Download Biotech Pretest Fall 2014 A - Environmental

Biotech Pretest Fall 2014 A
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Macromolecules are disassembled in ____________ reactions.
A. anabolic
B. hydrolysis
C. radioactive
D. denaturation
E. dehydration
2. Relatively small organic molecules with a central carbon atom which is bonded to a carboxyl group, an
amino group, a carbon containing group, and a hydrogen atom are called
A. amino acids.
B. fatty acids.
C. enzymes.
D. peptides.
E. nucleotides.
3. DNA, RNA, and ATP contain functional units known as
A. peptides.
B. enzymes.
C. amino acids.
D. nucleotides.
E. fatty acids.
4. All of the following are examples of functional groups in cells except
A. -CH3.
B. -COOH.
C. -H2O.
D. -NH3.
E. -OH.
5. Carbohydrates are polymers formed of structural units called
A. amino acids.
B. fatty acids.
C. nucleic acids.
D. phosphate groups.
E. monosaccharides.
6. Proteins are polymers formed of structural units called
A. fatty acids.
B. amino acids.
C. nucleic acids.
D. phosphate groups.
E. sugars.
7. Nucleic acids are polymers formed of building blocks that contain
A. amino acids.
B. fatty acids.
C. sugars.
D. rings of nitrogen bases.
E. peptide bonds.
8. The simplest and the most common monosaccharide is a six-carbon sugar called
A. galactose.
B. lactose.
C. cellulose.
D. glucose.
E. sucrose.
9. Chitin, a modified form of cellulose, is not only cross-linked with proteins but also its glucose units are
modified with atoms of
A. nitrogen.
B. hydrogen.
C. oxygen.
D. sulfur.
E. phosphorous.
10. Which of the following is not a protein?
A. enzyme
B. antibody
C. keratin
D. pectin
E. collagen
11. The specific amino acid sequence in a protein is its
A. zero order structure.
B. primary structure.
C. secondary structure.
D. tertiary structure.
E. quaternary structure.
12. Alpha helix and beta pleated sheets are examples of which level of protein structure?
A. zero order
B. primary
C. secondary
D. tertiary
E. quaternary
13. Small cells function more effectively, because as cells become larger their surface area to volume ratio
A. increases.
B. decreases.
C. stays the same.
D. is squared.
E. is cubed.
14. Membrane-bound organelles that contain powerful enzymes found in cells are known as
A. lysosomes.
B. plastids.
C. vacuoles.
D. liposomes.
E. ribosomes.
15. Schlieden and Schwann stated the "cell theory," which in its modern form includes all of the following
postulates except
A. all organisms are composed of one or more cells.
B. all cells need oxygen.
C. cells are the smallest living things.
D. cells arise only by division of a previously existing cell.
E. cells vary in size and shape.
16. Plant cells often have a large membrane-bound sac that is used for storing water and other substances. This
organelle is called a
A. nucleus.
B. chloroplast.
C. Golgi body.
D. centriole.
E. central vacuole.
17. Which of the following is not bounded by membranes?
A. endoplasmic reticulum
B. microbody
C. Golgi body
D. nucleoid
E. nucleus
18. Ribosomes are
A. only DNA molecules.
B. only RNA molecules.
C. single, naked, and circular chromosomes.
D. only protein molecules.
E. large molecular aggregates of protein and RNA.
19. The eukaryotic organelle that is directly involved in the transport of proteins synthesized on the surface of
the rough ER is called
A. mitochondria.
B. vacuole.
C. cytoskeleton.
D. Golgi complex.
E. nucleus.
20. The organelle involved in the oxygen-requiring process by which the energy in macromolecules is stored in
ATP is the
A. nucleus.
B. lysosome.
C. ER.
D. mitochondria.
E. chloroplasts.
21. Which of the following properties is not true of membrane phospholipids?
A. The hydrophobic tails are oriented towards the interior.
B. The hydrophilic heads are oriented towards the exterior.
C. Only the saturated fatty acids are always present.
D. Once they are incorporated they remain in the membrane permanently.
E. The bilayers made up of them are randomly interspersed with proteins.
22. Which of the following protein classes are not found as membrane proteins?
A. transport channels
B. hormones
C. receptors
D. enzymes
E. identity markers
23. Carrier-mediated transport is also called
A. facilitated diffusion.
B. active transport.
C. exocytosis.
D. endocytosis.
E. phagocytosis.
24. In a single sodium-potassium pump cycle, ATP is used up with the result that
A. 3 sodium ions leave and 2 potassium ions enter.
B. 1 sodium ion enters and 1 potassium ion leaves.
C. 1 sodium ion leaves and 1 potassium ion enters.
D. 3 sodium ions enter and 2 potassium ions leave.
E. sodium and potassium ions enter and water leaves.
25. Reactions that occur spontaneously and release free energy are called _____________ reactions.
A. activation
B. exergonic
C. catabolistic
D. thermodynamic
E. endergonic
26. The organic non-protein components that aid in enzyme functioning are called
A. reactants.
B. cofactors.
C. coenzymes.
D. substrates.
E. products.
27. The inorganic non-protein components that participate in enzyme catalysis are known as
A. coenzymes.
B. cofactors.
C. end-products.
D. substrates.
E. reactants.
28. A molecule that stores energy by linking charged phosphate groups near each other is called
A. ATP.
B. NADH.
C. FADH.
D. cyclic AMP.
E. pyruvate.
29. An electron carrier that is used in harvesting energy from glucose molecules in a series of gradual steps in
the cytoplasm is
A. pyruvate.
B. cyclic AMP.
C. ATP.
D. NAD+.
E. NADH.
30. The first stage of cellular respiration, and the oldest in terms of evolution is
A. decarboxylation.
B. deamination.
C. fermentation.
D. chemiosmosis.
E. glycolysis.
31. Chemiosmotic generation of ATP is driven by
A. Pi transfer through the plasma membrane.
B. the Na+/K+ pump.
C. a difference in H+ concentration on the two sides of the mitochondrial membrane.
D. osmosis of macromolecules.
E. large quantities of ADP.
32. The end-product of glycolysis is
A. ATP.
B. NAD+.
C. alcohol.
D. ADP.
E. pyruvate.
33. Most plants incorporate carbon dioxide into sugars by means of a cycle of reactions called the
A. CAM cycle.
B. carbon cycle.
C. Calvin cycle.
D. Krebs cycle.
E. electron transport cycle.
34. In the dark reactions of photosynthesis, CO2 is added to a five-carbon sugar-phosphate known as
A. cyclic AMP.
B. NADH.
C. NAD+.
D. RuBP.
E. CAM.
35. The photosystem channels the excitation energy gathered by absorption of light by any one of the pigment
molecules to a specific "reaction center chlorophyll," which in turn passes the energy to
A. photosystem I.
B. photosystem II.
C. the primary electron acceptor.
D. the secondary electron center.
E. cytochrome.
36. Photosystem II differs from photosystem I in that _____________ is not made directly from the process.
A. ATP
B. NADH
C. NADPH
D. carbohydrates
E. water
37. In dark reactions, when CO2 is added to a molecule of RUBP the product is
A. citric acid.
B. glucose.
C. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
D. phosphoglycerate.
E. pyruvate.
38. How many revolutions of the Calvin cycle are required to produce the sugar glucose?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
39. In which part of the chloroplasts are the Calvin cycle enzymes located?
A. stroma
B. thylakoids
C. grana
D. envelope
E. cristae
40. Which of the following sequence of cell-cycle phases is characteristic of eukaryotes?
A. G to S to M
B. G1 to S to G2 to M to C
C. S to M to C
D. G1 to G2 to S to C
E. G1 to G2 to G3 to S to C
41. The phase of the cell cycle during which the cytoplasm divides to form two cells is
A. G1.
B. S.
C. M.
D. C.
E. G2.
42. The first stage of mitosis, when the chromosomes become visibly shorter and thicker is
A. anaphase.
B. interphase.
C. metaphase.
D. prophase.
E. telophase.
43. The fusion of male gamete cells with female gamete cells is called
A. syngamy.
B. meiosis.
C. mitosis.
D. recombination.
E. synapsis.
44. The pairing of chromosomes along their lengths which is essential for crossing over is referred to as
A. syngamy.
B. synapsis.
C. prophase.
D. recombination.
E. centromere.
45. Crossing over of chromosomes takes place in
A. prophase II.
B. prophase I.
C. interphase II.
D. interphase I.
E. metaphase II.
46. Mendel's experiments had all of the following characteristics except
A. pea plants were self-pollinated for several generations.
B. he always used only two plants for his work.
C. hybrid plants with alternative forms of traits were produced.
D. hybrid plants were self-pollinated for several generations.
47. Mendel referred to the trait that was expressed in the hybrid, F1 or first filial generation as
A. recessive.
B. dominant.
C. codominant.
D. independent.
E. epistatic.
48. In a typical Mendel experiment on pea-seed color, if the dominant yellow seed-bearing plant was crossed
with the recessive green seed-bearing plant, the F2 generation will show what ratio of each kind?
A. 1 yellow: 3 green
B. 1 yellow: 1 green
C. 3 yellow: 1 green
D. seeds with patches of green and yellow color
E. tall plants with yellow seeds and short plants with green seeds
49. Let P = purple flowers and p = white, and T = tall plants and t = dwarf. What combinations of gametes
could be produced by a heterozygote for both the traits?
A. PpTt only
B. Pp, Tt
C. P, p, T, t
D. PT, Pt, pT, pt
E. infertile, no gametes produced
50. If an individual allele has more than one effect on the phenotype it is said to be
A. pleiotropic.
B. epistatic.
C. recessive.
D. dominant.
E. homozygotic.
51. Small, circular auxiliary DNA molecules of bacteria which are commonly used in biotechnology are
referred to as
A. transposons.
B. germ-line DNA molecules.
C. plasmids.
D. conformational DNA molecules.
E. translational DNA molecules.
52. Two strands of DNA that have been cut by an endonuclease can be sealed together by a(n)
A. polymerase enzyme.
B. ligase enzyme.
C. exonuclease enzyme.
D. protease enzyme.
E. methylase enzyme.
53. Plasmids must have two components, an origin of replication to allow it to replicate in E. coli independently
of the chromosome, and
A. a phage capable of infecting the E. coli bacterium.
B. a tissue plasminogen activator.
C. multiple cloning sites.
D. a selectable marker, usually antibiotic resistance.
54. The ends of DNA fragments produced by the same restriction enzyme can be joined together by another
enzyme,
A. DNA polymerase.
B. DNA methylase.
C. DNA synthetase.
D. DNA ligase.
E. DNA primase.
55. DNA consists of two antiparallel strands of nucleotide chains held together by
A. peptide bonds.
B. polar covalent bonds.
C. ionic bonds.
D. hydrogen bonds.
E. complementary base pairing bonds.
56. The method of DNA replication, where each original strand is used as a template to build a new strand, is
called the
A. conservative method.
B. semiconservative method.
C. disruptive method.
D. continuous method.
E. replication and amplification method.
57. The enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of new DNA molecules is called
A. DNA ligase.
B. DNA polymerase.
C. DNA gyrase.
D. DNA helicase.
E. DNA endonuclease.
58. DNA primase
A. creates a short RNA primer complementary to the RNA template.
B. creates a short DNA primer complementary to the RNA template.
C. creates a short DNA primer complementary to the DNA template.
D. creates a short template of an RNA primer that is complementary to the DNA primer.
E. creates a short RNA primer complementary to the DNA template.
59. As the two strands of DNA are unraveled, an enzyme relieves the strain on the two strands. The enzyme is
A. DNA polymerase.
B. DNA ligase.
C. DNA gyrase.
D. DNA endonuclease.
E. DNA exonuclease.
60. The reading of the bases along the length of a nucleic acid molecule for either transcription or translation is
done from the
A. 1' end.
B. 2' end.
C. 3' end.
D. 4' end.
E. 5' end.
61. The chemical bond connecting one nucleotide with the next one along the nucleic acid chain is called a
A. C = C bond.
B. hydrogen bond.
C. hydrophobic bond.
D. phosphodiester bond.
E. peptide bond.
62. Each amino acid has a specific tRNA molecule that can transport it to the site of protein synthesis.
Therefore, in humans the number of different tRNA molecules would be
A. 3.
B. 20.
C. 40.
D. 80.
E. thousands.
63. The enzyme that initiates transcription is
A. RNA polymerase.
B. DNA polymerase.
C. carbonic anhydrase.
D. ATP synthetase.
E. transformation principle.
64. The number of nucleotides required to specify an amino acid is
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
E. a variable number.
65. The 3-nucleotide sequence of an mRNA is called the
A. codon.
B. anticodon.
C. amino acid.
D. transcript.
E. template.
66. The codons that serve as "stop" signals for the protein synthesis are called
A. anticodons.
B. release codons.
C. nonsense codons.
D. amino acid codons.
E. tRNA codons.
67. The bond that forms between the newly added amino acid and the previous amino acid on the chain is called
a
A. hydrogen bond.
B. hydrophobic bond.
C. hydrophilic bond.
D. phosphodiester bond.
E. peptide bond.
68. In eukaryotes, the empty RNA molecules exit the ribosome from the
A. E site.
B. P site.
C. A site.
D. active site.
E. allosteric site.
69. Most viruses form a capsid around their nucleic acid core. This capsid is composed of a(n)
A. protein.
B. monosaccharide.
C. antigen.
D. glycoprotein.
E. lipoprotein.
70. Recently a class of infectious proteins with no associated nucleic acid have been identified. They are
referred to as
A. bacteriophages.
B. latent viruses.
C. viroids.
D. prions.
E. virions.
71. The HIV virus is considered a(n) ______ virus, because after getting integrated into the host cell
chromosomes, it does not begin replicating immediately.
A. phage
B. latent
C. transforming
D. benign
E. inducible
72. Phages are viruses that can infect
A. humans.
B. plants.
C. insects.
D. farm animals.
E. bacteria.
73. The genetic alteration of a cell's genome by the introduction of foreign DNA is called
A. transfection.
B. transformation.
C. transcription.
D. translation.
E. transduction.