Download General surgery

General surgery
Text test questions
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The probability of wound infections development depends on the following reasons, except for:
A.
Local and general factors of protections condition.
B.
Location of a wound
C.
Virulence of microorganisms.
D.
Numbers of bacteria on 1 gram of a tissue
E.
*Carrying out of primary surgical processing under the general anesthesia
At primary surgical processing a wound it is not recommended:
A.
All answers are incorrect.
B.
Tightly tamponade of wound by a gauze tampon.
C.
To impose a primary seam on a nerve.
D.
Widely remove the viable bone fragments.
E.
*All answers are correct
All of the above are risk factors of a suppuration of a wound, except for:
A.
An irradiation of a wound
B.
Adiposity.
C.
Diabetes.
D.
Hypovitaminosis.
E.
*Protein of blood of 78 %.
Biological value of granulation tissue.
A.
Made the encapsulation of foreign bodies in a wound.
B.
Produce a wound secret, which has bactericidal and ferment action.
C.
Has lizing action on necrotic tissues.
D.
Formed zone of demarcation
E.
*All answers are right
To rules of plaster bandage imposing the following refer, except for:
A.
Immobilization of two or three adjacent joints
B.
Leave free and visible the ends of stops fingers or brushes.
C.
Prevention of bandage twisting
D.
Locate the extremities at physiological position.
E.
*Create conditions for skeletal extension.
To rules of plaster bandages imposing the following refer, except for:
A.
Controlled the main vessels.
B.
On bone tuberculum impose cotton wool
C.
Except for the injured site immobilized 2 or 3 surrounding joints.
D.
Extremities locate at middle - physiological position.
E.
*Except for the injured site immobilized 2 or 3 surrounding joints.
What attribute that the plaster bandage is completely impregnated by water?
A.
Bandage becomes heavily.
B.
Bandage becomes soft.
C.
Full mixture of blossoming.
D.
Uniform swelling of bandage.
E.
*Discontinuance of gas bobbles allocation.
How many layers of plaster bandage are necessary for manufacturing longet on lover extremities?
A.
5-6.
B.
14.
C.
3-5.
D.
1-2.
E.
*7-8.
How many joints it is necessary to fix at imposing thoracic - bronchial plaster bandage in case of
shoulder fracture?
A.
5
B.
4
2
1
*3
What plaster bandage imposes at fracture of the hip top third?
A.
Longet.
B.
Circular.
C.
Korset.
D.
Gonit.
E.
*Cocsets.
Plaster bed is shown at:
A.
Osteochondrosis
B.
Tumors of spinal column.
C.
Fracture of basin bones.
D.
Bedsore.
E.
*Tuberculosis of spinal column.
The plaster corset is shown at:
A.
Fracture of basin bones
B.
Closed trauma of abdomen.
C.
Fracture of a brest
D.
Fracture of ribs.
E.
*Diseases and damages spinal column
At what wound the most expressed changes in surrounding tissues?
A.
Chopped
B.
Cutting.
C.
Excoriated
D.
Stab.
E.
*Damaged.
At what wound surrounding tissues are changed minimally?
A.
Bitten.
B.
Excoriated.
C.
Gun shot
D.
Fragmentary.
E.
*Chopped.
What statement correct depending on bacterial - polluted wound.
A.
Demands secondary surgical processing
B.
Heal only a secondary tension.
C.
Becomes infected
D.
Suppurated
E.
*Can begin to live a primary tension after primary surgical processing.
In what phase of wound process course there is a counteraction of wound:
A.
I - ІІ.
B.
IV.
C.
ІІ.
D.
I.
E.
*ІІІ.
After secondary surgical processing a purulent wound drainage is:
A.
Only at presence of heats and additional abscesses
B.
Only at incomplete liquidation of the purulent center.
C.
Necessary depending on localization of a wound
D.
Necessary.
E.
*Obligatory
Observance of asepsis rules at treatment of purulent wounds is:
A.
Necessary for reasons of medical staff protection.
B.
Obligatory just in relation to the surgeon.
C.
It has no basic value.
D.
Un obligatory
E.
*Obligatory.
C.
D.
E.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
Healing of wound under a scab probably at the specified situations, except for:
A.
Escoriation.
B.
Burne of I - ІІ item
C.
Attrition
D.
Superficial graze
E.
*Full defect of skin in diameter up to 4 sm
The third phase of a course wound process is characterized:
A.
There is no right answer
B.
Epithelisation of a wound.
C.
Counteraction of a wound
D.
Filling of wound cavity by granulations.
E.
*All answers are correct
Speed of regional epithelisation consist:
A.
1 - 2 mm from edge of a wound for 2 - 3 days.
B.
5 mm from edge of a wound for 7 days.
C.
5 mm from edge of a wound for 7 days.
D.
1 mm from edge of a wound for 1 - 2 days.
E.
*1 mm from edge of a wound for 7 - 10 days.
What is obligatory in monitoring of purulent wound?
A.
Measurement of biochemical parameters.
B.
An estimation of protection nonspecific factors
C.
Control of the immune status.
D.
Dynamic of temperature curve.
E.
*Dynamical bacteriological control.
Solving in diagnostics purulent complications from a wound is:
A.
Percussion of wounds.
B.
Palpation of a wound.
C.
Thermograph of wound.
D.
Bridles of a wound.
E.
*Instrumental investigation of wound.
What is a major factor of wound suppuration risk?
A.
Blood loss of a heavy degree
B.
Presence of necrosis sites in a wound
C.
Presence of a traumatic shock.
D.
Presence foreign things in a wound.
E.
*Microbic pollution of a wound above 105 of microbic bodies on 1 gram of a tissues.
What criteria of wound process course estimation are most objective:
A.
Measurement of electropotentials of wound tissues
B.
Clinical.
C.
Measurement of wounds secrets рН.
D.
Biochemical.
E.
*Bacteriological and cytologic.
What of criteria of wound process course estimation is used more often:
A.
Thermografic
B.
Immunologic
C.
Bacteriological.
D.
Cytologic
E.
*Clinical.
Criteria of wound process course estimation are:
A.
Right answers are not present.
B.
Bacteriologic.
C.
Cytologic.
D.
Clinical
E.
*All answers are correct.
All testifies development purulent complication from a wound of above, except for:
A.
Rigor.
B.
Acute hyperemia and infiltration of wound edges.
Pulling character of pain.
Increasing of temperature up to 38-390.
*Sensation of crawling ant in a site of a wound.
For compensatory mechanisms at a bleeding all concerns above specified, except for:
A.
Oliguria.
B.
Hyperventilation.
C.
Tachycardia.
D.
Vasospasm.
E.
*”Sladgh” - uniform elements of blood.
At a shock as a result of centralization of blood circulation there is an angiospasm of all bodies,
except for:
A.
All answers are correct
B.
Vessels of a skin and muscles
C.
Vessels of kidneys
D.
Vessels of a abdomen cavity.
E.
*Coronary and brain
Primary surgical processing a wound carries out:
A.
In a reception.
B.
Hospital in dressing room.
C.
Ambulatory.
D.
At place of wound.
E.
*In operational.
Prophylaxis actions directed on the prevention of an infection hitting in a wound refer to:
A.
Prophylaxis antiseptics
B.
Prophylaxis.
C.
Antiseptics.
D.
Dezinfection.
E.
*Aseptic.
What optimal method of air disinfection in operational:
A.
Damp cleaning operational with use of disinfectants.
B.
Using of conditioners.
C.
An adequate exchange of air.
D.
Airing operational.
E.
*Using of bactericidal lamps.
What stitch material of listed is potential allergen?
A.
Vikril.
B.
Polyamide.
C.
Lavsan
D.
Kapron.
E.
*Catgut.
Metilen dark blue 1 % spirit solution concerns to group:
A.
Aldehydes.
B.
Oxydes.
C.
Spirits
D.
Galoids.
E.
*Dyes.
Advantages of the Kramer’s trunk before other means of bones fracture fixing.
A.
There is no right answer
B.
Ease.
C.
Ease.
D.
Possibility of any form modeling
E.
*All answers are correct
Indications to imposing the of Yelizarov’s trunk in treatment of fracture are the following, except
for:
A.
Difficult diaphisal fracture with segments displacement.
B.
Fracture complicated by infection.
C.
Fracture with the slowed down consolidation.
C.
D.
E.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
False joint.
*Intraarticulate fracture without segments displacement.
All statements concerning a false joint correct, except for:
A.
Formed as result of non-observance necessary for consolidation of fixing fracture terms.
B.
Formed as result of bad fixing.
C.
Formed as result of incomplete reposition.
D.
Formatted as result of soft tissues interposition between bones segments.
E.
*Grows out center compression - distraction osteosynthesis.
The absolute indication to operative treatment of fracture is:
A.
Uncorrected closed reposition of segments.
B.
Slanting fracture with displacement on length.
C.
Fracture-dislocation
D.
The driven fracture.
E.
*Interposition between soft tissues segments.
Lacks of skeletal extension of fracture treatment are the following, except for:
A.
Long time forced staying the patient in bed.
B.
Possibility of osteomyelitis development.
C.
Invasive method.
D.
Bulky method.
E.
*All answers are correct
A place of Kirshner’s trunk carrying out for skeletal extension at fracture of the shoulder top
third.
A.
Bradawl shoots.
B.
Forearm.
C.
Elbow joint.
D.
There is no right answer
E.
*Elbow shoots.
A place of Kirshner’s trunk carrying out for skeletal extension at fracture of the hip top third.
A.
Calcaneal bone
B.
Patella.
C.
Tuberositas of tibia.
D.
Fibula.
E.
*There is no right answer
A place of Kirshner’s trunk carrying out for skeletal extension at fracture of the hip bottom third.
A.
Upper third of tibia.
B.
Patella.
C.
Distal segment of bones
D.
Heel.
E.
*Tuberositas of tibia.
Place of carrying out of Kirshner’s trunk for skeletal extension at fracture of the shin bottom
third.
A.
Distal segment of fractured bone.
B.
Proximal segment of fractured bone
C.
All are answers correct.
D.
Astragalus.
E.
*A calcaneal bone.
Skeletal extension is:
A.
All answers are correct.
B.
There is no right answer.
C.
Out center compression of osteosynthesis.
D.
Operative method of fracture treatment.
E.
*A conservative method of fracture treatment
Out center compression of osteosynthesis is:
A.
Method of bone plastics
B.
A method of bone escalating
C.
Method of fracture consolidation
D.
Conservative treatment of fracture.
D.
E.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
*Operative treatment of fracture.
Skeletal extension allows carrying out:
A.
Opened reposition and fixing bone segments.
B.
To warn development of an infection in a zone of fracture.
C.
Improvement of microcirculation in a zone of fracture.
D.
Fast consolidation of fracture
E.
*Closed reposition and fixing bone segments.
Metal osteosynthesis is:
A.
Method of extension.
B.
Method of transport immobilization.
C.
Kind of consolidation.
D.
Type of reposition.
E.
*A method of fixing.
Main principle transport immobilization:
A.
Struggle with pain syndrome.
B.
Prophylaxis of infection.
C.
Preventive maintenance of a shock.
D.
Control of bleeding.
E.
*Immovability of bone segments.
The basic advantage of the Kramer’s trunk.
A.
Possibility of repeated use.
B.
Ease.
C.
X-Ray contrast.
D.
Strongly.
E.
*An opportunity of any form modeling.
Dietrich’s’ trunk is imposed at:
A.
Fracture of forearm bones.
B.
Fracture of basin bones.
C.
Fracture of a shoulder
D.
Fracture of shin bones.
E.
*Fracture of hip.
Dietrich’s’ trunk except for immobilization is used for:
A.
Preventions the open fracture infectioning.
B.
Decreasing of painful sensations
C.
Consolidation of fracture.
D.
Fixation of the top finiteness bones fracture.
E.
*Primary extension and an equilibration of muscles draft force.
What dangerously premature shaving of an operational field?
A.
All answers are correct
B.
Possible decreasing of antiseptics action.
C.
Can arise an allergy.
D.
Can grow hair.
E.
*There can be an infection in case of scratches.
The first medical aid at the open fracture of bones provides following actions, except for:
A.
Applying the asepsis bandages
B.
Transport immobilization.
C.
Prophylaxis of shock.
D.
Control of bleeding
E.
*Prophylaxis of tetanus
To methods of fracture treatment the following concern, except for:
A.
Out focus compressed an osteosynthesis.
B.
Opened reposition. Metaloosteosintesis
C.
Skeletal extension.
D.
Conservative treatment (closed reposition and immobilization by plaster bandage).
E.
*Transport immobilization
What method of fixing is used after closed manual reposition more often?
A.
Applying of Yelizarov's device.
E.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
Impose skeletal tension.
Applying of Gudushauri’ device
Metaloosteosintesis.
*Impose a plaster bandage
What is important for term of bones fracture fixings?
A.
A kind of reposition.
B.
Presents of an accompanying pathology.
C.
Age of the patient
D.
Sex of patients.
E.
*Localization and a kind of fracture.
With using of Yelizarov's device, make
A.
Apparat consolidation of fracture
B.
Osteoplastic.
C.
Osteotomy.
D.
Transport immobilization.
E.
*Out focus compressed an osteosynthesis.
What refers to reposition with skeletal extension?
A.
Immobilization.
B.
One moment.
C.
Manual.
D.
Opened.
E.
*Closed, gradual
There are following kinds of reposition, except for:
A.
Manual.
B.
One moment.
C.
Opened.
D.
Closed.
E.
*Transport.
Intramedular osteosynthesis is:
A.
Fixing after closed reposition.
B.
Consolidation.
C.
Closed reposition
D.
Opened reposition.
E.
*Fixing after opened reposition.
Bone callous is formed by:
A.
Reparative epithelisation
B.
Collagen reorganization
C.
Osteoclastic mechanisms
D.
Physiologic regeneration.
E.
*Reparative regenerations
Epiphiseolisis is:
A.
Pathological epiphisis fracture.
B.
A suppuration epiphisal parts of a bone.
C.
Result of a epiphisis tumour.
D.
Destructive process in epiphisis.
E.
*Fracture on the verge of metaphis and epiphisal in a zone of bones growth.
Kinds of bone segments displacement:
A.
On width, as „ green branch”, length, on an axis.
B.
On width, under a corner, as a result of a compression.
C.
On width, circular, on Langergars’ line, on an axis.
D.
On width, on epiphisal parts, on diaphisal and metaphis.
E.
*On width, length, under a corner and on an axis.
Pathological fracture arises in result of:
A.
Actions force of own muscles reduction.
B.
Innate anomalies of development.
C.
Mechanical force which exceeds durability of a bone.
D.
Mechanical force which is equaled durability of bone.
B.
C.
D.
E.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
*Insignificant effort.
To main principles of fracture treatment the following concern, except for:
A.
Consolidation and recovering of functions.
B.
Fixation.
C.
Reposition.
D.
Transport immobilization.
E.
*Antibacterial therapy.
What method is solving in diagnostics of bones fracture?
A.
Thermograph.
B.
Ultrasonografy.
C.
Measurements.
D.
Palpation.
E.
*X-Ray.
What does not concern to bone callous?
A.
Intramedular layer
B.
Periostal layer.
C.
Endoostal layer.
D.
Periostal layer.
E.
*Diafisal layer.
What of the listed fracture is the absolute indication for opened reposition of bone segments?
A.
Fracture complicated by fatty emboli.
B.
Compressed fracture.
C.
Metaphisal fracture.
D.
Driven fracture.
E.
*Fracture with interposition of soft tissues between segments
Named the complicated fracture:
A.
Compressed.
B.
Tear-off.
C.
Spiral.
D.
Metaphisal.
E.
*Fracture of bones of a basin with break of a urethra.
Behind character of a line of fracture distinguish its following kinds, except for:
A.
Driven.
B.
Spiral
C.
Slanting.
D.
Transfers.
E.
*Z-like.
What kind of embolism can arise at massive fracture?
A.
Retrograde emboly
B.
Emboly by inner body
C.
Thromboemboly.
D.
Air.
E.
*Fat.
At what fracture absolute clinical attributes of fracture are not defined?
A.
Gunshot.
B.
Spiral.
C.
Pathological.
D.
Diaphisal.
E.
*Compressed.
When arises tear-off fracture?
A.
At displacement on periphery.
B.
At displacement under a corner.
C.
At bumper fracture.
D.
At direct action of the injuring agent.
E.
*At superfluous sharp reduction of the certain group of muscles.
Distinguish following kinds of displacement bone segments, except for:
A.
By periphery.
E.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
Under a corner.
By width.
By length.
*By circle.
Fracture as „ green branch” is:
A.
Segments fracture.
B.
Intraarticulate fracture
C.
Epiphisal fracture
D.
Metaphisal fracture
E.
*Subperioasteal fracture.
Fracture as „green branch” is:
A.
Fracture-dislocation
B.
Pathological fracture
C.
Innate fracture.
D.
Complete fracture.
E.
*Incomplete fracture.
Great bulk of fracture in a peace time make:
A.
Segments fracture
B.
Pathological fracture
C.
Congenital fracture.
D.
The open fracture.
E.
*Traumatic closed fracture
Complication of fracture:
A.
Damage of internal bodies
B.
Trauma of nervous trunks.
C.
Trauma of the main vessels.
D.
Infectioning in a wound at the open fracture
E.
*All answers are correct
The open fracture is:
A.
Fracture with damage of internal bodies
B.
Fracture with damage of a neurovascular bunch.
C.
Fracture with damage synovial environments
D.
Fracture with damage of fascia.
E.
*Fracture with infringement integrity of skin or a mucous membrane
Where is spent to transport immobilization.
A.
In a reception of hospital
B.
On policlinic
C.
In a fracture clinic
D.
In the car of first aid.
E.
*On a place of trauma reception
The following concern To the most authentic attributes of a dislocation, except for:
A.
Peripheral passes an axis of finiteness outside of an articulate hollow.
B.
A symptom of an empty articulate hollow.
C.
Change of relative length of finiteness at preservation of its absolute length.
D.
Symptom of springing fixing.
E.
*Pathological mobility
Before late complications of fracture the following concern, except for:
A.
Pathological bone callous
B.
Pathological joint.
C.
Contracture.
D.
Ankilosis.
E.
*A traumatic shock
What is the interposition of soft tissues at bones fracture?
A.
Interposition of soft tissues occurs beyond the scope of fracture
B.
Soft tissues are displaced outside through a wound.
C.
Soft tissues are displaced depending on a kind of fracture
D.
Tissues are displaced on an axis.
B.
C.
D.
E.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
*Soft tissues get between bone fragments.
Characteristic of the wound, allowing to impose early secondary seams.
A.
Edges with epithelisation.
B.
Presents of hypergranulations in a wound.
C.
Wound is covered by a scab.
D.
Wound with the counteraction and the moderate inflammation.
E.
*Massive granulations, walls of a wound scar are not changed, edges can be pull together
easily. Scar of wounds are changed
How to prepare a wound to impose secondary late seams?
A.
Made a wound by ultrasound
B.
Made the disinfection of a wound.
C.
To lead sterilization of a wound.
D.
Made a wound a pulsing jet of antiseptics.
E.
*To cut and mobilize edges of a wound.
How the second phase of wound process refers to?
A.
Phase of hydration and epithelisation
B.
Phase of an inflammation and dehydration
C.
Phase of clearing and epithelisation.
D.
Phase of hydration and dehydration.
E.
*Phase of dehydration and regenerations.
When possible healing of a wound under a scab?
A.
After imposing provisory stitch.
B.
After imposing secondary stitch.
C.
After occurrence of granulations
D.
After surgical processing.
E.
*When in a zone of a wound it is kept shoot layer of a skin.
How spend disinfection of the used surgical linen?
A.
It is centralized in sanitary dapartment in disinfection box.
B.
By means of heat case at temperature of 1200 C and pressure in 2 atm.
C.
In a dry-cleaner.
D.
In a laundry.
E.
*Washed in 0,2 % „Dezactin”solution.
How spend disinfection of subjects of care of patients?
A.
By heat case.
B.
Wash under flowing water and dry up.
C.
Boiling within 1 hour.
D.
Made of 6 % a solution of peroxide of hydrogen
E.
*Dip into 0,2 % a solution dezactin for 60 minutes.
Specify, what fracture is complicated:
A.
Metaepifizarnyj.
B.
open.
C.
Splintered.
D.
Perelomovyvih.
E.
*Fracture with damage of a neurovascular bunch
What method of fixing use after rheposition fracture as „ A green department ”?
A.
Apparat Yelizarov.
B.
Skeletal extension.
C.
Metaloosteositez intramedular.
D.
Metaloosteositez extramedular
E.
*A plaster bandage.
What rheposition use at fracture as „ a green department ” at children?
A.
The open equipment room.
B.
By means of skeletal extension
C.
By means of Yelizarov's device.
D.
Opened one-stage.
E.
*Closed, manual, one-stage.
What is object of carrying out of the bacteriological control over a surgical hospital?
E.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
Hands of the surgeon and skin of an operational field.
Stitching material.
Surgical toolkit.
Air
*All of the above.
Indication to application of Dezo’ bandage?
A.
Rupturing of forearm soft tissues
B.
Fracture of an elbow shoot.
C.
Opened pneumothorax
D.
Fracture of edges.
E.
*Fracture of clavicular.
What bandage use for bandaging of amputation part of the hip.
A.
Plaster.
B.
Spike like.
C.
Spiral.
D.
Turtle.
E.
*Rotary.
What of the listed bandages is the most expedient in case of cutting wound of heel:
A.
Plaster.
B.
Spike like
C.
Spiral.
D.
Glutinous.
E.
*Turtle.
In pairs of formalin sterilized:
A.
Gloves.
B.
Syringes.
C.
Gauze napkins
D.
Stitching material.
E.
*Tools with optics
Regional antibiotic therapy is spent by introduction of an antibiotic:
A.
Right answer is not present.
B.
Thru a gastro- enteric stoma.
C.
Hypodermically.
D.
Intramuscular.
E.
*In a vessel, which pass blood to site of the pathological center.
Indications for operative treatment of dislocations are:
A.
A habitual dislocation
B.
Interposition of soft tissues (nerve) at not set fresh dislocations
C.
Old dislocation.
D.
The opened dislocation.
E.
*All answers are correct
The most rational method of anesthesia for shoulder dislocation reposition:
A.
Epidural anesthesia.
B.
Cooling anesthesia.
C.
Conducting anesthesia.
D.
Local anesthesia.
E.
*Intravenous narcosis.
How many stages of a shoulder dislocation reposition by Kocher provides.
A.
6.
B.
3.
C.
5.
D.
2.
E.
*4
Most often dislocations are localized in:
A.
Cervical part of spinal column.
B.
Shins.
C.
Femur.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
Clavicle.
*Shoulder.
What of the listed attributes are not characteristic for dislocation?
A.
Absence of active and acute restriction of passive movements
B.
Spring fixing
C.
Deformation.
D.
Decreasing in length of extremities.
E.
*Pathological movements
A symptom of "spring" fixing is characteristic of:
A.
Distension.
B.
Pathological fracture.
C.
Pathological dislocation
D.
Traumatic fracture.
E.
*Traumatic dislocation.
The pathological dislocation is result of:
A.
Surgical treatment of old dislocation.
B.
Unsuccessful surgical treatment of habitual dislocation
C.
Weakness of a join capsule.
D.
Incorrect reposition of a fresh dislocation.
E.
*Diseases (a tumor, a tuberculosis, an osteomyelitis).
Old dislocation is a dislocation after:
A.
Diagnosed till 3 weeks.
B.
Diagnosed till 7 days.
C.
Diagnosed till 3 day.
D.
Diagnosed till 2 day.
E.
*Diagnosed after 4 weeks.
Methods of old shoulder dislocation reposition?
A.
By Cooper.
B.
By Hippocrates.
C.
By Dganelidze.
D.
By Mohair.
E.
*Surgical treatment is necessary.
The dislocations divide into:
A.
Acute, subacute, chronic.
B.
Fresh, old, acute.
C.
Old, fresh, stale.
D.
Started, old, fresh.
E.
*Fresh, stale, old.
The basic disinfectant of a surgical hospital is:
A.
Chloramine "B".
B.
Trion solution
C.
3 % hydrogen peroxide solution.
D.
6 % hydrogen peroxide solution.
E.
*0,2 % Desactin solution.
What from listed does not belong to equipment dressing?
A.
shadow lamp
B.
Heat case.
C.
Bactericidal lamp.
D.
Table for bandaging.
E.
*Autoclave.
What disinfectant properties of „ Desactin” ?
A.
Right answer is not present.
B.
Bakteriocyde and sporocyde.
C.
Tuberculocyde.
D.
Virusocyde.
E.
*All answers are correct.
The used dressing are desoyed:
D.
E.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
Laundered, sterilize and repeatedly use.
Sterilize in an autoclave and throw away.
Throw out in tanks for dust.
Burning.
*Fill in 0,2 % Desactin solution at 1 hour and throw out in tanks for dust.
How many types „ Medtest” are used for quality assurance of sterilization of tools?
A.
By one on each shelf of heat case.
B.
Two - from above and from below tool shelf.
C.
Four - on corners of heat case.
D.
One in the center of heat case.
E.
*Five - on one in corners heat case and one on middle.
How to perform the control of surgical tools sterilization in heat case?
A.
By means of a chronometer.
B.
By means of the thermometer.
C.
Test on bacteria culture.
D.
Mikulich’ test.
E.
*By means of tape „Medtest”.
How to do disinfection of thermometers?
A.
Soaking in a threefold solution washes out flowing water.
B.
Soaking in 0,2 % Desactin solution on 30 minutes also wash out under flowing water.
C.
In formalin pairs.
D.
In heat case.
E.
*Soaking in 6 % a hydrogen peroxide solution
According to the order 120 of ministry the potential carrier of a virus of an immunodeficiency can
be:
A.
Homeless.
B.
Patient with a fever.
C.
Homosexual.
D.
Drug addict.
E.
*Everyone who addresses for medical aid.
What order regulates preventive maintenance of intrahospital and professional infection of a HIVinfection.
A.
Order of the Main state health officer of Ukraine 33.
B.
Order of regional management of public health services 300.
C.
Order of ministry 720.
D.
Order of ministry 150
E.
*Order of ministry 120
Frequency of monitoring procedure of sterility of operational linen.
A.
1 time in 10 days.
B.
Once a month
C.
Once a week
D.
Once a month
E.
*Before each operation.
Treatment of an anaphylactic shock which has arisen at a hemotransfusion, includes:
A.
Introduction of antihistamines
B.
Introduction cardiac glycosides.
C.
The termination of introduction of hemotransfusion medium
D.
Introduction of glucocorticoids.
E.
*All answers are correct.
Treatment of allergic reaction to transfusion of hemotransfusion mediums.
A.
Introduction of preparations for a parenteral nutrition.
B.
Introduction crystalloid solutions with forced diuresis.
C.
Febrifuges.
D.
A haemodialysis.
E.
*Antihistamine preparations.
What sign shows pyrogenic reactions?
A.
Cyanosis of labiums.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
A tachycardia.
A headache.
A pain in muscles of extremities
*The fervescence.
To not hemolytic posttransfusional complications of reactive character do not carry:
A.
Allergic reaction
B.
An anaphylactic shock
C.
A syndrome of massive hemotransfusions
D.
Pyrogenic reaction
E.
*The air embolism.
What signs show a syndrome of massive hemotransfusions of contained blood?
A.
Augmentation of a diuresis.
B.
A potassium intoxication
C.
Citrate intoxication
D.
An acute cardiomegaly
E.
*Infringements in system of a hemostasis
Allocate the main action of prophylaxis of a hemotransfusion shock from listed.
A.
The account obstetrical history and a transfusion anamnesis.
B.
Correct realization of compatibility tests on system AV0 and the Rhesus.
C.
Correct realization of a macroscopical estimation of hemotransfusion medium.
D.
Correct record of a group accessory(belonging) of a blood of the patient in a case history.
E.
*Correct definition of a blood group accessory of the patient.
On what there should be a therapy of a hemolytic shock directed first of all?
A.
On normalization of diuresis
B.
On correction of alkalosis
C.
On correction of volume of blood circulation (VBC), flow properties of blood and
acidosis.
D.
On prevention of a syndrome disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
E.
*On the discontinuance of hemolysis and removals it products from a bloodstream.
The correctly statements is:
A.
The medical effect of a hemotransfusion is predetermined by its replaceable,
hemodynamic, immunological and disintixication action.
B.
The medical effect of a hemotransfusion is predetermined only by its stimulating action on
system of a hemostasis.
C.
The medical effect of a hemotransfusion is predetermined by its replaceable,
hemodynamic and hemostatic action.
D.
The medical effect of a hemotransfusion is predetermined only by its replaceable action.
E.
*The medical effect of a hemotransfusion is predetermined by its replaceable,
hemodynamic, hemostatic, stimulating, immunobiological, disintixication and nutritious
action.
What changes in urine at a hemolytic shock?
A.
Urine contains leucocytes.
B.
Urine contains erythrocytes.
C.
Reduction of osmotic density of urine.
D.
Rising relative density of urine
E.
*Urine contains a free haemoglobin.
The most reilable symptoms of the posttransfusion shock complication - period of increasing
renal insufficiency - is:
A.
Dormancy of the patient.
B.
Decrease of arterial pressure
C.
Tachycardia.
D.
Sharp pallor of skin
E.
*Oligoanuria.
The most reilable symptoms of incompatible transfusion hemotrasfusional mediums is:
A.
Decrease of arterial pressure.
B.
Tachycardia,hyperthermia
C.
Pallor of skin, cold sweat
B.
C.
D.
E.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
Anxiety of the patient.
*Laky plasma (hemoglobinemia).
At what fast introduction it is long kept transfusion mediums the potassium intoxication may
arise?
A.
Washed erythrocytes and packed red cells.
B.
Fresh frozen plasma and a concentrate of thrombocytes.
C.
Packed red cells, which it is impoverished by leukocytes and thrombocytes
D.
The contained blood and washed erythrocytes.
E.
*The contained blood and packed red cells.
Prophylaxis of citrate intoxications is:
A.
To introduce the contained blood (plasma) with a speed of 100 ml/min.
B.
To introduce the contained blood (plasma) with a speed of 90 ml/min.
C.
To introduce the contained blood (plasma) with a speed of 80 ml/min.
D.
To introduce the contained blood (plasma) with a speed of 60 ml/min.
E.
*To detection of patients with potential hypocalcinemia, to introduce 10ml 10% solution
of calcium gluconate on everyone of 500 ml of the contained blood.
What it is necessary to make at revealing first attributes of citrate intoxications?
A.
To introduce 5 % solution of albumin.
B.
To introduce plasma substitute, which contains sodium.
C.
To introduce plasma substitute, which contains calcium.
D.
To reduce transfusion rate of a contained blood (plasma).
E.
*To stop transfusion of contained blood (plasma), to introduce intravenously 10-20 ml of
10 % solution of calcium gluconate or 10 % solution of calcium chloride.
Conducting in a pathogeny of citrate intoxications should be counted:
A.
Hypocalcinemia and hypernatremia.
B.
Hypercalcinemia and hypernatremia
C.
Hypocalcinemia and hypokaliemia.
D.
Hypercalcinemia and hypokaliemia.
E.
*Hypocalcinemia and hyperkaliemia
Kinds of hemotransfusional complications are:
A.
Infectious transfer
B.
Predetermined defect of contraindications to transfusional therapy.
C.
Reactive character.
D.
Mechanical character.
E.
*All listed.
Estimation of tightness of the container with hemotransfusion medium is:
A.
Correctness of certification of the container
B.
Absence of hemolysis
C.
Absence of clots.
D.
Absence of bacterial pollution
E.
*Integrity of container
What control inspections and tests on compatibility are spent at autohemotransfusion?
A.
Biological test is spent only.
B.
The blood group in a bottle is determined.
C.
Only tests on compatibility.
D.
Are not spent
E.
*All researches and tests are carried out as at transfusion of donor blood.
Indications to direct blood transfusion are:
A.
Only at newborns with hemolytic anemia.
B.
At presence of the special equipment.
C.
Only at heavy, proceeding bleedings
D.
Heavy blood loss
E.
*There are no indications
For decrease of viscosity of a packed red cells directly ahead of a transfusion it is possible to add
in a bottle:
A.
50 - 100 ml of 5 % glucose solution
B.
50 - 100 ml of 5 % albumin solution.
D.
E.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
50 - 100 ml of polyglucin
50 - 100 ml of rheopolyglucin.
*50 - 100 ml of isotonic solution of sodium chloride
Contra-indication for blood reinfusion is:
A.
Bleedings in the postoperative period.
B.
Bleedings at operative interventions in occasion of goitre.
C.
Bleedings in a pleural cavity.
D.
Bleedings in abdominal cavity
E.
*Exposure of attributes or suspicion on bacterial pollution of autoblood.
Indications for exchange hemotransfusion are:
A.
Hemolytic complications after hemotransfusion.
B.
Exotoxicosis.
C.
Endotoxicosis
D.
Hemolytic disease of newborn.
E.
*All listed.
In what bones it is the most dangerous to do intrabone hemotransfusion?
A.
Calcaneum , fibula.
B.
Calcaneum, elbow.
C.
Shin-bone, humeral.
D.
Calcaneum, huckle-bone.
E.
*Huckle-bone, shin-bone.
What methods of the hemotransfusion are used in clinic?
A.
Exchange-replacement.
B.
Recurved
C.
Indirect.
D.
Direct.
E.
*All listed.
At what volume of a hemorrhage an obligatory task of transfusion therapy is normalization gastransport function of a blood?
A.
More than 40% of VBC
B.
More than 30% of VBC.
C.
More than 10% - 20% of VBC.
D.
Up to 10% volume of blood circulation (VBC).
E.
*More than 20% of VBC
The medical effect of packed white cells is:
A.
Disintixication.
B.
Hemodynamic.
C.
Stimulating.
D.
Replacing.
E.
*Immunobiological.
The medical effect of platelet concentrate is:
A.
Stimulating.
B.
Immunological.
C.
Replacing.
D.
Hemodynamic.
E.
*Hemostatic.
Medical action of transfusion of packed red cells on an recipient’ organism it is predetermined by
effect:
A.
Nutritious.
B.
Immunological
C.
Stimulating
D.
Hemodynamic.
E.
*Replacing.
At determination of Rhesus-factor by coliclone anti-D-super on surface, the result estimate after:
A.
15 minutes
B.
10 minutes
C.
5 minutes
C.
D.
E.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
2 minutes
E.
*3 minutes
At determination of a Rhesus-factor on surface by coliclone anti-D-super, the ratio between
investigated blood and standard serum should be:
A.
2:3.
B.
3:2.
C.
1:2.
D.
2:1.
E.
*1:10.
The Rhesus factor can be determined in the pattern of blood, which keep at temperature +4. + 8°С
no more than:
A.
4-5 days
B.
3-4 days
C.
1-2 days
D.
1 day.
E.
*2-3 days.
Coliclone anti-AB has shelf life:
A.
5 years.
B.
4 years
C.
3 years.
D.
1 year.
E.
*2 years.
At definition the Rhesus-factor by standard universal reagent is necessary to bring in a test-tube:
A.
3 drops of reagent and 1 drop of investigated blood.
B.
3 drops of reagent and 2 drops of investigated blood.
C.
2 drops of reagent and 2 drops of investigated blood.
D.
1 drop of reagent and 1 drop of investigated blood.
E.
*2 drops of reagent and 1 drop of investigated blood
The period of storage of native standard antiRhesus serums for methods of a conglutination at
temperature +4. + 8°C makes:
A.
5 months
B.
3 months
C.
2 months
D.
1 month
E.
*4 months
For definition of blood’ Rhesus factor-accessory of recipients, the standard anti-Rhesus serums it
is necessary:
A.
Anti-e.
B.
Anti-c
C.
Anti-E.
D.
Anti-C.
E.
*Anti-D.
For definition АВ0 attribute are used by a cross-match method the following standard
erythrocytes are used:
A.
0, А1, B, АВ with А2.
B.
B and mix А1 and А2
C.
А1, B, 0 and АВ;
D.
АВ, 0, А1, А2 and B;
E.
*А1, B and 0.
For definition of blood groups on system AB0 it is used:
A.
All is true.
B.
Indirect antiglobulin method.
C.
Reaction of conglutination with albumin.
D.
Reaction of conglutination with gelatin.
E.
*Reaction of direct agglutination to surfaces or in test-tubes.
With standart serum of 0(І) group the erythrocytes of all listed groups has agglutination, except
for:
D.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
There is no agglutination in one of the listed groups.
АВ(ІV).
B(ІІІ).
A(ІІ).
*0(І).
Natural antibodies display by following serological reactions:
A.
Conglutination with polyglucin usage.
B.
Agglutination in the salt medium at +37°С.
C.
Agglutination in the salt medium at +20°С.
D.
Conglutination with gelatin usage.
E.
*Agglutination in the salt medium at +4°С.
Shelf life of liquid coliclones for definition of blood groups АВ0 after the first use is:
A.
3 month.
B.
3 weeks
C.
2 weeks
D.
1 week.
E.
*1 month
Liquid coliclones for definition of blood groups АВ0 save at temperature:
A.
It is unimportant
B.
+10+25°.
C.
0°C.
D.
-15°C.
E.
*+2+8°C.
Coliclone anti-B has shelf life:
A.
30 months
B.
18 months
C.
12 months
D.
6 months
E.
*24 months
Coliclone anti-A has shelf life:
A.
7 years
B.
5 years.
C.
3 years
D.
6 months.
E.
*2 years
Term of aptitude of native standard hemagglutinationes serums is:
A.
5 months.
B.
4 months
C.
3 months
D.
2 months.
E.
*6 months
The following basic kinds of nonspecific agglutination at definition of blood groups АВ0 are
distinguish:
A.
Pseudo-agglutination, nonspecific agglutination of the infected blood, cold
panagglutination, polyagglutination, full panagglutination.
B.
Tomsen’ phenomenon, nonspecific cold agglutination, aggregation of erythrocytes,
panagglutination.
C.
Coaglutination of erythrocytes in monetary columns, Tomsen’ phenomenon,
polypanagglutination, panagglutination.
D.
Pseudo-agglutination, cold panagglutination, polyagglutination, panagglutination, full
panagglutination.
E.
*False agglutination, cold panagglutination, Tomsen’ phenomenon, polyagglutination and
panagglutination, panagglutination, full panagglutination.
The correct: statement that for definition of group of blood AB0 by cross-match method is
necessary:
A.
Two series of standard serums of groups A(ІІ), B(ІІІ), and standard erythrocytes of groups
0(І), А1(ІІ), B(ІІІ).
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
Two series of standard serums and standard erythrocytes of groups A(ІІ) and B(ІІІ).
Samples of standard erythrocytes of groups A(ІІ) and B(ІІІ).
One series of standard serums.
*Two series of standard serums of groups 0(І), A(ІІ), B(ІІІ), and standard standard
erythrocytes of groups 0(І), А1(ІІ), B(ІІІ).
For exception of a nonspecific agglutination at definition of blood groups AB0, the 0,9 % a
solution of sodium chloride can be added after mixing reagents Coliclones and blood not earlier
than through:
A.
5 minutes
B.
4 minutes
C.
2 minutes
D.
1 minute
E.
*3 minutes
For exception of a nonspecific agglutination at definition of blood groups AB0, 0,9 % a solution
of sodium chloride are necessary for adding after mixing hemagglutionationes serums and blood
not earlier than through:
A.
4 minutes
B.
3 minutes
C.
2 minutes
D.
1 minute
E.
*5 minutes
At definition of blood group АВ0 the volume of investigated blood (erythrocytes) should be:
A.
0,05 ml.
B.
0,04 ml.
C.
0,03 ml.
D.
0,02 ml.
E.
*0,01 ml.
At definition of blood group АВ0 the volume of a drop of standard serum should be:
A.
0,25 ml.
B.
0,2 ml.
C.
0,15 ml.
D.
0,05 ml.
E.
*0,1 ml.
At definition of blood group АВ0 by standard reagents “Coliclones” the correlation of portions
investigated blood/standard reagent should be:
A.
1:20
B.
1:5
C.
1:2.
D.
1:1
E.
*1:10
At definition of blood group АВ0, the correlation of portions investigated blood/standard serum
should be:
A.
1:20
B.
1:5
C.
1:2
D.
1:1.
E.
*1:10
Before an estimation of result at definition of group of blood AB0 by simple reaction it is
necessary to add a drop of 0,9 % of a solution of sodium chloridum to an admixture of drops of a
blood with standard serums:
A.
It is not added.
B.
A(ІІ), B(ІІІ), АВ(ІV).
C.
In a drop where agglutination is traced.
D.
A(ІІ) and B(ІІІ).
E.
*All groups.
At definition of blood group the optimum temperature in a premise should be in limits:
A.
+15 +300С
B.
C.
D.
E.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
+25 +280С.
+15 +200С
+10 +150С.
*+15 +250С.
For definition of blood group by simple reaction it is impossible to use blood, which have taken
with:
A.
Lobe of the ear.
B.
Arteries.
C.
Veins
D.
Finger
E.
*Wounds.
At determination of blood group with standard serums usage, the result is estimated not earlier:
A.
4 minutes
B.
3,5 minutes
C.
2,5 minutes
D.
2 minutes
E.
*5 minutes
The blood group of Bombay is:
A.
0(І) with antibodies anti-Н in serum.
B.
АВ(ІV) with antibodies anti-Н in serum.
C.
Any АВ0 without an antigen H.
D.
0(І) without anti-A and anti-B antibodies in serum.
E.
*In erythrocytes the antigenes АВ0 is absent.
At determination of blood group by simple reaction with coliclones usage, the result is estimated
not earlier:
A.
4 minutes
B.
3 minutes
C.
2,5 minutes
D.
2 minutes
E.
*20 seconds
At determination of blood group in system АВ0 by the cross- match with isohemagglutinationes
serums, the estimation of result is carried out not earlier,than:
A.
6 minutes
B.
4 minutes
C.
3 minutes
D.
2 minutes
E.
*5 minutes
During tests on group individual compatibility you must mix:
A.
Erythrocytes of the recipient and donor’s blood.
B.
Erythrocytes of the recipient with standard erythrocytes.
C.
Erythrocytes of the recipient with donor’s erythrocytes.
D.
Donor’s serum with erythrocytes of the recipient.
E.
*Donor’s blood with serum of the recipient.
Tests on individual compatibility of the donor and the recipient are realized:
A.
For immune antibodies in serum of the recipient.
B.
For self-sensibilization of erythrocytes of the recipient and the donor and immune
antibodies in donor's serum.
C.
For confirmation of identity of the donor and the recipient on antigenes of system AB0.
D.
For confirmation of identity of the donor and the recipient on antigenes of systems a
rhesus and AB0.
E.
*For antibodies against erythrocytes of the donor.
The rhesus an accessory is not taken into account at transfusions by the adult of transfusion
environments:
A.
Plateled concentrate.
B.
Packed white blood cells.
C.
Washed red blood cells.
D.
Packed red blood cells.
B.
C.
D.
E.
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
181.
*Plasma.
At presence in parents genotype АА and ВВ the child can have group of blood:
A.
Only B(ІІІ).
B.
Only 0(І).
C.
A(ІІ), B(ІІІ).
D.
A(ІІ).
E.
*Only АВ(ІV).
If parents have genotype АВ and B0, that the child can have blood group:
A.
All answers are correct
B.
0(I), B(III) or АВ(IV).
C.
АВ(IV) or 0(I)
D.
A(II) or B(III)
E.
*A(II), B(III) or АВ(IV).
If parents have a genotype of A0 and B0, that the child can have blood group:
A.
A(ІІ), B(ІІІ), or АВ(IV).
B.
0(І), A(ІІ), B(ІІІ).
C.
АВ (ІV).
D.
A(ІІ) and B(IІІ).
E.
*All answers are correct.
Group erythrocytic antigenic systems it is known not less:
A.
27.
B.
25
C.
21
D.
19
E.
*23.
The number of erythrocytic antigenic systems which matter in clinical transfusiology, is not less:
A.
15.
B.
13.
C.
11.
D.
9.
E.
*14.
Donors with Rhesus-negative factor of blood have phenotype:
A.
сdЕ.
B.
СdЕ.
C.
Сdе.
D.
сDе.
E.
*cdе.
Most often inhabitants of the Europe have a following antigene from group Hr:
A.
hrґ.
B.
c.
C.
d.
D.
Hr0.
E.
*е
Most often inhabitants of the Europe have an antigen of system Rh:
A.
Dc.
B.
Du.
C.
E
D.
C.
E.
*D.
What amount of blood groups on system a rhesus is known?
A.
30
B.
25.
C.
17
D.
8
E.
*27
All listed antigenes concern to antigenes of system "rhesus", except for:
A.
Hr0(d).
E.
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
189.
190.
191.
rhґґ(E)
rhґ(C)
Rh0(D)
*Кр. Rh1(F)
Bloody chimeras may be:
A.
Caused by transfusion of plasma substitutes.
B.
Predetermined by transfusion one-group plasmas.
C.
Predetermined by a weak reactivity of reagents for definition of blood group or other
antigenes.
D.
Predetermined by transfusion of compatible erythrocytes
E.
*True.
For determination of blood group by system АВ0 it is necessary direct reaction:
A.
Hyperimmune serum.
B.
One series of reagents «Coliclons»
C.
Two series of standard serums of groups A(ІІ), B(ІІІ).
D.
One series of standard serums of groups 0(І), A(ІІ), B(ІІІ).
E.
*Two series of standard serums of groups 0(І), A(ІІ), B(ІІІ), and one series of standard
serums of group AB(ІV).
Determination of blood group is based on:
A.
Hemolysis of the recipient’s erythrocytes standart serum.
B.
Agglutinations of the donor’s serum with recipient’s erythrocytes.
C.
Agglutination of the donor’s erythrocytes with recipient’s erythrocytes.
D.
Hemolysis of the donor’s erythrocytes standart serum.
E.
*Agglutination of the donor’s erythrocytes with standart serum.
Obligatory classification for a designation of blood groups of system AB0 in medical documents
is:
A.
N.N.Elansky and V.N.Shamov.
B.
K.Landsteiner
C.
Y.Yansky.
D.
International.
E.
*Combined.
Designations of blood groups “ 0, A, B, АВ ” fit with classification:
A.
N.N.Elansky and V.N.Shamov
B.
Moss
C.
Y.Yansky
D.
K.Landsteiner.
E.
*International.
The universal donor is the donor, which has blood group and a Rhesus factor:
A.
АВ(ІV) RhB.
АВ(ІV) Rh+
C.
B(ІІІ) RhD.
A(ІІ) Rh+
E.
*0(І) RhKnown versions of an antigen A are:
A.
More than 13
B.
Up to 10.
C.
4
D.
2
E.
*More than 15
The basic antigenes of system AB0:
A.
A, B, 0.
B.
А1, А2, В1, В2.
C.
А1, А2, and B
D.
A and B
E.
*A, B, 0, H.
How many now it is known antigenes of system AB0?
A.
Up to 20
B.
C.
D.
E.
192.
193.
194.
195.
196.
197.
198.
199.
200.
Up to 15
Up to 10
4
*More than 20
What statement is correct?
A.
Antigenic systems of a blood have no value for human physiology and an infectious
pathology.
B.
In antigenic systems combine only leukocytic antigenes.
C.
Group antigenic systems means only at blood transfusion.
D.
In antigenic system combine only erythrocytic antigenes.
E.
*Antigenic systems are peculiar to erythrocytes, leucocytes, thrombocytes and plasma
fibers.
Among some groups of blood antigenes the following versions are distinguish:
A.
Complex and simple antigenes
B.
Erythrocytic, leukocytic and plateled antigenes
C.
Erythrocytic and serumal.
D.
Erythrocytic and leukocytic.
E.
*Erythrocytic, leukocytic and plateled and serumal antigenes.
Antigenic system MN in erythrocytes was found:
A.
By Popov in 1928
B.
By Girshpheld and Dubiski in 1928
C.
By Blinov in 1932
D.
By K.Landsteiner in 1927
E.
*By K.Landsteiner in and Levin in 1927
The Rhesus factor for the first time were found in erythrocytes of the person and described:
A.
By Vinner in 1940
B.
By Dungern and Girshpheld in 1940
C.
By K.Landsteiner in 1940
D.
By Levin and Stetson in 1939
E.
*By Landshteiner and Vinner in 1940
The blood group АВ(ІV) for the first time were described:
A.
By K.Landsteiner in 1910
B.
By Moss in 1910
C.
By Y.Yansky in 1907
D.
By K.Landsteiner in 1901
E.
*By Dekastello and Shturly in 1902
Blood groups for the first time were open and described:
A.
By Moss in 1910
B.
By K.Landsteiner in 1900
C.
By Shattok in 1900
D.
By Y.Yansky in 1907
E.
*By K.Landsteiner in 1901
The basic component of fat emulsion is:
A.
Solutions of electrolytes
B.
Amino acids
C.
Basic solution;
D.
Water;
E.
*Emulsified vegetable fat;
Albuminous hydrolisants is a mix:
A.
High-molecular peptides and amino acids
B.
Low-molecular peptides and essential amino acids
C.
Nonessential amino acids and peptides
D.
Essential and nonessential amino acids
E.
*Amino acids and low-molecular peptides
Plasmasubstitute solution with transportation of oxygen is:
A.
Disol.
B.
Haemodez.
B.
C.
D.
E.
201.
202.
203.
204.
205.
206.
207.
208.
209.
Polypher.
Polyglucin.
*Perftoran.
Plasmasubstitute solution with complex action is:
A.
Polyglucin.
B.
Mafusol.
C.
Polypher.
D.
“Aminokrovin”.
E.
*Rheogluman.
Neohaemodez is indicated:
A.
At infringement of exchange processes.
B.
At hypoproteinemia
C.
At deficiency plasma procoagulants
D.
At hypovolaemia.
E.
*At an intoxication and disturbances of peripheral blood circulation.
Hemodez is indicated:
A.
At infringement of exchange processes
B.
At hypoproteinemia
C.
At deficiency plasma procoagulants
D.
At hypovolaemia
E.
*At intoxications and disturbances of peripheral blood circulation.
The maintenance of erythrocytes in women’s peripheral blood is:
A.
5,5 - 6,5Ч1012/l
B.
5,2 - 6,0Ч1012/l
C.
3,8 - 4,0 Ч1012/l
D.
1,5 - 3,8 Ч1012/l
E.
*3,7 - 5,0Ч1012/l
A technique of carrying out of biological test at ingection of polyglucin:
A.
After injection the first 10 and following 10 drops of a solution are done break for 3
minutes.
B.
After injection the first 5 and following 30 drops are done break for 5 minutes.
C.
After injection the first 20 and following 30 drops of a solution are done break for 3
minutes.
D.
After injection the first 10 and following 30 drops of a solution are done a break for 5
minutes.
E.
*After injection the first 10 and following 30 drops of solution are done a break for 3
minutes.
Plasmasubstitute solutions of haemodinamic actions is:
A.
Aminoblood.
B.
Polyfer.
C.
Polyglusol.
D.
Sorbitol.
E.
*Gelatinol.
Plasmasubstitute solutions of haemodinamic actions is:
A.
Laktasol.
B.
Rheopolyglucin.
C.
Neohemodez.
D.
Hemodez.
E.
*Polyglucin.
The maintenance of erythrocytes in peripheral blood in man is:
A.
5,5 - 6,5Ч1012/l
B.
5,2 - 6,0Ч1012/l
C.
3,8 - 4,0 Ч1012/l
D.
1,5 - 3,8 Ч1012/l
E.
*4,0 - 5,1Ч1012/l
The human normal immunoglobulin prescribed:
A.
For preventive measures of a poliomyelitis
C.
D.
E.
210.
211.
212.
213.
214.
215.
216.
217.
218.
For preventive measures of a staphylococcal infection;
For increase of nonspecific resistency;
For correction of hypo- and agammaglobuliaemia;
*All of the above answers are correct.
The preparation "Fibrinogen" is shown for correction:
A.
Deficiency of Kristmas’ factor
B.
Deficiency antyhaemofil globulin A.
C.
Deficiency of prothrombin.
D.
Deficiency of prothrombin complex.
E.
*Deficiency of fibrinogen
One doze of dry cryoprecipitate should contain:
A.
300 I. U.antyhaemophylic globulin.
B.
250 I. U.antyhaemophylic globulin.
C.
200 I. U.antyhaemophylic globulin
D.
50 I. U. antyhaemophylic globulin
E.
*100 I. U.antyhaemophylic globulin.
Cryoprecipitate is indicated for correction of:
A.
Deficit of prothrombin.
B.
Deficit of antythrombin-ІІІ.
C.
Deficit of thrombocytes
D.
Deficit of fibrinogen.
E.
*The factor VIII deficit (antihaemophilic globulin).
The basic medical properties of albumin is:
A.
Reduction of blood fibrinolytic activity.
B.
Increase of thrombocyte’s activity.
C.
Haemostatic property.
D.
Rheologic, increase in volume of circulating blood.
E.
*Support of colloid - osmotic pressure and desintoxication action
The basic medical properties of a protein is:
A.
Reduction of blood fibrinolytic activity.
B.
Increase of thrombocite activity.
C.
Haemostatic property.
D.
Rheologic, increase in volume of circulating blood.
E.
*Support of colloid-osmotic pressure.
The concentration of albumin solution is:
A.
25 %, 30 %, 35 %.
B.
20 %, 25 %, 30 %.
C.
10 %, 15 %, 20 %.
D.
5 %, 10 %, 15 %.
E.
*5 %, 10 %, 20 %.
A blood preparation of immune action is:
A.
Cryoprecipitate.
B.
Albumin.
C.
Fresh frozen plasma.
D.
Liophylising plasma.
E.
*Donor’s antistaphylococcal immunoglobulin
A blood preparation of stimulatory action is:
A.
Albumin solution
B.
Thrombin.
C.
Fibrin film.
D.
Cryoprecipitate.
E.
*Polibiolin.
A blood preparation of haemostatic actions, which used localy, is:
A.
Fibrinolysin.
B.
Gluconat.
C.
Thrombin.
D.
Polibiolin.
B.
C.
D.
E.
219.
220.
221.
222.
223.
224.
225.
226.
227.
*Haemostatic sponge
Preparation of blood with haemostatic actions is:
A.
Washed erythrocytes
B.
Albumin.
C.
Fibrinolysin.
D.
Polibiolin.
E.
*Fibrinogen.
A blood preparation of phybrinolitic actions is:
A.
Fresh frozen plasma
B.
Protein.
C.
Polibiolin.
D.
Albumine
E.
*Fibrinolysin.
A blood preparation of complex action is:
A.
Antistaphylococcal donor’s immunoglobulin
B.
Cryoprecipitate.
C.
Frozen red blood cells
D.
Dry plasma
E.
*Solutions of albumine and protein.
The program of transfusion therapy during operation determines by:
A.
Transfusiologist and surgeon.
B.
Surgeon and anaesthesiologist
C.
Transfusiologist.
D.
Surgeon.
E.
*Anaesthesiologist.
Modern haemopreservative is:
A.
0.9% natrium chloride
B.
Heparin
C.
Cytroglukophosfat
D.
Glugicir.
E.
*СРDА
Determining of the blood group by system АВ0 and rhesus blood factor is performed:
A.
Doctor of the department of hemotransfusional therapy.
B.
Doctor-laboratorian of the hospital clinical laboratory.
C.
Laboratoru assistant
D.
Doctor, who responsible for the organization of transfusion therapy in medical
department.
E.
*An attending doctor.
How disinfection masks for artificial ventilation of lungs after a summer residence of a narcosis is
spent?
A.
In pairs formalin.
B.
Boiling.
C.
Soaking in 6 % a solution of hydrogen peroxide.
D.
Sterilizated in an autoclave.
E.
*Wiping of 96 % of spirit.
Sanitation of the chronic centers of an infection is prevention of:
A.
Right answer is not present.
B.
Implantation infection.
C.
Endogene contact infection
D.
Exogene infection.
E.
*Haematogen endogene infections.
What steaching material has expressed „ wick” effect?
A.
Dexon.
B.
Vikril.
C.
Kapron.
D.
Lavsan.
E.
*Silk.
E.
228.
229.
230.
231.
232.
233.
234.
235.
236.
237.
238.
239.
240.
241.
242.
243.
244.
245.
246.
Antibacterial therapy of a purulent wound is:
A.
Mechanical antiseptics.
B.
The mixed antiseptics.
C.
Chemical antiseptics.
D.
Physical antiseptics.
E.
*Biological antiseptics.
Additional processing hands of the surgeon is spent:
A.
During long-term operation.
B.
After imposing of intestinal anastomosis
C.
Before mending of a wound.
D.
Before carrying out of surgical access.
E.
*All answers are correct.
What test is used for appeared on tools remains of washing solution?
A.
Hloramine.
B.
Mikulich' proba.
C.
Dezactine.
D.
Benzidine.
E.
*Phenolftaleine.
What antiseptics it is used for purpose of predsterilizing processing of tools?
A.
Eurosept.
B.
Novosept.
C.
Hloramin В
D.
Hloramin.
E.
*Dezactin.
What of the listed antiseptic tanks concerns to oxidizers?
A.
Spirit.
B.
Hloramin.
C.
Jodonat.
D.
Dioxidin.
E.
*Pergidrol.
For the physical antiseptics possesses all the listed methods, except for:
A.
Ultrasonic cavitations of a wound.
B.
Ultraviolet cavitations of a wound.
C.
Drenaging of a wound.
D.
Drying of a wound.
E.
*Processing of a wound by a pulsing jet antiseptics.
From how many stages consists the classical method of an operational field processing by Grosih
- Filonchikov?
A.
7.
B.
5.
C.
10.
D.
6
E.
*4.
Benzidine test shows:
A.
Nonorganic impurity.
B.
Organic impurity.
C.
Water scum.
D.
Washing fluid
E.
*Latent blood.
What antiseptic preparation the I.Zemelvejs used.
A.
Hydrogen peroxide.
B.
Spirit.
C.
Phenol.
D.
Carbolic acid
E.
*A solution of chloric grout.
Processing a wound by a pulsing jet is:
A.
Mechanical antiseptics.
Chemical antiseptics.
Physical antiseptics.
Biological antiseptics.
*Mixed antiseptics.
Cavitations of wounds by laser is:
A.
Byological antiseptics.
B.
Chemical antiseptics.
C.
Is not present a right answer
D.
Mechanical antiseptics.
E.
*Physical antiseptics
Named the III stage of narcosis?
A.
Agony.
B.
Awakening.
C.
Excitation.
D.
Analgesia.
E.
*Surgical.
Named the II stage of narcosis?
A.
Agony.
B.
Awakening.
C.
Analgesia.
D.
Surgical.
E.
*Excitation.
Named the I stage of narcosis?
A.
Agony.
B.
Awakening.
C.
Excitation.
D.
Surgical.
E.
*Analgesia.
For contact anesthesia used:
A.
0,5 % mercaine
B.
0,2 % lidocaine.
C.
0,5 % novocaine.
D.
0,25 % novocaine.
E.
*Dicain.
Which from this preparations does not belong to myorelaxans?
A.
Miorelaksin.
B.
Listenon.
C.
Arduan.
D.
Ditilin.
E.
*Prozerin.
There are following kinds of local anesthesia:
A.
Epidural, spinal.
B.
Conduction.
C.
Infiltrative.
D.
Contact (a skin and mucous membrane)
E.
*All answers are correct
In which situations muscular relaxants are used?
A.
If necessary long-term ventilation of lungs.
B.
For treatment of a tetanus.
C.
During laryngospasm
D.
For tracheas intubation
E.
*All answers are correct.
Kinds of the general anesthesia.
A.
Intravenous with artificial ventilation of lungs.
B.
Combined.
C.
Intravenous.
D.
Inhalation.
B.
C.
D.
E.
247.
248.
249.
250.
251.
252.
253.
254.
255.
*All answers are correct
How IV stage of a narcosis refers to?
A.
Awakenings.
B.
Excitation.
C.
Analgesic.
D.
Surgical.
E.
*Agony.
Esmarch’ narcotic mask is the typical example of:
A.
Is not present.
B.
Semi-opened contour.
C.
Semi-closed contour
D.
The closed contour.
E.
*The open contour.
Muscular relaxants acts on a level of:
A.
Cross-section-striped muscles.
B.
Nervous ganglions.
C.
Truncal structures.
D.
Nervous plexus.
E.
*Synapses.
During the general narcosis, endotracheal intubation is indicated:
A.
For prolong operations.
B.
For operations when the patient it is necessary turn on the side, on a belly.
C.
For surgical operations on sites of a head and a neck, the face.
D.
For abdominal operations, where is necessary full relaxation of muscles.
E.
*All answers are correct.
For prevention of the upper respiratory ways infringement during an intravenous narcosis which
method is used:
A.
Usage of nasal airway.
B.
Usage of oral airway
C.
Manual mandible protraction
D.
Retroflexium.
E.
*All answers are correct
For estimation of operation risk degree consider:
A.
Character of an accompanying pathology
B.
The kind of anesthesia
C.
Volume and character of operation
D.
The general condition of the patient
E.
*All of the above
For prophylaxis of postoperative purulent complication :
A.
М-, Н- cholinolitics
B.
M-cholinoblockers
C.
Hart glycosides
D.
Analgesics
E.
*Antibiotics
Analgesia is a narcosis with usage of:
A.
muscular relaxants and ALV
B.
Propofol, fentanil, myorelaxants
C.
Neyroleptics and narcotic analgesics
D.
Ketamin and fentanil
E.
*sedative solutions and narcotic analgesics
Which of specified anesthetics does not belong to inhalation?
A.
Ether, sodium oxibutirat, enfluran, isofluran
B.
Propofol, ftorotan, foran, ether
C.
Nitrogen, ether, hexenal, ftorotan
D.
Ftorotan, nitrogen dioxide, ketamin, ether
E.
*Propofol, sodium oxybutirat, ketamin.
Which of specified anesthetics belong to inhalation?
E.
256.
257.
258.
259.
260.
261.
262.
263.
264.
265.
Ether, sodium oxibutirat, enfluran, isofluran
Propofol, ftorotan, foran, ether
Nitrogen dioxide, ether, hexenal, ftorotan
Ftorotan, nitrogen dioxide, ketamin, ether
*Ether, ftorotan, etran, nitrogen oxide.
Most frequent complication of anesthesiology is:
A.
Malignant hyperthermia
B.
Acute toxic hepatitis;
C.
Intimate insufficiency;
D.
Aspiration pneumonia;
E.
*Hypoxemia and hypercapnia;
Velpo’ bandage is imposed:
A.
At fracture of forearm bones
B.
At a dislocation in an elbow joint.
C.
At fracture of a humeral bone with the purpose immobilisation
D.
At fracture collarbone with the purpose of reposition
E.
*After setting a dislocation of a shoulder with the purpose of fixing.
Dezo’ bandage impose at
A.
Right answer is not present.
B.
For auxiliary immobilisation after operation on upper extremities soft tissues.
C.
Transport immobilisation
D.
Fracture of clavicular as primary medical aid.
E.
*All answers are correct.
Occlusion bandage impose at:
A.
Piopneumothorax.
B.
To an extensive laceration of a thorax
C.
Fracture of ribs.
D.
Haemothorax.
E.
*Opened pneumothorax.
Position of extremities at imposing a bandage should be:
A.
Anatomical position.
B.
Lowered.
C.
Semi flexing
D.
Orthostatic.
E.
*Functionally position.
For gauze following bandages belong, except for:
A.
Kolosolike
B.
Crosswise.
C.
Spiral.
D.
Circular.
E.
*T-like.
The purpose of occlusion bandages:
A.
Correct answer is not present.
B.
Prophylaxis of a secondary bleeding.
C.
Prophylaxis of an air drop way of infectioning.
D.
Prophylaxis of secondary infectioning.
E.
*Hermetic closing of a wound for prevention of air hitting in a pleural cavity.
The purpose of bandaging is:
A.
Prophylaxis of implantation infections.
B.
Prophylaxis of primary infectioning.
C.
Prophylaxis of endogen infections.
D.
Prophylaxis of haematogene infections.
E.
*Prophylaxis of a secondary infection.
What is necessary to do with the tools, which used during bandaging?
A.
All answers are correct.
B.
Made the benzidine test and, if it negative, put they in hot case.
C.
If a wound is aseptic, tools are suitable for the subsequent bandagings.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
266.
267.
268.
269.
270.
271.
272.
273.
274.
Sterilized without preliminary presterilizing preparation
*Put in the store for the subsequent disinfection
Bandage has become wetting by purulent exudate and has dried to a wound. What is necessary to
do with the purpose of painless carrying out of bandaging?
A.
Inject to the patient a narcotic preparation during bandaging.
B.
Sharply, by one movement remove the bandage.
C.
To lead bandaging under a narcosis.
D.
Made local anesthesia.
E.
*Moisten a bandage with antiseptic solutions.
Bandage has the following functions, except for:
A.
Tamponade.
B.
Immobilization
C.
Occlusion.
D.
Haemostatic.
E.
*Disinfectant.
Changes bandages is obligatory in cases?
A.
Displacement from a place of imposing.
B.
Wetting by purulent exudate.
C.
Wetting by blood.
D.
At the first day after operation.
E.
*All answers are correct.
Plaster bandage produce from:
A.
The mixed tissue materials.
B.
Hydrofoil material.
C.
Linens.
D.
Synthetic material.
E.
*Gauze.
What additional means are used for imposing occlusion bandage?
A.
Gauze tampon.
B.
Pneumoshine.
C.
Kramer's trunk.
D.
Kosynka.
E.
*Tissue with rubber covering.
How the bandage is sterilized in industrial production?
A.
In sterilizer.
B.
In pairs of formalin
C.
In hot cases.
D.
In an autoclave.
E.
*Beam sterilization.
Unsterile dressing use:
A.
For processing of an operational field.
B.
For gauze tampons.
C.
For imposing on a site of a burn.
D.
For imposing on a wound.
E.
*For imposing a fixing bandage.
Named the basic kind of a dressing:
A.
Grey cotton wool.
B.
Korpia.
C.
White cotton wool.
D.
Lignin.
E.
*Gauze.
The doctrine about bandages is:
A.
Combustiology.
B.
Nurses business
C.
Traumatology.
D.
Orthopedics.
E.
*Desmurgy.
D.
E.
275.
276.
277.
278.
279.
280.
281.
282.
283.
284.
285.
286.
287.
288.
289.
290.
291.
292.
293.
A leading kind of anesthesia in a surgical cabinet of a stomatologic polyclinic is:
A.
Rectal narcosis.
B.
Spinal anesthesia
C.
Endotraheal narcosis
D.
Perydural anesthesia
E.
*Conductive anesthesia
What is the reason of early secondary bleeding?
A.
Arrosion of vessels, pushing out of a blood clot, spring down of ligature.
B.
A suppuration of a wound, arrosion of the vessels, increased the BP.
C.
Suppuration of a wound, increased the BP, spring down of ligature.
D.
Suppuration of a wound, pushing out of a blood clot, spring down of ligature.
E.
*Pushing out of a blood clot, spring down of ligature, increase the BP.
Allocation of foamy roasy blood through a mouth testifies about:
A.
All answers are right
B.
A bleeding from stomach.
C.
Bleeding from intestine.
D.
Bleeding from a mouth.
E.
*Pulmonary bleeding.
The gastro - enteric bleeding is:
A.
All answers are right.
B.
Arrosive.
C.
Hidden.
D.
Internal.
E.
*External.
What complication is possible at damage of neck and thorax large veins?
A.
All answers are right.
B.
Air embolism of a brain’ vessels.
C.
Clot embolism of a brain’ vessels.
D.
Clot embolism.
E.
*Air embolism.
To what kind of bleedings the bruise arised?
A.
All answers are right.
B.
Arrosive.
C.
Hidden.
D.
External.
E.
*Internal.
Parenchymatous bleedings are observed by damage of:
A.
Lungs.
B.
Pancreas
C.
Spleen.
D.
Liver.
E.
*All answers are right.
On what must be directed the treatment of acute blood loss first of all?
A.
Prevention of all above listed complications.
B.
Prevention of kidney insufficiency development.
C.
Prevention of DIC syndrome development.
D.
Prevention of hemotransfusion shock.
E.
*Prevention of hemorrhagic shock
A biological method of a control of bleeding is:
A.
All above listed methods.
B.
Intramuscular injection of vikasol.
C.
Intravenous injection of aminokapronic acid.
D.
Injection of adrenaline
E.
*To tampon the wound by a part of omentum or a muscle.
At what type of bleeding is mostly often applied the ligature of vessels in duration?
A.
Primary bleeding.
B.
Secondary early bleeding.
Rectum bleeding.
Gastric bleeding
*Secondary late bleeding
Named chemical substances, which are applied to a control of bleedings?
A.
Potassium chloride, heparin.
B.
Aminokapronic acid, potassium chloride.
C.
Vikasol, rheopolyglucin
D.
Aminokapronic acid, heparin.
E.
*Aminokapronic acid, vikasol.
For what localization of a bleeding by vomiting, like “a coffee grounds” is characterised ?
A.
Rectum.
B.
Colon.
C.
Trachea.
D.
Lungs.
E.
*Stomach.
In what of the listed cases it is possible air embolism?
A.
Rupturing of a humeral artery.
B.
Rupturing of lover extremities veins.
C.
Rupturing of a femoral artery.
D.
Rupturing of lover extremities veins.
E.
*Rupturing of a jugular vein.
What type of temporary control of bleeding is necessary to use in case of damage of big diameter
artery?
A.
Application of a vascular stitch.
B.
Ligation of a vessel in duration.
C.
To turn tight of a vessel.
D.
The raised position of extremities.
E.
*Application of the tourniquet.
The bleeding in a wound, which closed by seams, in early period causes:
A.
All the listed variants can be.
B.
Formation of a bruise.
C.
Formation of a phlegmon.
D.
Formation of an abscess.
E.
*Formation of a haematoma.
Secondary bleedings can be:
A.
Parenchymatous.
B.
External
C.
Venous.
D.
Arterial.
E.
*All answers are right.
At what time is developed early secondary bleedings?
A.
At the first 1-2 days after damage.
B.
At the first day after damage.
C.
At the first hours after damage.
D.
At the first minutes after damage.
E.
*At the first 3 days after damage.
What method of control of bleedings is physical?
A.
Cryomanipulations.
B.
Using of the lazer.
C.
Electro coagulation.
D.
Application of napkins, moistened in hot isotonic solution of sodium chloride.
E.
*All above listed methods
What way refers to final method of a control of bleeding?
A.
Pressing of a vessel in a wound by fingers.
B.
Application of the tourniquet.
C.
Maximum flexing of the extremities in a joint.
D.
Application of blood stop clump.
C.
D.
E.
294.
295.
296.
297.
298.
299.
300.
301.
302.
*Stitching of vessels.
To a final methods of control of bleedings refers:
A.
Biological.
B.
Chemical.
C.
Physical.
D.
Mechanical.
E.
*All above listed methods.
What of the listed methods refers to a final control of arterial bleeding?
A.
Using of haemostatic sponges
B.
Application of a cold.
C.
Pressing of an artery in duration.
D.
Application of the tourniquet.
E.
*Ligation of vessels in duration.
For what localization of bleeding sources melena is characterised?
A.
Rectum.
B.
Sigmoid colon
C.
Kidneys.
D.
Lungs.
E.
*Stomach.
What of below the listed methods of control of bleeding is physical:
A.
Tamponated of wounds.
B.
Applying of a vascular seam.
C.
Use haemostatic sponges.
D.
Using of fibrinous film.
E.
*Electro coagulation.
What principal cause of death at profuse bleeding in earlier period after its occurrence?
A.
Ishemia of a myocardium.
B.
Kidney insufficiency
C.
Ishemia of a liver.
D.
Disorders of breath
E.
*Acute blood volume decreasing.
Final result of a pulsing haematoma.
A.
Suppuration of haematoma
B.
Go down of haematoma.
C.
Organization of haematoma
D.
Calcinations of haematoma.
E.
*Formation of aneurysms.
What factor of blood curdle is absent at a hemophilia B?
A.
Factor X.
B.
Factor V ІІІ.
C.
Factor V ІІ.
D.
Factor VІ.
E.
*Factor ІХ.
What factor of blood curdle is absent at a hemophilia A?
A.
Factor X.
B.
Factor ІХ.
C.
Factor VІІ.
D.
Factor VІ.
E.
*Factor VІІІ.
Final result of clinical course of a haematoma can be:
A.
Calcinations of haematoma
B.
Go down of haematoma.
C.
Formation of aneurysm.
D.
Suppuration of a haematoma
E.
*All variants are right.
What volume of blood loss according ІІІrd of degree by V.I. Struchkov and E.V. Lutsevich’
classification.
E.
303.
304.
305.
306.
307.
308.
309.
310.
311.
312.
3000 ml.
2000 ml.
1000 ml.
500 ml.
*1500 ml.
At insignificant, but a long bleeding of the patient can live at decrease of a hemoglobin level to:
A.
30 g/l.
B.
40 g/l.
C.
50 g/l.
D.
60 g/l.
E.
*20 g/l.
Who easier transfers a blood loss?
A.
Infants.
B.
Children of preschool age.
C.
Teenagers.
D.
Men
E.
*Women.
What volume of circulation blood loss is fatal at acute bleeding?
A.
> 30 %.
B.
> 25 %.
C.
> 15 %.
D.
> 10 %.
E.
*> 50 %.
What bleedings refer to hidden?
A.
Formation of a haematoma.
B.
Bleeding in a joints cavity.
C.
Bleeding in a abdominal cavity.
D.
Bleeding in a pleural cavity.
E.
*Bleeding without clinical signes.
The most known disease, which is characterized by infringement of blood curtailing process.
A.
Tumors.
B.
A poisoning by phosphorus.
C.
Sepsis.
D.
Uremia.
E.
*Hemophilia.
What disease does not cause diapedesis bleedings?
A.
Skarlatina.
B.
Sepsis.
C.
Uremia.
D.
Avitaminosis C.
E.
*Tumor.
What of the named bleedings concerns only to internal?
A.
Arterial -venous
B.
Capillary
C.
Venous.
D.
Arterial.
E.
*Parenchymatous.
Anatomic classification of bleedings:
A.
Arterial - venous, capillary, parenchymatous bleeding.
B.
Arterial, venous, parenchymatous bleeding.
C.
Arterial, venous, capillary bleeding.
D.
Arterial, venous bleeding.
E.
*Arterial, venous, capillary, parenchymatous bleeding.
The haematoma, which is connect to a gleam of the injured artery, named:
A.
The generated haematoma
B.
A haematoma-extravazat
C.
The organized haematoma
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
313.
314.
315.
316.
317.
318.
319.
320.
321.
Extravazat
*A pulsing haematoma.
. System C4 consists of what components?
A.
33 % of hydrogen peroxide and 6% of ant acid
B.
3 % of hydrogen peroxide and 85 - 100% of ant acid
C.
Gebintan and 85 - 100% of ant acid
D.
6% of hydrogen peroxide and 50% of ant acid
E.
*33 % of hydrogen peroxide and 80 - 100% of ant acid
What parity of 20% of chlorhexidine water solution and 70% of spirit for preparation of 0,5% of
chlorhexidine biglukonate solution, should be?
A.
1:10
B.
1:50
C.
1:1
D.
1:20
E.
*1:40
What spirit is used for preparation of 0,5 % of chlorhexidine biglukonate spirits solution?
A.
100%
B.
40%
C.
50%
D.
96%
E.
*70 %
What optimal method of air disinfection in operation-room:
A.
Damp cleaning of operation-room with using disinfectors.
B.
Using of conditioners.
C.
An adequate exchange of air.
D.
Airing operational
E.
*Using of bactericidal lamps.
What stitching material of listed is potential allergen?
A.
Vikril.
B.
Polyamide.
C.
Lavsan
D.
Kapron.
E.
*Ketgut.
Ventilation in operation-room should provide:
A.
Exchange of air does not undertake by attention.
B.
Exchange of air 2 times during operation.
C.
Exchange of air after each operation.
D.
Exchange of air of 1 times at hour.
E.
*An exchange of air 3 - 4 times at hour
Optimal humidity in operation-room.
A.
100 %
B.
40 %.
C.
90 %
D.
70 %
E.
*50 %
What temperature of air should be in operation-room?
A.
18 - 200 C.
B.
25 - 300 C
C.
19 - 200 C
D.
17 - 190 C
E.
*22 - 250 C
1 % spirits solution of methylene blue concerns refer to group of:
A.
Aldehyds.
B.
Oxidants.
C.
Spirits.
D.
Galloids.
E.
*Dyes.
D.
E.
322.
323.
324.
325.
326.
327.
328.
329.
330.
331.
332.
333.
334.
335.
336.
337.
338.
339.
340.
Who has offered, for the first time, a technique of surgical dissection of borders, wolves and a
bottom of a wound?
A.
Bergman
B.
Zemelvejs
C.
Lister.
D.
Pirogov.
E.
*Fridrich.
What tissues of a human body mostly sensitive to traumas?
A.
Peritoneum
B.
Muscles
C.
Mucous membranes.
D.
Skin
E.
*Fascias and ligaments
The probability of wound infections development depends, except for:
A.
Condition of local and general factors of protection.
B.
. Localization of wound.
C.
Virulence of microorganisms.
D.
Number of bacteria on 1 gram of a tissues.
E.
*Carrying out of primary surgical processing under the general anesthesia.
At primary surgical processing a wound it is not recommended:
A.
All answers are incorrect.
B.
Tamponade tightly a wound by a gauze tampon.
C.
Applying a primary stitch on a nerve.
D.
Broad delete viable bone fragments.
E.
*All answers are right.
All from listed are risk factors of a wound suppuration, except:
A.
Irradiation of a wound.
B.
Adiposity.
C.
Diabetes.
D.
Hypovitaminosis.
E.
*Protein of blood about 78%.
Biological value of granulation tissue is:
A.
Encapsulate the extraneous things in a wound.
B.
Flow out of wound secret, which has bactericidal and fermentative action.
C.
Lisating action on necrotic tissues.
D.
Formatted the zone of demarcation
E.
*All answers are right.
Healing a wound by a primary tension the most probable:
A.
All answers are not right.
B.
108 bacteria in 1 gram of a tissue on wound edge
C.
105 bacteria in 1 gram of a tissue on wound edge
D.
106 bacteria in 1 gram of a tissue on wound edge
E.
*104 bacteria in 1 gram of a tissue on wound edge
Named the second damage zone at a gunshot wound?
A.
All answers are not right
B.
Zone of molecular necrosis
C.
Zone of indirect traumatic necrosis
D.
Zone of cellular necrosis
E.
*Zone direct traumatic necrosis.
Named the first damage zone at a gunshot wound?
A.
Zone of cellular concussion
B.
Zone of molecular concussion
C.
Traumatic parabiosis
D.
Traumatic necrosis
E.
*Wound channel.
What wound, from above listed, is most bacterial polluted?
A.
Chopped.
Stab.
Poisoned.
Cut
*Bite.
Healing a wound under a scab is:
A.
Healing of a wound by infiltration.
B.
Healing under a bandage
C.
Variant of healing by a secondary tension.
D.
Variant of healing by a primary tension.
E.
*An especial, independent kind of healing of wounds.
In what place of a human body the granulating tissue is present in norm?
A.
In a tonsil.
B.
On mucous of rectum
C.
On mucous of stomach
D.
In a mouth
E.
*Granulating tissue is not present.
Wound primary surgical processing is divided to stages:
A.
Replace of the damaged tissues integrity, suturing.
B.
Evacuation of extraneous things, a haemostasis.
C.
Dissection of edges, walls and bottom of a wound.
D.
Cutting of a wound and revision of wound channel.
E.
*All answers are right.
The functional rest after primary surgical processing a wound of extremities reached by:
A.
Applying of aseptic bandage.
B.
Using UHF on a wounds.
C.
Hypothermia.
D.
Bed regimen
E.
*Immobilization.
What site of human body is most adverse for healing a wound?
A.
Chest
B.
Brush.
C.
Perineum.
D.
Neck.
E.
*Foot
What site of a human body which optimum for healing a wound:
A.
Forearm
B.
Abdomen.
C.
Foot.
D.
Femur.
E.
*Face.
Specify the most powerful risk factor of a wound suppuration after primary surgical processing.
A.
The microbe-polluted wound.
B.
Crushed wound
C.
Chopped wound
D.
Absence of antibiotic -preventive maintenance
E.
*Heavy diabetes mellitus of the patient.
Drainage by Redon it:
A.
Control drainage
B.
Flowing drainage.
C.
Through drainage
D.
Passive drainage.
E.
*Active drainage.
What most rational method of drainaging at presence of an extensive deep purulent wound?
A.
By polichlorvinil tubes
B.
By ruble strips.
C.
By Redon’s method.
D.
Gauzed tampons
B.
C.
D.
E.
341.
342.
343.
344.
345.
346.
347.
348.
349.
*Flowing - washing
To extracorporeal methods of detoxycation belongs:
A.
Application of entheral sorbents
B.
Using of desintoxicative solutions.
C.
Forced diuresis.
D.
Programming haemodillution.
E.
*Lymphosorbtion.
What is a main component of the general treatment of the patient with a purulent wound?
A.
Immune-corrective therapy
B.
Anti-inflammatory therapy.
C.
Ultra violet irradiation of wound.
D.
Detoxication.
E.
*Antibacterial therapy.
Action of Trypsin is:
A.
Dehydratation action.
B.
Disinfectant action
C.
Anti-inflammatory action.
D.
Antiseptic action
E.
*Necrolitic action.
Hydrogen peroxide is chemical antiseptics of group:
A.
Detergents
B.
Aldehyds
C.
Spirits
D.
Galloids
E.
*Oxidants
Specify modern antiseptics against infection caused by B. pyocyaneus
A.
1 % of Iodopiron
B.
Povidon - iodin.
C.
Eurosept.
D.
Novosept.
E.
*1 % dioxidine solution.
Which named of antiseptic tanks you use in treatment of infection caused by B. pyocyaneus?
A.
0, 5 % of liquid ammonia solution.
B.
1 % iodinate
C.
1 % of spirits brilliant green solution
D.
1 % of chloramin B solution
E.
*2 % of boric acid solution
What ointment should be used in ІІnd phase of wounds’ process?
A.
Ophlocaine
B.
Streptonitol.
C.
Levomicol
D.
Levosin.
E.
*Metiluratsil.
Ointment, which is used for treatment of a wound in ІІnd phase of wounds’ process, should be
prepared:
A.
On indifferent base.
B.
On fatty base with adding of corticosteroids.
C.
On antiseptic substance base
D.
Fatty base
E.
*Hydrofoil base.
Which of the listed ointments are used in ІІnd phase of wounds’ process:
A.
Ftorokort.
B.
Hydrocorthyzon.
C.
Pantestine.
D.
Methyluracil.
E.
*Levosin
Main wound treatments purposes in ІІІ phase of wounds’ process.
E.
350.
351.
352.
353.
354.
355.
356.
357.
358.
359.
Stimulation of granulations development.
Dehidratation.
Stimulation of regeneration
Cleaning of a wound.
*Stimulation of epithelization.
The gunshot wound is considered:
A.
Probationary polluted.
B.
Necrotic.
C.
Purulent.
D.
Aseptic.
E.
*High bacterial polluted.
Purpose of secondary surgical processing of a wound:
A.
An adequate drainage of wound.
B.
Dissection of necrotic tissues.
C.
Disclosing of secondary purulent cavities and heats.
D.
Opening of the purulent focus.
E.
*All answers are right.
Basic purpose of secondary surgical processing a wound.
A.
Removal of necrotic tissues.
B.
Applying of late secondary stitches.
C.
Applying of early secondary stitches.
D.
Control of secondary bleeding.
E.
*Try to clean a wound.
Basic purpose of wound primary surgical processing:
A.
The prevention of a suppuration in a wound.
B.
Evacuation of extraneous things
C.
Evacuation of necrotic tissues.
D.
Control of bleeding.
E.
*Transformation of a wound from infected to a clean and closing by primary stitches.
When fasten provisory stitches apply?
A.
At of 7-8th days after primary surgical processing
B.
At 7-8th days after liquidation of wound suppuration.
C.
Occurrence of regional epithelization.
D.
Occurrence of granulation tissues.
E.
*On 1 - 5 day after imposing at absence of inflammatory process attributes in a wound.
What is provisory stitch?
A.
It is a version of an early secondary stitch.
B.
Stitch, which apply till development of granulation tissues.
C.
Stitch, which apply after development of granulation tissues.
D.
Variety of a primary stitch.
E.
*Stitch, which apply on a wound, but do not fasten.
Primarily-lated stitch apply in case of:
A.
Primarily surgical processing of the infected wound.
B.
Primarily surgical processing of bite wounds
C.
Secondary surgical processing of a wound.
D.
Late primary surgical processing of a wound.
E.
*When the risk of an infection development in a wound is probable.
An obligatory condition at application of late secondary stitch is:
A.
Appearance of regional epithelization.
B.
Inflammation in a wound decreased
C.
Adequate general anesthesia
D.
Washing of a wound by antiseptics.
E.
*Dissection of wound edges.
Most difference between of the wounds’ healing after applying of early and late secondary
stitches is:
A.
Character of stitching that is used.
B.
Intensity of inflammation attributes in a wound.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
360.
361.
362.
363.
364.
365.
366.
367.
368.
Intensive cleaning of wounds from necrotic tissues.
Intensive formation of granulations.
*Formation of a scar tissues that does impossible rapprochement of a wound edges and
healing.
Indications for primary surgical processing of wound are:
A.
All answers are right.
B.
Plural gunshot wounds.
C.
Plural stab wounds without damage of internal organs.
D.
Presence of infection development attributes in a wound.
E.
*Different casual wound during up to 48 - 72 hours from the moment of drawing.
After primary surgical processing a wound do not stitch at:
A.
Localizations of a wound in foot
B.
In late primary surgical processing of a wound
C.
Massive damage of tissues (the crushed wound)
D.
Mostly pollution by the earth of a wound.
E.
*All answers are right.
Main difference of a wounds’ healing by secondary tension from healing by a primary tension is:
A.
Development of connecting tissues.
B.
Cosmetic defect
C.
Formation of infiltrate
D.
Terms of healing
E.
*Development of a granulation tissues
Healing of wound by a secondary tension occurs at:
A.
Presence of necrotic tissues in a wound.
B.
Presence of haematomas in a wound, foreign bodies.
C.
Major defect of skin
D.
Mostly microbic pollution in a wound.
E.
*All answers are right
Classical types of wounds’ healing are:
A.
No one of listed is not classical type.
B.
Healing under a scab.
C.
Healing by a secondary tension
D.
Healing by a primary tension.
E.
*All above listed.
Specify the basic condition necessary for healing of a wound by a primary tension?
A.
Satisfactory general condition of the patient
B.
Absence of necrotic tissues in a wound
C.
Absence of haematomas and foreign bodies in a wound
D.
Dense connection of a wound edges
E.
*Absence of infection in a wound.
Determinative factor, which influences healing of a wound is:
A.
Sex of the patient
B.
Patients weight
C.
Condition of immune protection of an organism.
D.
Age of the patient.
E.
*Condition of blood supply in a zone of wound.
In what site of a body the wound are healed most quickly?
A.
Foot.
B.
Hip
C.
Loin.
D.
Brush.
E.
*Head
Named the third zone of damage at gunshot wound:
A.
Zone of traumatic parabiosis
B.
Zone of direct traumatic necrosis.
C.
Zone of granulations
D.
Wound channel.
C.
D.
E.
369.
370.
371.
372.
373.
374.
375.
376.
377.
*A zone of molecular contussion.
What determines intensity of a bleeding during damage?
A.
All answers are right
B.
Condition of systems and local hemodynamics
C.
Character of the wounding instrument.
D.
Localization of wound.
E.
*Presence of large vessels damaging (arteries and veins)
What wound for occurrence anaerobic infections potentially menacing is:
A.
Stub
B.
Lacerated.
C.
Cut
D.
Slash
E.
*Gunshot
Which phases according to classification by Cuzin of the wounds’ process?
A.
Vessel changes, regenerations, granulations.
B.
Hydrations, alterations, epithelization.
C.
Inflammation, exudation, regeneration.
D.
Inflammation, cleaning of wounds, epithelization.
E.
*Inflammation, regeneration, formation of scar.
At what kind of a wound damaged of surrounding tissue are most of all?
A.
Stub.
B.
Slash
C.
Cut
D.
Bite
E.
*Gunshot
At what kind of a wound damaged of surrounding tissues are less of all?
A.
Stub.
B.
Slash
C.
Gunshot.
D.
Bite
E.
*Cut
Depending on microbic pollution and local clinical signs all wounds are divided on:
A.
Purulent
B.
Infected
C.
Microbe - polluted.
D.
Aseptic
E.
*All answers are right
Depending on microbic pollution all wounds are divided on:
A.
Purulent
B.
Contaminated
C.
Conditional contaminate
D.
Aseptic
E.
*All answers are right
Critical level of microbic pollution in a wound:
A.
108 bacteria in 1 gram of tissue
B.
103 bacteria in 1 gram of tissue
C.
107 bacteria in 2 grams of tissue
D.
106 bacteria in 1 gram of tissue
E.
*105 bacteria in 1 gram of tissue
How the first phase of wound process by Cuzin, is named?
A.
Epithelization
B.
Regeneration
C.
Dehidratation
D.
Hydratation
E.
*Inflammation
How the third phase of wound process, by Cuzin, is named?
A.
Regeneration and granulation.
E.
378.
379.
380.
381.
382.
383.
384.
385.
386.
387.
Vascular changes and wounds cleanings.
Dehidratation and epithelization
Hydratation and alteration.
*Formations and stitch reorganization
Rabies is transmitted through
A.
Stub wound
B.
Poisoned wounds
C.
Crushed wounds
D.
Cut wound.
E.
*Bite wounds
The zone of molecular concussion, direct traumatic necrosis and wound canal, is characterized of:
A.
Bite wound
B.
Slash wound
C.
Surgical wound
D.
Cut wound
E.
*Gunshot wound
By microbic concentration all wounds are divided on:
A.
Purulent
B.
Aseptic
C.
Microbic - polluted.
D.
Infected.
E.
*All answers are right
In dependence of the relation of the wounded defect to cavities of a body all wounds are divided
on:
A.
Plural
B.
Tangenital.
C.
Through.
D.
Blind
E.
*Penetrated
According morphological features all wounds are divided on
A.
Slash
B.
Cut.
C.
Stub.
D.
Lacerated
E.
*All answers are right
According to character of tissue injury all wounds are divided on:
A.
Bite
B.
Cut
C.
Stub
D.
Gunshot
E.
*All answers are right
The most informative and reliable method of a bleeding diagnostic in a abdominal cavity is:
A.
Gastroscopy
B.
Magnet - resonant tomography
C.
Computer diagnostics
D.
Ultrasonic investigation
E.
*Laparocentesis.
What method of a temporary control of bleeding at full rupturing of the main artery is most
rational?
A.
Tight tamponade.
B.
Application of a clump on a vessel.
C.
Bandaging of a vessel in duration
D.
Ligation of a vessel in a wound.
E.
*Temporary shunting.
To methods of final control of a bleeding do not refer:
A.
Ligation of the vessel in duration.
B.
Vessel stitch.
B.
C.
D.
E.
388.
389.
390.
391.
392.
393.
394.
395.
396.
Bandaging of vessel
Ligation of vessel.
*Application of a clump on a vessel.
At what localization of bleeding, the basic method of a haemostasis tamponade is?
A.
Lung.
B.
Arteria.
C.
Uterine
D.
Parenhima.
E.
*Nose.
Preparations which do not belong to haemostatic resorbtion actions solutions:
A.
Vikasol.
B.
Dicinon.
C.
Calcium chloride.
D.
Epsilonaminokapronic acid.
E.
*Fibrinolisin.
What preparat at local anesthesia add to a novokaine solution with the purpose of preventive
maintenance of a bleeding?
A.
Calcium gluconat.
B.
Fibrinogen.
C.
Hydrogen peroxide.
D.
Thrombin.
E.
*Adrenaline.
How to stop a bleeding from a bone canal, after trepanation of tibial bone?
A.
Bandaging of vessels.
B.
Stitching of vessels.
C.
Electrocoagulation.
D.
Tamponade with a hot physiological solution.
E.
*Tamponade the moved rag of a muscle.
Named the most effective biological origin substance, on this time, for a local haemostasis at
parenchimal bleeding.
A.
Fibrinogen.
B.
Fibrin glue.
C.
Haemostatic sponges
D.
Thrombin.
E.
*Tahokomb.
How to stop a bleeding from dyploithyc veins of a skull at operation of trepanation.
A.
Bandaging of veins.
B.
Stitching of veins.
C.
Electrocoagulation.
D.
Hydrogen peroxides
E.
*"To close up" with wax or paraffin.
Who has offered for the first time imposing ligature on a vessel.
A.
Vilizy.
B.
Galen.
C.
Avitcena.
D.
Gippokrat.
E.
*Ambruaz Pare
Named the universal inhibitor, which influences for all phases of blood curtailing.
A.
Fibrinogen.
B.
Streptokinaza.
C.
Fibrinolisinum.
D.
Protamin sulfate
E.
*Heparin.
Named the second phase of curtailing of blood.
A.
Synthesis of prothrombin.
B.
Formation of thrombin.
C.
Formation fabric thromboplastine.
C.
D.
E.
397.
398.
399.
400.
401.
402.
403.
404.
405.
Formation of a blood clot.
*Transition prothrombin in thrombin.
Named the first phase of curtailing of blood.
A.
Transfer of prothrombokinase to thrombin.
B.
Recaltification.
C.
Synthesis of prothrombin.
D.
Formation of fibrin.
E.
*Formations of blood and fabric thromboplastine.
Named the ІІІ stage of blood curtailing.
A.
Transfer of prothrombokinase to fibrin.
B.
Fibrinolithic
C.
Synthesis of prothrombin.
D.
Recaltification.
E.
*Formations of fibrin.
Who the author of the curtailed system blood functioning theory is?
A.
Shamov.
B.
Janskiy
C.
Wiener.
D.
Landzhtejner
E.
*Shmidt.
How many factors of curtailed system of blood on this time are known?
A.
14.
B.
12.
C.
10.
D.
9.
E.
*13.
For what maximal term to application of the tourniquet during the winter period it is possible:
A.
4 hours
B.
45 mines
C.
3 hours
D.
30 mines.
E.
*2 hours.
During what time to application a tourniquet on in the summer period is possible:
A.
2 hours.
B.
45 mines.
C.
1 hour.
D.
30 mines
E.
*90 mines
What complication can arise at application of the tourniquet on an average third of shoulder:
A.
Erysipelas.
B.
Trauma of muscles.
C.
Necrosis of skin
D.
Haematoma.
E.
*Trauma of an elbow nerve.
To a temporary control of bleedings refers all listed methods except of:
A.
Application of a clump on a vessel.
B.
Pressing of a vessel by a finger.
C.
Application of pressing bandages
D.
Application of the tourniquet.
E.
*All answers are right
Volume of circulating blood is:
A.
All answers are incorrect.
B.
Quantity of erythrocytes and plasmas of blood
C.
Blood in vessels and blood in depot
D.
Intravascular fluid
E.
*Uniform elements of blood and plasma
Haematocrit’s normal level is:
D.
E.
406.
407.
408.
409.
410.
411.
412.
413.
414.
415.
41 - 50 %
50 - 55 %
50 - 60 %
35 - 40 %
*44 - 47 %
Relative specific gravity of blood in norm is:
A.
All answers are incorrect
B.
1005 - 1025
C.
1010 - 1020.
D.
1065 - 1080.
E.
*1057 - 1060.
Typical complaints of the patient with a bleeding are:
A.
Vertigo.
B.
Dark spot in opinion of.
C.
Noise in ears.
D.
"Front sights" of eyes.
E.
*All answers are right.
A clinical symptoms of bleeding is:
A.
Decrease of arterial pressure.
B.
Tachycardia.
C.
Damping skin.
D.
Pale skin.
E.
*All answers are right.
Name compensative-adaptive mechanisms of a local hemostasis.
A.
Right answer is not present.
B.
Reduction of intima into a gleam of the ruptured vessel.
C.
Formation of thromb.
D.
Vessel spasm
E.
*All answers are right.
Who has offered a tourniquet for a control of bleeding?
A.
Dupjuitren.
B.
Larrej.
C.
Bujalsky.
D.
Pirogov.
E.
*Еsmarh.
During examination of patient in a place of road accident, the ambulance surgeon has found
wounds with the intensive arterial bleeding from vessel, which is precisely visible in a wound.
Named the most rational method of a temporary control of bleeding.
A.
Manual pressing of a vessel in duration.
B.
Application the pressing bandage
C.
Ligation of the vessel
D.
Application of the tourniquet.
E.
*Application on a vessel clump .
Who for the first time has offered a vascular seam?
A.
V.Karavaev.
B.
M.Pirogov
C.
S.Judin
D.
T.Bilrot.
E.
*A.Karrel.
The pulsing hematoma can be transformed to:
A.
Spindle-like aneurysm.
B.
Exfoliation aneurysm
C.
Arterio-venous shunt.
D.
Real aneurysm
E.
*False posttraumatic aneurysm
What is the pulsing hematoma?
A.
Hematoma near arterio-venous aneurysms
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
416.
417.
418.
419.
420.
421.
422.
423.
424.
Hematoma into a cavity of pericardium.
Hematoma which is localized near of big diameter artery.
Hematoma, which localized near aorta.
*Hematoma, which is connected to a gleam of a large arterial vessel
How to stop intensive later secondary arterial bleeding from a purulent wound?
A.
Ligation of the vessel in a wound.
B.
Ligation of the vessel.
C.
Tamponade a wound
D.
Make a vascular stitch.
E.
*Ligation of the vessel in a duration.
The most effective preventive maintenance of secondary bleedings from a wound:
A.
Application of haemostatic preparations.
B.
Using of hydrogen peroxide.
C.
Tamponade of a wound by napkins with hot physiological solution.
D.
Appluing of haemostatic sponges.
E.
*High-grade primary surgical processing a wound.
Typical symptoms of parenchymatous bleeding:
A.
Quick development of acute anemia.
B.
Vessels are not fallen down.
C.
Bleeding stops hardly.
D.
Bleeding’ vessels are fixed in stroma.
E.
*All answers are right.
Later secondary bleeding arises owing to:
A.
Throw out of thromb from a vessel.
B.
Liquidation of a vessel spasm.
C.
Spring down of ligature from a vessel.
D.
Increase of arterial pressure.
E.
*Developments of an infection in a wound.
. The early secondary bleeding is result of:
A.
Spring down of ligature from a vessel.
B.
Liquidation of a vessel spasm.
C.
Increase of arterial pressure.
D.
Throw out of thromb from a vessel.
E.
*All answers are right.
A accumulation of blood, limited between tissues is:
A.
Hemartrozis.
B.
Hemothorax
C.
Hemoperitoneum
D.
Hemorrhage
E.
*Haematoma
A haemorrhage is:
A.
An outflow of blood from a vessel in the internal cavities.
B.
Outflow of blood from a vessel outside.
C.
Accumulation of blood in a cavity.
D.
Accumulation of blood between tissues.
E.
*Diffuse infiltration of blood into different tissues.
Massive blood loss is:
A.
Loss more then 20 % of VCB (more then 2000 ml)
B.
Loss more then 40 % of VCB (more then 1800 ml)
C.
Loss more then 25 % of VCB (more then 1500 ml)
D.
Loss more then 50 % of VCB (more then 2500 ml)
E.
*Loss more then 30 % of VCB (more then 2000 ml)
Blood loss of meddle degree of volume is:
A.
Loss 10 - 12 % of VCB | (700 - 1000 ml)
B.
Loss 20 - 30 % of VCB (1500 - 2000 ml)
C.
Loss 20 - 35 % of VCB (1000 - 1400 ml)
D.
Loss 10 - 15 % of VCB (500 - 700 ml)
B.
C.
D.
E.
425.
426.
427.
428.
429.
430.
431.
432.
433.
*Loss 15 - 20 % of VCB (1000 - 1400 ml)
Criteria of correct application of the turniquet:
A.
All answers are incorrect.
B.
Pale and cold extremities
C.
Absence of a peripheral pulsation.
D.
Stopping of bleeding.
E.
*All answers are right.
Haemorragic shock is the part of:
A.
Distributive shock.
B.
Isovolemic shock.
C.
Traumatic shock.
D.
Hypervolemic shock
E.
*Hypovolemic shock
The best indicator of adequate repair volume of blood circulation after a trauma is:
A.
Color index
B.
Normalization the PB
C.
Saturation
D.
Haematocrit
E.
*Urination
Specify the minimal blood loss volume, which is shown by clinic of shock:
A.
60 % of VCB
B.
40 % of VCB
C.
30 % of VCB
D.
15 % of VCB
E.
*20 % of VCB
The spleen deposits:
A.
50 % of VCB
B.
5 % of VCB
C.
OF 10 % of VCB
D.
35 % of VCB
E.
*Up to 16 % of VCB
The liver deposits:
A.
35 % of VCB
B.
15 % of VCB
C.
5 % of VCB
D.
10 % of VCB
E.
*20 % of VCB
What parameter characterizes a stage of haemodilutions:
A.
Quantity of erythrocytes.
B.
Level of hemoglobinQuantity of erythrocytes.
C.
Haematocrit.
D.
Specific gravity of blood.
E.
*All answers are right.
Loss 20 - 30 % VCB respond to volume of:
A.
All answers are not right.
B.
> 2000 ml.
C.
1000 - 1400 ml.
D.
500 - 700 ml
E.
*1500 - 2000 ml.
The volume of blood loss of IV degree is:
A.
< 10 % VCB.
B.
> 30 % VCB
C.
15 - 20 % VCB
D.
10 % VCB
E.
*20 - 30 % VCB
The compensative - adaptive mechanisms of bleeding are:
A.
Inflow of interstitial fluid.
E.
434.
435.
436.
437.
438.
439.
440.
441.
442.
443.
Discharge of blood from bodies’ depot.
Venospasm.
Tachikardia.
*All answers are right.
The reason of early secondary bleedings.
A.
Developed of an infection in a wound.
B.
Hypocoagulation.
C.
Destruction of a vessel
D.
Arrosion of a vessel.
E.
*Spring down of ligature from the vessels.
The principal reason of late secondary bleedings.
A.
Hypovitaminosis.
B.
Disorders of a vascular wall permeability.
C.
Hypocoagulation.
D.
Changing of local hemodynamics.
E.
*Arrosion of a vascular wall
Bleedings in a cavity named:
A.
Hemartrosis.
B.
Haemothoracs.
C.
Haemopericardium.
D.
Haemoperitoneum.
E.
*All answers are right
Vomiting as „a coffee grounds” is an attribute:
A.
Nose bleeding.
B.
Latent bleeding.
C.
Pulmonary bleeding.
D.
Intestinal bleeding.
E.
*Gastric bleeding.
Hematuria is:
A.
Haematoma around of urine bladder.
B.
Bruise in urround-urine-bladder space.
C.
Bleeding in urround -urine-bladder space.
D.
Bleeding in a kidney
E.
*Bleeding in urine ways.
Hemobilia is:
A.
A hemorrhage in a pancreas.
B.
Bruise in a liver
C.
Bleeding in a abdominal cavity.
D.
Bleeding in a liver.
E.
*A bleeding in bile ducts.
Hemothorax is result of:
A.
Mixed bleeding
B.
Hematoma.
C.
Bruise.
D.
External bleeding.
E.
*Internal bleeding.
The reason of a bleeding during hemorrhagic vasculitis:
A.
Hypocoagulation.
B.
Hypovitaminoz.
C.
Arrosion of a vessel
D.
Rupturing of a vessel.
E.
*The increasing of a vascular wall permeability.
The reasons of a stomach tumor bleeding are occurrence:
A.
No one answers are right.
B.
Bleeding as result of hydrochloric acid action.
C.
Bleeding as result of mechanic ruptured of a vessel wall.
D.
Bleeding as result of infringement of a vascular wall permeability.
B.
C.
D.
E.
444.
445.
446.
447.
448.
449.
450.
451.
452.
*Bleeding as result of arrosion of vessel.
The most frequent reason of bleeding is:
A.
Bleeding as result of decay of a tumor.
B.
Bleeding by infringement of a vascular wall permeability
C.
Bleeding by necrosis of the vessel.
D.
Bleeding by arrosion of the vessel.
E.
*Bleeding, as result of mechanic ruptured of the vessel.
Flow out of blood to outside from the ruptured vessel is:
A.
No one answers are right.
B.
A hemostasis.
C.
Hematoma.
D.
Bruise.
E.
*Bleeding.
What of the listed factors can be a source of an infection?
A.
Venous catheter
B.
Tracheostomy tube.
C.
Pleural drainage
D.
Urine catheter
E.
*All answers are correct
Exogenic way of an infection hitting to a wound is?
A.
Implantational infection
B.
Contact infection
C.
Dropping infection
D.
Ear infection
E.
*All the listed ways
What duration of a dressing sterilization with operational linen under pressure of 1,5 аtm.?
A.
1,5 hours.
B.
30 minutes
C.
1 hour.
D.
2 hours.
E.
*45 minutes
What duration of dressing sterilization with operational linen under pressure of 2 аtm.?
A.
1,5 hours
B.
1 hour.
C.
45 minutes
D.
2 hours.
E.
*30 minutes
A source of endogenic infections:
A.
An antritis.
B.
Chronic adnexitis
C.
Chronic tonsillitis.
D.
Caries.
E.
*All answers are correct
Endogenic way of infection hitting to a wound is:
A.
Implantational way.
B.
Drop way
C.
Ear way.
D.
Infusional way.
E.
*Hematogenic way.
What percent of hydrogen peroxide is used for sterilization of surgical tools?
A.
5%
B.
4%
C.
3%
D.
2%
E.
*6 %
Sterilization of surgical tools in 6% of hydrogen peroxide lasts:
A.
2 - 3 hours.
E.
453.
454.
455.
456.
457.
458.
459.
460.
461.
462.
60 minutes
45 minutes
30 minutes
*6 hours.
Duration of sterilization of surgical tools in spirit and a threefold solution lasts:
A.
All answers are correct
B.
60 minutes
C.
45 minutes
D.
30 minutes
E.
*2 - 3 hours.
What duration of sterilization by a gas method?
A.
3 hours.
B.
2 hours.
C.
60 minutes
D.
30 minutes
E.
*6 - 48 hours.
At what temperature sterilization of surgical tools in dry heat case is spent?
A.
800
B.
900
C.
1000
D.
1200
E.
*1800
What duration of tools sterilization in dry heat case at temperature 1800C?
A.
30 minutes
B.
1,5 hours.
C.
45 minutes
D.
2 hours
E.
*1 hour.
What is nozocomial infection?
A.
Infection that has arisen at a pre-hospital stage
B.
Infection that has arisen outside a surgical hospital
C.
Infection with primary defeat of soft tissues.
D.
Infection of the upper respiratory ways
E.
*An infection that has arisen in a surgical hospital.
The basic complications of treatment by antibiotics:
A.
Toxic action on internal organs
B.
Formation of proof strain of microorganisms
C.
Disbacteriosis.
D.
Allergic reaction
E.
*All answers are correct
The antibiotic is a preparation with:
A.
Stimulating action by macroorganism
B.
Indirect action by microorganism
C.
Direct action by immune system
D.
Indirect action by microorganism
E.
*Direct action by microorganism
The purpose of a wound clearing from necrotic mass, the surgeon has applied Tripsin. What is a
method of antiseptics?
A.
Chemical.
B.
Mixed
C.
Physical
D.
Mechanical
E.
*Biological
Application of wounds ultrasonic cavitation is:
A.
Biological antiseptics
B.
Mixed antiseptics
C.
Surgical antiseptics
B.
C.
D.
E.
463.
464.
465.
466.
467.
468.
469.
470.
471.
Mechanical antiseptics
*Physical antiseptics
Secondary surgical processing of a wound is spent in case of:
A.
The bitten wound
B.
Gunshot wound
C.
Bacterial wound
D.
Aseptic wound.
E.
*At a wound in which the infection has already developed.
The purpose of primary surgical processing of a wound:
A.
To made the adequate drenaging of the wounds.
B.
Control of a bleeding and a wound edges dissections.
C.
To achieve healing a wound by a secondary tightness.
D.
To made a primary steatching of a wound
E.
*To transform the bacterial-polluted wound to aseptic.
Kinds of antiseptics.
A.
Biological.
B.
Chemical
C.
Physical.
D.
Mechanical.
E.
*All answers are correct
The main safety precautions regulation of surgical hospitals medical staff.
A.
Regular passage of medical reviews.
B.
Change of a dressing gown, a mask and cap every day.
C.
Clothing of special clothes.
D.
A hygienic shower.
E.
*All of manipulation at which possible contact to blood should carry out in gloves.
Time for surgeon hands processing of 0,5% chlorhexidin’ spirits solution:
A.
2 times of 5 minutes
B.
10 minutes
C.
1 minute
D.
5 minutes
E.
*2-3 minutes
Sterilization of cutting tools is expedient for spending:
A.
In paraphormaline chamber
B.
In dry heat case
C.
In an autoclave
D.
In a boiler
E.
*In the cold chemical way with an antiseptic
Sterilization of surgical tools is carried out:
A.
In Shimelbush’ drum
B.
In an autoclave
C.
In a boiler
D.
In a sterilizer.
E.
*In dry heat case.
Feature of a hospital infection activators.
A.
Microorganisms are not sowed on usual nutrient mediums
B.
Microorganisms are uncharacteristic for the basic purulent-septic diseases
C.
Microorganisms do not has the important role in its occurrence.
D.
Microorganisms extremely sensitive to antiseptics
E.
*Microorganisms extremely proof to the basic antiseptics and antibiotics
The typical representative of a hospital infection is:
A.
Klostridium
B.
Dyplococcus.
C.
Gonococcus.
D.
Streptococcus.
E.
*Staphylococcus
The hospital infection arises?
D.
E.
472.
473.
474.
475.
476.
477.
478.
479.
480.
481.
As result of incorrectly lead operation
As result of diagnostic mistakes.
As result of postoperative complications.
As result of the general surgical pathology.
*As result of the patient infectioning during its treatment in a surgical hospital.
Named the pathological condition which is directly or indirectly refers by the actions of the
doctor?
A.
Negligence.
B.
A crime
C.
Complication
D.
Doctors mistake
E.
*Iatrogeny
Direct method of quality monitoring of sterility is:
A.
Phenolphthalein’s.
B.
Benzidine’s.
C.
Physical
D.
Chemical.
E.
*Biological.
Specify the most progressive method of the surgeon hands processing:
A.
Hydrogen peroxide of formic acid
B.
Cerygel.
C.
0,5 % spirits solution of chlorhexidine.
D.
0,5 % solution of ammonia liquid.
E.
*Eurosept.
For sterilization by antiseptic solutions use:
A.
Hydrogen peroxide of formic acid
B.
Triple solution
C.
6 % peroxide of hydrogen
D.
96 % ethyl spirit.
E.
*All answers are correct
Factory method of sterilization is:
A.
Sterilization in dry heat case.
B.
Sterilization in paraformaline chamber.
C.
Sterilization by ferry.
D.
Sterilization in an autoclave
E.
*Beam sterilization
Optics tools are sterilized in:
A.
By boiling
B.
Dry heat case.
C.
Sterilizer.
D.
Autoklave
E.
*Paraformaline chamber.
At pressure 2 atm., the sterilization is made during time:
A.
1,5 hour
B.
50 minutes
C.
45 minutes
D.
1 hour.
E.
*30 minutes
Sources of implantation infections are:
A.
Artificial limb of joints
B.
Artificial limb of heart
C.
Vascular artificial limb
D.
Stitching material
E.
*All answers are correct
Drainage by Redon is:
A.
Fraktional
B.
Sorption
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
482.
483.
484.
485.
486.
487.
488.
489.
490.
Flowing-washing
Passive
*Active
Chloramin B concerns to:
A.
Acid
B.
Spirits
C.
Oxidizers
D.
Dyes
E.
*Haloids
To group of aldehydes concern:
A.
Protargol
B.
Sulema
C.
Boric acid
D.
Karbol acid
E.
*Formalin
Mode of sterilization of surgical tools in dry heat case:
A.
2 hours - 180 0 C
B.
2 hours - 1200 C
C.
1 hour - 2000 C
D.
1 hour-300 0 C
E.
*1 hour - 1800 C
At what temperature dry up tools after before sterilization processing?
A.
120 0 C
B.
1000 C
C.
700 C
D.
500 C
E.
*850 C
Sterility of a dressing in closed drum is kept during:
A.
48 hours
B.
36 hours.
C.
12 hours
D.
24 hours
E.
*72 hours
Application of a bactericidal lamp is a preventive of:
A.
„Sleeping” infections
B.
Implantational infection
C.
Contactive infection
D.
Endogenic infection
E.
*Air-droping infection
Super aseptic operational room are necessary for:
A.
Gastric surgery
B.
Neurosurgery
C.
Vascular surgery
D.
Endocrine surgery
E.
*Transplantation of bodies
General cleaning of operation room is spent:
A.
Once a day.
B.
After of each operative intervention
C.
Before the beginning of the working day
D.
In the end of the working day.
E.
*Once for a week
For stitching material which does not resolve concerns:
A.
Wright answer is not present
B.
Vikril
C.
Dexon
D.
Catgut
E.
*Polypropylene
C.
D.
E.
491.
492.
493.
494.
495.
496.
497.
498.
499.
500.
501.
502.
503.
504.
505.
506.
507.
508.
509.
What stitching material has no „ wicking” effect?
A.
An traumatic
B.
Synthetic
C.
Torsions
D.
Wattled
E.
*Monofilament
To stitching material which resolves concerns:
A.
Polyamide
B.
Lavsan
C.
Kapron
D.
Silk
E.
*Catgut
To a zone of absolute sterility concern:
A.
Dressing room
B.
The operational block
C.
Room for a narcosis
D.
Preoperative room
E.
*Operational room
Phenolphthalein test is spent to purpose:
A.
Detection of the antiseptic substances rests
B.
Quality checks of disinfection
C.
To check of sterilization
D.
Detection of the hidden blood
E.
*Detection of the washing liquids
What concentration of „Dezactin” is used for processing medical tools which were contact with
patients, sick of a tuberculosis:
A.
2%
B.
0.5 %
C.
0,2 %
D.
0,1 %
E.
*1 %
What concentration of „Dezactin” is used for presterilization processing of tools?
A.
3%
B.
2%
C.
0,1 %
D.
0,5 %
E.
*0,2 %
Disinfection of the surgical instruments after operation in occasion of a tuberculosis are spent?
A.
1 % dimexide solution - 2 hours
B.
Formalin - 2 hours
C.
KMnO4 - 2 hours
D.
Н2О2 - 2 hours
E.
*1 % „Dezactin” solution - 2 hours
What is of the antiseptic fluids concerns to haloids?
A.
Dioksidin
B.
KMnO4
C.
Н2О2
D.
Sulema
E.
*Iodinate
What is of the antiseptic fluids concerns to oxidants?
A.
Iodine
B.
Formalin
C.
Corrosive sublimate
D.
Spirit
E.
*KMnO4
Who has offered a classical method of processing of an operational field:
A.
Shimelbush
Bergman
Pies
Zemmelvase
*Grossich & Filonchikov
Positive benzidine test testifies about:
A.
Inadequate sterilizing exposition of tools.
B.
Unquality lead sterilization of tools.
C.
Insufficient boiling of tools
D.
Unquality disinfection of tools
E.
*Poor lead presterilization processing of tools
The complex of preventive actions, witch directed of prevention of the infection hitting in a
wound, named:
A.
Autoclaving
B.
Sterilization
C.
Disinfection
D.
Antisepsis
E.
*Asepsis
Sterilization of suturing material is:
A.
Prophylactic of the mixed infection.
B.
Prophylactic of exogenous infections
C.
Preventive of a contact infection
D.
Prophylactic of the endogenic infections
E.
*Preventive of an implantation infections
The most rational method of gloves’ sterilization:
A.
In an autoclave
B.
By boiling
C.
In the formaldehyde pairs
D.
In dry heat case
E.
*In the х-rays
Rubber gloves are sterilized:
A.
By boiling
B.
In pairs of formaldehyde
C.
In pairs an ether
D.
In dry heat case
E.
*In an autoclave
Who was found of drum for sterilization of a dressing material?
A.
Bergman
B.
Lister
C.
Pies
D.
Subotin
E.
*Shimelbush
What is biological curettage of wounds?
A.
Cleaning of a wound by means of hydrofoil ointments
B.
Cleaning of a wound by peroxide of hydrogen
C.
Cleaning of a wound by means of curette
D.
Cleaning of a wound by means of antiseptic fluids
E.
*Cleaning of a wound by means of protheolitic enzymes
Primary surgical processing of a wound is:
A.
Chemical antiseptics
B.
Physical antiseptics
C.
Biological antiseptics
D.
Combined asepsis
E.
*Mechanical antisepsis
Dreinaging of the wounds is
A.
Chemical antisepsis
B.
Biological antisepsis
C.
Mechanical asepsis
B.
C.
D.
E.
510.
511.
512.
513.
514.
515.
516.
517.
518.
Mechanical antisepsis
*Physical antisepsis
Who is the author of asepsis?
A.
L.Paster
B.
D.Lister
C.
M.Pirogov
D.
I.Zemelvejs
E.
*E.Bergman
„Everything, that collides to a wound should be sterile”, is a gold rule...?
A.
Surgery
B.
Hygiene
C.
Disinfection
D.
Antiseptics
E.
*Asepsis
Who is the author of an antiseptic method in surgery?
A.
E.Bergman
B.
L.Paster
C.
M.Pirogov
D.
I.Zemelvejs
E.
*D.Lister
Asepsis is a complex:
A.
Hygienic actions
B.
Disinfectant actions
C.
Medical actions
D.
Sanitary actions
E.
*Preventive actions
The antisepsis are a complex:
A.
Hygienic actions
B.
Disinfectant actions
C.
Preventive actions
D.
Sanitary actions
E.
*Medical actions
Whether there can be a radial therapy by a radical and independent method of treatment of a
cancer:
A.
Yes, at Т no more than 2, N no more than 2 and М0
B.
Yes, in І stages;
C.
Yes, in І or ІІ stages
D.
No
E.
*Yes, at visual (a skin, a lower lip) cancer forms
At the patient a stomach polyp. oncopatients it concerns what clinical group?
A.
ІІ A.
B.
ІІ;
C.
ІA
D.
І;
E.
*ІB
Patients concern what clinical group with T2N1M0
A.
ІІI
B.
І;
C.
ІІB;
D.
IV;
E.
*ІІ A
At T2N1M0 it is possible:
A.
Plastic operation
B.
Diagnostic operation
C.
Palliative operation
D.
Symptomatic operation
E.
*Radical operation
D.
E.
519.
520.
521.
522.
523.
524.
525.
526.
527.
528.
529.
530.
531.
532.
533.
534.
535.
536.
537.
There are following operations concerning malignant tumours, except:
A.
Palliative
B.
Symptomatic
C.
Diagnostic
D.
Radical
E.
*Plastic
Symbol М1 of classification TNM as a rule testifies about:
A.
Treatable of a cancer
B.
Possibilities of the radical combined treatment of a cancer;
C.
Possibility of radical surgical treatment of a cancer;
D.
Possibility of radical treatment of a cancer;
E.
*Untreatable cancer
At symbol Т4 of classification TNM it is possible:
A.
The combined treatment
B.
Radical chemotherapeutic treatment
C.
Radical combined treatment
D.
Radical surgical treatment
E.
*Palliative treatment
Radial therapy as an independent radical method is used for cancer treatment:
A.
Mammary gland
B.
Ovaries
C.
Thyroid gland
D.
Stomach
E.
*A lower lip
How the method of treatment of malignant tumours is called when in a combination with a
surgical method are prescribed chemodrugs?
A.
Specific oncologic
B.
Surgical, chemotherapeutic
C.
Bridged
D.
Complex
E.
*Combined
Symbol Р it:
A.
Morphometric category
B.
The cytological category
C.
Endoscopy category
D.
Clinical category
E.
*Patohistological category
That designates means symbol Р:
A.
Character of growth
B.
Degree of regional innidiations
C.
Degree of an innidiation
D.
Degree of malignancy
E.
*Degree of regional innidiations
The term term G (Gradus) is defined on the basis:
A.
Endoskopy.
B.
A computer tomography
C.
Ultrasonic
D.
Clinic
E.
*Histology
That designates term G (Gradus):
A.
Made the disease forecast
B.
Invasion degree
C.
Degree of an innidiation
D.
Character of growth
E.
*Degree of malignant tumours
What designates symbol Nх?
A.
Metastasises is, but demand morphological verification
Absence of metastasises in lymph nodes;
Acknowledgement of presence of metastasises the cytologic research is necessary
At histological research of metastasises in lymph nodes it is not revealed;
*It is impossible to estimate condition regional lymph nodes;
The indication to excision of a benign tumour is:
A.
Wright answer is not present
B.
Tumour germination in the next organs
C.
Presence of the remote metastasises
D.
Presence of regional metastasises
E.
*A mechanical prelum a tumour of surrounding structures;
Classical complex method of malignant tumours treatment it:
A.
Surgical, therapeutic, radiological
B.
Surgical, radical, palliative;
C.
Surgical, symptomatic, palliative
D.
Surgical, hormonal, immunologic
E.
*Surgical, radial, chemotherapeutic
Clasical methods of oncopatients treatment does not concern:
A.
Criodestruction of a tumour
B.
Hormonal immunotherapy
C.
Chemioterapi
D.
Surgical method
E.
*Antibacterial therapy
Principles of surgical treatment of malignant tumours does not concern:
A.
Antiblastic
B.
Futlar
C.
Zonality
D.
Ablastic
E.
*An asepsis;
Incubatory period of the anaerobic gas infection, hands over:
A.
17 days.
B.
7 - 12 hours
C.
2 - 7 hours;
D.
5 - 15 days
E.
*5 - 15 days
Distinguish following pathoanatomical forms of anaerobic gas infection, except for:
A.
Flegmonouse
B.
Lisis
C.
Edematose
D.
Emfisematose
E.
*Serous-infiltrative
Who has offered basic principle of purulent surgery „ ubi pus ibi evacuo ”?
A.
Zemmelvejs
B.
Lister
C.
Buyalscy
D.
Pirogov
E.
*Hypocrat
The basic actions on preventive maintenance of anaerobic gas infection are the following, except
for:
A.
Antibioticoprofilaxis before, during and after primary surgical processing a wound.
B.
Immobilisation of amazed extremities
C.
Immobilisation of amazed extremities
D.
Treatment of blodloss
E.
*Obligatory imposing of a primary seam after primary surgical processing;
Basic method of preventive maintenance anaerobic gas infection is:
A.
Maiding of antygangrenous wheys
B.
Transport immobilisation
C.
Antibacterial therapy;
B.
C.
D.
E.
538.
539.
540.
541.
542.
543.
544.
545.
546.
Antibacterial preventive maintenance
*Early, radical primary surgical processing of a wound;
Indication for amputations at anaerobic gas gangrene are:
A.
Futility of previous sparing operations and threat of transition of a gangrene on a trunk;
B.
Total defeat by a gangrene of all extremities
C.
Heavy fire crisis with big destruction of bone;
D.
Injury of the main vessels;
E.
*All answers are correct
At anaerobic gas gangrene made the following types of operations, except for:
A.
Exarticullations
B.
Amputations
C.
"Stripe" cuts with dissection the damaged muscles and fascia;
D.
Broad, so-called, „stripe” cuts throught all segment of extremities;
E.
*Primary surgical processing with dissection of necrotic tissues and imposing provisor
seams
What is the symptom of "razor" at anaerobic gas infection:
A.
Wright answer is not present
B.
Shaving of skin around of a wound sharply painful;
C.
Shaving of skin around of a wound is facilitated by that folds of skin are straightened by a
hypostasis;
D.
Shaving of skin around of a wound it is complicated by a hypostasis;
E.
*Shaving of skin around of a wound is accompanied by a high metal sound, which
resounds;
What wound more often complicated by anaerobic gas gangrene:
A.
Skalp
B.
Rubbed
C.
Fragmentary
D.
Bitten;
E.
*Fire
What part of a human body is amazed for anaerobic gas infection more often:
A.
Nek
B.
A lumbar site
C.
Thorax
D.
Upper extremities
E.
*Bottom extremities
Most severe and dangerous complications of wounds is:
A.
Difteria of wound
B.
A putrefactive phlegmon
C.
Physiognomy
D.
Lymphangoitis
E.
*Anaerobic gas infection
Specify the correct statement for the anaerobic gas infection. Anaerobic gas infection can develop
as result:
A.
An intramuscular injection
B.
Operation in occasion of foreing bodies at 10 years after wound
C.
Operation in occasion of ligature fistula;
D.
Gunshot segmental wounds with damage of the big weight of muscles;
E.
*All answers are correct
What method the most authentic and objective for determination of gas presence in tissues:
A.
A symptom of crepitation
B.
Ligature simptom
C.
Definition of presence of gas by means of a tuning fork
D.
Simptom of the razor
E.
*Radiological
Fast incision of lygature on depth of 1-2 mm after its imposing testifies about:
A.
Necessities of wound audit
B.
Development of anaerobic gas infection
D.
E.
547.
548.
549.
550.
551.
552.
553.
554.
555.
Combination of gas formation and hypostasis
Progression of pathological process;
*Necessities of extremities amputation
To what lygature symptom ”Melnikov testifies duration„?
A.
About development of deep veins thrombosis
B.
About infringement of extremities blood supply
C.
About return development of pathological process;
D.
About demarcation of pathological process;
E.
*About occurrence of a hypostasis and gas in tissues above a wound
Who has offered „ a lygature symptom” for diagnostics of anaerobic gas gangrene
A.
Ahutin - 1941
B.
Burdenko - in 1940
C.
Pies - in 1846
D.
D.A.Arapov - in 1972
E.
*A.V.Melnikov - in 1935
To early attributes of anaerobic gas gangrene concern:
A.
Rise in temperature of a body and changes of the patient mentalities
B.
Tachicardia;
C.
Hypostasis of tissues
D.
A holding apart pain
E.
*All answers are correct
Specify the earliest display of anaerobic gas infection:
A.
Intoxication syndrome
B.
Necrosis of tissues
C.
Gas formation and crepitation
D.
Edema of tissues
E.
*An intensive holding apart pain in a wound
Which from clinical forms of anaerobic gas infection is optimum:
A.
Emfiseme - edematic
B.
Putrefactive
C.
Edematic or toxic;
D.
Emfiseme or classical;
E.
*Flegmonose
That does a muscular tissue mostly features by the favorable environment for development of
anaerobic gas infection:
A.
Fascial cases
B.
Specify of gistology
C.
Bad blood supply
D.
Deep localization
E.
*A saturation by glycogen
Factors, which promote development of anaerobic gas gangrene, is:
A.
Overfatigue, an exhaustion, overcooling
B.
Absent of transport immobilisation and traumatism of wounds;
C.
Long application of a plait, bandaging of the main artery, a hard bandage;
D.
Big open damages of tissues, mostly features in muscles with pollution by the ground;
E.
*All answers are correct
For what general-surgical pathology actual is such aphorism „Patient costs on edge of a tomb, and
the doctor goes on an edge of the razor and is frequent with the fastened eyes”?
A.
Emboli of the main artery
B.
Sepsis
C.
Siberian ulcer
D.
Actinomicosis
E.
*Anaerobic gas gangrene
What tissue of a human body is mostly features the favorable environment for development of
anaerobic gas infection:
A.
Fat spacess, neurovascular bunches
B.
Hypodermic fat;
C.
D.
E.
556.
557.
558.
559.
560.
561.
562.
563.
564.
Aponeurosis
Skin
*Muscule;
For Cl. Hystolyticum to the most typical is:
A.
Development of anaerobic sepsis
B.
Severe intoxication of an organism
C.
Fast development of gas formation
D.
Rapid development of a hypostasis
E.
*Fast fusion of tissues;
Which from activators very seldom independently causes anaerobic gas gangrene:
A.
Wright answer is not present.
B.
Cl. perfringens
C.
Cl. oedematiens;
D.
Cl. septicum
E.
*Cl. hystolyticum
For Cl. Oedematicus to the most typical is:
A.
Milde current anaerobic infections
B.
Development of anaerobic sepsis
C.
Gas formation
D.
Lisis of tissues in a zone of defeat
E.
*Rapid development of a hypostasis and severe intoxication
Activators ща anaerobic gas gangrene are following microorganisms, except for:
A.
Cl. oedematiens
B.
Cl. perfringens
C.
Cl. hystolyticum
D.
Cl. septicum;
E.
*Cl. tetani
At threat of asfictia at sick of a tetanus necessary is:
A.
Using of aminazine and ganglioblocade
B.
Carrying out of medical mask narcosis
C.
Therapy by respiratory analeptics
D.
Oxigeno therapy for a dampener of oxygen
E.
*Imposing of tracheostoma
At threat asfictium at the patient with a tetanus it is necessary to apply:
A.
Oxigeno therapy
B.
Respiratory analeptics
C.
Narcotic mixes;
D.
Neyroleptic mix;
E.
*Miorhelaxants
Behind clinical current distinguish following forms of a tetanus, except for:
A.
T. incompletus
B.
t. completus
C.
t. lentus
D.
t. vehemens
E.
*t. vulgaris;
The patient with generelised form of a tetanus should be treated in:
A.
Infectious department with strict isolation
B.
Trauma department
C.
Infectious hospital;
D.
Surgical department
E.
*Intensive care department
Tetanus it:
A.
Anaerobic nonspecific purulent disease
B.
Wound nonspecific infectious disease
C.
Nonspecific acute purulent disease
D.
Specific purulent infectious disease
E.
*A specific acute infectious disease
C.
D.
E.
565.
566.
567.
568.
569.
570.
571.
572.
573.
574.
575.
576.
577.
578.
579.
580.
581.
582.
583.
Risus sardonicus it is an attribute:
A.
Hysteria
B.
Meningitis
C.
Furiousness
D.
Botulism
E.
*Tetanus
Opistotonus is characteristic for:
A.
Botulism
B.
Encefalitis
C.
Meningitis
D.
Rabies
E.
*Tetanus
Distinguish following local kinds of a tetanus, except for:
A.
A combination of local localizations (a head, extremities);
B.
Tetanus of a trunk;
C.
Tetanus of a head;
D.
Tetanus of extremities
E.
*The generalised tetanus
The shorter incubatory period of a tetanus, the:
A.
Incubatory period does not influence on clinical current and morbility;
B.
Faster is possible preventive maintenance
C.
Below morbility
D.
On proceeds is easier;
E.
*More hard it proceeds and above morbility
From what there comes death sick of a tetanus more often:
A.
Hypovolemia
B.
Cardiac arrest
C.
Sepsis
D.
Endotoxic shock
E.
*Asfixia
Primary surgical processing a wound it:
A.
Surgical preventive maintenance of a tetanus;
B.
Aktive-pasive preventive maintenance of a tetanus
C.
Pathogenetic preventive maintenance of a tetanus
D.
Specific preventive maintenance of a tetanus;
E.
*Nonspecific preventive maintenance of a tetanus
Activator of a tetanus is:
A.
Cl. oedematiens
B.
B. anthracis
C.
Cl. perfringens
D.
Cl. histolyticus
E.
*Cl. tetani
Distinguish following kinds of a tetanus, except for:
A.
After electrotrauma
B.
Postoperative;
C.
Tetanus of newborns
D.
Secondary
E.
*Postnatal
Distinguish following kinds of a tetanus, except for:
A.
After frostbite.
B.
Burn
C.
Postinjection
D.
Wound;
E.
*Lymphogene
Incubatory period at a tetanus continued
A.
21 day.
B.
2-3 days
7 days;
Till 4 days;
*From 4 till 14 days
Pathological mobility of a part of a wall of a thorax is characteristic for:
A.
The closed pheumothorax
B.
An open pheumothorax
C.
Of ribs
D.
Valvea pheumothorax
E.
*Window fracture of ribs
What of methods of diagnostics the most informative at the closed craniocerebral trauma
A.
Pneumoencefalography
B.
A lumbar puncture
C.
Electroencefalography
D.
Sonography
E.
*A computer tomography
The blood clump testifies to what hemothorax in a pleural cavity to level of the middle of a
scapula:
A.
Ribs - diaphragmatic
B.
Small
C.
Big
D.
Total
E.
*An average
Positive assay with a drop testifies about:
A.
Duration of a bleeding from brain covers
B.
To a stopping of a bleeding from brain covers;
C.
Bleeding from soft tissues of a head
D.
Closed craniocerebral trauma
E.
*To an open craniocerebral trauma
At a tension pneumothorax there are all listed symptoms, except:
A.
suffocate
B.
cyanosis
C.
Absence of respiratory hums on the one hand
D.
Pain in a thorax
E.
*Shift of a trachea towards a pheumothorax
Symptom of "a light interval” characteristic for?
A.
Aterosclerosis
B.
All of the listed diseases
C.
Brain ischemia
D.
Inflammation of a brain
E.
*Brain prelums
What absolute clinical sign of a dislocation of a humeral joint.
A.
Edema
B.
Deformation;
C.
Pathological mobility
D.
Crepitation
E.
*Springing bracing
Disappearance of hepatic dullness at acute abdominal pains testifies about:
A.
All answers correct
B.
The beginning of an acute appendicitis;
C.
Variant of norm;
D.
The beginning of ocufe chdecystitis
E.
*Presence of free gas in an abdominal cavity
The superficial palpation of a stomach is necessary for spending
A.
Sitting in an armchair.
B.
Stand
C.
In position of the patient on right to a side;
D.
In position of the patient on left to a side;
C.
D.
E.
584.
585.
586.
587.
588.
589.
590.
591.
592.
*In position of the patient on a back with the feet incurvated in knees;
Inspection of the patient begin with
A.
All answers correct
B.
A superficial palpation
C.
Auscultation
D.
Deep palpation
E.
*Survey
What clinical sign the most typical for bone fracture?
A.
Spring bracing.
B.
Acute pain
C.
Deformation
D.
Absence of function;
E.
*A crepitation
What inspections concern additional methods of inspection of surgical patients?
A.
Endoscopic
B.
Sonography;
C.
X-Ray
D.
Laboratory
E.
*Listed all above
The vascular asterisks which have been found out at the review of a skin of the patient testify
about:
A.
Neurological disease
B.
Disease of kidneys
C.
Disease of a lien
D.
Disease of heart
E.
*Liver disease
For what disease of a thyroid gland hoarseness | voices is characteristic?
A.
Acute thyroiditis
B.
Struma Hashimoto
C.
Nodular struma
D.
Difuse toxic struma;
E.
*A thyroid gland cancer
How allocation of blood with urine is called?
A.
Disuria
B.
An urobilinuria
C.
Uretroragia
D.
Surgery
E.
*hematuria
The pheumothorax can be:
A.
Strained
B.
Clapan
C.
Opened
D.
Closed;
E.
*All answers correct
With the help of what assay follows it is checked condition of osteal valve of the big hypodermic
vein?
A.
Pratt.
B.
Del’be Peters
C.
Gakkenbruha
D.
Shanis
E.
*Troyanov - Trendelenburg
What designates the term "pheumothorax
A.
Presence of foreing bodies in a pleural cavity
B.
Lymph presence in a pleural cavity
C.
Presence of pus in a pleural cavity
D.
Presence of blood in a pleural cavity
E.
*Air presence in a pleural cavity
E.
593.
594.
595.
596.
597.
598.
599.
600.
601.
602.
603.
604.
605.
606.
607.
608.
609.
610.
611.
At carrying out of a percussion the surgeon surveys the patient with the help:
A.
Angle matte
B.
A centimetric tape
C.
Auscultation
D.
Examination
E.
*Percussions on a body surface;
At carrying out of subjective inspection of the patient find out:
A.
Working conditions of the patient;
B.
Morbidity
C.
Anamnesis of disease;
D.
Anamnesis of a life
E.
*All answers correct.
With what help of a method clinically define the bottom border of a stomach?
A.
By Kurlov
B.
A method It is exemplary - Stragesco
C.
Auscultative
D.
At survey
E.
*A method of auscultative africtium
What assay gives the chance to define: the intrapleural bleeding proceeds or has stopped
A.
Shtange
B.
Soobrase
C.
With a drop
D.
With a drop
E.
*Greguar;
Basedov's triad it:
A.
a tremor, an exophthalmos
B.
A tremor, nervousness, a sweating;
C.
Tachicardia, a tremor, an exophthalmos
D.
A struma, a tremor, a tachycardia
E.
*A struma, a tachycardia, an exophthalmos
The carinate thorax is characterised
A.
Splitting of a breastbone
B.
Splitting of the lowest part of a breastbone
C.
Upper breastbone part acts to front, and clavicles to back
D.
Sticking of the bottom part of a breastbone with a xiphoid process;
E.
*A longitudinal excavation on the breastbone middle;
At palpation carrying out it is possible to establish:
A.
Localisation of pathological formation
B.
Stage of a strain of muscles
C.
Local change of temperature of a skin
D.
Painful
E.
*Listed signs all above
Presence of symptoms of fluctuation at inflammatory processes testifies about:
A.
Abortive inflammatory process
B.
Formation of a biogenic capsule
C.
Presence of an infiltrate
D.
Decreasing of inflammatory process;
E.
*A pus clump;
Leyco like form of a thorax it
A.
Splitting of a breastbone.
B.
A longitudinal excavation on the breastbone middle;
C.
Sticking of the lowest part of a breastbone;
D.
Upper breastbone department acts to the front, and clavicles to back;
E.
*A retraction of the bottom department of a breastbone with a xiphoid process;
With what part of an intestine begin a deep palpation of an abdominal cavity?
A.
Rectum
B.
A caecum
Descending part
Ascending part
*A sigmoid part;
Stomach circle measure at level:
A.
All answers correct
B.
The fifth lumbar vertebra
C.
Of a costal arch
D.
ХІ - ХІІ ribs
E.
*A belly-button
Fluctuation symptom positive at:
A.
Tubercular abscess;
B.
Ascitis
C.
Flegmon
D.
Abscess
E.
*All answers correct
To tool methods of inspection carry everything, except:
A.
X-Ray
B.
Esofagogastroduodenoscopy
C.
Colonoscopy
D.
Ultrasonic
E.
*Palpation
In two projections it is spent:
A.
Esofagogastroduodenoscopy
B.
Colonoscopy
C.
Thermograph
D.
Ultrasonic;
E.
*X-Ray
On a method It is exemplary-Stragesco it is spent:
A.
All answers correct
B.
Percussion;
C.
Auscultation;
D.
Examination;
E.
*A palpation
Symptom of "a wet pillow” characteristic for
A.
Aterosclerosis
B.
Abscess of lungs
C.
Diverticul of an esophagus
D.
Pylorostenosis
E.
*Esophagus achalasias;
Freezing injury it:
A.
Secondary necrosis
B.
A dystrophy
C.
Parabiosis
D.
Indirect necrosis
E.
*Direct necrosis
Specify correct sequence of inspection of the surgical patient:
A.
Examination, measurement, a palpation, a percussion, auscultation
B.
A palpation, survey, a percussion, auscultation, measurement
C.
Changes, survey, a palpation, a percussion, auscultation;
D.
Palpation, a percussion, survey, auscultation, measurement
E.
*Survey, a palpation, a percussion, auscultation, measurement
Symptom of "a lemon crust” characteristic for:
A.
Fibre mastopathy
B.
Mammary gland fibroadenomas
C.
Subareolar mastitis
D.
Intramammar mastitis
E.
*A mammary gland cancer
C.
D.
E.
612.
613.
614.
615.
616.
617.
618.
619.
620.
621.
622.
623.
624.
625.
626.
627.
628.
629.
630.
The positive cough sign testifies that
A.
About presence in a hernia sac of an epiploon
B.
About presence in a hernia sac of a pocket;
C.
Hernia restrainedHernia irreducible
D.
*A hernia irreducible
Lerish syndrome this atherosclerotic lesion
A.
Femoral arteries
B.
Periphery arteries
C.
Infrarenal department of an abdominal aorta
D.
Suprarenal department of an abdominal aorta
E.
*Bifurcations of an aorta and its branches
The nape muscle tension is a characteristic symptom:
A.
Tetanus
B.
A hyperparathyreosis
C.
Neuritis;
D.
Miositis;
E.
*Borings of cerebral covers
What method of an immobilisation use at a tubercular spondylitis?
A.
Reclination backbone on the Finn
B.
Glisson’s loop and extension;
C.
Glisson’s loop and extension;
D.
Sceletal extension
E.
*A plaster bed.
The tuberculosis of a humeral joint is called:
A.
Illness of Pott
B.
Spondilitis
C.
Gonitis
D.
Koxitis
E.
*An omarthritis
What most serious complication of a tubercular spondylitis?
A.
Bad-sores
B.
Endotoxicosis;
C.
Formation of an abscess
D.
Formation of a cold abscess
E.
*Spine-brain disorders
What department of a backbone is amazed with tubercular process more often?
A.
Lumbar - Sacral.
B.
Sacral;
C.
Nec;
D.
Lumbar;
E.
*Thoracal;
At a tubercular spondylitis at children characteristic is:
A.
Thruedisk way of diffusion of process
B.
The combined way of diffusion of process
C.
The combined way of diffusion of process
D.
Paravertebral way of diffusion of process
E.
*Paravertebral way of diffusion of process
In what results a acute rachiocampsis in a sagittal plane at a tubercular spondylitis?
A.
Formed of кiphoscoliosis
B.
Formed of scoliosis
C.
Formed of кiphosis
D.
Formed of lordosis
E.
*Formed of gibus
What is characteristic for fungose forms of a tuberculosis of a knee joint?
A.
Appearence of osteal sequesters and an osteosclerosis
B.
Presence of the centre with a caseous necrosis;
C.
Expressed sinoviitis with allocation of a fibrous exsudate;
Expressed exudation in a joint, a whirlbone ballotement;
*Growth granulation tissues which blasts a cartilage and a bone;
The arthritic phase of a bone-articulate tuberculosis has following stages, except:
A.
All answers correct
B.
Stages of regressing
C.
Stage of disintegration
D.
Beginning stage
E.
*Osteosclerotic stages
The symptom „ swallow nests” is is shown:
A.
In arthritic| phase
B.
In prespondilolythic phase;
C.
In spondilolythic phase
D.
In a postarthritic phase;
E.
*In postspondilolythic phase
Symptom „ swallow nests” it:
A.
Thermography symptom
B.
Physical symptom
C.
Palpation symptom
D.
Clinical symptom
E.
*Radiological symptom
Symptom „swallow nests” positive at:
A.
Tubercular arthritis
B.
Tubercular lymphadenitis
C.
Tubercular coxitis;
D.
Tubercular drive;
E.
*A tubercular spondylitis
Who from listed authors has described a symptom of "branches" at a tubercular spondylitis?
A.
Krasnobaev
B.
Alexandrov
C.
Holsted
D.
Olbi
E.
*Kornev
The embolism of segmentary branches of a pulmonary artery becomes complicated:
A.
A pneumonia
B.
Gangrene
C.
Abscess
D.
Plevritis
E.
*The Infarct-pneumonia
Result of an embolism of an internal carotid is
A.
Arachnoiditis
B.
Hemorrhagic stroke
C.
Encephalitis
D.
Meningitis
E.
*An ischemic stroke
Myocardial infarction it
A.
Dystrophy
B.
A parabiosis
C.
Direct necrosis
D.
Coagulation necrosis;
E.
*Indirect necrosis
At a tubercular spondylitis the primary centre arises in:
A.
Subhocndral osteal plate
B.
To a cartilaginous border zone
C.
Compact vertebra part
D.
Semi vertebral disk
E.
*In spondyle vertebra parts;
How on the author the tubercular spondylitis is called?
D.
E.
631.
632.
633.
634.
635.
636.
637.
638.
639.
640.
Alexandrov’s disease
Cron’s disease
Olby illness
Reclingausen illness
*Illness of Pott
Than the arthrectomy and a necrectomy spent concerning a tuberculosis comes to an end:
A.
Arthrorisis
B.
Contracture
C.
Arthrodesis
D.
Arthrosis
E.
*Ankylosis
Corrective operative measures at a bone-articulate tuberculosis is done:
A.
At presence of abscess
B.
In a postarthritic phase
C.
In an arthritic phase
D.
In a prearthritic phase
E.
*After the transferred bone-articulate tuberculosis
Extracorporal methods of detoxicating concerns
A.
A controlled hemodilution
B.
Forced diurresis
C.
Enterosorbtion
D.
UVI of bloods
E.
*Perfusion application through xeno spleen;
The staphylococcus can cause:
A.
Nosocomial sepsis
B.
Otogene sepsis;
C.
Surgical sepsis
D.
Odontogene sepsis;
E.
*All answers correct
At what form of a tuberculosis of bones and joints, possibility of joining of a nonspecific purulent
infection
A.
At arthritic
B.
At formation of abscesses
C.
At postarthritic
D.
At prearthric
E.
*At the fistulous;
What kind of a lymphangitis meets more often?
A.
Netleyer
B.
Local
C.
Descending
D.
Ascending
E.
*Steam like
As on the author, the metastasis of a carcinoma of the stomach in supraclavicular lymph nodes is
called:
A.
Rokitansky
B.
Zudec
C.
Shnitslera
D.
Krukenberg
E.
*Virchov
Decubitus is:
A.
Frostbite
B.
Fistula
C.
Ulcer
D.
Wound
E.
*A decubitus
For what disease it is characteristic complication in the form of an elephantiasis:
A.
An endarteritis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
641.
642.
643.
644.
645.
646.
647.
648.
649.
Aterosclerosis
Thromboflebitis
Flegmon
*An erysipilatous inflammation
The reason of an embolism of the big circle of a circulation is
A.
Elephantiasis
B.
Postthrombophlebytic syndrome
C.
Ileo-femoral thrombosis
D.
Varicose disease
E.
*Postinfarction an aneurysm with a ciliary arrhythmia
Tetanus is a:
A.
A multi-infection
B.
A multi-infection
C.
Unspecific infection
D.
Tetanus is a:
E.
*Monoinfection;
What indication of emergency tetanus preventive maintenance is incorrect:
A.
Bite of animals
B.
Extrahospital abortions
C.
Extrahospital abortions
D.
Trauma with damage complete surface skin and mucous
E.
*An open reposition and metal osteosynthesis of | the closed fracture
What is a leading symptom of tetanus?
A.
Endotoxic shock
B.
Headache
C.
Headache
D.
Severe myalgia in a wound
E.
*Tonic and clonic cramps of skeletal muscles;
Chronic specific surgical infection does not concern
A.
syphilis of bones, joints, aortas
B.
actinomycosis
C.
tuberculosis of spinal cord
D.
tuberculosis of bones and joints
E.
*Posttraumatic osteomyelitis
Characteristic signs of a chronic specific infection is the following, except:
A.
an originality of clinic and requirement for surgical treatment
B.
A long chronic current
C.
specific local implications
D.
the specific originator
E.
*Absence of hiluses for infection penetration
Following are the kinds of an acute surgical infection, except:
A.
an acute specific infection
B.
An acute putrefactive infection
C.
an acute mephitic gangrene
D.
an acute purulent infection
E.
*An acute infection
Tetanus is:
A.
The combined infection
B.
A multi-infection
C.
Nonspecific infection;
D.
Polyinfection;
E.
*A monoinfection
Diphtheria is caused by:
A.
Gram rod.
B.
Pasteur's rod;
C.
Koch rod;
D.
Blue purulent rod;
B.
C.
D.
E.
650.
651.
652.
653.
654.
655.
656.
657.
658.
*Lefler’s rod;
What is the leading symptom of tetanus?
A.
Endotoxic shock.
B.
Sleeplessness;
C.
Headache;
D.
Severe myalgia in a wound;
E.
*Tonic and clonic cramps of skeletal muscles;
The Siberian ulcer it:
A.
Primary chronic surgical infection.
B.
Chronic specific surgical infection;
C.
Chronic nonspecific surgical infection;
D.
Acute nonspecific surgical infection;
E.
*Acute specific surgical infection
To specific surgical infection concerns:
A.
Anaerobic nonclostridial phlegmon
B.
Furuncle;
C.
Paraproctitis;
D.
Mastitis;
E.
*Tetanus;
Carbuncle is:
A.
It is 2 and more furuncules on distance no more than 1 cm one from another.
E.
659.
660.
661.
662.
B.
Acute purulent inflammation a hair follicle, apocrine, grease glands and connecting
tissues;
C.
Acute purulent inflammation several hair follicles, sweat and sebaceous glands
D.
Acute purulent- necrotic inflammation of hair follicle and surrounding connecting tissues
and sebaceous glands;
*Acute drain it is purulent- necrotic inflammation several hair follicles and sebaceous
glands with distribution on hypodermic fat and a skin with formation extensive infiltrate
and necrosis;
Furuncle is:
A.
Acute purulent inflammation of hair follicle, apocrine and sebaceous gland.
E.
663.
B.
Acute purulent- necrotic inflammation of several hair follicles;
C.
Acute purulent inflammation of hair follicle and apocrine gland;
D.
Acute purulent inflammation of hair follicle;
*Acute purulent-necrotic inflammation of hair follicle and surrounding connecting tissues
and sebaceous glands;
What localization of carbuncle is very dangerous for life?
A.
In lumbar area.
E.
664.
B.
In inguinal areas;
C.
In the field of a back;
D.
In the field of a nape;
*In the field of nasal-lip triangle
A cabinet for implementation of doctor’s settings and carry out of manipulations is named:
E.
665.
Doctors’ lounge.
Operating-room.
* Manipulation-room.
Purulent dressing-room.
Clean dressing-room.
A temperature condition in the surgical department must be:
A.
15-16? C
B.
* 8-20? C
C.
6-20? C
D.
5-19? C
E.
17-22? C
A. Washing of instruments during 3 minutes in a 3% of oxygen peroxide.
A.
Washing of instruments during 1 minute in the distilled water.
B.
* Washing of instruments during 10 minutes in the distilled water.
C.
Washing of instruments during 5 minutes in the distilled water.
D.
Washing of instruments under the stream of running water during 3 minutes
After using of instruments, the nurse of clean dressing room must:
A.
* Washed their by 0,2% solution of « Dezactin ».
B.
Soak in a 0,2% solution of « Dezactin » on 1 hour.
C.
Washed instruments by running water.
D.
Carry out test on quality of the pre-sterilization cleaning.
E.
Washed instruments in the distilled water.
Amount of microorganism’s colonies on a 1 m3 of air till work not must exceed:
A.
200
B.
500
C.
* 1000
D.
1500
E.
100.
An occlusal bandage must be applying at:
A.
* Open pneumothorax.
B.
Closed pneumothoral.
C.
Haemothorax.
D.
Valvular pneumothorax.
E.
Pleural empyema.
An optimum temperature in dressing room must be:
A.
15-16? C
B.
16-18? C
C.
* 18-20? C
D.
20-25? C
E.
35-36? C
At crania-cerebral traumas doesn’t prescribed narcotic preparations, because they are:
A.
* Depress of respiratory center.
B.
Depress of vocal center.
C.
Depress of function of hematogenesis.
D.
Depress of cardiovascular center.
E.
To disturb of intestine’ motor function.
At excitation of the patient operated on a head, prescribed:
A.
1% solution of omnopon 1,0 ml.
B.
1% solution of dimedrolum 1,0 ml.
C.
* 2,5% solution of aminazine 1,0 ml.
D.
1% solution of morphini hydrochloridi.
E.
Tincture of valerian.
At presence of pyopneumothorax conduct drainage of pleura cavity by:
A.
* Subbotin-Pertes’ drain.
B.
Bjulau’ drain.
C.
Redone drain.
D.
Running- stripping drainage.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
666.
667.
668.
669.
670.
671.
672.
673.
674.
Passive drainage.
At the isolated compression or concussion of thorax at patients arises up:
A.
Bbreathlessness.
B.
General weakness.
C.
Decrease of arterial pressure.
D.
Paleness of skin.
E.
* All indicated symptoms.
At what temperature and how many time is conducted sterilization of tool in a dry-heat safe?
A.
* 180? C - 60 min.
B.
180? C - 45 min.
C.
160? C - 80 min.
D.
160? C - 60 min.
E.
180? C - 30 min.
Bandage «knight's glove» is imposed:
A.
On humeral joint.
B.
On shoulder.
C.
On elbow joint.
D.
On forearm.
E.
* On fingers.
Bandage from gauze, wide bandage or ribbon of fabric, which the cut ends have name:
A.
Hippocrates’ bandage.
B.
Spica bandage.
C.
Eye bandage.
D.
«Neapolitan bandage».
E.
* Sling bandage.
Bandages in which bandaging material on a wound hold out by the strips of adhesive plaster is
named:
A.
* Adhesive.
B.
Glue.
C.
Scarf.
D.
Gipseous.
E.
Bandages.
By a two-headed bandage impose:
A.
* Hippocrates’ bandage.
B.
Spica bandage.
C.
Eye bandage.
D.
«Neapolitan bandage».
E.
Bridle.
Cleaning up in the surgical separation must be conducted:
A.
Three times a week.
B.
* Two times a week.
C.
Four times a week.
D.
One time a week.
E.
Five times a week.
Corneal reflex caused touching to the cornea by:
A.
Finger.
B.
* Tip of the gauze tampon.
C.
Spatula.
D.
Probe.
E.
Needle.
Deontology is studies:
A.
Relationship between hospital’s administration and patients.
B.
Relationship between patients.
C.
Relationship between a medical staffs.
D.
Relationship between the workers of medical establishment and patients.
E.
* All above enumerated measures.
Desault’s bandage is used for immobilization at the fractures.
E.
675.
676.
677.
678.
679.
680.
681.
682.
683.
684.
Upper extremities.
Lower extremities.
* Collar-bones.
Ribs.
Lower jaw.
Device from material and skin, the intended for strengthening of weak areas of abdominal wall is
named:
A.
Gauze bandages.
B.
Reticulated-tubular bandages.
C.
Suspensory.
D.
* Support.
E.
First-aid pack.
Diseases (pathological states), which are straight or indirectly related to doctor’s actions is
named:
A.
Planned.
B.
Urgent.
C.
Deontological.
D.
* Jatrogenic.
E.
Surgical.
Drastic preparations in the department are saved:
A.
In a safe for storage of medications.
B.
In dressing room, in a medical case.
C.
* In the cabinet of senior nurse.
D.
In a case in manipulation room.
E.
On the table of doctor-surgeon.
For bandaging is used:
A.
* Gauze.
B.
Cotton wool.
C.
Gypsum.
D.
Splint.
E.
Starch.
For drying of wound use:
A.
Serviettes.
B.
Turundas.
C.
Tampons.
D.
* Gauze beads.
E.
Bandages.
For fixing of bandages apply:
A.
Serviettes.
B.
Turundas.
C.
Tampons.
D.
Gauze beads.
E.
* Bandages.
For fixing of glue bandages use:
A.
* Cleol.
B.
Glue BF-6.
C.
Plastubol.
D.
Lifuzol.
E.
Tserigel.
For fixing of scrotum after operative interferences use:
A.
Gauze bandages.
B.
Elastic reticulated-tubular bandages.
C.
* Suspensory.
D.
Support.
E.
First-aid pack.
For preparation a 0,2% solution of « Dezactin » must be used:
A.
* 2 grams of « Dezactin » and 998 ml of water.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
685.
686.
687.
688.
689.
690.
691.
692.
693.
1 gram of « Dezactin » and 999 ml of water
20 grams of « Dezactin » and 980 ml of water
10 grams of « Dezactin » and 990 ml of water
5 grams of « Dezactin » and 995 ml of water.
For treatment of thorax’ concussion prescribed:
A.
Bed rest.
B.
Oxygen therapy.
C.
Cardiac preparations.
D.
Anesthetic facilities.
E.
* All transferred facilities.
From a gauze make:
A.
Napkins (serviettes).
B.
Wads and beads.
C.
Turundas.
D.
Bandages.
E.
* All answers are correct.
How is examination of eyeballs, sclera and cornea conducted?
A.
The doctor by thumbs draws off to the bottom lower eyelids and asks a patient to look in a
bottom.
B.
The doctor by thumbs draws off upper eyelids upwards.
C.
By fingers open both eyelids and asks a patient to look to the top.
D.
By two fingers open both eyelids and asks a patient to look to the bottom.
E.
* By two fingers (thumb and index) - open eyelids.
How many times a day is it possible to warm up to the necessary temperature wash-liquor, if the
color of solution does not change?
A.
To 8 times.
B.
* To 6 times.
C.
To 3 times.
D.
To 10 times.
E.
To 2 times.
Impose a «bridle» at:
A.
* Damage of the lower jaw.
B.
Damage of the nose.
C.
Damage of the neck.
D.
Damage of the maxilla.
E.
Damage of the stomach.
In the complement of induction centre enter:
A.
Common apartments, dressing-room.
B.
Common apartments, sanitary inspection room.
C.
Diagnostic and medical apartments, sanitary inspection room.
D.
* Common apartments, diagnostic and medical apartments, sanitary inspection room.
E.
Dressing-room, sanitary inspection room.
In the complement of surgical department include:
A.
Admitting department, patient’s wards.
B.
Operational block, patient’s wards.
C.
Dressing rooms, operational block, auxiliary apartments.
D.
Admitting department, operational block, and patient’s wards.
E.
* Admitting department, patient’s wards, operational block, dressing rooms, manipulation,
auxiliary apartments.
In what position must be a patient in for the improvement of sputum discharge at the lung’
abscess?
A.
Indifferent.
B.
* In position «postural drainage».
C.
In recumbency, to the healthy side.
D.
In recumbency to the sick side.
E.
In position on his back.
Instruments in dressing room take from a table and give with the help:
B.
C.
D.
E.
694.
695.
696.
697.
698.
699.
700.
701.
702.
Hands.
Clamp.
Scalpel.
* Dressing forceps.
Retractor.
It is necessary to use for applying of occlusal bandage:
A.
Adhesive plaster.
B.
* First-aid pack.
C.
Wax paper.
D.
Oilcloth gasket.
E.
All above enumerated facilities.
Itof two wadding-gauzes pillows of fastened on a bandage consists:
A.
Gauze bandage.
B.
Reticulated-tubular bandages.
C.
Suspensory.
D.
Support.
E.
* First-aid pack.
Narcotic preparations can be entered for premedication:
A.
After prescription their by doctor.
B.
After registration of list of narcotic preparations’ prescription and in presence a doctor.
C.
After prescription their by doctor, registration of medical document by the trained nurse
independently.
D.
By the nurse independently.
E.
* After prescription their by doctor, registrations of medical document in presence a
doctor.
Narcotic preparations in the department are saved:
A.
In a safe for storage of medications.
B.
In dressing room, in a medical case.
C.
* In the cabinet of senior nurse.
D.
In a case in manipulation room.
E.
On the table of doctor-surgeon.
On the fourth stage of pre-sterilization treatment of instruments must be washed under running
water till liquidation of smell of disinfective solution during:
A.
1 hour.
B.
5 min
C.
* 3 min
D.
0,5-1 min
E.
2 hours.
On the front surface of thorax is imposed:
A.
Desault’s bandage.
B.
Velpeau’s bandage.
C.
Spica bandage.
D.
* Cross bandage.
E.
Spiral bandage.
On the second stage of pre-sterilization preparation of instruments is needed:
A.
Washed their by 0,2% solution of « Dezactin ».
B.
* Soak in a 0,2% solution of « Dezactin » on 1 hour.
C.
Washed instruments by running water.
D.
Carry out test on quality of the pre-sterilization cleaning.
E.
Washed instruments in the distilled water.
Puncture of pleural cavity with the purpose of diminishing of intra-pleural pressure it is necessary
to conduct at:
A.
Open pneumothorax.
B.
Closed pneumothorax.
C.
Hemothorax.
D.
* Valvular pneumothorax.
E.
Pleural empyema.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
703.
704.
705.
706.
707.
708.
709.
710.
711.
712.
713.
714.
715.
716.
717.
718.
719.
720.
Scarf bandages during first medical aid it is possible to impose on:
A.
Head.
B.
Shoulder.
C.
Foot.
D.
Forearm.
E.
* Anyone part of body.
Science about moral and ethics problems, which arise during the process of treatment of patient
and methods of their optimum decision, is named:
A.
Therapy.
B.
Surgery.
C.
Psychology.
D.
* Deontology.
E.
Ethics.
Small pieces of gauze, convolute in a kind three- or quadrangular plates are named:
A.
Serviettes.
B.
Turundas.
C.
Tampons.
D.
* Gauze beads.
E.
Bandages.
Specify the special sign of gauze, which is taken into account at bandaging of purulent wounds:
A.
Light.
B.
Elastic.
C.
* Hygroscopic.
D.
Easy is added to sterilization.
E.
Cheap.
Specify, what medical document in the department a medical sister fills only.
A.
* Log of patients, which admit to the department.
B.
List of destination in the case report.
C.
Outpatient's card.
D.
Record from the case report.
E.
Case report.
Spica bandage is imposed:
A.
* On humeral joint.
B.
On shoulder.
C.
On elbow joint.
D.
On forearm.
E.
On fingers.
Square pieces of gauze of different size, made in a few layers with edges convolute inward is
named:
A.
* Serviettes.
B.
Turundas.
C.
Tampons.
D.
Gauze beads.
E.
Bandages.
Sterilization of instruments in the clean dressing room is carried out in:
A.
Sterilizer.
B.
* Dry-hot safe.
C.
Autoclave.
D.
Burning above flame.
E.
Doesn’t carry out.
Strips of gauze with the edges wrapped up inward, small sizes are named:
A.
Serviettes.
B.
* Turundas.
C.
Tampons.
D.
Gauze beads.
E.
Bandages.
Studies about bandages, indications to their application and the rules of imposition have name:
Deontology.
Ethics.
Surgery.
Manual therapy.
* Desmurgy.
Subbotin-Pertes’ system consists of:
A.
* Three vessels united between cohere.
B.
Two vessels united between cohere.
C.
Five vessels united between cohere.
D.
Four vessels united between cohere.
E.
Six vessels united between cohere.
The «father of medicine» has name:
A.
* Hippocrates.
B.
Homer.
C.
Galen.
D.
Scellse.
E.
Pirogov.
The anatomic period of history of surgery lasted:
A.
From 6-7 millennium to B.C. the end XVII ages A.D.
B.
* From the end a XVII century to the end of XIX century;
C.
From the end of XIX century to beginning of a XX century;
D.
During of a XX century;
E.
Lasts in our time.
The area of ward on one surgical patient must be:
A.
* 6.5-7,5 m2
B.
3,5-4,5 m2
C.
4,5-5,5 m2
D.
5,5-6,5 m2
E.
7,5-8,5 m2
The bacteriological control of muddiness of air in the clean dressing room conduct one time in:
A.
1 month.
B.
3 months.
C.
6 months.
D.
* 15-20 days.
E.
1 week.
The control at work of technical personnel in the department carries out:
A.
Internship doctor.
B.
* Duty nurse.
C.
Head nurse.
D.
Hospital doctor.
E.
Assistant of chair.
The control of quality of disinfection in the clean dressing room is conducted with frequency:
A.
1-2 times a week.
B.
* 1-2 times a month.
C.
1-2 times a quarter.
D.
1-2 times in a half-year.
E.
1-2 times a year.
The damage of recurrent nerve during operation on a thyroid gland in a postoperative period
causes:
A.
Strain voice.
B.
* Aphonia.
C.
Raise voice.
D.
Low voice.
E.
Limitation of motions of lower jaw.
The empiric period of surgery’ history lasted:
A.
* From VI-VII millennium B.C. to the end of XVII century A.D.
B.
From the end of XVII century to the end of XIX century.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
721.
722.
723.
724.
725.
726.
727.
728.
729.
From the end of XVII century to the beginning of XX century.
During XX century.
Lasts in our time.
The laws of blood circulation were opened by:
A.
Vesalius.
B.
Ambroise Pare.
C.
* Harvey.
D.
Van Leeuwenhoek.
E.
Malpigi.
The most prominent representative of ancient East medicine was:
A.
Hippocrates.
B.
* Avicenne.
C.
Pirogov.
D.
Scellse.
E.
Galen.
The physiological period of history of surgery lasted:
A.
From 6-7 millennium to B.C. the end XVII ages A.D.;
B.
From the end a XVII century to the end of XIX century;
C.
From the end of XIX century to beginning of a XX century;
D.
* During of a XX century;
E.
Lasts in our time.
The signs of basal skull fracture are:
A.
* Bleeding and liquor discharge from an ear and nose.
B.
Bleeding and liquor discharge from the wound of vault.
C.
Bleeding and liquor discharge from the wound of occipital bone.
D.
Glasses’ symptom.
E.
Bleeding from a frontal sinus.
To the patients with crania-cerebral traumas does not prescribed:
A.
* Narcotic analgesics.
B.
Non-narcotic analgesics.
C.
Non-steroid anti-inflammatory facilities.
D.
Steroid hormones.
E.
Cardiac glycosides.
To the regime of treatment in surgical department include:
A.
Diet and motive regime.
B.
Patient’s examination and doctor’s round.
C.
Examination and conservative treatment.
D.
Diet, operations, bandaging.
E.
* Diet, motive regime, doctor’s round, inspection, conservative and surgical treatment,
bandaging.
Treatment of panels in a surgical separation is conducted by:
A.
Solution of permanganate of potassium.
B.
Hydrogen of peroxide.
C.
Lugol's iodine solution.
D.
Brilliant green.
E.
* Solution of chloramine.
Ultraviolet irradiation in the clean dressing room is conducts:
A.
In the morning.
B.
In the evening.
C.
* Two times a day.
D.
Three times a day.
E.
Not conducts in general.
What bandage is imposed at the damage of auricles?
A.
Sling.
B.
* «Neapolitan».
C.
Spica.
D.
«Bridle».
C.
D.
E.
730.
731.
732.
733.
734.
735.
736.
737.
738.
Desault’s.
What bandage is used for the trauma of humeral joint?
A.
Circular.
B.
Spiral.
C.
Creeping.
D.
Cruciform.
E.
* Spica.
What bandage must be imposed at dislocation of humeral bone?
A.
Spica bandage.
B.
* Velpeau’s bandage.
C.
Spiral bandage.
D.
Sling bandage.
E.
T-bandage.
What bandage must be imposed at opened pneumothorax?
A.
Spiral.
B.
Circular.
C.
Desault’s.
D.
* Occlusive.
E.
Glue.
What characteristics have a disinfectant with the washing effect «Dezactin»
A.
Bactericidal.
B.
Tubecculocidal.
C.
Virucidal.
D.
Sporocidal.
E.
* All answers are correct.
What complication from the side of the respiratory system in a postoperative period can develop
at a patient after operations on a head?
A.
* Aspiration pneumonia.
B.
Bronchitis.
C.
Bronchial asthma.
D.
Hemothorax.
E.
Pneumothorax.
What complications from the side of the respiratory system can arise up after thoracic operations?
A.
Pleural-pulmonary shock.
B.
Breathing insufficiency.
C.
Pneumonia.
D.
Pulmonary edema.
E.
* All answers are correct.
What patients will be bandaged in the clean dressing room?
A.
* Patients after appendectomy, cholecystectomy, saphenectomy.
B.
Patients after appendectomy, opening of shoulder’ phlegmon.
C.
Patients with the total purulent peritonitis, saphenectomy.
D.
Patient after the delete of suppuration ateroma of parotid area.
E.
Patients after liquidation of mechanical jaundice, abscess of buttock.
What position the patient operated on a thorax must be?
A.
* Semi sitting position.
B.
Tredelenburg’ position.
C.
On side of operative interference.
D.
On side opposite to operative interference.
E.
In position, like «postural drainage».
What preparation must be first of all conducted to the patient with the pulmonary edema?
A.
* Lasix.
B.
Penicillin.
C.
Promedol.
D.
Prednisolone.
E.
Aminophylline.
What pressure must be in the Subbotin-Pertes’ system?
E.
739.
740.
741.
742.
743.
744.
745.
746.
747.
748.
10-20 mm of water column;
* 20-30 mm of water column;
30-40 mm of water column;
40-50 mm of water column;
50-60 mm of water column.
What requirements the bandaging material must answer to?
A.
Good capillarity.
B.
Hygroscopic, elasticity.
C.
Chemical and mechanical sluggishness.
D.
Sterilization without violation of its quality.
E.
* All answers are correct.
What tactic of medical sister in the case of origin at the patient gastric bleeding?
A.
Carry out of siphon enema.
B.
Bad regime, hot-water bottle on a forward abdominal wall.
C.
Washed the stomach.
D.
* Bad regime mode, cold on a forward abdominal wall, swallowing of pieces of ice.
E.
Carry out of cleansing enema.
What type of drainage must be put to the patient with valvular pneumothorax?
A.
Passive.
B.
Redone drain.
C.
* Bjulau drain.
D.
Running- stripping drainage.
E.
Raising of drainage is not indicated.
What type of novocaine blockade must be carrying out to the patients with pneumothorax?
A.
* Vagosympathetic block.
B.
Intercostals.
C.
Paranephric.
D.
Blockade of brachial plexus.
E.
Paravertebral block.
What will the pupils of eyes be, if a patient is in the comatose state?
A.
Pupils are extended.
B.
Pupils are without changes.
C.
* Pupils are narrowed.
D.
One pupil is extended.
E.
One pupil is narrowed.
Who of medical personnel must establish death of patient in a ward?
A.
Head nurse.
B.
Nurse.
C.
Pathologist.
D.
* Duty doctor.
E.
Head doctor.
Who of prominent surgeons offered application of ether narcosis during operations in the military
field conditions?
A.
* N.I. Pirogov.
B.
Fransua Shopar.
C.
Pjer Desault.
D.
P.P.Pelechin.
E.
M. B. Sclifasofsky.
Who of prominent surgeons spread the usage of plaster of Paris for treatment of fractures?
A.
* N.I. Pirogov.
B.
Fransua Shopar.
C.
Pjer Desault.
D.
P.P.Pelechin.
E.
M. B. Sclifasofsky.
With a crania-cerebral trauma in the comatose state carry out the artificial feeding of patient with
the help:
A.
Spoon.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
749.
750.
751.
752.
753.
754.
755.
756.
757.
Cups.
Drinking vessel.
* Gastric tube.
All answers are correct.
With the purpose of prophylaxis of infection by AIDS and viral hepatitis the instruments are
disinfect by:
A.
1% solution of chloride lime.
B.
* 3% solution of chloramine.
C.
5% solution of chloride lime.
D.
3% solution of chloride lime.
E.
0,5% solution of chloramine.
A pressure bandage is indicated as method of temporary stop of bleeding at:
A.
* Bleeding from the veins of forearm;
B.
Damage of carotid artery;
C.
Damage of humeral artery;
D.
Wound of popliteal area;
E.
Damage of jugular vein.
A spleen deposits:
A.
35 % VCB;
B.
10 % VCB;
C.
* to 16 % VCB;
D.
5 % VCB;
E.
50 % VCB;
Anatomic classification of bleeding is:
A.
Arterial, venous bleeding;
B.
Arterial, venous, capillary bleeding;
C.
Arterial, venous, arterial - venous bleeding;
D.
Arterial, venous, parenchymatous bleeding;
E.
* Arterial, venous, capillary, parenchymatous bleeding.
At first hours during heavy blood loss most exactly represents the volume of blood loss:
A.
Relative gravity of blood;
B.
Contents of ;
C.
Hematocrit;
D.
Amount of erythrocytes;
E.
* Changes of indexes of circulatory blood volume .
At the insignificant, but bleeding a patient can live at the of level of hemoglobin to:
A.
60 g/l;
B.
50 g/l;
C.
40 g/l;
D.
30 g/l;
E.
* 20 g/l.
At what disease does take place decline of of thrombocytes in a blood?
A.
Schonlein disease;
B.
* Werlhof’s disease;
C.
Uremia;
D.
Chickenpox;
E.
Scarlet fever.
Bleeding in cavities are:
A.
Haemoperitoneum ;
B.
Hemopericardium;
C.
Haemothorax ;
D.
Hemartrosis ;
E.
* All answers are correct;
Bleeding in the wound, closed by stitches, has result:
A.
Formation of abscess;
B.
* Formation of hematoma;
C.
Formation of phlegmon;
B.
C.
D.
E.
758.
759.
760.
761.
762.
763.
764.
765.
766.
Formation of bruise;
All transferred variants are possible.
Changes in the coagulation system of blood, which can cause appearance of bleeding, is observed
at:
A.
* Hemophilia, Werlhof’s disease, intravascular coagulation of blood syndrome;
B.
Hemophilia, Shonlein disease, intravascular coagulation of blood syndrome syndrome;
C.
Hemophilia, poisoning by phosphorus, intravascular coagulation of blood syndrome
syndrome;
D.
Hemophilia, Shonlein disease, poisoning by phosphorus;
E.
Hemophilia, Werlhof’s disease, uremia.
Choose haemostatic preparations of resorbtive action:
A.
Aminocapronic acid, thrombin, adrenalin;
B.
Thrombin, adrenalin, fibrinogen;
C.
* Fibrinogen, trasylolum, aminocapronic acid;
D.
Trasylolum, adrenalin, aminocapronic acid;
E.
Adrenalin, thrombinum, fibrinogen.
During ІІІ degree of hemolytic transfusion shock the decrease of systolic arterial pressure is
observed to:
A.
110 mm Hg;
B.
100 mm Hg;
C.
90 mm Hg;
D.
80 mm Hg;
E.
* Below 70 mm Hg
For what localization of bleeding source melena is characteristic?
A.
Lung;
B.
* Upper part of gastrointestinal tract;
C.
Rectum;
D.
Kidneys;
E.
Spleen.
Hemobilia is:
A.
Bleeding in a liver;
B.
Bleeding in an abdominal cavity;
C.
Bruise in a liver;
D.
* Bleeding in bile ducts;
E.
Hemorrhage in a pancreas;
Hemothorax is the result of:
A.
External bleeding;
B.
* Internal bleeding;
C.
Bruise;
D.
Haematoma;
E.
Mixed bleeding;
How bleeding in an abdominal cavity is named?
A.
* Haemoperitoneum;
B.
Haemothorax;
C.
Haemopericardium;
D.
Hemartrosis;
E.
Metrorrhagia;
How bleeding in the joint cavity is named?
A.
Haemoperitoneum;
B.
Haemothorax;
C.
Haemopericardium;
D.
* Hemartrosis;
E.
Metrorrhagia;
How is a haematoma, which unites with the road clearance of the damaged artery, named?
A.
Formed haematoma;
B.
Organized haematoma;
C.
Extravasate;
D.
E.
767.
768.
769.
770.
771.
772.
773.
774.
775.
Haematoma - extravasate;
* Pulsating haematoma.
How is the I phase of blood coagulation named?
A.
Formation of fibrin;
B.
Synthesis of prothrombin;
C.
Recaltification;
D.
* Formations of blood and tissue thromboplastine;
E.
Transfer of prothrombokinase to thrombin;
How is the II phase of blood coagulation named?
A.
Formation of bloody clot;
B.
Formation of tissue thromboplastin;
C.
* Transition of prothrombin in thrombin;
D.
Formation of thrombin;
E.
Synthesis of prothrombin;
How is the III phase of blood coagulation named?
A.
Recaltification;
B.
* Formation of fibrin;
C.
Synthesis of prothrombin;
D.
Fibrinolytic;
E.
Transition of prothrombokinase to a fibrin;
How many degrees of blood loss are selected according to classification of V.I. Struchkov and
Е.V Lucevich?
A.
Three degrees;
B.
* Four degrees;
C.
Five degrees;
D.
Six degrees;
E.
Seven degrees;
How many time is it possible to apply Esmarchs tourniquet on lower extremity for the temporary
stop of bleeding?
A.
0,5 hour;
B.
1 hour;
C.
1,5 hours;
D.
* 2 hours;
E.
2,5 hours.
How many time is it possible to apply Esmarchs tourniquet on upper extremity for the temporary
stop of bleeding?
A.
0,5 hour;
B.
1 hour;
C.
* ,5 hours;
D.
2 hours;
E.
2,5 hours;
How to stop a bleeding from a bone canal, after trepanation of tibia bone?
A.
Tamponade with a hot physiological solution;
B.
Electrocoagulation;
C.
Stitching of vessels;
D.
Bandaging of vessels;
E.
* Tamponade the moved rag of a muscle.
How to stop a bleeding from dyploithyc veins of a skull at operation of trepanation?
A.
Hydrogen peroxide;
B.
Diathermo-coagulation;
C.
Stitching of veins;
D.
Bandaging of veins;
E.
* "To close up" with wax or paraffin;
In what type of bleeding the ligating a vessel at a distance is used more often?
A.
Gastric;
B.
Rectal;
C.
Secondary early;
D.
E.
776.
777.
778.
779.
780.
781.
782.
783.
784.
* Secondary late;
Primary.
Indicated, in which from the transferred cases the air embolism is possible.
A.
At the injury of veins of the lower extremities;
B.
* At the injury of jugular vein;
C.
At the penetrated knife wound of knee joint and hemartrosis;
D.
At the wound of spleen;
E.
At the wound of large arterial trunk on a thigh.
Liver deposits:
A.
* 20 % VCB;
B.
10 % VCB;
C.
5 % VCB;
D.
15 % VCB;
E.
35 % VCB;
Main reason of the late bleeding is:
A.
Change of local hemodynamics;
B.
Hypo coagulation ;
C.
Violation of permeability of vascular wall;
D.
Hypovitaminosis;
E.
* Arrosion of vascular wall;
Named the most effective biological origin substance, on this time, for a local haemostasis at
parenchimal bleeding.
A.
Thrombin;
B.
Haemostatic sponge;
C.
Fibrin glue;
D.
Fibrinogen;
E.
* Tahokomb;
Named the universal inhibitor, which influences for all phases of blood curtailing.
A.
Protamin sulfate;
B.
Fibrinolizinum;
C.
Streptokinaza;
D.
* Heparin;
E.
Fibrinogen;
Please, adaptation mechanisms at bleeding:
A.
Venous spasm;
B.
Tachicardia;
C.
Olyguria;
D.
Overventilation;
E.
* All are above enumerated;
Please, combination of basic elements of physiological hemostasis:
A.
Red blood cells, vascular wall, thrombocytes;
B.
Vascular wall, neutrophils, macrophagocytes;
C.
* Vascular wall, thrombocytes, plasma clotting factors;
D.
Red blood cells, thrombocytes, plasma clotting factors;
E.
Neutrophils, macrophagocytes, plasma clotting factors.
Please, fibrinolytic facilities:
A.
Trentalum, streptokinase, heparin, curantyl;
B.
Trentalum, solcoseryl, heparin, curantyl;
C.
Solcoseryl , urokinase, streptodecaza, streptase;
D.
* Urokinase, streptodecaza , streptase, celiasum;
E.
Trentalum, solcoseryl, heparin, streptodecaza.
Please, name the basic symptoms of acute anemia.
A.
Weakness and fatigue;
B.
Nausea, ;
C.
Pallor of skin and mucus membranes;
D.
Tachycardia;
E.
* All transferred symptoms.
D.
E.
785.
786.
787.
788.
789.
790.
791.
792.
793.
794.
795.
796.
797.
798.
799.
800.
801.
802.
803.
Please, name the chemical substances, which are used for the stop of bleeding:
A.
* Aminocapronic acid, vicasol;
B.
Vicasol, rheopolyglucin;
C.
Rheopolyglucin aminocapronic acid;
D.
Calcium chloride, vicasol;
E.
Heparin, rheopolyglucin.
Please, specify the most reliable method of estimation of severity bleeding:
A.
* Determination of central venous pressure;
B.
Determination of systolic arterial pressure;
C.
Determination of frequency of pulse;
D.
Determination of characteristic of circulatory blood volume.
E.
Determination of diastolic arterial pressure.
Reason of the early bleeding is:
A.
Arrosion of vessels;
B.
Destruction of vessels;
C.
* Sliding off of ligature from vessels;
D.
Hypo coagulation;
E.
Development of infection in a wound;
Select the physical method of hemostasis:
A.
Diathermocoagulation;
B.
Criosurgery;
C.
Application of laser;
D.
Imposition of napkins, moistened by hot isotonic solution of sodium chloride;
E.
* All transferred methods.
Specify degree of blood loss on the upper bound of volume of circulation blood deficit (globular
volume)
A.
To 5%;
B.
To 10%;
C.
To 15%;
D.
* To 20%;
E.
To 25%;
Specify combination of basic elements of physiological process of haemostasis:
A.
Red blood cells + vascular wall + thrombocytes;
B.
Vascular wall + neutrophils + macrophages;
C.
* Vascular wall + thrombocytes + plasmas factors of clotting;
D.
Red blood cells + thrombocytes + plasmas factors of clotting;
E.
Neutrophils + macrophages + plasmas factors of clotting;
Specify heavy degree of blood loss on the low bound of volume of circulatory blood deficit;
A.
More than 20%;
B.
More than 25%;
C.
* More than 30%;
D.
More than 35%;
E.
More than 40%;
Specify middle degree of blood loss on the upper bound of volume of circulation blood deficit
(globular volume)
A.
To 10%;
B.
To 20%;
C.
* To 30%;
D.
To 40%;
E.
To 50%;
Specify the basic factor of pathogenesis syndrome of disseminated intravascular coagulation:
A.
Nonspecific immune reactions;
B.
Insufficiency of plasmas factors of clotting;
C.
Metabolic disturbance in thrombocytes;
D.
Increase of thrombocytes resistance;
E.
* Formation of thrombocyte – fibrin clots in the system of microcirculation;
Specify the most reliable method of estimation of bleeding weight.
Determination of central venous pressure;
Determination of systolic arterial pressure;
Determination of frequency of pulse;
* Determination of descriptions of volume of circulatory blood;
Determination of hematocrit;
The basic antidote of heparin of indirect action is:
A.
Mannitol;
B.
Mercazolilum;
C.
* Protamine sulfate;
D.
Methionine;
E.
Trental;
The best indicator of adequate renewal of volume of circulatory blood is after a trauma is:
A.
Hematocrit;
B.
Gases of blood;
C.
* Urinary excretion;
D.
Normalization of arterial pressure;
E.
Color index of blood;
The biological method of stop of bleeding is:
A.
* Tamponade of a wound by omentum;
B.
Tamponade of a wound by a sterile serviette;
C.
Introduction of adrenalin;
D.
Intravenous introduction of aminocapronic acid;
E.
Intramuscularly introduction of vicasol.
The biological method of stop of bleeding is:
A.
Introduction of adrenalin;
B.
Intravenous introduction of aminocapronic acid;
C.
Intramuscular introduction of vicasol;
D.
* Tamponade of wound by the lea of omentum or muscle;
E.
All higher the transferred methods.
The final result of clinical course of haematoma can be:
A.
Suppuration of a haematoma;
B.
Formation of a cyst;
C.
Resolution of a haematoma;
D.
Calcification of a haematoma;
E.
* All variants are correct;
The II degree of blood loss is established (classification A.A.Shalimov). What volume of blood
loss?
A.
500 ml;
B.
1000 ml;
C.
* 1500 ml;
D.
1700 ml;
E.
2000 ml;
The increase of synthesis of what factors of blood clotting takes place in liver through violation of
assimilation of vitamin K?
A.
III, V, VII, IX, X;
B.
II, IV, V, VII, X;
C.
IV, V;
D.
* V, VII, IX, X, XIII;
E.
II, VII, VIII, X, XIII.
The most frequent reason of bleeding is:
A.
Bleeding at arrosion of vessel;
B.
Bleeding at necrosis of vessel;
C.
Bleeding at violation of permeability of vascular wall;
D.
* Bleeding, as a result of mechanical damage of vessels;
E.
Bleeding as a result of tumor lysis;
The peak of hemodilution at acute blood loss comes through:
A.
till 0,5 day;
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
804.
805.
806.
807.
808.
809.
810.
811.
812.
0,5 – 1 day;
* 1,5 – 2 days;
2,5 – 3 days;
More than 3 days.
The physical method control of bleeding:
A.
Applying of vessel’ sutures;
B.
Tamponade of wound cavity;
C.
Haemostatic sponge usage;
D.
* Electrocoagulation;
E.
Application of fibrin film.
The reason of a bleeding during hemorrhagic vasculitis is:
A.
Rupturing of a vessel;
B.
Arrosion of vessel;
C.
Hypovitaminosis;
D.
* The increasing of vascular wall permeability;
E.
Hypo coagulation;
The reason of the late bleeding is:
A.
Increase of arterial pressure, sliding off of ligature;
B.
Purulent melting of blood clot injured of vessel;
C.
Liquidation of spasm of vessel, increase of arterial pressure;
D.
* Arrosion of vessel' wall, purulent melting of blood clot;
E.
Injured of vessel, sliding off of ligature.
The reasons of a stomach tumor bleeding are occurrence:
A.
* Bleeding as a result of arrosion of vessel;
B.
Bleeding as a result of violation of vascular wall permeability;
C.
Bleeding as a result of mechanical damage of a vessel wall;
D.
Bleeding as a result of action;
E.
None of answers are ;
The secondary bleeding can be:
A.
Arterial and venous;
B.
External and internal;
C.
Capillary;
D.
Parenchimatous;
E.
* All transferred variants.
The small bleeding does not make dangers for life of patient at:
A.
Hemorrhage in a cardiac bag;
B.
* Hemorrhage in a pleura cavity;
C.
Hemorrhage in subdural space;
D.
Hemorrhage in epidural space;
E.
Hemorrhage in subarachnoiditis space.
The starting phase of syndrome of disseminated intravascular coagulation.
A.
* Phase of hyper coagulation;
B.
Phase of coagulopathy;
C.
Phase of fibrinolytic chain;
D.
Phase of hypotonia;
E.
Phase of thrombocytopenia;
The treatment of acute blood loss has direction, first of all, on:
A.
Preventive of hemolytic transfusion shock;
B.
* Preventive of hemorragic shock;
C.
Preventive of development of DVC-syndrome;
D.
Preventive of development of kidney insufficiency;
E.
Preventive of all higher transferred complications.
To the final methods control of bleeding belongs:
A.
Mechanical;
B.
Physical;
C.
Chemical and biological;
D.
Combined;
B.
C.
D.
E.
813.
814.
815.
816.
817.
818.
819.
820.
821.
* All higher transferred variants.
What are can be results of bleeding?
A.
Spontaneous (independent) stop of bleeding;
B.
Acute progressing anemia;
C.
Air embolism at the damage of veins of neck;
D.
Formation of pseudo aneurism;
E.
* All transferred consequences.
What are the clinical symptoms of hemothorax?
A.
Cyanosis of lips, nose and mucus membranes;
B.
Breathlessness, tachycardia;
C.
Lag of the staggered half of thorax in the act of breathing;
D.
Decreased or absent breathing in damaged lung;
E.
* All transferred symptoms.
What bleeding behave to bleeding, which are classified on to the clinical displays and attitude an
external environment?
A.
Occult, external, capillary;
B.
External, primary, secondary;
C.
Primary, secondary, occult;
D.
Capillary, external, internal;
E.
* Internal, external, occult.
What chemical matters are used for the stop of bleeding?
A.
* Aminocapronic acid, vicasol;
B.
Aminocapronic acid, heparin;
C.
Aminocapronic acid, potassium chloride;
D.
Potassium chloride, heparin;
E.
Vicasol, rheopolyglucin.
What clotting factor is absent at hemophilia A?
A.
Factor VI;
B.
Factor VII;
C.
* Factor VIII;
D.
Factor IX;
E.
Factor X.
What clotting factor is absent at hemophilia B?
A.
Factor VI;
B.
Factor VII;
C.
Factor VIII;
D.
* Factor IX;
E.
Factor X.
What complication can arise up at upplying of tourniquet on middle third of shoulder?
A.
Haematoma;
B.
Necrosis of skin;
C.
Trauma of muscles;
D.
* Trauma of humeral nerve;
E.
Erysipelas inflammation;
What from the below transferred diseases are contribute to the predisposition of organism to
bleeding?
A.
Hemophilia, acute thrombophlebitis, erysipelas;
B.
* Jaundice, hemophilia, scurvy;
C.
Acute thrombophlebitis, scurvy, erysipelas;
D.
Scurvy, acute thrombophlebitis hemophilia;
E.
Erysipelas, acute thrombophlebitis, jaundice.
What from the transferred kinds behaves only to the internal bleeding?
A.
Arterial-venous;
B.
* Parenchymatous;
C.
Arterial;
D.
Venous;
E.
Capillary.
E.
822.
823.
824.
825.
826.
827.
828.
829.
830.
831.
832.
833.
834.
835.
836.
837.
838.
839.
840.
What general clinical signs are for bleeding?
A.
Weakness, pain in the region of heart, thirst;
B.
* Thirst, weakness, dizziness;
C.
Dizziness, thirst, cyanosis;
D.
Pain in the region of heart, cyanosis, weakness;
E.
Cyanosis, pain in the region of heart, thirst.
What index characterizes the degree of hemodilution?
A.
Specific gravity of blood;
B.
Hematocrit;
C.
Level of hemoglobin;
D.
Q of red blood cells;
E.
* All answers are correct;
What is occult bleeding?
A.
Formation of haematoma;
B.
* Bleeding without clinical signs;
C.
Bleeding in a pleural cavity;
D.
Bleeding in an abdominal cavity;
E.
Bleeding in a joint cavity;
What is the reason of intravascular coagulation of blood syndrome syndrome?
A.
Shock;
B.
Sepsis;
C.
Plural fractures;
D.
Crush-syndrome;
E.
* All higher the transferred states.
What is the reason of the early secondary bleeding?
A.
Suppuration of wound, increase of arterial pressure, sliding off of ligature;
B.
Injured of vessel, sliding off of ligature, extrusion of blood clot.;
C.
Extrusion of blood clot, increase of arterial pressure, suppuration of wound;
D.
Sliding off of ligature, extrusion of blood clot, suppuration of wound;
E.
* Increase of arterial pressure, sliding off of ligature, extrusion of blood clot.
What it is bruise?
A.
Accumulation of blood, it is restrictedly by tissues;
B.
Accumulation of blood in a wound;
C.
Effluence of blood from the damaged vessel on a skin;
D.
* Diffuse infiltration by the blood of soft tissues;
E.
All transferred states.
What localization of the cholemic bleeding?
A.
Bruise to the skin;
B.
Bruise to the muscles;
C.
Bruise to the internal organs;
D.
Nasal bleeding;
E.
* All above transferred localizations;
What maximal volume of blood loss is possible at the closed fracture of middle third of diaphysis
of femoral bone and plural breaks of back and front departments of pelvic ring?
A.
About 0,5 liter;
B.
About 1 liter;
C.
About 2 liters;
D.
* About 3 liters;
E.
About 4 liters;
What method of final stop of bleeding does blood transfusion belong to
A.
Mechanical;
B.
Physical;
C.
* Biological;
D.
Chemical;
E.
Combined;
What methods of temporary stop of bleeding can be used at the damage of large arterial vessels?
A.
Applying of the tourniquet;
Applying of hemostatic clamp on a vessel in the wound;
Compression of artery by finger;
Temporary by-passing of vessel.
* All above methods.
What periods of hemolytic transfusion shock are distinguished?
A.
Period of hemolytic transfusion shock;
B.
Period of oliguria and anuria;
C.
Period of renewal of diuresis;
D.
Period of convalescence;
E.
* All higher the transferred periods.
What preparat at local anesthesia add to a Novocain solution with the purpose of preventive
maintenance of a bleeding?
A.
Thrombin;
B.
Hydrogen peroxide;
C.
Fibrinogen;
D.
* Adrenaline;
E.
Calcium gluconat;
What preparations are used for the local stop of bleeding?
A.
Haemostatic sponge;
B.
Spongia gelatinosa;
C.
Thrombin;
D.
Fibrin film;
E.
* All above preparations.
What preparations strengthen bleeding sickness due to the function violation of thrombocytes?
A.
* Butadionum, rheopirin, aspirin;
B.
Butadionum, rheopirin, phenylin;
C.
Butadionum, aspirin, phenylin;
D.
Butadionum, heparin, phenylin;
E.
Butadionum, sintrom, phenylin.
What principal reason of death at the profusion bleeding at first hours after its origin?
A.
Violation of breathing;
B.
Ischemia of liver;
C.
Kidney insufficiency;
D.
Myocardial ischemia;
E.
* Acute violation of hemodynamics.
What sequence of tranfusional therapy most rational at acute hypovolemia after bleeding?
A.
Refortan, hemodez, freshly frozen plasma, packed red cells;
B.
Refortan, freshly frozen plasma, packed red cells, hemodez;
C.
Refortan, hemodez, rheosorbilact, freshly frozen plasma, packed red cells;
D.
* Refortan, freshly frozen plasma, packed red cells, rheosorbilact;
E.
Refortan, packed red cells, rheosorbilact, hemodez.
What terms are the secondary early bleeding appears?
A.
* In the first 3 days after the damage;
B.
In the first 1-2 days after the damage;
C.
In the first day after the damage;
D.
At first hours after the damage;
E.
In the first minutes after the damage.
What volume of loss of VCB absolutely mortal at acute blood loss?
A.
* 1/2 VCB;
B.
1/3 VCB;
C.
1/4 VCB;
D.
1/5 VCB;
E.
1/6 VCB;
Which diseases accept caused the diapedetic bleeding?
A.
Avitaminosis of vitamin C;
B.
Uremia;
C.
* Tumor;
B.
C.
D.
E.
841.
842.
843.
844.
845.
846.
847.
848.
849.
Sepsis;
Scarlet fever.
Who easier carries blood loss?
A.
Men;
B.
* Women;
C.
Teenagers;
D.
Children preschool age;
E.
Babies.
A basic role of the fibroblasts in a wound process is:
A.
Cleaning of wound
B.
* Synthesis the components of young tissue
C.
Selection of the protheolitic enzymes
D.
Phagocytosis of the necrotic tissue
E.
Takes part in immune reactions
A place of deranges the pectoral cavity at pneumothorax is
A.
IX-X intercostals gap along a shovel line
B.
VI-VII intercostals gap along a shovel line
C.
VI-VII intercostals gap along axilar posterior line
D.
* II-III intercostals gap along middle collarbone line
E.
All answers are faithful
A place of pleura punction at presence of pleura exudation is
A.
IX-X intercostals gap along a shovel line
B.
* VI-VII intercostals gap along a shovel line
C.
VI-VII intercostals gap along axilar posterior line
D.
II-III intercostals gap along axilar posterior line
E.
All answers are faithful
A positive test with a drop at the opened cranial-cerebral trauma testifies to:
A.
Opened cranial-cerebral trauma
B.
Closed cranial-cerebral trauma
C.
Integrity of hard brain-tunic
D.
Stop of bleeding from pia maters
E.
* Continuation of bleeding from a pia mater
A reliable clinical sign of break the pulmonary tissue at the closed trauma of breasts is
A.
Violation of breathing
B.
Presence of moist wheezes on the side of damage
C.
Kripitation in a hypodermic cellulose
D.
* Bloodspit
E.
Absence the respiratory noises on the side of damage
Accordingly classification the wound process by M.I. Kuzin distinguish phases:
A.
* Inflammation, regenerations, formations of the scar.
B.
Aquation, dehydration, epithelition
C.
Vascular reactions, cleaning of wound, epithelition
D.
Inflammation, aquation, formation of scar
E.
Cleaning of wound, dehydration, aquation
Acute subdural haematoma arise up through
A.
12-24 hours after a trauma
B.
* At 12-48 o'clock after a trauma
C.
48-72 hours after a trauma
D.
7-10 days after a trauma
E.
12-18 days after a trauma
After an operation on a skull the term of nontransportable makes
A.
5-8 days
B.
9-14 days
C.
* 14-21 day
D.
21-27 days
E.
All answers are faithful
At the penetrable sper-cut wound of thorax the operation of choice is
D.
E.
850.
851.
852.
853.
854.
855.
856.
857.
858.
859.
* Urgent thoracotomy
Drainage of the pleura cavity
Sewing of the all layers the wound
Carving the edges of wound, imposition the stitches
All answers are faithful
At a damage middling of envelope artery arises up
A.
* Epidural haematoma
B.
Subdural haematoma
C.
Inwardly cerebral haematoma
D.
Intravenyricular haematoma
E.
All answers are faithful
At gunshot wounds of the intraperitoneum department of rectum imposition of artificial anus
A.
* Binding
B.
Do not binding
C.
For indications
D.
For relative indications
E.
All of answers are faithful
At laparocentesis, with the purpose of determination the damages of internal organs, in an
abdominal region solution entered in an amount:
A.
300 ml
B.
800 ml
C.
* 100 ml
D.
1200 ml
E.
More than 1200 ml
At tense pneumothorax there are all the symptoms higher transferred except for:
A.
Pain in a thorax
B.
Shortness of breath (difficulty in breathing)
C.
Absence of respiratory noises from one side
D.
Cyanosis
E.
* Displacement rhe trachea in the side of pneumothorax
At tense pneumothorax indication:
A.
Traheostomy
B.
Artificial ventilation of lungs
C.
* Drainage of the pleura cavity
D.
Intubation of trachea
E.
All of answers are faithful
At the closed cranial-cerebral trauma shown
A.
Hypothermia of the chairman
B.
Hypothermia of the neck
C.
* Craniogipotermiya
D.
UHF therapy
E.
Ultrasonic cavition
At the closed trauma of breasts a grave general condition, cyanosys, shortness of breath,
hypodermic emphysema on a neck. Diagnosis?
A.
Breaking lung
B.
Damage of gullet
C.
* Breaking main bronchial tube
D.
Damage of heart
E.
Damage of neck
At what wound external bleeding is the insignificant at, but haematomas appear often?
A.
To cut
B.
* To elaughter
C.
To bitten
D.
To lacerated
E.
To chopped
First medical aid at penetrate damages of breasts and opened pnevmothorax
A.
* Imposition of occlusive bandage
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
860.
861.
862.
863.
864.
865.
866.
867.
868.
Imposition of aseptic bandage
Neck vagosimpatic blockade
Introduction of narcotic analgesic
Artificial ventilation of lights
For injured with the trauma of the spine observed tetraplegia with violation of functions the pelvic
organs, violation of breathing. What department spinal cord is damage?
A.
In a breast
B.
* In neck
C.
In reins
D.
In a «horse tail»
E.
In a sacrum
For tense pneumothorax characteristic:
A.
Asphyxia
B.
Anaemia
C.
Cardiac insufficiency
D.
* Respiratory insufficiency
E.
All of answers are faithful
For traumatic asphyxia most characteristically
A.
Hypodermic emphysema
B.
Opened pneumothorax
C.
* Subconuctival hemorrhages
D.
Motive and psychical excitation
E.
Disorders of language
For what wound are characteristic large depth and little damaged of the surrounding tissue?
A.
Cut
B.
* Creck
C.
Bitten
D.
Lacerated
E.
Chopped
For what wounds characteristic is removing a layer of skin and hypodermic cellulose:
A.
Cut
B.
Chopped
C.
Crack
D.
* Scalped
E.
Slaughter
From transferred, choose the first phase of the wound process by Kuzin M.I:
A.
* Phase of inflammation
B.
Phase of regeneration
C.
Phase of formation the scar
D.
Phase of epithelisation
E.
Phase of dehydration
From transferred, choose the second phase of the wound process by Kuzin M.I:
A.
Phase of inflammation
B.
* Phase of regeneration
C.
Phase of formation the scar
D.
Phase of epithelisation
E.
Phase of dehydration
From transferred, choose the third phase of the wound process by Kuzin M.I:
A.
Phase of inflammation
B.
Phase of regeneration
C.
* Phase of formation the scar
D.
Phase of epithelisation
E.
Phase of dehydration
How is named the third area of damage the gunchot wound?
A.
Wound channel
B.
Area of traumatic necrosis
C.
* Area of molecular concussion
B.
C.
D.
E.
869.
870.
871.
872.
873.
874.
875.
876.
877.
Area of primary necrosis
Area of direct traumatic necrosis
Hypodermic emphysema at the closed trauma of thorax is a sign:
A.
* Break of ribs with the defeat of pulmonary tissue
B.
Break of ribs without the defeat of pulmonary tissue
C.
Hemotoraks
D.
Haematoma of the soft tissue
E.
Cowed of the soft tissue of thorax
Improved surgical treatment of wound it is
A.
Treatment a pulsating stream
B.
Treatment a vacuum
C.
Treatment of the laser
D.
Treatment an ultrasound
E.
* All answers are faithful
In the phase the wound process ephythelization wound takes a place
A.
Inflammation
B.
* Regeneration
C.
Reorganization of scar
D.
Dehydratation
E.
Rehydratayion
Injured person with the penetrable wound of stomach at the general satisfactory state sent:
A.
In a antishok separation
B.
In an operating-room in the planned order
C.
* In a surgical department
D.
In an operating-room urgent
E.
All answers are correct
Injured person with the symptoms of the internal bleeding in an abdominal region sent:
A.
In a antishok separation
B.
* In an operating-room in the planned order
C.
In a surgical department
D.
In an operating-room urgent
E.
All answers are correct
Large hemothorax it is
A.
* 1550 ml blood in a pleura cavity
B.
750 ml of blood in a pleura cavity
C.
500 ml blood in a pleura cavity
D.
100 ml blood in a pleura cavity
E.
50 ml blood in a pleura cavity
Likvorodinamic tests do research with a purpose
A.
* Degree of communicating under spider web space
B.
Level of violation the conductivity
C.
Determination of admixtures of blood in licvor
D.
Determination of extraneous body in licvor
E.
All of answers are faithful
Medical measures at the plural breaks of the ribs
A.
* Intercostals novocaine blockade
B.
Tight bandaging of the breasts
C.
Model plaster in the places of the damages
D.
Artificial ventilation of lungs
E.
Statute the suffering on a side damage
Medical tactic at the closed trauma of breasts with a damage lungs and tense pneumothorax
A.
Conservative treatment
B.
* Drainage of pleura cavity
C.
Urgent thoracotomy
D.
Use of artificial ventilation of lungs
E.
All answers are faithful
Middle hemothorax it is
D.
E.
878.
879.
880.
881.
882.
883.
884.
885.
886.
887.
To 850 ml blood in a pleura cavity
750 ml of blood in a pleura cavity
* 600 ml blood in a pleura cavity
100 ml blood in a pleura cavity
50 ml blood in a pleura cavity
Place conducting of diagnostic pleura punction at suspicion in the presence of gas in a pleura
cavity
A.
In a projection pleura a sine
B.
In 6th intercostals gap along axilar posterior lines
C.
In 7th intercostals gap along a shovel line
D.
* In 2th along along a middling clavicular line
E.
In the place of most dullness, certain at percusion
Place of implementation puncture the pericardium
A.
II intercostals gap along parasternal lines on the left
B.
VI intercostals gap along middle collarbone line on the left
C.
IV intercostals gap along anterior axilar lines on the left
D.
* Under a sword like sprout
E.
All answers are faithful
Reason of grave condition the suffering with a wound heart
A.
Cardiac insufficiency
B.
Violation of cardiac rhythm
C.
Blood loss
D.
* Tamponade hearts
E.
Hemopneumothorax
Small hemothorax it is
A.
To 850 ml blood in a pleura cavity
B.
750 ml of blood in a pleura cavity
C.
500 ml blood in a pleura cavity
D.
* 100 ml blood in a pleura cavity
E.
50 ml blood in a pleura cavity
Specify the most informing method of diagnostics the damages of parenchymal organs at the
closed trauma of stomach?
A.
Survey X-ray research
B.
Positive symptom by Schotkin-Blyumberga
C.
* Laparosentez
D.
Determination the indexes of homodynamic
E.
Ultrasonic research
Specify the most informing method of diagnostics the damages of hollow organs at the closed
trauma of stomach.
A.
Survey X-ray research
B.
Positive symptom by Schotkin-Blyumberga
C.
* Laparosentez
D.
Determination the indexes of homodynamic
E.
Ultrasonic research
Specify the most informing method of diagnostics the damages of parenchymal organs at the
closed trauma of stomach at the grant of skilled surgical help
A.
Survey X-ray research
B.
Positive symptom by Schotkin-Blyumberga
C.
* Laparosentez
D.
Determination the indexes of homodynamic
E.
Ultrasonic research
Specify the most informing method of diagnostics the damages of hollow organs at the closed
trauma of stomach at the grant of skilled surgical help
A.
Survey X-ray research
B.
Positive symptom by Schotkin-Blyumberga
C.
* Laparosentez
D.
Determination the indexes of homodynamic
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
888.
889.
890.
891.
892.
893.
894.
895.
Ultrasonic research
That behaves to the obligatory objective methods of estimation flowing of the wound process
A.
Area and speed of healing
B.
Cytogram
C.
Bacteriological determination of amount the microbes in a 1 gr of tissue or in 1 ml of
exudat
D.
Indexes tissue hemostasis
E.
* All answers are faithful
The first medical aid at valvular pnevmothorax is:
A.
To put occlusion bandage
B.
Intercostals blockade
C.
* Translate in opened pnevmothorax
D.
Vagosimpatic blockade
E.
Torakotomy
The gunshot wounds of bowel sew:
A.
Single nodal stitch
B.
* Dual nodal stitch
C.
Third nodal stitches
D.
Stitch by Mikulich
E.
Stitch by Donati
The gunshot wounds of the intraperitoneum department of colon sew:
A.
Single nodal stitch
B.
Dual nodal stitch
C.
* Third nodal stitches
D.
Relative indications
E.
All of answers are faithful
The level of damage the spine answers the level of damage the spinal cord
A.
Yes
B.
Below on a 1 vertebra
C.
* Yes, with a change up to the top
D.
Yes, with a change down
E.
All answers are faithful
The penetrable wound of stomach accompanied a damage
A.
Skin
B.
Skin, fascia
C.
* Skin, fascia, muscle, peritoneum
D.
Skin, fascia, muscle
E.
Only fatty cellulose
The symptom of «light interval» is characteristic for:
A.
Concussion of the head brain
B.
* Intracranial hematoma
C.
Inflammation of the head brainr
D.
Cerebral ischemia
E.
All
To mediators of inflammatory reaction belongs
A.
* All answers are faithful
B.
Amins
C.
Protease
D.
Citokins
E.
Polipeptids
To the additional objective methods of estimation flowing the wound process belongs
A.
Morphology of wound
B.
Wound electro-potentials
C.
* All answers are faithful
D.
Termography the wound
E.
Polyarography
Transfer the ways of introduction the antibiotics
E.
896.
897.
898.
899.
900.
901.
902.
903.
904.
905.
* All of answers are faithful
Intramuscular
Intravenous
Intraarterial
Endolyphatic
Treatment the penetrable wound of breasts with the damage of pulmonary tissue at the grant of
skilled surgical help is:
A.
Antishock therapy
B.
* Derange of the pleura cavity
C.
Urgent thoracotomy
D.
Primary surgical treatment the wound soft tissue of the pectoral wall
E.
All of answers are faithful
What are the methods of closing of the pus wound
A.
Initially deferred stitch
B.
Early second stitch
C.
Late second stitch
D.
Skin the plastic arts
E.
* All answers are faithful
What are types of heal the wounds?
A.
Primary tension
B.
Second tension
C.
Heal under a scab
D.
Heal through infiltration
E.
* All answers are faithful
What are types of tests on an allergy to the antibiotics
A.
On glass
B.
On animals
C.
* Onscin
D.
Hypodermic
E.
All answers are faithful
What basic cellular elements do take part in the phase regeneration of the wound process?
A.
Lymphocyte
B.
Neiyrofil leucocytes
C.
* Macrophage
D.
Erythrocytes
E.
Trombocytes
What blockade is used in complex treatment of the closed trauma the thorax
A.
Cases
B.
Plexus
C.
Round ligament of the liver
D.
Paranefral
E.
* Vagosimpatic
What cases an operation in at the closed trauma of skull is indication?
A.
External bleeding
B.
Bleeding which proceeds
C.
At the break of basis of skull
D.
* At intracranial haematoma
E.
All answers are faithful
What classification the phases of wound process use on the modern stage
A.
* By Kuzin
B.
By Rufanov
C.
By Leguminous
D.
By Vishnevskiy
E.
By Dacenkom
What does behave to principles of the antibacterial therapy?
A.
Determination of sensitiveness the microorganisms to the antibiotics
B.
Use antibiotics of wide spectr action
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
906.
907.
908.
909.
910.
911.
912.
913.
914.
Change of antibiotics in 7-10 days
Different ways of introduction
* All answers are faithful
What elements of blood do play a basic role in the period of cleaning wounds from
microorganisms and necrotic tissue?
A.
Erythrocyte
B.
Platelet
C.
Lymphocyte
D.
* Neitrofile leucocytes
E.
Fibroblasts
What elements of blood have proteolitic action in a wounds?
A.
Lymphocyte
B.
* Neiyrofil leucocytes
C.
Macrophage
D.
Erythrocytes
E.
Trombocytes
What factors are determine manifest of the pain syndrome in a wound?
A.
Localization of the wound
B.
Damage of the large nervous barrels
C.
Character of scotching object and speed of causing the wound
D.
Neuro-mental state of organism
E.
* All answers are faithful
What factors do determine bleeding intensity at a wound?
A.
Presence of damage the large vessels
B.
Localization of the wound
C.
Character of scotching object
D.
State of local hemodinamic and coagulation system
E.
* All answers are faithful
What factors do influence on heal of the wounds?
A.
Age sick
B.
Mass of body
C.
Immune status of organism
D.
State of local and general circulation of blood
E.
* All answers are faithful
What factors do result in the increase of penetrating the vascular wall in the phase of
inflammation?
A.
Macrophages
B.
* Biogenic amines
C.
Erythrocyte
D.
Leucocytes
E.
Complement system
What from the methods of diagnostics most informing at the closed cranial-cerebral trauma
A.
* Computer tomography
B.
Sonography
C.
Elektroentsefalography
D.
Lumbal puncture
E.
Pnevmoencefalography
What heaviest complication of the closed trauma the thorax is?
A.
* Hemotoraks
B.
Break of ribs
C.
Pneumothorax
D.
Cowed of the soft tissue
E.
Break of the breastbone
What is basic complications of the healing wound?
A.
Development the infection in a wound
B.
Primary bleeding
C.
Second bleeding
C.
D.
E.
915.
916.
917.
918.
919.
920.
921.
922.
923.
Divergence the edges of wound
* All answers are faithful
What is it possible to facilitate the state the patient with a wound heart to the operation?
A.
Application of cardiac medicine
B.
* Puncture of the pericardium
C.
Application of artificial ventilation of lights
D.
Hemotransfuzion
E.
Inhalation of the oxygen
What is named wound where quantity microorganism are more 105 1g.tissue and are present
sings of the inflammation?
A.
Aseptic
B.
Infected
C.
Bacterial muddy
D.
* Festering
E.
Conditional aseptic
What methods of the improved surgical treatment can be use for treatment of the boil wounds?
A.
Treatment a laser
B.
Ultrasonic cavitation
C.
Washing a pulsating stream
D.
Cryodestruction
E.
* All answers are faithful
What phase of the wound process a synthesis of collagen is present?
A.
Inflammation
B.
* Regeneration
C.
Reorganization of scar
D.
Dehydratation
E.
Rehydratayion
What phase of the wound process a wound contraction is present?
A.
Inflammation
B.
* Regeneration
C.
Reorganization of scar
D.
Dehydratation
E.
Rehydratayion
What phase of the wound process prolipheration of cells is preasen?
A.
Inflammation
B.
* Regeneration
C.
Reorganization of scar
D.
Dehydratation
E.
Rehydratayion
What phase of the wounds process by M. I. Kuzin consists of two periods
A.
* Phase of inflammation
B.
Phase of regeneration
C.
Phase of formation the scar
D.
Phase of epithelisation
E.
Phase of dehydration
What phase of wound process a selection the mediators of inflammation is present?
A.
* Inflammation
B.
Regeneration
C.
Reorganization of scar
D.
Dehydratation
E.
Rehydratayion
What principles of surgical treatment of the pus wound
A.
Surgical treatment of wound
B.
Derange
C.
Treatment in the guided antibacterial environment
D.
Closing of the pus wound
E.
* All answers are faithful
D.
E.
924.
925.
926.
927.
928.
929.
930.
931.
932.
933.
934.
935.
936.
937.
938.
939.
940.
941.
942.
What test testifies about continuation of the intrapleural bleeding
A.
* Greguara
B.
With a drop
C.
Brodi
D.
Sobraze
E.
Shtange
What type of healing is named Sonatio of per secundom intentionem?
A.
Healing primary tension
B.
* Healing second tension
C.
Healing under a scab
D.
Healing through infiltration
E.
All answers are faithful
What type of healing is named Sanotio of per primam intentionem?
A.
* Healing primary tension
B.
Healing second tension
C.
Healing under a scab
D.
Healing through infiltration
E.
All answers are faithful
What wound are most damaged for surrounding tissue?
A.
To cut
B.
To slaughter
C.
To bitten
D.
* To lacerated
E.
To chopped
What wound are surrounding tissue least damaged at and is a deep wound channel?
A.
To Cut
B.
* To crack
C.
To bitten
D.
To lacerated
E.
To chopped
What wound are terms created for development of anaerobic infection?
A.
In chopped
B.
In slaughter
C.
In bitten
D.
In lacerated
E.
* In gunshot
What wounds are most infected?
A.
Cut
B.
Spear
C.
Cowed
D.
Bitten
E.
* Squashed
What wounds can tale develop at?
A.
Spear
B.
Cut
C.
* Bitten
D.
Lacerated
E.
Squashed
What wounds have three areas of damage ?
A.
Spear
B.
Cut
C.
Bitten
D.
Lacerated
E.
* Gunshot
A basic role of the fibroblasts in a wound process is:
A.
Cleaning of wound
B.
* Synthesis the components of young tissue
Selection of the protheolitic enzymes
Phagocytosis of the necrotic tissue
Takes part in immune reactions
A place of deranges the pectoral cavity at pneumothorax is
A.
IX-X intercostals gap along a shovel line
B.
VI-VII intercostals gap along a shovel line
C.
VI-VII intercostals gap along axilar posterior line
D.
* II-III intercostals gap along middle collarbone line
E.
All answers are faithful
A place of pleura punction at presence of pleura exudation is
A.
IX-X intercostals gap along a shovel line
B.
* VI-VII intercostals gap along a shovel line
C.
VI-VII intercostals gap along axilar posterior line
D.
II-III intercostals gap along axilar posterior line
E.
All answers are faithful
A positive test with a drop at the opened cranial-cerebral trauma testifies to:
A.
Opened cranial-cerebral trauma
B.
Closed cranial-cerebral trauma
C.
Integrity of hard brain-tunic
D.
Stop of bleeding from pia maters
E.
* Continuation of bleeding from a pia mater
A reliable clinical sign of break the pulmonary tissue at the closed trauma of breasts is
A.
Violation of breathing
B.
Presence of moist wheezes on the side of damage
C.
Kripitation in a hypodermic cellulose
D.
* Bloodspit
E.
Absence the respiratory noises on the side of damage
Accordingly classification the wound process by M.I. Kuzin distinguish phases:
A.
* Inflammation, regenerations, formations of the scar.
B.
Aquation, dehydration, epithelition
C.
Vascular reactions, cleaning of wound, epithelition
D.
Inflammation, aquation, formation of scar
E.
Cleaning of wound, dehydration, aquation
Acute subdural haematoma arise up through
A.
12-24 hours after a trauma
B.
* At 12-48 o'clock after a trauma
C.
48-72 hours after a trauma
D.
7-10 days after a trauma
E.
12-18 days after a trauma
After an operation on a skull the term of nontransportable makes
A.
5-8 days
B.
9-14 days
C.
* 14-21 day
D.
21-27 days
E.
All answers are faithful
At the penetrable sper-cut wound of thorax the operation of choice is
A.
* Urgent thoracotomy
B.
Drainage of the pleura cavity
C.
Sewing of the all layers the wound
D.
Carving the edges of wound, imposition the stitches
E.
All answers are faithful
At a damage middling of envelope artery arises up
A.
* Epidural haematoma
B.
Subdural haematoma
C.
Inwardly cerebral haematoma
D.
Intravenyricular haematoma
E.
All answers are faithful
C.
D.
E.
943.
944.
945.
946.
947.
948.
949.
950.
951.
952.
953.
954.
955.
956.
957.
958.
959.
960.
At gunshot wounds of the intraperitoneum department of rectum imposition of artificial anus
A.
* Binding
B.
Do not binding
C.
For indications
D.
For relative indications
E.
All of answers are faithful
At laparocentesis, with the purpose of determination the damages of internal organs, in an
abdominal region solution entered in an amount:
A.
300 ml
B.
800 ml
C.
* 100 ml
D.
1200 ml
E.
More than 1200 ml
At tense pneumothorax there are all the symptoms higher transferred except for:
A.
Pain in a thorax
B.
Shortness of breath (difficulty in breathing)
C.
Absence of respiratory noises from one side
D.
Cyanosis
E.
* Displacement rhe trachea in the side of pneumothorax
At tense pneumothorax indication:
A.
Traheostomy
B.
Artificial ventilation of lungs
C.
* Drainage of the pleura cavity
D.
Intubation of trachea
E.
All of answers are faithful
At the closed cranial-cerebral trauma shown
A.
Hypothermia of the chairman
B.
Hypothermia of the neck
C.
* Craniogipotermiya
D.
UHF therapy
E.
Ultrasonic cavition
At the closed trauma of breasts a grave general condition, cyanosys, shortness of breath,
hypodermic emphysema on a neck. Diagnosis?
A.
Breaking lung
B.
Damage of gullet
C.
* Breaking main bronchial tube
D.
Damage of heart
E.
Damage of neck
At what wound external bleeding is the insignificant at, but haematomas appear often?
A.
To cut
B.
* To elaughter
C.
To bitten
D.
To lacerated
E.
To chopped
First medical aid at penetrate damages of breasts and opened pnevmothorax
A.
* Imposition of occlusive bandage
B.
Imposition of aseptic bandage
C.
Neck vagosimpatic blockade
D.
Introduction of narcotic analgesic
E.
Artificial ventilation of lights
For injured with the trauma of the spine observed tetraplegia with violation of functions the pelvic
organs, violation of breathing. What department spinal cord is damage?
A.
In a breast
B.
* In neck
C.
In reins
D.
In a «horse tail»
E.
In a sacrum
961.
962.
963.
964.
965.
966.
967.
968.
969.
970.
For tense pneumothorax characteristic:
A.
Asphyxia
B.
Anaemia
C.
Cardiac insufficiency
D.
* Respiratory insufficiency
E.
All of answers are faithful
For traumatic asphyxia most characteristically
A.
Hypodermic emphysema
B.
Opened pneumothorax
C.
* Subconuctival hemorrhages
D.
Motive and psychical excitation
E.
Disorders of language
For what wound are characteristic large depth and little damaged of the surrounding tissue?
A.
Cut
B.
* Creck
C.
Bitten
D.
Lacerated
E.
Chopped
For what wounds characteristic is removing a layer of skin and hypodermic cellulose:
A.
Cut
B.
Chopped
C.
Crack
D.
* Scalped
E.
Slaughter
From transferred, choose the first phase of the wound process by Kuzin M.I:
A.
* Phase of inflammation
B.
Phase of regeneration
C.
Phase of formation the scar
D.
Phase of epithelisation
E.
Phase of dehydration
From transferred, choose the second phase of the wound process by Kuzin M.I:
A.
Phase of inflammation
B.
* Phase of regeneration
C.
Phase of formation the scar
D.
Phase of epithelisation
E.
Phase of dehydration
From transferred, choose the third phase of the wound process by Kuzin M.I:
A.
Phase of inflammation
B.
Phase of regeneration
C.
* Phase of formation the scar
D.
Phase of epithelisation
E.
Phase of dehydration
How is named the third area of damage the gunchot wound?
A.
Wound channel
B.
Area of traumatic necrosis
C.
* Area of molecular concussion
D.
Area of primary necrosis
E.
Area of direct traumatic necrosis
Hypodermic emphysema at the closed trauma of thorax is a sign:
A.
* Break of ribs with the defeat of pulmonary tissue
B.
Break of ribs without the defeat of pulmonary tissue
C.
Hemotoraks
D.
Haematoma of the soft tissue
E.
Cowed of the soft tissue of thorax
Improved surgical treatment of wound it is
A.
Treatment a pulsating stream
B.
Treatment a vacuum
Treatment of the laser
Treatment an ultrasound
* All answers are faithful
In the phase the wound process ephythelization wound takes a place
A.
Inflammation
B.
* Regeneration
C.
Reorganization of scar
D.
Dehydratation
E.
Rehydratayion
In patient with the trauma of thorax at palpation determined slight swelling of soft tissue,
symptom of cripitation, what it testifies to:
A.
Haematoma
B.
* Hypodermic emphysema
C.
Hemotoraks
D.
Opened pneumothorax
E.
Valvular pneumothorax
In what phase of the wound process by Kuzin M.I. does an edema and leukocytic infiltration of
tissue develop round a wound?
A.
* Phase of inflammation
B.
Phase of regeneration
C.
Phase of formation the scar
D.
Phase of epithelisation
E.
Phase of dehydration
In what phase of the wounds process by Kuzin M.I. does osmotic pressure rise in tissue, the delay
of water passes, an edema develops?
A.
* Phase of inflammation
B.
Phase of regeneration
C.
Phase of formation the scar
D.
Phase of epithelization
E.
Phase of dehydration
Injured person with the penetrable wound of stomach at the general satisfactory state sent:
A.
In a antishok separation
B.
In an operating-room in the planned order
C.
* In a surgical department
D.
In an operating-room urgent
E.
All answers are correct
Injured person with the symptoms of the internal bleeding in an abdominal region sent:
A.
In a antishok separation
B.
* In an operating-room in the planned order
C.
In a surgical department
D.
In an operating-room urgent
E.
All answers are correct
Large hemothorax it is
A.
* 1550 ml blood in a pleura cavity
B.
750 ml of blood in a pleura cavity
C.
500 ml blood in a pleura cavity
D.
100 ml blood in a pleura cavity
E.
50 ml blood in a pleura cavity
Likvorodinamic tests do research with a purpose
A.
* Degree of communicating under spider web space
B.
Level of violation the conductivity
C.
Determination of admixtures of blood in licvor
D.
Determination of extraneous body in licvor
E.
All of answers are faithful
Medical measures at the plural breaks of the ribs
A.
* Intercostals novocaine blockade
B.
Tight bandaging of the breasts
C.
D.
E.
971.
972.
973.
974.
975.
976.
977.
978.
979.
Model plaster in the places of the damages
Artificial ventilation of lungs
Statute the suffering on a side damage
Medical tactic at the closed trauma of breasts with a damage lungs and tense pneumothorax
A.
Conservative treatment
B.
* Drainage of pleura cavity
C.
Urgent thoracotomy
D.
Use of artificial ventilation of lungs
E.
All answers are faithful
Middle hemothorax it is
A.
To 850 ml blood in a pleura cavity
B.
750 ml of blood in a pleura cavity
C.
* 600 ml blood in a pleura cavity
D.
100 ml blood in a pleura cavity
E.
50 ml blood in a pleura cavity
Place conducting of diagnostic pleura punction at suspicion in the presence of gas in a pleura
cavity
A.
In a projection pleura a sine
B.
In 6th intercostals gap along axilar posterior lines
C.
In 7th intercostals gap along a shovel line
D.
* In 2th along along a middling clavicular line
E.
In the place of most dullness, certain at percusion
Place of implementation puncture the pericardium
A.
II intercostals gap along parasternal lines on the left
B.
VI intercostals gap along middle collarbone line on the left
C.
IV intercostals gap along anterior axilar lines on the left
D.
* Under a sword like sprout
E.
All answers are faithful
Reason of grave condition the suffering with a wound heart
A.
Cardiac insufficiency
B.
Violation of cardiac rhythm
C.
Blood loss
D.
* Tamponade hearts
E.
Hemopneumothorax
Small hemothorax it is
A.
To 850 ml blood in a pleura cavity
B.
750 ml of blood in a pleura cavity
C.
500 ml blood in a pleura cavity
D.
* 100 ml blood in a pleura cavity
E.
50 ml blood in a pleura cavity
Specify the most informing method of diagnostics the damages of parenchymal organs at the
closed trauma of stomach?
A.
Survey X-ray research
B.
Positive symptom by Schotkin-Blyumberga
C.
* Laparosentez
D.
Determination the indexes of homodynamic
E.
Ultrasonic research
Specify the most informing method of diagnostics the damages of hollow organs at the closed
trauma of stomach.
A.
Survey X-ray research
B.
Positive symptom by Schotkin-Blyumberga
C.
* Laparosentez
D.
Determination the indexes of homodynamic
E.
Ultrasonic research
Specify the most informing method of diagnostics the damages of parenchymal organs at the
closed trauma of stomach at the grant of skilled surgical help
A.
Survey X-ray research
C.
D.
E.
980.
981.
982.
983.
984.
985.
986.
987.
988.
Positive symptom by Schotkin-Blyumberga
* Laparosentez
Determination the indexes of homodynamic
Ultrasonic research
Specify the most informing method of diagnostics the damages of hollow organs at the closed
trauma of stomach at the grant of skilled surgical help
A.
Survey X-ray research
B.
Positive symptom by Schotkin-Blyumberga
C.
* Laparosentez
D.
Determination the indexes of homodynamic
E.
Ultrasonic research
That behaves to the obligatory objective methods of estimation flowing of the wound process
A.
Area and speed of healing
B.
Cytogram
C.
Bacteriological determination of amount the microbes in a 1 gr of tissue or in 1 ml of
exudat
D.
Indexes tissue hemostasis
E.
* All answers are faithful
The first medical aid at valvular pnevmothorax is:
A.
To put occlusion bandage
B.
Intercostals blockade
C.
* Translate in opened pnevmothorax
D.
Vagosimpatic blockade
E.
Torakotomy
The gunshot wounds of bowel sew:
A.
Single nodal stitch
B.
* Dual nodal stitch
C.
Third nodal stitches
D.
Stitch by Mikulich
E.
Stitch by Donati
The gunshot wounds of the intraperitoneum department of colon sew:
A.
Single nodal stitch
B.
Dual nodal stitch
C.
* Third nodal stitches
D.
Relative indications
E.
All of answers are faithful
The level of damage the spine answers the level of damage the spinal cord
A.
Yes
B.
Below on a 1 vertebra
C.
* Yes, with a change up to the top
D.
Yes, with a change down
E.
All answers are faithful
The penetrable wound of stomach accompanied a damage
A.
Skin
B.
Skin, fascia
C.
* Skin, fascia, muscle, peritoneum
D.
Skin, fascia, muscle
E.
Only fatty cellulose
The symptom of «light interval» is characteristic for:
A.
Concussion of the head brain
B.
* Intracranial hematoma
C.
Inflammation of the head brainr
D.
Cerebral ischemia
E.
All
To mediators of inflammatory reaction belongs
A.
* All answers are faithful
B.
Amins
B.
C.
D.
E.
989.
990.
991.
992.
993.
994.
995.
996.
997.
Protease
Citokins
Polipeptids
To the additional objective methods of estimation flowing the wound process belongs
A.
Morphology of wound
B.
Wound electro-potentials
C.
* All answers are faithful
D.
Termography the wound
E.
Polyarography
Transfer the ways of introduction the antibiotics
A.
* All of answers are faithful
B.
Intramuscular
C.
Intravenous
D.
Intraarterial
E.
Endolyphatic
Treatment the penetrable wound of breasts with the damage of pulmonary tissue at the grant of
skilled surgical help is:
A.
Antishock therapy
B.
* Derange of the pleura cavity
C.
Urgent thoracotomy
D.
Primary surgical treatment the wound soft tissue of the pectoral wall
E.
All of answers are faithful
What are the methods of closing of the pus wound
A.
Initially deferred stitch
B.
Early second stitch
C.
Late second stitch
D.
Skin the plastic arts
E.
* All answers are faithful
What are types of heal the wounds?
A.
Primary tension
B.
Second tension
C.
Heal under a scab
D.
Heal through infiltration
E.
* All answers are faithful
What are types of tests on an allergy to the antibiotics
A.
On glass
B.
On animals
C.
* Onscin
D.
Hypodermic
E.
All answers are faithful
What basic cellular elements do take part in the phase regeneration of the wound process?
A.
Lymphocyte
B.
Neiyrofil leucocytes
C.
* Macrophage
D.
Erythrocytes
E.
Trombocytes
What blockade is used in complex treatment of the closed trauma the thorax
A.
Cases
B.
Plexus
C.
Round ligament of the liver
D.
Paranefral
E.
* Vagosimpatic
What cases an operation in at the closed trauma of skull is indication?
A.
External bleeding
B.
Bleeding which proceeds
C.
At the break of basis of skull
D.
* At intracranial haematoma
C.
D.
E.
998.
999.
1000.
1001.
1002.
1003.
1004.
1005.
1006.
All answers are faithful
What classification the phases of wound process use on the modern stage
A.
* By Kuzin
B.
By Rufanov
C.
By Leguminous
D.
By Vishnevskiy
E.
By Dacenkom
What does behave to principles of the antibacterial therapy?
A.
Determination of sensitiveness the microorganisms to the antibiotics
B.
Use antibiotics of wide spectr action
C.
Change of antibiotics in 7-10 days
D.
Different ways of introduction
E.
* All answers are faithful
What elements of blood do play a basic role in the period of cleaning wounds from
microorganisms and necrotic tissue?
A.
Erythrocyte
B.
Platelet
C.
Lymphocyte
D.
* Neitrofile leucocytes
E.
Fibroblasts
What elements of blood have proteolitic action in a wounds?
A.
Lymphocyte
B.
* Neiyrofil leucocytes
C.
Macrophage
D.
Erythrocytes
E.
Trombocytes
What factors are determine manifest of the pain syndrome in a wound?
A.
Localization of the wound
B.
Damage of the large nervous barrels
C.
Character of scotching object and speed of causing the wound
D.
Neuro-mental state of organism
E.
* All answers are faithful
What factors do determine bleeding intensity at a wound?
A.
Presence of damage the large vessels
B.
Localization of the wound
C.
Character of scotching object
D.
State of local hemodinamic and coagulation system
E.
* All answers are faithful
What factors do influence on heal of the wounds?
A.
Age sick
B.
Mass of body
C.
Immune status of organism
D.
State of local and general circulation of blood
E.
* All answers are faithful
What factors do result in the increase of penetrating the vascular wall in the phase of
inflammation?
A.
Macrophages
B.
* Biogenic amines
C.
Erythrocyte
D.
Leucocytes
E.
Complement system
What from the methods of diagnostics most informing at the closed cranial-cerebral trauma
A.
* Computer tomography
B.
Sonography
C.
Elektroentsefalography
D.
Lumbal puncture
E.
Pnevmoencefalography
E.
1007.
1008.
1009.
1010.
1011.
1012.
1013.
1014.
1015.
1016.
1017.
1018.
1019.
1020.
1021.
1022.
1023.
1024.
1025.
What heaviest complication of the closed trauma the thorax is?
A.
* Hemotoraks
B.
Break of ribs
C.
Pneumothorax
D.
Cowed of the soft tissue
E.
Break of the breastbone
What is basic complications of the healing wound?
A.
Development the infection in a wound
B.
Primary bleeding
C.
Second bleeding
D.
Divergence the edges of wound
E.
* All answers are faithful
What is it possible to facilitate the state the patient with a wound heart to the operation?
A.
Application of cardiac medicine
B.
* Puncture of the pericardium
C.
Application of artificial ventilation of lights
D.
Hemotransfuzion
E.
Inhalation of the oxygen
What is named wound where quantity microorganism are more 105 1g.tissue and are present
sings of the inflammation?
A.
Aseptic
B.
Infected
C.
Bacterial muddy
D.
* Festering
E.
Conditional aseptic
What methods of the improved surgical treatment can be use for treatment of the boil wounds?
A.
Treatment a laser
B.
Ultrasonic cavitation
C.
Washing a pulsating stream
D.
Cryodestruction
E.
* All answers are faithful
What phase of the wound process a synthesis of collagen is present?
A.
Inflammation
B.
* Regeneration
C.
Reorganization of scar
D.
Dehydratation
E.
Rehydratayion
What phase of the wound process a wound contraction is present?
A.
Inflammation
B.
* Regeneration
C.
Reorganization of scar
D.
Dehydratation
E.
Rehydratayion
What phase of the wound process prolipheration of cells is preasen?
A.
Inflammation
B.
* Regeneration
C.
Reorganization of scar
D.
Dehydratation
E.
Rehydratayion
What phase of the wounds process by M. I. Kuzin consists of two periods
A.
* Phase of inflammation
B.
Phase of regeneration
C.
Phase of formation the scar
D.
Phase of epithelisation
E.
Phase of dehydration
What phase of wound process a selection the mediators of inflammation is present?
A.
* Inflammation
Regeneration
Reorganization of scar
Dehydratation
Rehydratayion
What principles of surgical treatment of the pus wound
A.
Surgical treatment of wound
B.
Derange
C.
Treatment in the guided antibacterial environment
D.
Closing of the pus wound
E.
* All answers are faithful
What test testifies about continuation of the intrapleural bleeding
A.
* Greguara
B.
With a drop
C.
Brodi
D.
Sobraze
E.
Shtange
What type of healing is named Sonatio of per secundom intentionem?
A.
Healing primary tension
B.
* Healing second tension
C.
Healing under a scab
D.
Healing through infiltration
E.
All answers are faithful
What type of healing is named Sanotio of per primam intentionem?
A.
* Healing primary tension
B.
Healing second tension
C.
Healing under a scab
D.
Healing through infiltration
E.
All answers are faithful
What wound are most damaged for surrounding tissue?
A.
To cut
B.
To slaughter
C.
To bitten
D.
* To lacerated
E.
To chopped
What wound are surrounding tissue least damaged at and is a deep wound channel?
A.
To Cut
B.
* To crack
C.
To bitten
D.
To lacerated
E.
To chopped
What wound are terms created for development of anaerobic infection?
A.
In chopped
B.
In slaughter
C.
In bitten
D.
In lacerated
E.
* In gunshot
What wounds are most infected?
A.
Cut
B.
Spear
C.
Cowed
D.
Bitten
E.
* Squashed
What wounds can tale develop at?
A.
Spear
B.
Cut
C.
* Bitten
D.
Lacerated
B.
C.
D.
E.
1026.
1027.
1028.
1029.
1030.
1031.
1032.
1033.
1034.
Squashed
What wounds have three areas of damage ?
A.
Spear
B.
Cut
C.
Bitten
D.
Lacerated
E.
* Gunshot
A presence of purulent pin in a center inflammatory infiltrate is a sign:
A.
Lymphadenitis.
B.
Abscess.
C.
Common acne.
D.
* Furuncle.
E.
Erysipelas.
According the complex of clinical symptoms it is possible to select the followings forms of
erysipelas:
A.
Erythematous;
B.
Bullous;
C.
Flegmonous;
D.
Necrotic;
E.
* All answers are correct.
Acute diffuse purulent inflammation of fatty tissue and cellular spaces – it is:
A.
Erysipelas.
B.
* Phlegmon.
C.
Bursitis.
D.
Abscess.
E.
Hydradenitis.
Acute diffuse purulent inflammation of fatty tissue and cellular spaces – it is:
A.
* Phlegmon.
B.
Hydradenitis
C.
Arthritis
D.
Furuncle.
E.
Carbuncle.
Acute thrombophlebitis - it is:
A.
* Inflammation of vein’s walls with formation of blood clot.
B.
Inflammation of vein’s walls without formation of blood clot.
C.
Inflammation of sweat-glands.
D.
Inflammation of lymphatic nodes.
E.
Inflammation of subcutaneous fat.
At what diseases can there be a hectic temperature?
A.
Adenophlegmon.
B.
Abscess.
C.
Carbuncle.
D.
* All answers are correct.
E.
Phlegmon.
Carbuncle – it is:
A.
Purulent disease of fatty tissue.
B.
Purulent inflammation of skin.
C.
Purulent inflammation of hair follicle.
D.
* Acute purulent-necrotic inflammation of a few hair follicles and sebaceous gland.
E.
Purulent inflammation of lymphatic node.
Does erysipelas belong to the contagious forms?
A.
Conditionally;
B.
* Belongs;
C.
Not belongs;
D.
Sometimes;
E.
All answers are correct.
Does influence erysipelas on the general state of patient?
E.
1035.
1036.
1037.
1038.
1039.
1040.
1041.
1042.
1043.
1044.
* Yes;
Not influences;
Conditionally influences;
Sometimes;
All answers are correct.
During palpation of inflammatory focus the symptom of fluctuation is observed. The sign of what
process is it?
A.
Adenophlegmon.
B.
Purulent lymphadenitis.
C.
* Abscess.
D.
Phlegmon.
E.
All answers are correct.
Features of local painfulness at serous form of mastitis are:
A.
Alternate pain;
B.
* It is not;
C.
Irradiation of pain in a healthy gland;
D.
Pulsating;
E.
All answers are correct.
Features of treatment of wound after opening of paraproctitis in an early postoperative period are:
A.
* Like purulent wound according to the phases of wound’s process.
B.
Actively.
C.
Passively.
D.
In expectation.
E.
Aggressively.
For abscess formation a temperature curve is characteristic:
A.
Irregular type.
B.
Permanent.
C.
* Hectic.
D.
Remittent.
E.
Undulating.
How is erysipelatous inflammation named in Latin language?
A.
* Erysipelas;
B.
Erysipeloidis;
C.
Erysipsloidus;
D.
Beshiha;
E.
All answers are correct.
How is it possible to apply locally antibiotics in the initial stage of furuncle?
A.
* As electrophoresis;
B.
Infiltrate of soft tissues round a furuncle;
C.
Intra-skin injections;
D.
As ointments;
E.
All answers are correct.
How is it possible to delete a necrotic bar from a furuncle?
A.
* Pull out oft necrotic bar by the Pean’ clamp;
B.
Executing a Х- weld incision or H- weld incision;
C.
Executing a short incision;
D.
Executing a slanting incision;
E.
All answers are correct.
How is purulent inflammation of sweat-glands named?
A.
Lymphadenitis.
B.
Parotitis.
C.
* Hydradenitis.
D.
Furuncle.
E.
Carbuncle.
How is purulent-necrotic inflammation of a few hair follicles and sebaceous gland of hair is
named?
A.
Abscess.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1045.
1046.
1047.
1048.
1049.
1050.
1051.
1052.
1053.
Erysipelas.
Phlegmon.
* Carbuncle.
Furuncle.
How to expose local objective symptomatology at sub mucous paraproctitis?
A.
* Finger’s examination of rectum.
B.
Laboratory-clinically.
C.
Laboratory-biochemical researches.
D.
By auscultation.
E.
Endoscopic.
Hydradenitis – it is:
A.
Inflammation of lymphatic node.
B.
* Purulent inflammation of sweat-glands.
C.
Inflammation of walls of vein.
D.
Inflammation of lymphatic vessels.
E.
Inflammation of salivary gland.
In what does consist the treatments of phlegmonous and necrotic forms of erysipelas?
A.
Operation: opening and drainaging of phlegmon;
B.
Antibacterial therapy;
C.
Necrectomy;
D.
Auto-dermatoplasty (according indications);
E.
* All answers are correct.
In what does surgical treatment of abscess consist?
A.
Cut.
B.
Removal of exudates and necrotic tissues.
C.
Drainage of abscess.
D.
Aseptic bandage with antiseptic.
E.
* All answers are correct.
In what does the treatment of erysipelas consist?
A.
Immobilization the staggered area;
B.
Antibacterial therapy;
C.
Ultraviolet irradiation of skin;
D.
Vitamin’s therapy;
E.
* All answers are correct.
In what does the treatment of purulent paraproctitis consist?
A.
* Opening and drainaging of paraproctitis.
B.
Conservative therapy.
C.
Acupuncture.
D.
Cleansing enemas.
E.
Treatment’ compresses.
Is it needed to operate a carbuncle in the stage of infiltration?
A.
* Necessarily;
B.
Sometimes;
C.
Defer;
D.
Conservative therapy;
E.
All answers are correct.
Is it possible infiltrate of soft tissues by solution of antibiotic round a furuncle?
A.
* It is impossible;
B.
Sometimes;
C.
It is possible;
D.
Conditionally;
E.
All answers are correct.
Is it possible to apply locally antibiotics in the initial stage of furuncle?
A.
It is impossible;
B.
Sometimes;
C.
* It is possible;
D.
Conditionally;
B.
C.
D.
E.
1054.
1055.
1056.
1057.
1058.
1059.
1060.
1061.
1062.
All answers are correct.
Is it possible to use ointment bandages for treatment of patients with erysipelas?
A.
It is possible;
B.
* It is impossible;
C.
Conditionally can;
D.
Can in occasion;
E.
All answers are correct.
Name basic directions of patient’s treatment with erysipelas of upper extremity.
A.
Immobilization of extremity.
B.
Anti-bacterial therapy.
C.
Sulfanilamide’s treatment.
D.
Sub-erhythematous dose of ultraviolet irradiation.
E.
* All answers are correct.
Name basic tasks at treatment of patient with erysipelas.
A.
Immobilization the staggered area;
B.
Antibacterial therapy with sylph drugs;
C.
Ultraviolet irradiation of skin;
D.
Vitamin’ therapy;
E.
* All answers are correct
Name frequent complication of erysipelas of lower extremities?
A.
* Violation of lymph outflow - lymph stasis;
B.
Immune-deficit;
C.
Obliterative atherosclerosis;
D.
Reyno’s disease;
E.
All answers are correct.
Name possible localizations of abscesses?
A.
In a sub skin fat;
B.
In organs;
C.
In cavities;
D.
Deeper than sub skin fat;
E.
* All answers are correct.
Name reasons of abscess formation?
A.
Haematoma’ suppuration;
B.
Metastasis abscesses on a background a sepsis;
C.
Transformation of purulent diseases;
D.
Penetration of infection as a result of damage of skin and sub skin fat;
E.
* All answers are correct.
Name the basic diagnostic symptoms of erysipelas.
A.
Hyperaemia (as a geographical card);
B.
Local hyperthermia;
C.
Pain on periphery of inflammation;
D.
Hyperaemia is anymore on periphery;
E.
* All answers are correct.
Name the effective way of introduction of antibiotics?
A.
Intra-skin;
B.
Intravenous;
C.
Intramuscular;
D.
* Endo-lymphatic;
E.
Sub-skin.
Name the forms of paraproctitis according his localization.
A.
Sub-skin, submucous;
B.
Ischial-rectal;
C.
Pelvic-rectal;
D.
Retro rectal (horseshoe-shaped);
E.
* All answers are correct.
Name the general symptoms of erysipelas.
A.
Deterioration of the general state of patient;
E.
1063.
1064.
1065.
1066.
1067.
1068.
1069.
1070.
1071.
1072.
General hyperthermia 40-41? C;
Fever;
Great head pain, insomnia, oliguria;
* All answers are correct.
Name the local signs of acute lymphadenitis.
A.
Oedema and hyperaemia of skin above a node.
B.
Painful during palpation.
C.
Not mobility, lymph nodes soldered between itself.
D.
Local increase of temperature.
E.
* All answers are correct.
Name the local symptoms of hypodermic paraproctitis.
A.
Acute pulsating pain in per anal area.
B.
Pain increases during defecation.
C.
Oedema of skin.
D.
Hyperemia of skin.
E.
* All answers are correct.
Name the signs of superficial abscess?
A.
Limited painful slight swelling;
B.
Fluctuation is present;
C.
Local hyperemia;
D.
Local oedema;
E.
* All answers are correct.
Name the ways of distribution of infection in the cavity of skull at the furuncles of face.
A.
* V. angularis – V. ophtalmica - Sinus cavernosus;
B.
V. subclavia– V. ophtalmica - Sinus cavernosus;
C.
A. carotica com. – V. ophtalmica - Sinus cavernosus;
D.
A. temporalis– V. ophtalmica - Sinus cavernosus;
E.
All answers are correct.
Purulent inflammation of hair follicle with sebaceous gland of hair is named:
A.
Osteitis.
B.
Hydradenitis.
C.
Cellulitis.
D.
* Furuncle.
E.
Phlegmon.
That does the stage of development of furuncle determine in medical tactic (infiltration or abscess
formation)?
A.
* Choice conservative or operative treatment.
B.
Choice of antibacterial therapy.
C.
Choice of antiseptic.
D.
Choice of anesthetic.
E.
Choice facilities for immune-correction.
That from general treatment is it possible to appoint a patient with a furuncle?
A.
Ultraviolet irradiation of blood;
B.
Auto-vaccine;
C.
Intravenous laser irradiation;
D.
Vitamin’ therapy, anti-staphylococcus anatoxin;
E.
* All answers are correct.
That from general treatment is it possible to prescribe to patient with furunculosis?
A.
Auto-vaccine;
B.
Vitamin therapy;
C.
Intravenous laser irradiation;
D.
Ultraviolet irradiation of blood;
E.
* All answers are correct.
The local signs of thrombophlebitis of superficial veins are:
A.
* Hyperemia, infiltration of skin as strips forward of thrombosed vein, burning pain
forward of thrombosed vein.
B.
Scab forward of vein.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1073.
1074.
1075.
1076.
1077.
1078.
1079.
1080.
1081.
Intra-skin haemorrhage forward of vein.
Local decreasing of temperature.
Paleness of skin forward of thrombosed vein.
The pathognomic sign for an abscess at palpation is:
A.
Painful swelling.
B.
Painful infiltrate with distinguished boundary.
C.
Local hyperaemia.
D.
Fluctuation.
E.
* All answers are correct.
To the measures of treatment of acute ascending thrombophlebitis of superficial veins belong:
A.
* Operative treatment, usage of anticoagulants and thrombolytics, anti-inflammatory
therapy, and analgesics.
B.
Cooling of extremities.
C.
Spazmolytic therapy.
D.
Hot compresses.
E.
Antibiotic therapy.
To complications of acute thrombophlebitis behave:
A.
Clot embolism.
B.
Trophy ulcers of shin
C.
Post-thrombophlebitic syndrome.
D.
Chronic venous insufficiency.
E.
* All answers are correct
What amount of purulent pins is characteristic for a furuncle?
A.
Two.
B.
Three.
C.
* One.
D.
Four.
E.
More then four.
What are characteristic local symptoms of serous form of mastitis?
A.
Constant pain;
B.
Hyperthermia;
C.
Increase of mammary gland in sizes;
D.
Painful during palpation;
E.
* All answers are correct.
What causative agent does cause erysipelas?
A.
* Haemolytic streptococcus;
B.
Staphylococcus;
C.
Pneumococcus;
D.
Proteus;
E.
All answers are correct
What causative agent does cause the disease hydradenitis more frequent than all?
A.
* Staphylococcus aureus.
B.
Haemolytic streptococcus.
C.
Gonococcus.
D.
Colon bacillus.
E.
Anaerobic infection.
What clinical course of ischial-rectal and pelvic-rectal abscesses?
A.
* With heavy inflammatory displays, heavy intoxication.
B.
With easy inflammatory displays, heavy intoxication.
C.
With moderate inflammatory displays.
D.
With moderate inflammatory displays, easy intoxication.
E.
With moderate inflammatory displays, heavy intoxication.
What clinical forms of mastitis do you know?
A.
Serous;
B.
Infiltrative;
C.
Complicated by an abscess;
D.
Gangrenous;
C.
D.
E.
1082.
1083.
1084.
1085.
1086.
1087.
1088.
1089.
1090.
* All answers are correct.
What clinical signs of carbuncle do you know?
A.
Pustule, overcame dense, sickly infiltrate;
B.
Dark-crimson skin, local pain;
C.
High temperature, discharge of pus through the perforating openings;
D.
Signs of intoxication;
E.
* All answers are correct.
What clinical signs of hydradenitis 3-7 to the daily remoteness?
A.
Above intumescences appears the softening;
B.
Above intumescences appear the perforating openings in a skin;
C.
Discharge of pus;
D.
Strengthening of signs of intoxication;
E.
* All answers are correct.
What complications can arise up at a furuncle?
A.
Lymphangitis;
B.
Abscess formation;
C.
Sepsis;
D.
Lymphadenitis;
E.
* All answers are correct.
What dangerous furuncle in the area of nasal-labial fold?
A.
Beginnings of carbuncle.
B.
Beginnings of abscess.
C.
Acoustic nerve’ inflammation.
D.
* By the thrombosis of cavernous sinus.
E.
Maxillary sinus’ inflammation.
What does the clinic of abscess depend on?
A.
* On of depth and localization of process;
B.
On type of causative agent;
C.
On age of patient;
D.
On duration of disease;
E.
All answers are correct.
What does the cold migrating abscess differ at tuberculosis processes from the superficially
located abscesses?
A.
For abscess all of signs of inflammation are characteristic;
B.
The changes of skin above the swelling are absent;
C.
Local increase of temperature is absent;
D.
Absence of the stormy beginning of disease;
E.
* All answers are correct.
What does the feature of incision in at operative treatment of paraproctitis consist?
A.
* Cut must be done in the distance 1,5-2 cm from sphincter.
B.
Х-weld incision.
C.
Н-weld incision.
D.
O-weld incision.
E.
Arched incision.
What does the treatment of acute infiltrative form of mastitis consist?
A.
Immobilization;
B.
Expression of breast milk;
C.
Disintoxication therapy;
D.
Antibiotic therapy;
E.
* All answers are correct.
What effective antibiotics do need to be used for erysipelas?
A.
* Penicillin’ row;
B.
Cephalosporin of the III generation;
C.
Cephalosporin of the IV generation;
D.
Aminoglykozides;
E.
All answers are correct.
What features of treatment of furuncle on face?
E.
1091.
1092.
1093.
1094.
1095.
1096.
1097.
1098.
1099.
1100.
Hospitalization of patient in a surgical department;
Antibiotic therapy of wide spectrum;
Strict bed mode;
Liquid food;
* All answers are correct.
What forms of erysipelas do you know?
A.
Erythematous;
B.
Bullous, phlegmonous;
C.
Erythematous, bullous, phlegmonous;
D.
Necrotic, creeping, migrant, recurrent;
E.
* All answers are correct.
What from the auxiliary methods of diagnostics will you apply for clarification of diagnosis of
abscess?
A.
Puncture of educations;
B.
Palpation;
C.
Ultrasound examination;
D.
Ro-graphic examination;
E.
* All answers are correct.
What furuncles are subject dissections?
A.
In the case of complication an abscess;
B.
In the case of complication a phlegmon;
C.
In the case of complication a carbuncle;
D.
In the case of complication of abscess formation;
E.
* All answers are correct.
What inspection must be conducted at furunculosis?
A.
* Amounts of sugar in blood and in urine determination;
B.
Feces analysis on eggs intestinal worm;
C.
Ultrasound examination;
D.
Computerized axial tomography;
E.
All answers are correct.
What is advantage of Н-weld incisions in at treatment of carbuncles?
A.
Little defect;
B.
Quick healing;
C.
Sighting access;
D.
Radicalism of interference;
E.
* All answers are correct.
What is characteristic for the bullous form of erysipelas?
A.
Hyperemia of skin with blisters filled serous exudates;
B.
Local hyperemia;
C.
Loss of functions of extremity;
D.
General hyperemia;
E.
* All answers are correct.
What is determining tactic of treatment at presence of furuncle (surgical or conservative)?
A.
By the patient’s desire.
B.
By localization of process.
C.
* By the stage of process’ development (infiltration or abscess formation).
D.
By the stage of development of perifocal edema.
E.
By intensity of pain syndrome.
What is it necessary to begin treatment of furuncle from?
A.
Dress of skin and shaving of skin;
B.
Processing of skin round a furuncle by 70% an alcohol;
C.
Processing of skin round a furuncle by 2% a salicylic alcohol;
D.
Processing by brilliant green;
E.
* All answers are correct.
What is named retro rectal abscesses?
A.
* Abscesses, which localized in a cellular tissue behind a rectum or on either side from it;
B.
Abscesses above a rectum;
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1101.
1102.
1103.
1104.
1105.
1106.
1107.
1108.
1109.
Abscesses under a rectum;
Abscesses out of anal canal lumen;
Abscesses in the anal canal lumen.
What is understood under the migrant form of erysipelas?
A.
* Damaged one area, passes to other area;
B.
Damage skin, passing on underlying tissues;
C.
Affection two areas simultaneously;
D.
The defeat of three areas is simultaneous;
E.
All answers are correct.
What it is “sterile abscess”?
A.
* Abscesses, that arose up as a result of introduction of sterile matters;
B.
Postoperative abscesses;
C.
Postnatal abscesses;
D.
Tubercular migrating abscess;
E.
All answers are correct.
What it is abscess?
A.
* It is accumulation of pus in tissues, organs and cavities of limited by a pyogenic capsule;
B.
It is accumulation of pus in tissues, organs of unreserved by a pyogenic capsule;
C.
It is accumulation of serous liquid in tissues and organs;
D.
Unlimited accumulation of pus in tissues;
E.
All answers are correct.
What it is furuncle?
A.
Diffuse purulent inflammation of subcutaneous fat.
B.
* Acute purulent-necrotic inflammation of hair follicle with sebaceous gland of hair.
C.
Purulent inflammation of subcutaneous fat.
D.
Inflammation of sweat-gland.
E.
Inflammation of skin.
What it is mastitis?
A.
* Inflammation of parenchyma and interstitial tissues of mammary gland;
B.
Inflammation to connecting tissues of mammary gland;
C.
Inflammation of sub-skin fat of mammary gland;
D.
Inflammation of muscular tissues of mammary gland;
E.
All answers are correct.
What layers does the biogenic capsule of abscess consist of?
A.
Internal;
B.
External;
C.
Granulation tissue;
D.
Connective tissue;
E.
* All answers are correct.
What local symptom of erythematous form of erysipelas is?
A.
Swelling of skin;
B.
Local hyperemia;
C.
Hyperemia of skin with clear contours;
D.
Loss of function of extremity;
E.
* All answers are correct.
What local symptomatic of erysipelas is?
A.
Swelling of skin;
B.
Local hyperemia (tongues of flame);
C.
Local hyperthermia;
D.
Burning pain and feeling of heat;
E.
* All answers are correct.
What localization of carbuncle is dangerous for life?
A.
On extremities;
B.
* On face;
C.
On the back;
D.
On the abdomen;
E.
All answers are correct.
C.
D.
E.
1110.
1111.
1112.
1113.
1114.
1115.
1116.
1117.
1118.
1119.
1120.
1121.
1122.
1123.
1124.
1125.
1126.
1127.
1128.
What localization of furuncle is a danger of origin of thrombosis of cavernous sinus at?
A.
In the area of neck.
B.
In a parotid area.
C.
In the head.
D.
* In the area of nasal-labial fold.
E.
In chin.
What most expedient incisions at surgical treatment of carbuncle?
A.
U- weld incision;
B.
* Х- weld incision, H- weld incision;
C.
Short incision;
D.
Oblique incision;
E.
All answers are correct.
What possible types of localization of abscesses at mastitis do you know?
A.
Intra-canalicular;
B.
Sub-areole;
C.
Intra-mammas;
D.
Retro-mammas;
E.
* All answers are correct.
What reason of origin of acute mastitis?
A.
Acute lacto stasis;
B.
Nipple cracks;
C.
Trauma of mammary gland;
D.
Infected wounds;
E.
* All answers are correct.
What sign is characteristic for abscess formation’ form of mastitis?
A.
Presents of abscess;
B.
Increase of local displays of inflammation;
C.
Increase of general displays of inflammation;
D.
Increase of intoxication of organism;
E.
* All answers are correct.
What stages of operative treatment of carbuncle are?
A.
Adequate necrectomy;
B.
Processing of abscess’ cavity by antiseptic;
C.
Drainage of abscess’ cavity;
D.
Aseptic bandage with chemical antiseptic;
E.
* All answers are correct.
What sylph drugs is effective at treatment of erysipelas?
A.
* Streptocid 0,4g ?4 QID;
B.
Sulfalene 0,4g ?4 QID;
C.
Biseptol 240;
D.
Biseptol 480;
E.
All answers are correct.
What symptoms are characteristic for acute mastitis?
A.
Intumescences of mammary gland;
B.
Cause to burst in a gland;
C.
Hyperthermia;
D.
Expressed pain;
E.
* All answers are correct.
What un-purulent disease of soft tissues is more frequent than all caused by staphylococcus
aureus?
A.
Flegmon
B.
Gaz gangrene.
C.
Lymphadenitis.
D.
* Hydradenitis.
E.
Carbuncle.
Where more frequent than all is there a carbuncle?
A.
Neck, small of the back;
Back of head;
Back;
Buttocks;
* All answers are correct.
Why is it impossible infiltrate of soft tissues by solution of antibiotic round a furuncle?
A.
* Violation of microcirculation, distribution of necrotic process, additional infecting;
B.
Spreading of necrotic process;
C.
Accessory infecting;
D.
Violation of function of extremity or organ;
E.
All answers are correct.
Why is it needed to operate a carbuncle in the stage of infiltration?
A.
For preventions of development of necrosis;
B.
For preventions of development of heavy intoxication;
C.
For more rapid convalescence;
D.
For the facilitation of clinical process;
E.
* All answers are correct.
With what connected a gangrenous form of mastitis?
A.
* With the thrombosis of vessels of mammary gland;
B.
With breast- feeding;
C.
With maceration of skin;
D.
By genetic inclination;
E.
All answers are correct.
With what pathological processes is it necessary to differentiate erysipelas?
A.
Erythema;
B.
Dermatitis;
C.
Limphangitis;
D.
Anthrax;
E.
* All answers are correct.
With what pathological processes it is needed to conduct the differentiated diagnostics at rising of
diagnosis of abscess?
A.
Haematoma;
B.
Aneurism;
C.
Tumours, which disintegrate;
D.
Tubercular cold migrating abscess;
E.
* All answers are correct.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1129.
1130.
1131.
1132.
1133.
Situational tasks
1.
2.
3.
Complications of the right hip fracture treatment can be the following, except for:
A.
Wrong consolidation of fracture with infringement of finiteness function.
B.
Contracture of adjacent joints.
C.
Posttraumatic wound osteomyelitis.
D.
Formation of false joint.
E.
*Varicous veins disease
What complication can arise at non-observance of rules and principles transport immobilization:
A.
Frustration of microcirculation in a zone of fracture.
B.
Formation of false joint
C.
Infectioning.
D.
Polyorganic insufficiency
E.
*A trauma of a neurovascular bunch.
With what it is necessary to begin rendering of medical aid to the victim with the open fracture of
a hip and an intensive bleeding from a wound:
A.
Anesthesia of a place of fracture
B.
Antishock actions.
C.
Transport immobilization.
D.
Ampere-second of imposing асептической bandages.
*Stops of a bleeding
At audit of a wound hear parts of a head establish, that a wound deep, the bone of the arch of a
skull is broken. How such trauma refers to?
A.
Mixed
B.
Closed.
C.
not Getting.
D.
Getting.
E.
*Opened
At the patient cutting wound of a nose. What bandage should be imposed after primary surgical
processing?
A.
Returning.
B.
Spike like.
C.
Turtle.
D.
Cheapest
E.
*Crosswise.
What bandage is necessary for imposing to the patient with cutting wounds of all fingers of a
brush after primary surgical processing?
A.
Spike like.
B.
Cross like.
C.
„knightly glove”
D.
Tortoise like.
E.
*Circular
The open fragmental fracture of the left shoulder is diagnosed for the patient with damage of a
neurovascular bunch. Medical tactics?
A.
Primary surgical processing, immobilization plaster longed.
B.
Amputation of extremities.
C.
Control of a bleeding, temporary immobilization.
D.
Skeletal extension for an elbow shoot.
E.
*Urgent opened reposition, an osteosynthesis, renewal of blood circulation.
If the nurse is in contact with blood of the patient, which was accompanied by penetration of skin
(an injection, a cut) she should carry out following security measures, except:
A.
Dress new rubber gloves and continue the work.
B.
On a wound to impose a plaster and to dress gloves.
C.
Location of skin damages process with 70 % spirit, carefully wash hands with soap under
flowing water and repeatedly process with spirit.
D.
Take off gloves by working surface inside out and squeeze out blood from a wound.
E.
*Take antibiotic of wide spectrum action.
Actions of the nurse or doctor in case of their hands contamination by blood, biological liquids or
biomaterials of the patient without damage of a skin:
A.
wash hands with 70 % spirit and process with 3 % hydrogen peroxide solution and 3 %
chloramines solution.
B.
wash hands under flowing water and process with 3 % hydrogen peroxide solution.
C.
wash hands under flowing water and to process with 3 % chloramines solution
D.
wash hands with 3 % chloramines solution.
E.
*process places of contamination with 70 % ethyl spirit solution, wash hands with water
and soap and repeatedly process spirit.
The most reilable symptoms of the posttransfusion shock complication - period kidneys
functional recovery - is:
A.
Arrhythmia with beats.
B.
Adynamy.
C.
Atony of stomach and an intestine.
D.
Polyuria.
E.
*Normalization of diuresis.
What advantages transfusion of the washed erythrocytes in comparison with other
hemotransfusion mediums has?
A.
Has stimulating influence on an erythrogenesis.
B.
Not nutritious action.
E.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
Does not influence system of immunity
Carries out erythrocytes-replacement action.
*The smaller opportunity of immunological reactions and complications.
The patient C. 40 years old, has received a gunshot wound by fraction. During examination in a
site of knee joint, plural dot wounds are present. On the X-ray: more then 40 pellets in soft
tissues. Your tactics.
A.
Perform of removal of pellets with using EOP
B.
Perform of removal of pellets by magnet using
C.
Perform of secondary surgical processing of a wound.
D.
Perform of primary surgical processing of a wound.
E.
*Surgical processing is not indicated.
To the patient with bullet wound of a femur the primary surgical treatment was performed. At 9th day the suppuration of a wound and an intensive external bleeding from a wound are
developed. What bleeding has arrised?
A.
Diapedesis
B.
Primary secondary.
C.
Later
D.
Primary
E.
*Later secondary.
The patient was operated in occasion of anaerobic gas gangrene. Features of the organization of
patients care:
A.
Hospitalization in an infectious hospital with isolation boxing
B.
Hospitalization in barotherapy department.
C.
Hospitalization in purulent surgical department.
D.
Obligatory stay in intensive care department.
E.
*Hospitalization in separate chamber with individual toolkit, a dressing with a nurse post.
The patient was operated in occasion of a goiter. The postoperative period are complicated a
suppuration of a wound. At additional inspection the chronic tonsillitis is found out. The most
probable way of an infection hit to a wound is:
A.
Exogenic contact
B.
Endogenic contact
C.
Implantation.
D.
Ear-droping
E.
*Endogenic lymfogenous
Patient was operated in occasion of acute plegmonouse appendicitis. Postoperative period
complicated by suppuration of wound. What most probable way of an infection hitting to a
wound?
A.
Implantational
B.
Lymfogenous
C.
Hematogenous
D.
Ear-droping
E.
*Endogenic contact
To the patient concerning a cancer of larynx T4N2M0 have executed a tracheostomy. As such
operation is called:
A.
Plastic
B.
Radical
C.
Reconstructive
D.
Palliative
E.
*Symptomatic
To the patient with a tumour of colon T4N2M0 have executed operation: formation of a
roundabout anastomosis. How such operation is called?
A.
Radical
B.
Diagnostic
C.
Plastic
D.
Rekonstructive
E.
*Palliative
To the patient concerning a cancer of antral department of a stomach the subtotal resection of a
C.
D.
E.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
stomach is spent: are removed the big epiploon and regional lymph nodes. How such operation is
called?
A.
Diagnostic
B.
Symptomatic
C.
Palliative
D.
Reconstructive
E.
*Radical
At the patient with a thorax trauma by palpation the crepitation symptom to what it testifies is
defined:
A.
The valve pheumothorax
B.
An open pheumothorax
C.
Hemotorax
D.
Hematoma
E.
*To a hypodermic emphysema
The patient is treated concerning an obliterating atherosclerosis of vessels of the bottom
extremities. What non-invasive method of inspection in this case is the most informative:
A.
A capillaroscopy
B.
Dermography
C.
Thermography
D.
Rheovasography
E.
*Doplerography
The stomach ruptured ulcer is diagnosed for the patient. What syndrome will arise at the patient?
A.
Thromboemboly
B.
Hemorrhagic
C.
Polyorganic insufficiency
D.
Intoxication;
E.
*A peritonitis
At the patient at the surveyed presence of fracture 5 - 7 ribs at the left with development of
hypodermic emphysema is established. What clinical sign testifies to presence of the given
complication?
A.
lungs breath at auscultation
B.
Severe morbidity at a palpation and edema of the tissues
C.
percussion sound
D.
bronchial breath at auscultation
E.
*A crepitation symptom at a palpation
For the patient it is diagnosed wrightside the big hemothorax. What results of physical methods of
inspection will be at the given pathology?
A.
Percutory thympanitis, auscultative a pleural rub.
B.
Percutory pulmonary sound, auscultative breath is not auscultated
C.
Percutory dullness, auscultative vesicular breath
D.
Percutory a bandbox sound, auscultative bronchial breath
E.
*The obtusion is percussion, auscultative breath is not auscultated;
The patient is delivered in a hospital after road and transport incident. At inspection the doctor
has suspected an intraabdominal bleeding. What inspection is necessary for diagnostics?
A.
General blood analisis.
B.
Ultrasonic
C.
X-Ray graphy;
D.
X-Ray scopy
E.
*Laparocentesis;
At sick at clinical inspection presence of an occlusive tumour of descending department of a
colon is suspected. What method of tool inspection is shown in this case?
A.
Laparocentesis and a biopsy
B.
Laparoskopy
C.
Ultrasonic
D.
X-Ray of a stomach
E.
*Fibrocolonoscopy
The patient has arrived on operative treatment concerning a right-side inguinal hernia. What data
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
of objective inspection of the patient allow asserting, what a hernia reducible?
A.
All answers correct
B.
The hernia does not fall to a scrotum
C.
Absence of a diverticulum
D.
Absence of a painful syndrome
E.
*A positive cough sign;
At the patient of the complaint to the raised body temperature, presence of a painful infiltrate on a
back surface of a neck. Objectively - the infiltrate in the size 4 х 3,5 sm, acute painful, a dense
consistence with the centres of a necrosis and purulent hinges in the centre. The diagnosis?
A.
Recly’s flegmon
B.
Abstsess of a neck
C.
Actinomicosis;
D.
Flegmon of a neck
E.
*Neck anthrax
At damages of the parenchymal organs, which are accompanied the protracted bleeding in an
abdominal region, symptoms of irritation of peritoneum:
A.
* Absent or insignificantly expressed
B.
Show up poorly
C.
Show up strongly
D.
Show up moderately
E.
All of answers are faithful
What you can offer to the patient with violation of lymph outflow after endured of erysipelas?
A.
* Operation: impositions of lymph-venous anastomoses;
B.
Dry warmly;
C.
Bandages with antiseptics;
D.
Ultraviolet radiation of skin;
E.
All answers are correct.
The patient with a pain in abdomen for simplification of a pain borrows knee-elbow position.
Define as this position.
A.
Pathologic.
B.
Symptomatic.
C.
Passive.
D.
Active.
E.
*Forced.
The syndrome of massive hemotransfusions arises at introduction to the patient during short time
of a contained blood in volume which exceeds more often:
A.
50% of VBC
B.
30% of VBC.
C.
20% of VBC.
D.
10% of VBC.
E.
*40% of VBC.
Whether it is necessary to define a symptom of a crepitation of osteal fragments at the diagnosed
fracture?
A.
Necessarily is defined in each case
B.
Depending on a condition of the patient
C.
Depending on a condition of the patient
D.
Depending on fracture localisation
E.
*To define it is inexpedient and it is dangerous
What of the resulted symptoms at survey testifies that the tumour of a forward surface of a neck is
a struma:
A.
Tumor formation in the form of "butterfly";
B.
Presents of expanded bulbar veins;
C.
Tumor like formation is displaced for a breast bone;
D.
Tumor like formation is localised in a projection of a share of a thyroid gland;
E.
*The tumour is displaced at swallowing.
Patient К, is hospitalised 65 years in surgical unit with an acute ischemia of the right bottom
extremity which has arisen because of an embolism of a femoral artery. Surgical tactics:
Surgical treatment, an angioplasty
Thrombolitics, anticoagulants, desagregants
Anticoagulants, desagregants, anaesthetising
Spasmolitics, analgetics, an immobilisation
*Surgical treatment, an embolectomy
Pus and the maintenance of a tuberculous focus after disclosing or a puncture of the last
investigate following methods, except:
A.
Histological
B.
Bacterioscopic
C.
Cytological
D.
Bacteriological
E.
*Immunologic
At a patient with the fracture of ribs there was the attack of difficulty of breathing. Cough with
excretions of foamy sputum. What complication arose up at a patient?
A.
Bleeding.
B.
* Pulmonary edema.
C.
Acute pneumonia.
D.
Cardiogenic shock.
E.
Clot embolism of pulmonary artery.
At a patient with the trauma of head there was parotitis in a postoperative period. What signs is
characterize this complication?
A.
Falling back at the front from the auricle of soft tissues.
B.
* Swelling at the front of auricle.
C.
Dense, hilly education at the front of auricle.
D.
Edema of auricle and surrounding tissues.
E.
All answers are correct.
At a patient, who is ill by pulmonary tuberculosis, there was the pulmonary bleeding in a
postoperative period. What must be done first of all?
A.
Check up arterial pressure, pulse and frequency of respiratory motions.
B.
* Put to patient semi sitting position and to lay an ice-bag on a thorax.
C.
Put to patient semi sitting position and to lay an ice-bag on an epigastria area.
D.
Prepare for intravenous introduction a 10% solution of calcium chloride.
E.
Calm the patient and to call up a thoracic surgeon.
During implementation of bandaging to the medical sister a blood got on the unscreened skin of
hands. What precautionary measures is it necessary to execute?
A.
Take out the blood by a dry sterile serviette.
B.
Washed the hands with soap and to process by a 1% solution of chloramine.
C.
To process the hands by a 3% solution of chloramine, to wipe by the tampon moistened in
a 70% ethyl spirit.
D.
Twice to process the muddy skin of hands by a 5% alcoholic solution of iodine.
E.
* Washed the hands with soap, to wipe by a tampon, moistened 70% ethyl spirit.
How will the nurse of the clean bandaging conduct a V stage of treatment of instruments
(demineralization)?
A.
Washing of instruments during 3 minutes in a 3% of oxygen peroxide.
B.
* Washing of instruments during 1 minute in the distilled water.
C.
Washing of instruments during 10 minutes in the distilled water.
D.
Washing of instruments during 5 minutes in the distilled water.
E.
Washing of instruments under the stream of running water during 3 minutes
You are the trained nurse of surgical department. A patient, 30 years old, admit on urgent
operation on an occasion the rupture of spleen. What will you do for preparation of patient to
operation?
A.
* Urgently will deliver a patient in an operating-room.
B.
Carry out complete cleansing.
C.
Carry out of cleansing enema.
D.
Washing of stomach.
E.
I will shave the area of the operating field.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
You are the trained nurse of surgical department. A patient, 30 years old, admit on urgent
operation on an occasion the rupture of spleen. What will you do for preparation of patient to
operation?
A.
* Urgently will deliver a patient in an operating-room.
B.
Carry out complete cleansing.
C.
Carry out of cleansing enema.
D.
Washing of stomach.
E.
I will shave the area of the operating field.
A patient has bleeding from the crack of mucus anal area. What type of bleeding does this
pathology belongs to?
A.
* External bleeding;
B.
Internal bleeding;
C.
External occult bleeding;
D.
Internal occult bleeding;
E.
Occult bleeding;
After operation of splenectomy it the increase of fibrinolytic activity of blood is found. What
preparations is it expedient to appoint with the purpose of oppressing of this activity?
A.
* Aminocapronic acid with fibrinogen;
B.
Protamine sulfate;
C.
Heparin and fibrinolisin;
D.
Polyglucin;
E.
Rheopolyglucin;
At a patient 78 years old with the cancer of lung the profuse bronchial bleeding began. What
method of treatment will be expedient?
A.
Haemostatic therapy;
B.
Pulmonectomy;
C.
* Bronchial occlusion;
D.
Thoracoscopia;
E.
Artificial ventilation of lungs;
In patient with the trauma of thorax at palpation determined slight swelling of soft tissue,
symptom of cripitation, what it testifies to:
A.
Haematoma
B.
* Hypodermic emphysema
C.
Hemotoraks
D.
Opened pneumothorax
E.
Valvular pneumothorax
In what phase of the wound process by Kuzin M.I. does an edema and leukocytic infiltration of
tissue develop round a wound?
A.
* Phase of inflammation
B.
Phase of regeneration
C.
Phase of formation the scar
D.
Phase of epithelisation
E.
Phase of dehydration
In what phase of the wounds process by Kuzin M.I. does osmotic pressure rise in tissue, the delay
of water passes, an edema develops?
A.
* Phase of inflammation
B.
Phase of regeneration
C.
Phase of formation the scar
D.
Phase of epithelization
E.
Phase of dehydration
Patients with the trauma of spine has a lower paraplegia with violation the functions of pelvic
organs on a central type. What department spinal cord is damage?
A.
* In a breast
B.
In neck
C.
In reins
D.
In a «horse tail»
E.
In a sacrum
Patients with the trauma of spine has a lower paraplegia with violation the functions of pelvic
organs on a central type. What department spinal cord is damage?
A.
* In a breast
B.
In neck
C.
In reins
D.
In a «horse tail»
E.
In a sacrum
51.
Tests to the figures
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
What kind of bandage is shown in Fig. 1 letter "A"?
A.
*Circular;
B.
Spiral;
C.
Twiggy;
D.
Eightformed;
E.
Straight.
What kind of bandage is shown in Fig. 1 letter "б"?
A.
Circular;
B.
*Spiral;
C.
Twiggy;
D.
Eightformed;
E.
Straight.
What kind of bandage is shown in Fig. A letter "c"?
A.
Circular;
B.
Spiral;
C.
*Twiggy;
D.
Eightformed;
E.
Straight.
What kind of bandage is shown in Fig. 2 letters "A"?
A.
Circular;
B.
Spiral;
C.
*Tortoise;
D.
Eightformed;
E.
Straight.
What kind of bandage is shown in Fig. 2 letters "б"?
A.
Circular;
B.
Spiral;
C.
Tortoise;
D.
Eightformed;
E.
*Straight.
What kind of bandage is shown in Fig. 2 letters "в"?
A.
Circular;
B.
Spiral;
C.
*Swivel;
D.
Eightformed;
E.
Straight.
What kind of bandage is shown in Fig. 3 letters "A"?
A.
Circular;
B.
*Hipokratik cap;
C.
Tortoise;
D.
Bonnet;
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
E.
Spiral;
What kind of bandage is shown in Fig. 3 letters "б"?
A.
Circular;
B.
Spiral;
C.
Tortoise;
D.
Eightformed;
E.
*Binocular.
What kind of bandage is shown in Fig. 4 letter "A"?
A.
Circular;
B.
Spiral;
C.
Tortoise;
D.
*Eightformed;
E.
Straigt;
What kind of bandage is shown in figure Fig. 4 letter "б"?
A.
Circular;
B.
Spiral;
C.
Tortoise;
D.
Velpo;
E.
*Dezo.
What kind of bandage is shown in figure Fig.4 letter "г"?
A.
Circular;
B.
Spiral;
C.
Tortoise;
D.
Eightformed;;
E.
*Spiked.
What kind of bandage is shown in Fig. 6?
A.
Circular;
B.
Spiral;
C.
Tortoise;
D.
*Threeangle;
E.
Eightformed;
What type of anesthesia shown in Fig. 7 letters "A"?
A.
Infiltration;
B.
*Spinal brain;
C.
Peridural;
D.
Conduction.
E.
Combined.
What type of anesthesia shown in Fig. 7 letters "б"?
A.
Infiltration;
B.
Spinal brain;
C.
*Peridural;
D.
Conduction.
E.
Combined.
What type of anesthesia shown in Fig. 9?
A.
Infiltration;
B.
Spinal brain;
C.
Peridural;
D.
*Conduction.
E.
Combined.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
What type of anesthesia shown in Fig. 10?
A.
Infiltration;
B.
Spinal brain;
C.
Peridural;
D.
*Conduction.
E.
Combined.
What type of anesthesia shown in Fig. 11?
A.
Infiltration;
B.
Spinal brain;
C.
Peridural;
D.
*Conduction.
E.
Combined.
What type of anesthesia shown in Fig. 12?
A.
Infiltration;
B.
Spinal brain;
C.
Peridural;
D.
*Conduction.
E.
Combined.
Finger infringement on which artery is shown in Fig. 14 letter ""?б
A.
shoulder;
B.
*subclavian;
C.
femur;
D.
carotid;
E.
popliteal.
Finger infringement on which artery is shown in Fig. 14 letter "в"?
A.
popliteal.
B.
shoulder;
C.
subclavian;
D.
femur;
E.
*carotid;
Finger infringement on which artery is shown in Fig. 14 letter "г"?
A.
shoulder;
B.
subclavian;
C.
*femur;
D.
carotid;
E.
popliteal.
Finger infringement on which artery is shown in Fig. 14 letter "д"?
A.
shoulder;
B.
subclavian;
C.
femur;
D.
carotid;
E.
*popliteal.
What letter of 15 Fig. marked bleeding from the femoral artery?
A.
*(A).
B.
(B)
C.
(C)
D.
(B). and (c)
E.
(A). and (b)
What letter of 15 Fig. marked stop bleeding from vessels tibia?
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
A.
(A).
B.
*(B)
C.
(C)
D.
(B). and (c)
E.
(A). and (b)
What letter of 15 Fig. marked bleeding from the forearm vessels?
A.
(A).
B.
(B)
C.
*(C)
D.
(B). and (c)
E.
(A). and (b)
When can I apply the method of bleeding stop bleeding, which is shown in Fig. 15 letter "A"?
A.
popliteal artery with bleeding;
B.
*bleeding at the femoral artery;
C.
bleeding vessels at lower leg;
D.
axillary artery with bleeding;
E.
tibial artery at the bleeding;
When can I apply the method of bleeding stop bleeding, which is shown in Fig. 15 letter "б"?
A.
bleeding from vessels in the forearm;
B.
bleeding at the femoral artery;
C.
*bleeding vessels at lower leg;
D.
axillary artery with bleeding;
E.
bleeding at the radial artery;
When can I apply the method of bleeding stop bleeding, which is shown in Fig. 15 letter "в"?
A.
*bleeding from vessels in the forearm;
B.
subclavian artery with bleeding;
C.
bleeding vessels at lower leg;
D.
bleeding at the femoral artery;
E.
bleeding in carotid artery;
As a temporary method is called bleeding shown on Fig. 16?
A.
Push connected deviations;
B.
High limb position;
C.
Blending twists;
D.
overlay wiring harness;
E.
*maximum flexion of extremities
As a temporary method is called bleeding shown on Fig. 17?
A.
Blending in tow vessels of the neck;
B.
*Blending in tow vessels of the neck with using tannyam tires Cramer;
C.
Blending twists on vessels of the neck;
D.
compressive deviations are connected to vessels of the neck;
E.
dense tamponade of the wound.
What the letter marked on Fig. 18 methods of blending the reward side of the damaged vessel?
A.
*(A).
B.
(Б)
C.
(В)
D.
(Г).
E.
(A). and (D)
What the letter marked on Fig. 18 resection with anastomosis "end to end" on a damaged
vessel?
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
A.
(A).
B.
*(Б)
C.
(В)
D.
(Г).
E.
(C). and (d)
What the letter marked on Fig. 18 synthetic prosthesis prosthetics damaged blood vessels?
A.
(A).
B.
(Б)
C.
*(В)
D.
(Г).
E.
(C). and (d)
What the letter marked on Fig. 18 autovenoyu bypass damaged blood vessels?
A.
(A).
B.
(Б)
C.
(В)
D.
*(Г).
E.
(C). and (d)
What method of stop bleeding is shown in Fig. 19?
A.
vessel prosthesis;
B.
blending the damaged vessel reward;
C.
bypass vessels;
D.
*circular vascular suture;
E.
resection of the vessels.
As a method called bleeding shown on Fig. 20?
A.
blending circular vascular suture;
B.
blending the damaged vessel reward; bypass vessels;
C.
insertion vessels in the wound;
D.
*imposition of ligatures from a distance.
E.
Blending bypass
As a method called bleeding shown on Fig. 21?
A.
blending circular vascular suture;
B.
Blending anastamozu to vessel;
C.
bypass vessels;
D.
*insertion vessels in the wound;
E.
imposition of ligatures from a distance.
Which methods include bleeding shown on Fig. 23?
A.
chemical;
B.
*physical;
C.
biological;
D.
mechanical;
E.
thermal.
Which methods include bleeding shown on Fig. 24?
A.
chemical;
B.
Physics;
C.
Biology;
D.
*mechanical;
E.
thermal.
Which methods of bleeding include the method shown in Fig. 25?
A.
chemical;
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
B.
*physical;
C.
biological;
D.
mechanical;
E.
thermal.
As this method is called bleeding shown on Fig. 25?
A.
*electrocoagulation vessel;
B.
Blending anastamoses to vessel;
C.
bypass vessels;
D.
insertion vessels in the wound;
E.
imposition of vessel ligatures.
What methods of temporary stop bleeding are shown in Fig. 26?
A.
compressive connected deviations;
B.
bandageaging;
C.
tight wound tamponade;
D.
*overlay wiring harness;
E.
are listed.
What type of osteosynthesis is shown in Fig . 28?
A.
*Intramedullary.
B.
Ekstramedulyary screw.
C.
Ekstramedulyary plate.
D.
Mixed
E.
Neither answer is correct.
What letter ofmarked Fig. 28 type cast bandage - bandage bridges?
A.
(A).
B.
(Б)
C.
*(В)
D.
(Г).
E.
(A) and (b)
What letter of 30 marked Fig. type cast povyazky - treangle bandage?
A.
(A).
B.
(Б)
C.
(В)
D.
*(Г).
E.
(A) and (b)
What type of fracture shown in the radiograph (Fig.. 31)?
A.
Closed transverse fracture.
B.
Open oblique fracture.
C.
Closed hvyntopodibnyy fracture.
D.
Open fracture crash
E.
*Closed fracture Fragmental
What kind of displacement of bone fragments are marked on Fig .. 32 digits 1?
A.
*Binangled
B.
In width
C.
Rotating
D.
Long
E.
Diagonally.
What kind of displacement of bone fragments are marked on Fig .. 32 digits 2?
A.
Binangled
B.
*By shyreni
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
C.
Rotating
D.
Long
E.
Diagonally.
What kind of displacement of bone fragments are marked on Fig .. 32 number 3?
A.
Binangled
B.
In width
C.
*Rotating
D.
Long
E.
Diagonally.
What kind of displacement of bone fragments are marked on Fig .. 32 digits 4?
A.
Binangled
B.
In width
C.
Rotating
D.
*Long
E.
Diagonally.
What type of fracture shown in Fig .. 33?
A.
Internal fixation
B.
Ekstramedulyarnyy osteosynthesis
C.
Compression - distraction osteosynthesis
D.
*Sekeletnyy extract
E.
Plaster povyazkoyu
Under what types of fractures used shown on Fig .. 34 kind of stretching?
A.
Lumbar
B.
Thoracic
C.
*Spine
D.
Lumbosacral spine
E.
All of the fractures
What is the name kind of tires for transport immobilization shown in Fig. 35?
A.
Tire Elanskoho
B.
*Kramer Tire
C.
Tire Diterihsa
D.
Netted tire
E.
Bus bridges
What type of forearm bone dislocation shown in Fig .. 36 letter "A"?
A.
*Back
B.
Front
C.
Lateral
D.
Lower
E.
Top
What type of forearm bone dislocation shown in Fig .. 36 letter "b"?
A.
Back
B.
*Front
C.
Lateral
D.
Lower
E.
Top
What type of fracture of tibia shown in Fig .. 37 letter "A"?
A.
Overfishing large heads and small shanks
B.
Epiphyseal fracture
C.
*Diaphyseal fracture
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
D.
Fracture neck of both shins
E.
Overfishing Dyupyuyitrena
What type of fracture of tibia shown in Fig .. 37 letter "A"?
A.
*Oblique
B.
Direct
C.
Fragmental
D.
Spiral;
E.
Mixed
What type of fracture of tibia shown in Fig .. 37 letter "A"?
A.
Overfishing large heads and small shin bones
B.
Epiphyseal fracture of tibia
C.
*Diaphyseal fractures of both shin bones
D.
Metafiza fracture of the tibia
E.
Metaepifisal large-fracture and fibula bones
What type of fracture of tibia shown in Fig .. 37 letter "b"?
A.
Oblique
B.
Direct
C.
*Fragmental
D.
Spiral;
E.
Mixed
What type of shoulder dislocation bone shown in Fig .. 39 letter "A"?
A.
Lower
B.
Back
C.
*Front
D.
Central
E.
Top
What type of shoulder dislocation bone shown in Fig .. 39 letter "b"?
A.
*Lower
B.
Back
C.
Front
D.
Central
E.
Up
What type of shoulder dislocation bone shown in Fig .. 39 letter "c"?
A.
Lower
B.
*Back
C.
Front
D.
Lateral
E.
Up
What is the name purulent diseases of skin and subcutaneous fatty tissue is marked in Fig. 40
letter "A"?
A.
*Anthrax
B.
Boil
C.
Hidradenitis
D.
Phlegmon
E.
Erysipelas
What is the name purulent diseases of skin and subcutaneous fatty tissue is marked in Fig. 40
letter "б"?
A.
Anthrax
B.
Boil
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
C.
*Hidradenitis
D.
Phlegmon
E.
Erysipelas
What is the name purulent diseases of skin and subcutaneous fatty tissue is marked in Fig. 40
letter "в"?
A.
Anthrax
B.
*Boil
C.
Hidradenitis
D.
Phlegmon
E.
Erysipelas
What is the name purulent diseases of skin and subcutaneous fatty tissue is marked in Fig. 40
letter "г"?
A.
Anthrax
B.
Boil
C.
Hidradenitis
D.
Phlegmon
E.
*Erysipelas
What is the name purulent diseases of skin and subcutaneous fatty tissue is marked in Fig. 40
letter "д"?
A.
Anthrax
B.
Boil
C.
Hidradenitis
D.
*Phlegmon
E.
Erysipelas
At which disease is shown in Fig. 41 cruciate incision used?
A.
*Anthrax
B.
Boil
C.
Hidradenitis
D.
Phlegmon
E.
Erysipelas
What is the name kind of localization mastitis marked on Fig. 42 letter "A"?
A.
*Subareolyaris
B.
Intramamaris
C.
Retromamaris
D.
Halaktooforytis
E.
Subpektoralis
What is the name kind of localization mastitis marked on Fig. 42 letter "б"?
A.
Subareolyaris
B.
*Intramamar
C.
Retromamar
D.
Extramamar
E.
Subpektoral
What is the name kind of localization mastitis marked on Fig. 42 letter "c"?
A.
Subareolyaris
B.
Intramamaris
C.
*Retromamaris
D.
Extramamaris
E.
Subpektoralis
What is the name kind of localization mastitis marked on Fig. 42 letter "g"?
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
A.
Subareolyaris
B.
Intramamaris
C.
Retromamaris
D.
*Extramamaris
E.
Subpektoralis
What disease is depicted in Fig. 43?
A.
Boil
B.
*Anthrax
C.
Hidradenitis
D.
Eryzepyloyid
E.
Felon
What disease is depicted in Fig. 44?
A.
Boil
B.
Anthrax
C.
Hidradenitis
D.
*Wildfire
E.
Felon
What a complication of purulent process marked on Fig. 45 letter "б"?
A.
Lymphangitis
B.
Lymphadenitis
C.
Phlegmon
D.
Abscess
E.
*Eryzypelas
What a complication of purulent process marked on Fig. 45 letter "в"?
A.
*Lymphangitis
B.
Lymphadenitis
C.
Phlegmon
D.
Abscess
E.
Eryzypelas
What a complication of purulent process marked on Fig. 45 letter "г"?
A.
Lymphangitis
B.
Lymphadenitis
C.
*Phlegmon
D.
Abscess
E.
Eryzypelas
What a complication of purulent process marked on Fig. 45 letter "д"?
A.
Lymphangitis
B.
*Lymphadenitis
C.
Phlegmon
D.
Abscess
E.
Eryzypelas
What a complication of purulent process marked on Fig. 45 letter "г"?
A.
Lymphangitis
B.
Lymphadenitis
C.
Phlegmon
D.
*Abscess
E.
Eryzypelas
What a complication of purulent process marked on Fig. 45 letter "в"?
A.
Lymphangitis
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
B.
Lymphadenitis
C.
Phlegmon
D.
Abscess
E.
*Thrombophlebitis
What type of drainage noted on Fig. 46 letter "A"?
A.
Active
B.
*Passive
C.
Currently Cleansing
D.
Mixed
E.
No answer
What type of drainage noted on Fig. 46 letter "б"?
A.
Passive
B.
*Currently Cleansing
C.
Mixed
D.
No answer
What pathology is shown in Fig. 47?
A.
Anthrax in the left axillary area
B.
*Hidradenitis left axilar
C.
Lymphadenitis left axilar
D.
Cold abscess of the left axilar
E.
Boil left axilar
What pathology is shown in Fig. 48?
A.
Great phlegmon back
B.
Boil the back, which was complicated by abscess formation
C.
*Large anthrax back
D.
Giant Back Abscess
E.
Cold abscess back
What kind of terrible complications can cause pathology is shown in Fig. 49?
A.
To defeat the "big goose legs"
B.
In osteomalacia temporal bone
C.
Paresis to total branches of the trigeminal and facial nerves
D.
*Go to the cavernous sinus thrombosis
E.
Transient deterioration of blood supply to the brain
What is the pathological process shown in Fig. 50?
A.
Mioma of breast
B.
Breast Cancer
C.
*Lactational mastitis suppurative
D.
Total breast abscess
E.
Breast gangrene
What pathology is shown in Fig. 51?
A.
Glandular abscess forearm
B.
Erysipelas forearm
C.
Phlegmon forearm
D.
Furunculosis forearm
E.
*Infected wound of forearm, complicated trunkulyarnym limfanhoitom
What pathology is shown in Fig. 52?
A.
*Bullous form of erysipelas
B.
Erythematous form of erysipelas
C.
Gangrenous form of erysipelas
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
D.
Abscess form of erysipelas
E.
Erizipelas
In Fig. 53 shown:
A.
Duct-draining subcutaneous abscess aspiration
B.
*Duct-drainage aspiration retromamar abscess
C.
Duct-drainage aspiration intramamar abscess
D.
Duct-drainage aspiration laktofor
E.
Duct-drainage aspiration of total phlegmon of breast
At what number in Fig. 54 shows the skin felon?
A.
*1
B.
4
C.
3
D.
2
E.
5
At what number in Fig. 54 shows a subcutaneous felon?
A.
1
B.
4
C.
3
D.
*2
E.
5
At what number in Fig. 54 shows a subcutaneous felon in the form of cuff links?
A.
1
B.
4
C.
*3
D.
2
E.
5
At what number in Fig. 54 shows bilyanihtovyy felon?
A.
1
B.
*4
C.
3
D.
2
E.
5
At what number in Fig. 54 shows sub cutaneus felon?
A.
8
B.
4
C.
3
D.
6
E.
*5
At what number in Fig. 54 shows tendineae felon?
A.
8
B.
4
C.
3
D.
*6
E.
5
At what number in Fig. 54 shows a bone felon?
A.
8
B.
9
C.
*7
D.
6
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
E.
5
At what number in Fig. 54 shows the articular felon?
A.
*8
B.
9
C.
7
D.
6
E.
5
At what number in Fig. 54 shows pandaktylitis?
A.
8
B.
*9
C.
7
D.
6
E.
5
?Which figure in Fig. 13 marked the place of finger pressing ulnar artery?
A.
4
B.
*8
C.
9
D.
2, 3
E.
5, 6
Which figure in Fig. 13 marked the place of finger pressing subclavian artery?
A.
2
B.
3
C.
*4
D.
5, 6
E.
9,10
Which figure in Fig. 13 marked the place of finger pressing the femoral artery?
A.
2
B.
9,10
C.
11
D.
*5
E.
6
Please specify under which a number on Fig. 13 marked the place of finger pressing temporal
artery?
A.
*1
B.
2
C.
3
D.
4
E.
5
Please specify under which a number on Fig. 13 marked the place of finger pressing facial
artery?
A.
*2
B.
1
C.
3
D.
4
E.
6
Please specify under which a number on Fig. 13 marked the place of finger pressing carotid
artery?
A.
1, 2
B.
2
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
C.
*3
D.
2,3
E.
4
Please specify under which a number on Fig. 13 marked the place of finger pressing the back
of the foot arteries?
A.
3
B.
2
C.
4
D.
5
E.
*6
Which figure in Fig. 13 marks a place finger pressing the radial artery?
A.
9
B.
0
?Which figure in Fig. 13 marks a place finger pressing the brachial artery?
A.
7
B.
8
C.
*9
D.
10
E.
4
Which figure in Fig. 13 marks a place finger Rear tibial artery?
A.
8
B.
9
C.
5
D.
6
E.
*11
What letter of 30 marked Fig. type cast povyazky - Circular povyazka?
A.
(A).
B.
*(Б)
C.
(В)
D.
(Г).
E.
(A) and (b)
As a method called bleeding shown on Fig. 22?
A.
blending circular vascular suture;
B.
Blending anastamses to vessel;
C.
*overlay and base metal clamp on the vessel;
D.
insertion vessels in the wound;
E.
bypass vessels.
When can I apply the method of bleeding bleeding shown on Fig. 17?
A.
bleeding from vessels in the forearm;
B.
axillary artery with bleeding;
C.
*bleeding from vessels in the neck;
D.
subclavian artery with bleeding;
E.
bleeding in the temporal artery;
Paltsev infringement on which artery is shown in Fig. 14 letter "A"?
A.
*shoulder;
B.
subclavian;
C.
femur;
D.
carotid;
E.
popliteal.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
What type of anesthesia shown in Fig. 8?
A.
Infiltration;
B.
Spinal brain;
C.
Peridural;
D.
*Conduction.
E.
Combined.
For a disease characterized by limb position depicted in Fig. 5?
A.
Osteoarthritis of the hip joint;
B.
Hip dysplasia;
C.
* Dislocation of hip;
D.
Dislocation of knee;
E.
Fracture of the femur.
What letter of 30 marked Fig. type cast povyazky - lonheta?
A.
*(A).
B.
(Б)
C.
(В)
D.
(Г).
E.
(A). and (b)
What kind of bandage is shown in Fig. 3 letters "в"?
A.
Circular;
B.
Spiral;
C.
*Habenula;
D.
Eightformed;
E.
Binocular.
What type of fixation in fractures shown in Fig . 38?
A.
*Fixing metal plates and screws
B.
Wire fixation
C.
Commit by dopopmohoyu shtifta
D.
Fixation using Kirschner needles
E.
Commit by spokes Fedorov
What type of fixation in fractures shown in Fig . 38?
A.
*Fixing metal plates and screws
B.
Wire fixation
C.
Commit by shtift
D.
Fixation using Kirschner needles
E.
Commit by spokes Fedorov