterus
What factor is determining the forming of pain intensity during labor?
level of oxytocin in the organism;
level of pain sensitiveness;
force of cerebral impulses;
force of uterine contractions;
patient’s behavior.
What is the aim of conducting of psychoprophylaxis classes?
to remove the emotional component of labor pain;
to remove the sense of fear;
to form the positive dominant of labor;
to acquaint with duration of labor act;
all transferred.
What is the aim of a I psychoprophylaxis class?
to acquaint the patient with an anatomy and physiology of female genitalia and processes, that take
place in an organism during labor;
to teach patient to behave correctly in I period of labor, to use the methods of anaesthetizing;
to teach the patient to push correctly;
to teach the patient to breathe between pushing correctly;
to acquaint pregnant with physiology duration of puerperium and to take care of new-born.
What is the aim of ІІ psychoprophylaxis class?
to acquaint patient with an anatomy and physiology of female genitalia and processes, that take place
in an organism during labor;
to teach patient to behave correctly in I period of labor, to use the methods of anaesthetizing;
C.
D.
E.
538.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
539.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
540.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
541.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
542.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
543.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
544.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
to teach the patient to push correctly;
to teach the patient to breathe between pushing correctly;
to acquaint pregnant with physiology duration of puerperium and to take care of new-born.
What is an obligatory condition for the beginning of the medicinal anaesthetizing of labor?
the fluid gash;
normal feto-pelvic proportions;
physiology duration of labor;
presence of regular uterine contractions and opening of uterine cervix on 3-4 cm;
primapara.
What condition is obligatory for the beginning of the medicinal anaesthetizing of labor?
opening of uterine cervix on 3-4 cm;
normal feto-pelvic proportions;
physiology duration of labor;
the fluid gash;
primapara.
What side effect of promedol limits the term of its introduction in labor?
depresses the respiratory center of fetus;
causes bradicardia at a mother;
causes a somnolence;
causes tachicardia at a mother;
causes the allergic reactions.
What is the peculiarity of introduction of promedol for anaesthetizing of labor?
should be given at least 2 hours to the birth of fetus;
should be given only in the ІІ period of labor;
should be given only one time;
should be given only intravenously;
should be given in combination with spasmolytics.
What requirement is obligatory for medicines, which are used for the medicinal anaesthetizing?
to decrease the uterine contractions;
to improve the state of fetus;
do not depress the contractive activity of uterus;
not to cause a somnolence;
to have short time of action.
What medicine is used for the protracted operations with uterine relaxation?
trilen;
viadril;
promedol;
nitrous oxide;
phtorotan.
The second stage of labor at patient is finished by obstetric forceps applying. What anaesthetizing is
the best?
inhalation anesthesia;
epidural anesthesia;
intravenous anesthesia;
local anaesthetizing;
E.
B.
it is possible to perform without any anesthesia.
Which of the follows is the most effective for cervical dilation in the I stage of labor?
analgin in pills;
no-shpa in pills;
novocaine 0,25%;
baralgin 5 ml intravenously;
papaverin 2% 2 ml i/m.
What method of anaesthetizing is used in I and ІІ stage of preterm labor?
epidural anesthesia;
inhalation anesthesia;
intravenous anesthesia;
local anaesthetizing;
spazmolitics.
What middle weight of uterus at once after labor?
100-200 g;
300-400 g;
500-600 g;
700-800 g;
900-1000 g.
How long is the early puerperium?
30 min;
3 days
12 days;
2 hours
6-8 weeks.
Lochia rubra consist of all the following, EXEPT
blood
shreds of the membranes
parts of placenta
decidual membrane
erythrocytes.
Lochia alba consist of all the following, EXEPT
blood
mucus
leucocytes
decidual cells
erythrocytes.
What level the fundus of uterus on the 1 day after labor is found at?
on a 1 transversal finger below than umbilicus;
on 2 transversal fingers below than umbilicus;
C.
D.
E.
552.
A.
on 2 transversal fingers higher than pubis;
on a middle between a umbilicus and pubis;
at the level of pubis.
What level the fundus of uterus on a 4th day after labor is found at?
on a 1 transversal finger below than umbilicus;
545.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
546.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
547.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
548.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
549.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
550.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
551.
A. *
B.
C. *
D.
E.
553.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
554.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
555.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
556.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
557.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
558.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
559.
A.
B.
C.
on 2 transversal fingers below than umbilicus;
on a middle between an umbilicus and pubis;
on 2 transversal fingers higher than pubis;
at the level of pubis.
What character does lochia in first 3 days after labor have?
bloody;
bloody-serosal;
serosal-bloody;
serosal;
mucousal.
What character does lochia on a 7-9 day after labor have ?
bloody;
bloody-serosal;
serosal;
serosal-bloody;
mucous.
What character does lochia on a 10 day after labor have?
bloody;
bloody-serosal;
serosal-bloody;
serosal;
mucous.
What affirmation in relation to the state of cervix just after labor is correct?
the cervix is closed;
the cervix admits a 1 transversal finger;
the cervix admits 3-4 transversal fingers;
the cervix is formed.
the cervix admits a hand;
What assertion in relation to the state of cervix on a 9 day after labor is correct?
the cervix is closed;
the cervix admits a 1 transversal finger;
the cervix admits 3-4 transversal fingers;
the cervix admits a hand;
the cervix is formed.
What hormone response for proliferation of secretory tissue of breast ?
prolactin;
lyoteinizied hormone;
estrogens;
prostaglandins;
corticosteroids.
What factor can be negatively reflected on the gemodinamic parameters of puerperal woman at first
hours of puerperium?
fatigue after the labor;
beginning of lactation;
contraction of uterus;
D.
B.
perineal ruptures;
stopping of functioning of utero-placental circle of blood circulation and related to it redistribution of
blood.
What complications can develop due to the incorrect suturing of cervical rupture in a future?
cervical ectropion;
violation of function of pelvic muscles;
prolaps of uterus;
endometritis;
bleeding.
Physiological blood lost of puerperal woman by mass 76 kg is:
260 ml;
380 ml;
320 ml;
240 ml;
450 ml.
What assertion is wrong in relation to a colostrum?
the producing started on 2nd day after labor;
is the yellow liquid;
the producing started on 4-5th day after labor;
contains the high quantity of fats;
contains albumens and antibodies.
For a valuable lactation there are the necessary following factors, except for:
early applying of child to the breasts;
correct technique of applying the baby to the breasts;
rational feeding of the mother;
feeding of child “on call”;
feeding of child exactly on hours.
The physiologycal blood lost of puerperal woman by mass 64 kg is:
260 ml;
380 ml;
320 ml;
240 ml;
450 ml.
What hormone is produced by a pituitary gland under the act of nipple compression at feeding of
child?
oxythocin;
vasopressin;
progesteron;
prolactin;
estradiol.
What is contra-indication for mother and child staying togetherin postnatal wards?
perineal rupture 1st;
cervical rupture;
C.
D.
E. *
uterine subinvolution;
the birth trauma of child;
preeclampsia ІІІ st.
E. *
560.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
561.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
562.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
563.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
564.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
565.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
566.
A.
567.
E.
574.
All of below is recommended for the diet of lactating woman, except:
plenty of fluids;
adequate amount of protein
plenty of vitamins, fat, minerals
limitation of the use of liquid;
high calories.
What is excluded from the diet of lactating woman?
plenty of fluids;
adequate amount of protein
chocolate
milk;
meat.
What the uterine subinvolution is?
deceleration of process of uterine involution;
speed-up of the uterine involution;
delay of lochia in the uterine cavity;
initial stage of endometritis;
slow closing of cervix.
At which time of puerperium does milk become mature?
on 2-3;
on 5-6;
on 8-10;
on 10-12;
on 15-16.
Whant is the maximal physiologycal blood lost in labor?
0,1 % from body weight
0,3 % from body weight
0,5 % from body weight
0,7 % from body weight
1 % from body weight
Physiologycal blood lost of puerperal woman by mass 68 kg is:
260 ml;
380 ml;
360 ml;
340 ml;
420 ml.
What hormone initiates lactogenesis?
prolactin;
progesteron;
estradiol;
oxytocin;
luteotropin.
When a baby is at the first time put to the mother’ breasts?
A.
B. *
2 hours after birth;
during the first 30 minutes after birth;
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
568.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
569.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
570.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
571.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
572.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
573.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
C.
B.
C.
D. *
after 2 days after birth;
after adjusting of lactation at a mother;
in 2-3 days after birth.
What is contraindicated at the breasts feeding of baby?
the use of baby's dummy;
feeding “on call of” baby;
frequent feeding of child;
early beginning of the breasts-feeding.
rational feed of mother.
Which of the following is characteristic of true labor?
Irregular contractions
Discomfort in lower abdomen
Cervical dilatation
Discomfort relieved by sedation
Passage of the blood-tinged
When should the fetal heart rate be auscultated during observation for labor in the II stage?
Before the contraction
During the contraction
At the end and immediately after a contraction
Any time
After delivery
What is the station where the fetal head is visible at the introitus?
+2
+3
+4
+5
0
What is the most reliable indicator of rupture of the fetal membranes?
Fluid per cervical os
Positive nitrazine test
Positive ferning
Positive oncofetal fibronectin
Bloody discharge
What is the station where the presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines?
-2
-1
0
+1
+2
During the third stage of labor, which of the following is NOT a sign of placenta separation?
A gush of blood
Uterus rises in the abdomen
Umbilical cord protrudes out of the vagina
A sudden, sharp, unrelenting contraction
E.
Cessation of umbilical vessels pulsation
D.
E.
575.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
576.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
577.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
578.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
579.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
580.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
581.
A.
582.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
583.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
584.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
585.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
586.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
587.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
588.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
589.
A. *
B.
What is the primary mechanism of placental site hemostasis?
Vasoconstriction by contracted myometrium
Oxytocin
Ergonovine maleate
Methylergonovine
Prostaglandines
Level of contractile ring above the symphysis 3 fingers suggests about:
4 cm cervical dilation
2 cm cervical dilation
6 cm cervical dilation
Amniotic fluid gush
Complete cervical dilation
What is edematous swelling of the fetal scalp during labor?
Molding
Caput succedaneum
Subdural hematoma
Erythema nodusum
Epidural hematoma
What is the minimal physiologic blood loss in labor?
100 ml
250 ml
300 ml
350 ml
450 ml
Level of contractile ring above the symphysis 2 fingers suggests about:
4 cm cervical dilation
2 cm cervical dilation
6 cm cervical dilation
Amniotic fluid gush
Complete cervical dilation
Level of contractile ring above the symphysis 1 finger suggests about:
4 cm cervical dilation
2 cm cervical dilation
6 cm cervical dilation
Amniotic fluid gush
Complete cervical dilation
Level of contractile ring above the symphysis 5 fingers suggests about:
4 cm cervical dilation
2 cm cervical dilation
6 cm cervical dilation
Amniotic fluid gush
Complete cervical dilation
Which uterine contractions in the beginning of the first stage of labor are called as regular:
1- 2 uterine contractions every 10-15 minutes by duration 15-20 seconds
1 uterine contraction every 10-15 minutes by duration 10 seconds
C.
D.
E.
590.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
591.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
592.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
593.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
594.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
595.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
596.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
2- 3 uterine contractions every 5-6 minutes by duration 15-20 seconds
2 uterine contractions every 25-30 minutes by duration 5-10 seconds
4 uterine contractions every 10 minutes by duration 5-10 seconds
In which cervical dilation of normal labor releasing of amniotic fluid gush is presented:
4 cm cervical dilation
2 cm cervical dilation
6 cm cervical dilation
7 cm cervical dilation
8-10 cm cervical dilation
Where does the fetal head is located in full cervical dilation?
2 station
1 station
0 station
+1 station
+2 station
Positive Alfeld’ sign in the placental stage of labor is:
Lenghtening of the umbilical cord
A gush of blood
Uterus rises in the abdomen
A sudden, sharp, unrelenting contraction
Cessation of umbilical vessels pulsation
Positive Shreder’ sign in the placental stage of labor is:
Lengthening of the umbilical cord
A gush of blood
Uterus rises in the abdomen
A sudden, sharp, unrelenting contraction
Cessation of umbilical vessels pulsation
Positive Strasman’ sign in the placental stage of labor is:
Lengthening of the umbilical cord
A gush of blood
Uterus rises in the abdomen
A sudden, sharp, unrelenting contraction
Cessation of umbilical vessels pulsation
Positive Chukalov -Kustner’ sign in the placental stage of labor is:
umbilical cord doesn’t change its length in pressing by palm above the symphysis
A gush of blood
Uterus rises in the abdomen
Painful uterine contraction
Cessation of umbilical vessels pulsation
How do you called the sign in the placental stage of labor if umbilical cord doesn’t change its length
in pressing by palm above the symphysis
Positive Chukalov -Kustner’ sign
Negative Chukalov -Kustner’ sign
Positive Strasman’ sign
Positive Shreder’ sign
Positive Alfeld’ sign
597.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
598.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
599.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
600.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
601.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
602.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
603.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
604.
A.
B.
Cessation of umbilical vessels pulsation in the placental stage of labor is:
Positive Chukalov -Kustner’ sign:
Positive Vasten sign
Positive Strasman’ sign
Positive Shreder’ sign
Positive Alfeld’ sign
Uterus rises in the abdomen in the placental stage of labor is:
Positive Chukalov -Kustner’ sign
Positive Vasten sign
Positive Strasman’ sign
Positive Shreder’ sign
Positive Alfeld’ sign
Lengthening of the umbilical cord in the placental stage of labor is:
Positive Chukalov -Kustner’ sign
Positive Vasten sign
Positive Strasman’ sign
Positive Shreder’ sign
Positive Alfeld’ sign
Cervical effacement - is:
A gush of blood
Thinning of the cervix
Braxton- Hicks contractions
Passage of the blood-tinged mucus
Increasing of the cervix
How many stages does the placental stage of labor have?
2
3
4
5
1
What is the average duration of the second stage of labor in nulliparous women?
20 min- 2 hours
2 hours
15 – 20 minutes
< 15 minutes
2- 3 hours
What is the average duration of the placental stage of labor in nulliparous women?
5- 20 minutes
< 5- 20 minutes
5- 20 minutes
2-3 minutes
1 hour
All of the below are the main compounds of pushing efforts EXCEPT:
uterine contractions
contractions of prelum abdominale
C.
pelvic floor muscles contractions
D.
E. *
605.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
606.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
contractions of the diaphragm
contractions of the pharynx
Where does the fetal head is located in the beginning of the pushing efforts?
in the pelvic inlet
in the plane of the greatest dimension
in the mid pelvisleast plane +4
in the outlet
above the pelvic inlet
Cervical stage of labor starts from:
regular uterine contractions till 4 cm dilation of the cervix
irregular uterine contractions till 6 cm dilation of the cervix
regular uterine contractions till 10 cm dilation of the cervix
regular uterine contractions till 6 cm dilation of the cervix
regular uterine contractions till releasing of the amniotic fluid
Fetal stage of labor starts from:
regular uterine contractions till 4 cm dilation of the cervix
full dilation of the cervix till delivery of the fetus
full dilation of the cervix till delivery of the placenta
6 cm dilation of the cervix till delivery of the placenta
regular uterine contractions till releasing of the amniotic fluid
Placental stage of labor starts from:
delivery of the placenta till 2 hours
full dilation of the cervix till delivery of the fetus
full dilation of the cervix till delivery of the placenta
delivery of the fetus till delivery of the placenta
regular uterine contractions till releasing of the amniotic fluid
How often during the first stage of labor the vaginal examination should the performed in the case of
normal duration of labor?
Every 30 min
Every 45 minutes
Every 2 hours
Every 4 hours
Once in a hour
Latent phase of the first stage of labor starts from:
regular uterine contractions till 3-4 cm dilation of the cervix
irregular uterine contractions till 6 cm dilation of the cervix
regular uterine contractions till 10 cm dilation of the cervix
regular uterine contractions till 6 cm dilation of the cervix
regular uterine contractions till releasing of the amniotic fluid
Active phase of the first stage of labor starts from:
regular uterine contractions till 3-4 cm dilation of the cervix
regular uterine contractions till 6 cm dilation of the cervix
regular uterine contractions till 10 cm dilation of the cervix
regular uterine contractions till 6 cm dilation of the cervix
E.
607.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
608.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
609.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
610.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
611.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
612.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
613.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
614.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
615.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
616.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
617.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
618.
A.
B.
C. *
3-4 cm dilation of the cervix till full cervical dilation
How do you called the peripheral way of the placenta separation from the uterine wall?
Abuladze
Henter’s
Krede- Lazarevich
Dunkan
Shultse
How do you called the central way of the placenta separation from the uterine wall?
Abuladze
Henter’s
Krede- Lazarevich
Dunkan
Shultse
How do you called the method of separated placental removal: “The uterus is situated in the midline
position. The abdominal wall is grasped by the fingers in the longitudinal fold an asked the woman to
push”.
Abuladze
Henter’s
Krede- Lazarevich
Dunkan
Shultse
How do you called the method of separated placental removal: “The uterus is situated in the midline
position. Two firsts are located in the uterine fundus and a doctor …………”.
Abuladze
Henter’s
Krede- Lazarevich
Dunkan
Shultse
How do you called the method of separated placental removal: “The uterus is situated in the midline
position. Catheherization of urinary bladder is performed. Large finger is located in the anterior
uterine wall, the rests – on the posterior one. The uterus is grasped in the anterior-posterior direction.
Abuladze
Henter’s
Krede- Lazarevich
Dunkan
Shultse
Which method of manual removal of the sepatared placenta is the least traumatic?
Abuladze
Henter’s
Krede- Lazarevich
Dunkan
Shultse
Which operation does belong to the birth preparing operations?
obstetric forceps
cesarean section
amniotomy
D.
E.
619.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
620.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
621.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
622.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
623.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
624.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
625.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
626.
craniotomy
cervical cerclage
Choose indication for cervical cerclage:
threatened abortion
inevitable abortion
incomplete abortion
placenta previa
cervical incompetence
What is the normal duration of false labor?
>1 hr
>2 hr
>3 hr
4 hr
> 6 hr
All of the above are the indications for forceps application, exept:
fetal distress
primary uterine inertia
contracted pelvis
placenta abruption in the second stage of labor
secondary uterine inertia
What is the indication for the operation of applying obstetric forceps?
placenta previa
placenta abruption
hypotonic uterine contractions
contracted pelvis
high direct standing of the fetal head
Which of the following is true of blindness in conjunction of pregnancy induced hypertension?
occur in severe preeclampsia
occur in moderate preeclampsia
occur in mild preeclampsia
is not present in pregnancy induced hypertension
there is no correct answer
Which of the following is NOT a sign of severe pregnancy-induced hypertension?
upper abdominal pain
oliguria
polyuria
fetal growth retardation
visual disturbances
Which sign suggest about magnesium toxicity?
decreasing of patellar reflex
Depression
increasing of breathing
polyuria
there is no correct answer
Which sign suggest about magnesium toxicity?
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
627.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
628.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
629.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
630.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
631.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
632.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
633.
A. *
B.
C.
oliguria
increasing of breathing
polyuria
insomnia
there is no correct answer
All drugs should be prescribed in Hyperemesis gravidarum EXEPT?
infusion therapy
antiemetic
intravenous droperidol-diphenhydramine
metoclopramide parenterally
intravenous prostaglandyns
Which operation is performed for reduction of fetal shoulders in labor?
amniotomy;
embriotomy;
craniotomy;
cleidotomy;
cranioklazia
What type of cesarean section is more frequent performed in obstetric?
corporal
transverse lower segment
vertical lower segment
extraperitoneal
intraperitoneal
Choose the contraindications for cesarean section
anatomic contracted pelvis
endometritis in labor
cefaloopelvic disproportion
deflexed position of the fetal head
breech presentation
What is contraindication for performing of operation of external version of the fetus?
premature fetus
multifetal pregnancy
breech presentation
transverse fetal lie
oblique fetal lie
Choose the indication episiotomy in labor?
danger for perineal rupture
fetal distress
large fetus
brow presentation
deflexed vertex presentation
Chose the indication for episiotomy?
breech presentation
uterine inertia
placental abruption
D.
E.
634.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
635.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
636.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
637.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
638.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
639.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
640.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
641.
placenta previa
diabetus mellitus in pregnancy
Choose the indication for episiotomy?
scar in the perineal region
placental dysfunction
transverse fetal lie
oblique fetal lie
multifetal pregnancy
Choose indications to corporal cesarean section:
adhesions in the lower uterine segment
breech presentation
oblique fetal lie
deflexed fetal presentation
scar insufficiency in the uterus
Choose indications to corporal cesarean section:
breech presentation
large intramural node in the lower uterine segment
oblique fetal lie
scar insufficiency in the uterus
placental abruption
What index in the general blood analysis indicate the severity of pregnancy induced hypertetnsion ?
thrombocytes
leukocytes
hemoglobin
basophiles
neutrophiles
Indications to planned cesarean section in diabetus mellitus and pregnancy?
”fresh” hemorrhages in retinae
placenta abruption
placenta previa
cervical incompetence
probable fetal weight 3700 g
In regard to preeclampsia, proteinuria is defined as how much urinary excretion?
100 mg/24 hr
200 mg/24 hr
300 mg/24 hr
500 mg/24 hr
600 mg/24 hr
Which of the following is NOT diagnostic of moderate preeclampsia?
serum creatinine from 75 – 120 mkmol/L
<0,3 – 5 g proteinuria in 24 hour collection
39 - 42 hematocrit
diastolic blood pressure 110 mm. Hg
180-150.000 thrombocytes
What is the significance of maternal thrombocytopenia in a patient with preeclampsia?
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
642.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
643.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
644.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
645.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
646.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
647.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
is a fetal indication for cesarean section
indicates severity of disease
requires therapy with platelets
is a contraindication to scalp pH determination
there is no correct answer
Chronic hypertension defined as:
hypertension present before the 12 week of gestation or beyond 6 weeks' postpartum.
hypertension present before the 22 week of gestation or beyond 6 weeks' postpartum
hypertension present before the 24 week of gestation or beyond 8 weeks' postpartum
hypertension present before the 34 week of gestation or beyond 10 weeks' postpartum
hypertension present before the 4 week of gestation or beyond 12 weeks' postpartum
Hypertension in pregnancy defined as:
diastolic blood pressure of 85 mm Hg or greater, as a systolic blood pressure at or above 140 mm Hg
at three estimations with the interval 1 hour
diastolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg or greater, as a systolic blood pressure at or above 135 mm Hg
at two estimations with the interval 4 hours
diastolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg or greater, as a systolic blood pressure at or above 140 mm Hg
at two estimations with the interval 4 hours.
diastolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg or greater, as a systolic blood pressure at or above 145 mm Hg
at two estimations with the interval 3 hours
diastolic blood pressure of 80 mm Hg or greater, as a systolic blood pressure at or above 140 mm Hg
at one estimation with the interval 2 hours
The main fertility indicators are:
Basal temperature
cervical secretions (cervical mucus)
the length of the menstrual cycle.
all are wrong
all answers are correct.
How long does the fertile time last?
for around 8–9 days of each menstrual cycle.
for 20 days of each menstrual cycle.
for around 2–3 days of each menstrual cycle.
all are wrong
all answers are correct.
What are the advantages of natural family planning?
can help to plan a pregnancy
It does not involve using any chemicals or physical devices.
There are no physical side effects.
can help to avoid a pregnancy.
all answers are correct.
What are the disadvantages of natural family planning?
It takes 3–6 menstrual cycles to learn effectively.
Woman has to keep daily records.
Woman needs to avoid sex or use male or female condoms during the fertile time.
Natural methods don't protect woman against sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
all answers are correct.
648.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
649.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
650.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
651.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
652.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
653.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
654.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
655.
A.
B.
What does belong to emergency contraception:
the emergency contraceptive pill, Postinor
the emergency contraceptive pill, ellaOne
the emergency intrauterine device (IUD).
all are wrong
all answers are correct.
What are the disadvantages of sterilisation?
The tubes may rejoin and woman will be fertile again.
Sterilisation cannot be easily reversed.
Sterilisation does not protect woman against sexually transmitted infections.
It takes between four weeks to at least three months for sterilisation to be effective.
all answers are correct.
The most common methods of endometrial sampling are:
Endometrial biopsy
Dilatation and curettage (D&C)
Hysteroscopy
all are wrong
all answers are correct.
Non-surgical treatment options for vaginal prolapse
Kegel Exercises
Pelvic Floor Therapy
Vaginal Pessary
all are wrong
all answers are correct.
Surgical treatment options for vaginal prolapse
Anterior Colporrhaphy
Paravaginal Defect Repair
Posterior Colporrhaphy
Perineorrhaphy
all answers are correct.
Surgical treatment options for vaginal prolapse
Vaginal Vault Suspension
Hysterectomy
Prolift
all are wrong
all answers are correct.
Risk factors for the development of vaginal prolapse are:
pregnancy,
vaginal delivery,
hysterectomy,
obesity,
all answers are correct.
Risk factors for the development of vaginal prolapse are:
chronic cough,
chronic constipation,
C.
D. *
E.
656.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
657.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
658.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
659.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
660.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
661.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
662.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
repetitive heavy lifting,
all answers are correct.
all are wrong
Risk factors for the development of vaginal prolapse are:
menopause,
and genetic connective tissue weakness.
chronic constipation,
all answers are correct.
all are wrong
Synonym of an anterior vaginal wall prolapse
cystocele
enterocele
Rectocele
all answers are correct.
all are wrong
Synonym of a posterior vaginal wall prolapse
cystocele
enterocele
Rectocele
all answers are correct.
all are wrong
Complications of surgical abortion may include:
Heavy Bleeding
Incomplete Abortion
Sepsis
Damage to the Cervix
all answers are correct.
Complications of surgical abortion may include:
Scarring of the Uterine Lining
Perforation of the Uterus
Damage to Internal Organs
Death
all answers are correct.
Possible reasons for abnormal uterine bleeding include:
Endometrial polyps.
Uterine fibroids.
Endometrial hyperplasia
all answers are correct.
all are wrong
Possible reasons for abnormal uterine bleeding include:
Hormonal imbalance.
Cancer.
Miscarriage
all answers are correct.
all are wrong
663.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
664.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
665.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
666.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
667.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
668.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
669.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
670.
A.
B.
Reasons for surgical removing of polyps:
To establish the diagnosis
To rule out malignant cancer
To cure irregular bleeding , by removing the polyp.
all answers are correct.
all are wrong
What is the inflammation of the serous layer of the uterus
Perymetritis.
parametritis.
endometritis.
Metroendometritis.
Sepsis
Definition of perimetritis
inflammation or irritation of the the endometrium of the uterus.
Inflammation of the uterus involving the perimetrial covering.
inflammation of the muscular layers of the uterus.
inflammation of the mucosal layers of the uterus.
Inflammation of the vagina.
Definition of endometritis
inflammation or irritation of the the endometrium of the uterus.
Inflammation of the uterus involving the perimetrial covering.
inflammation of the muscular layers of the uterus.
Inflammation of the vagina.
inflammation of the mucosal layers of the uterus.
Definition of Vaginitis
Inflammation or irritation of the the endometrium of the uterus.
Inflammation of the uterus involving the perimetrial covering.
inflammation of the muscular layers of the uterus.
Inflammation of the vagina.
inflammation of the mucosal layers of the uterus.
Hormonal treatments of endometriosis may include:
Progesterone pills
Progesterone injections
Gonadotropin-agonist medications
all answers are correct.
all are wrong
Symptoms of endometritis may include:
Abdominal distention or swelling
Abnormal vaginal bleeding
Abnormal vaginal discharge
Discomfort with bowel movement (constipation may occur)
all answers are correct.
Symptoms of endometritis may include:
Fever
General discomfort
C.
D. *
E.
671.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
672.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
673.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
674.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
675.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
676.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
677.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
Lower abdominal or pelvic pain (uterine pain)
all answers are correct.
all are wrong
Possible Complications of endometritis is:
Infertility
Pelvic peritonitis (generalized pelvic infection)
Pelvic or uterine abscess formation
all answers are correct.
all answers are wrong
Possible Complications of endometritis
Septicemia
Septic shock
Pelvic or uterine abscess formation
all answers are correct.
all are wrong
The main symptom of endometriosis is.
Pain
uterine abscess formation
Heavy Bleeding
Hormonal imbalance.
Fever
The main symptom of endometriosis is.
uterine abscess formation
Heavy Bleeding
Hormonal imbalance.
Fever
all are wrong
A woman with endometriosis may have:
Painful periods
Pain in the lower abdomen before and during menstruation
Cramps for a week or two before menstruation
Cramps during menstruation;
all answers are correct.
A woman with endometriosis may have:
Pain during or following sexual intercourse
Pain with bowel movements
Pelvic or low back pain that may occur at any time during the menstrual cycle
all answers are correct.
all are wrong
What is endometrial ablation?
the surgical destruction of the endometrium.
Perforation of the Uterus
the hormonal destruction of the endometrium.
all answers are correct.
all are wrong
678.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
679.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
680.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
681.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
682.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
683.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
684.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
685.
A.
B.
Menopause is defined as:
2 or more irregular periods after age 40
The start of hot flashes
No menstrual period for 12 consecutive monts
An increase in mood swings
all are wrong
Endometriosis occurs deep inside the uterus.
True
False
Depends on age
After 50 years
After 30 years
Endometriosis is a common gynecological disease.
True
False
After 50 years
After 30 years
After 40 years
When are endometrial cells shed?
Daily
weekly
Shedding is unpredictable
during menstruation
all are wrong
What is one of the most common symptoms of endometriosis.
Bloating
Pelvic muscle spasm
Diarrhea
Infertility
all are wrong
Women with endometriosis have a higher risk of ovarian cancer.
True
False
Depends on age
After 50 years
After 30 years
Most women with endometriosis will not be able to conceive.
True
False
Depends on age
After 50 years
After 30 years
Why does endometriosis cause pain in some women?
Endometriosis tissues cannot leave the body
Endometriosis areas make chemicals that irritate pelvic tissues
C.
D. *
E.
686.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
687.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
688.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
689.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
690.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
691.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
692.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
Endometriosis produces chemicals that are known to cause pain
All of the above
all are wrong
How often is recommended breast self-exams?
Once per day
Once per week
Once per month
Twice per year
all are wrong
Which is NOT a term describing a normal part of the breast?
Ducts
Lymph nodes
Fat
Mastalgia
all are wrong
Abnormal cells that do not function like the body's normal cells are called...
Stem cells
Muscle cells
Cancerous cells
Mitochondrial cells
all are wrong
What causes breast cancer?
No one knows
Living near highly industrialized cities
Low levels of bodily hormones
Vaccines
all are wrong
Which is the most common form of breast cancer?
Invasive ductal carcinoma
Ductal carcinoma in situ
Infiltrating lobular carcinoma
invasive lobular carcinoma
None of the above
The medical term for the spread of cancer is called.
Mammary embolism
Metastasis
Suffusion
Diffusion
None of the above
What are breast cancer risk factors for women?
Childbearing later in life
Having never had children
Being overweight after menopause
All of the above
None of the above
693.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
694.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
695.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
696.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
697.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
698.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
699.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
700.
A.
B.
Recommendation for a woman who has found a lump in the breast
Make an appointment with a doctor
Do nothing
Go immediately to the nearest emergency room
Apply ice packs to the breast to reduce swelling
None of the above
The first sign of pregnancy is most often:
Food cravings
Fatigue and tiredness
Mood swings and stress
Missed menstrual period
None of the above
HIV is an abbreviation for:
Human immune virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Humanoid immunodeficiency virus
Humanus immunocompromisation virus
None of the above
Which is NOT considered a common method of transmission for HIV?
Blood
Genital secretions
Breast milk
Urine
None of the above
About one-fourth of all people with HIV/AIDS are:
Homosexual men
Living in southern U.S. states
Over the age of 50
Bisexual women
None of the above
People with HIV and AIDS are largely prone to...
Systemic infections.
Superficial infections.
Opportunistic infections.
Hospital-acquired infections.
None of the above
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic, AIDS-related physical change?
Lipodystrophy
Loss of subcutaneous fat
Wasting syndrome
hyperpigmentation
None of the above
What is a major factor for infertility in women.
Age
Weight
C.
D. *
E.
701.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
702.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
703.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
704.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
705.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
706.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
707.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
Anovulation
All of the above
None of the above
Which sexually transmitted disease can result in infertility in women?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Genital herpes
Pelvic inflammatory disease
All of the above
None of the above
A 35-year-old woman is considered infertile after ____ of trying to conceive.
1 month
2 months
4 months
6 months
None of the above
Where does ovarian cancer occur?
On tissue within the ovary
On the surface of the ovary
In egg-forming germ cells within the ovary
Any of the above
None of the above
Who is most at risk for developing ovarian cancer?
A woman who has had multiple children
A woman who is underweight
A woman over the age of 60
Any of the above
None of the above
Ovarian cancer is classified into _ stages, depending upon the extent of spread.
2
3
4
5
None of the above
Usually, the first treatment for ovarian cancer is...
Surgery
Chemotherapy
Radiation
Any of the above
None of the above
Subserosal fibroids are located :
beneath the serosa
inside the uterine cavity
beneath the lining of the uterus
within the muscular wall of the uterus.
None of the above
708.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
709.
A. *
B.
C.
D. *
E.
710.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
711.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
712.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
713.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
714.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
715.
A.
B.
Submucosal fibroids are located:
beneath the serosa
inside the uterine cavity
inside the fallopian tubes
beneath the lining of the uterus within the muscular wall of the uterus.
None of the above
Intramural fibroids are located:
beneath the serosa
inside the uterine cavity
beneath the lining of the uterus
within the muscular wall of the uterus.
None of the above
The most common symptom of submucous uterine fibroid is:
abnormal uterine bleeding.
pelvic pain
pressure on the bladder with frequent or even obstructed urination
pressure on the rectum with pain during defecation.
None of the above
Large uterine fibroids can cause:
pressure
pelvic pain,
pressure on the bladder with frequent or even obstructed urination
pressure on the rectum with pain during defecation.
All of the above
What is the treatment for uterine fibroids?
hysterectomy
myomectomy
cryosurgery
uterine artery embolization
All of the above
Medical treatments of uterine fibroids include:
danazol
raloxifene
low dose formulations of oral contraceptives.
All of the above
None of the above
Which contraceptive can be used for emergency contraception.
Marvelon.
Novinet.
Ovidon.
Regulon.
Postinor.
Intrauterine system"Mirena" is introduced to:
Women with endometriosis.
2. Women with a fibroid uterus.
C.
D.
E. *
716.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
717.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
718.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
719.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
720.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
721.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
722.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
3. Women with a syndrome Ashermana.
4. Women with infertility.
5. All of the above.
A hormonal IUD should NOT be used by women who:
Have abnormal vaginal bleeding that has not been explained
Have untreated cervical cancer
Have untreated uterine cancer
Have certain abnormalities of the uterus
5. All of the above.
A hormonal IUD should NOT be used by women who:
Have had pelvic inflammatory disease within the past 3 months
Have had an STI such as chlamydia or gonorrhea within the past 3 months
Have severe liver disease
None of the above
All of the above.
Advantages of using hormonal IUD
Is one of the most effective forms of reversible birth control
It can be used while breastfeeding
No preparations needed before sex to ensure it works
Ability to become pregnant returns quickly when removed
All of the above.
Advantages of using hormonal IUD
Fewer menstrual cramps
Lighter periods
Effective for five years
All of the above.
None of the above
What is Indication for Hormonal IUD using:
birth control,
Menorrhagia
Endometriosis
chronic pelvic pain
All of the above.
Indication for Hormonal IUD using:
Endometriosis
Adenomyosis
Dysmenorrhea
All of the above.
None of the above
Side effects of hormonal IUD
Expulsion
Fewer menstrual cramps
Menorrhagia
All of the above.
None of the above
723.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
724.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
725.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
726.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
727.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
728.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
729.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
730.
A. *
B.
What is the main complaint in patients with mastopathy?
Pain.
Disorders of the menstrual cycle.
Increased body temperature
Increased libido.
Increasing of breast size.
Which method is the most effective in detecting early breast cancer?
Inspection.
Palpation.
Thermography.
Cytological examination of discharge from the nipple.
Mammography.
Major role in the regulation of growth and development of breast play all hormones EXCEPT:
Progesterone.
Prolactin.
FSH
Estradiol.
None of the above
What hormonal disorders lead to premature puberty in adrenogenital syndrome?
Hypoestrogenemia
Hyperandrogenism
Hyperestrogenism
None of the above
All of the above.
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition characterized by:
the accumulation of numerous cysts on the ovaries associated with high male hormone levels
chronic anovulation
metabolic disturbances
None of the above
All of the above.
Classic symptoms of Polycystic ovary syndrome include:
excess facial and body hair
acne
obesity
None of the above
All of the above.
What do classic symptoms of Polycystic ovary syndrome include?
irregular menstrual cycles
infertility
excess facial hair
excess body hair
All of the above.
What is Follicle stimulating hormone ?
A hormone that stimulates the growth and maturation of mature eggs in the ovary.
Hormone produced by the ovaries
C.
D.
E.
731.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
732.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
733.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
734.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
735.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
736.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
737.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
Hormone produced by the adrenal glands
Hormone produced by the testes
None of the above
Estrogens is—
Hormones produced by the adrenal glands
Hormones produced by the ovaries
Hormones produced by the pancreas
Hormones produced by the hypophysis
Hormones produced by the hypothalamus gland
The general functions of the hypothalamus are:
pituitary gland regulation
blood pressure regulation
body temperature regulation
regulation of ovarian function
All of the above
Tests of functional diagnostics include:
investigation of cervical mucous layer;
changes of basal temperature;
colpocytology;
all answers are correct;
all are incorrect.
Physiological аmenorrhoea is typical for:
childhood period;
postmenopause;
period of lactation;
to pregnancy;
all answers are correct.
Which of these is not common for ovarian polycystic syndrome:
amenorrhoea;
hirsutism;
ovulatory menstrual cycles;
obesity;
infertility.
Causes of primary algomenorrhoea:
infantilism;
retrodeviation of uterus;
high production of prostaglandins;
all the above factors.
none of the above
Associated syndromes with hypergonadotropic amenoroea are:
ovary depletion syndrome;
resistant ovary syndrome;
Shereshevski-Turner syndrome;
all of the above.
none of the above
738.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
739.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
740.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
741.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
742.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
743.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
744.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
745.
A.
B.
Secondary аmenorrhoea can result from:
psychic stress;
massive blood loss during labour;
expressed deficiency of the body mass;
genital tuberculosis;
all of the above.
What quantity of blood is lost by a woman during normal menstruation?
less than 50 ml.
50-100 ml.
50-150 ml.
150-200 ml.
200-250 ml.
Duration of proliferation phase in uterine cycle is:
from 1 to 5 day .
from 5 to 14 day.
from 14 to 28day .
from 10 to 14 day.
from 15 to 20 day
Select a disease which is a violation of the rhythm of menstruation.
Tachimenoreya
Amenorrhea
Polymenorrhea
Oligomenorrhea
none of the above
Physiological аmenorrhoea is the absence of menstruations:
in girls of 10-12 years;
during pregnancy;
during period of lactation;
at senile age;
all of the above
If menopause occurs in a woman younger than ___ years, it is considered to be premature.
40
45
50
30
60
Characteristic of anovulatory uterine bleeding:
Monophasic basal temperature below 37 degrees
Absence of s "fern" and "pupil" symptoms in the middle of the menstrual cycle
Absence of secretory transformation of the endometrium
All of the above
None of the above
Duration of secretion phase in uterine cycle is:
from 1 to 5 day .
from 5 to 14 day.
C. *
D.
E.
746.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
747.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
748.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
749.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
750.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
751.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
752.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
from 14 to 28day .
from 10 to 14 day.
from 15 to 20 day
Which method of gynacological examination does belong to basic?
inspection of external genitalia.
taking of smear on a flora.
taking of smear on oncocytology.
ultrasonic examination.
biopsy.
Which of the following is the cause of ovarian form of amenorrhea?
congenital gonades’ dysgenesia
the Shereshevsky-Terner’s syndrome
the Shtein-Levental syndrome
All of the above
None of the above
Prepuberty - is:
a period of two years immediately prior to the onset of puberty when growth and changes leading to
sexual maturity occur
Age of menarche
The first year after the onset of menarche
Age from 5 to 8 years
None of the above
Treatment of juvenile uterine bleeding provides all of the above, except:
stopping Haemorrhage
Normalization of menstrual function
Stimulation of Ovulation with clomifene
Antianaemia therapy
All of above
Which of medicines should NOT BE USED for treatment of endometriosis?
danasol
sinestrol
dufaston
zoladex
danogen
How is the state named, when less than 2 days proceed to menstruation?
spaniomenorrhea
hypomenorrhea
proyomenorrhea
oligomenorrhea
opsomenorrhea
What is the highest level of menstrual regulation?
brain cortex
hypothalamus
ovaries
uterus
E.
753.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
754.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
755.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
756.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
757.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
758.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
759.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
760.
A. *
all above
Ovarian amenorrhea is at:
Itsenco-Kushing syndrome
false pregnancy
Shtein-Levental syndrome
syndrome Shikhane
all above
In climacteric age the medical treatment of dysfunctional uterine bleeding begin with:
setting of estrogens
diagnostic curettage of uterine cavity
colposcopy
setting of androgens
setting of gestagens
What is spaniomenorrhea?
menstruations come in 6-8 weeks
menstruations come 1 time per 4-6 monthes
menstruations are absent
quantity of menstrual blood less than 50ml
duration of menstruation 1-2 days
Menorrhagia is:
acyclic uterine bleeding
cyclic uterine bleeding in connection with menstruate cycle
painfull and abundant menstruation
pre- & post menstruation bloody allocation
short period of menstruation cycle
The change of basal temperature is based on?
on influence of progesteron on hypothalamus.
on influence of estrogens on hypothalamus.
on influence of estrogens on a hypophysis.
on influence of progesteron on a hypophysis.
on influence of progesteron on an uterus.
The cause of secondary amenorrhea could be:
Stein-Leventhal syndrome
Ovarian dysgenesie
Imperforate hymen,
All of the above
Nothing above
How to start a survey of gynecological patients?
from the life history taking.
from the disease history taking.
from allergic anamnesis.
from professional anamnesis.
complaints of patient.
What does the presence of positive symptom “pupillus”during all menstrual cycle testify about?
about the high saturation of organism of estrogens.
B.
C.
D.
E.
761.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
762.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
763.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
764.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
765.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
766.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
767.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
about estrogen insufficiency.
about the presence of ovulation.
about the presence of lutein phase.
about the presence of early follicular phase.
Symptoms of Stein-Leventhal syndrome:
obesity
irregular or no menstruation
acne
excess hair growth
All of the above
When in a norm the “fern” symptom is most positive?
at once after menstruation.
in the early follicular phase.
in time of ovulation.
in the early lutein phase.
in end of menstruation.
Treatment of juvenile bleeding can not start from:
Fractional curettage of the endometrial cavity
Hormone
Hemostatic agents
All methods are used
None of the above
To hypothalamic amenorrhea does not belong:
psychogenic amenorrhea
amenorrhea at a syndrome Shikhane
amenorrhea at false pregnancy
amenorrhea at adipozogenital dystrophy
amenorrhea at a syndrome Kiary-Frommel
Which hormone provides lactation process:
estrogen
cortizol
insulin
prolactin
all are correct
Commonest site of endometriosis:
Vagina,
uterus.
urinary bladder,
Peritoneal cavity.
Umbilicus
Danazol is used in all cases, except:
Hirsulism
Endometriosis
Dysfunctional Uterine bleeding
Fibroid
E.
768.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
769.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
770.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
771.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
772.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
773.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
774.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
775.
A. *
Nothing above
The following statements are true regarding osteoporosis expect;
It affects one-third to one-half of postmenopausal women
It increases as women age
It puts women at high risk for hip fractures
It occurs as a result of arthritis
All of the above
What appearance of the first menstruation in 14 years can testify about?
about the presence of inflammatory disease of uterus.
about the presence of inflammatory disease of adnexa.
about the presence of abnormal position of uterus.
about the presence of of genius infantilism.
about normal development of organism of girl.
What is the average age of menarche?
8-9 years.
9-10 years.
10-11 years.
12 year.
16 year.
When in a norm the “pupil” symptom is most positive?
after menstruation.
in an early follicular phase.
in time of ovulation.
in an early lutein phase.
during the menstruation.
Hypomenstrual syndrome includes:
Oligomenorrhea, opsomenorrhea, hypo menorrhea
Opsomenorrhea, polimenorrhea
Proyomenorrhea, hypomenorrhea
Oligomenorrhea, hypermenorrhea
All of the above
Which types of dysfunctional uterine bleeding are presented below, exist?
Ovulatory
Anovulatory
Cyclic
Acyclic
All of the above
The complication of false amenorrhea:
Hypotrophy of the mammary glands
Hematocolpos
Anovulation
opsomenorrhoea
All listed
The Shereshevsky-Terner’s syndrome is the result of:
a complex of genetic defects, connected with chromosomes anomaly
B.
C.
D.
E.
776.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
777.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
778.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
779.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
780.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
781.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
782.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
Presence of double uterus
Absence of ovaries
Vaginal atresia
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
In premature sexual maturation secondary sexual signs and menarche appeared:
In 9 years
In 11 years
In 13 years
None of these cases
In all these cases
Estrogen possess the following action:
promotes peristalsis in uterus and tube
promotes processes of ossification
stimulates activity of cellular immunity
all answers are correct
all are wrong
What kind of endometriosis belongs to internal?
endometriosis of uterine cervix
endometriosis of vagine
endometriosis of uterus
All above
Nothing above
Which from transferred syndromes DOES NOT BELONG to neuroendocrine?
Shershevscy-Terner
Shtain-Levental syndrome
climacteric
postovarioectomy
all above
Deficiency of which hormone presents in case of dysfunctional uterine bleeding
Oestrogen
Progesterone
Thyroxin
A.C.T.H.
Cortisol
What appearance of the first menstruation in 16 years can testify about?
about the presence of inflammatory disease of uterus.
about the presence of inflammatory disease of adnexa.
about the presence of abnormal position of uterus.
about the presence of genital infantilism.
about normal development of organism of girl.
Appearance of “fern symptom” is based on:
on the change of type of uterine cervix.
on diameter of cervical canal.
on the rise of viscidity of cervical mucus.
on power of mucus to crystallize at drying.
E.
783.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
784.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
785.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
786.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
787.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
788.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
789.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
790.
A. *
on hyperthermic influence of progesteron on hypothalamus.
Indicate factor which doesn't lead to menstrual dysfunction:
Chronic intoxication
Sexual infantilism
Long-term chronic infection
Abnormal development of genital organs
none of the above
Which type of amenorrhea DOES NOT EXIST?
Secondary
False
Combined
Physiological
Pathological
When hypotonic uterine bleeding starts:
on cervical stage
on the expulsive stage
after the delivery of the fetus
After the placental separation
Non above
The cause of uterine bleeding in the postpartum period is Not
Birth canal trauma
violation of the contractile activity of the uterus
Abnormal clotting of blood
Hypertonic disease
All above
Bleeding in the uterus hypotonic is characterizes:
Bleeding from birth canal continuous like a stream
Bleeding with clots
Bleeding with the formation of light clots
Bleeding without clots
All are possible
Bleeding in case of parts of the placenta staying in the uterus is characterized by:
Appearance after the delivery of defective placenta particles l
after the placental separation there is no bleeding
bleeding without clots
All are possible
Nothing above
Characteristics of uterine hypotonic and atonic bleeding are:
Uterus is firm, its fundus at the level of or below the navel
After emptying and massage is firm
Relaxed, soft, light or no reaction after stimulation
Uterus fundus turns aside to the left part of the abdomen
All are possible
When the bleeding at the early postpartum period it is necessary to:
Review and suturing of birth canal injuries
B.
C.
D.
E.
791.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
792.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
793.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
794.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
795.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
796.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
797.
A. *
B.
C.
Kolposkopy
Hysterotokografy
Laparoskopy
Nothing above
First aid in case of early postpartum bleeding includes:
Use of uterotonik
Application diuretyks
Use of vikasol
Using of mezaton becose low blood pressure
Nothing above
Postpartum hemostasis is provide with following factors:
Retraction of myometrium and body temperature
blood clots in the vessels of the placental sections and hematocrit levels
hyperkoahulation and number of platelets
Retraction myometrium and local hemostatic factors
Nothing above
Delay of additional part of the placenta in uterus is diagnosed by
Abnormal shape of the placenta
Delay of amniotic membranes
Broken vessels in the placenta
thin platsenta
Nothing above
In later postpartum period the delay of placental tissue in uterus can be diagnosed during
palpation of the uterus
ultrasound examination
X ray examination
Vaginal examination
Nothing above
Bleeding in early postpartum period usually
stops without treatment
does not lead to serious consequences
If not treated can lead to lethal exit
belongs to the rarely labor complications
Nothing above
After examination of birth canal and bleeding in early postpartum period it is necessary to
To perform external massage of the uterus and blood transfusion
examination, suturing of injuries of birth canal and blood transfusion
manual examination of the uterus and massage, blood transfusion
The external uterine massage, an examination of birth canal, manual examination of the uterus,
massage
Nothing above
When bleeding on 6 day of postpartum period it is necessary to
Curettage of the uterus cavity
Pudendal block
puncture of the duglas spase
D.
E.
798.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
799.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
800.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
Nothing above
All above
Measures to stop bleeding in the early postpartum period usually begin when bloodlost
more than 1000 ml
More than 250 ml
more than 400 ml
more than 100 ml
Nothing above
For prophylaxy of bleeding in late postpartum period is necessary to appoint
Ultrasonic investigation of uterus
General blood test
General urine test
Oxytocin
Nothing above
Which term termination of pregnancy can be in case of medical indication?
Up to 10 weeks
To12 weeks
To14 weeks
Up to 8 weeks
To 22 weeks