Download 1 - Hatzalah of Miami-Dade

1. What does the term "crowning" mean? A) The perineum has been tom.
B) The baby is in a transverse position.
C) The baby's head is too large for delivery. D) The baby's head is visible at the vagina.
2. What large vein carries blood from the upper part of the body to the heart? A) brachial B) femoral
C) inferior vena cava
D) superior vena cava
3. Which of the following is the normal adult dosage of epinephrine in milligrams? A) 0.1
B) 0.15 C) 0.2 D) 0.3
4. Activated charcoal is given to patients to: A) induce vomiting.
B) decrease seizure activity.
C) decrease absorption of poisons into the lungs. D) prevent absorption of poisons into the body.
5. When a person has a superficial cold injury, rubbing or massaging the area will cause: A) irreversible shock.
B) an increase in cellular metabolism
C) an increase in carbon dioxide production. D) further damage to the tissues.
6. What are the classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia?
A) warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; deep, rapid respirations
B) warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia (slow heartbeat); rapid respirations
C) cold, clammy skin; bradycardia (slow heartbeat); hunger; deep, rapid respirations
D) cool, clammy skin; abnormal behavior; tachycardia (rapid heartbeat); rapid respirations
7. Emphysema is a type of COPD characterized by:
. A) a loss of elasticity in alveolar lung tissue leaving a pocket.
B) increased mucus production that clogs smaller bronchioles.
C) chronic dilation of bronchial air passages creating trapped air.
D) fluids collecting in the alveolar space restricting oxygen exchange.
8. Which of the following should NOT be used in rewarming a moderately or severely hypothermic patient?
A) blankets
B) hot coffee or tea
C) the ambulance compartment heaters
D) heat packs to the groin, axillary, and cervical regions
9. AED failures most commonly occur because the: A) battery is not properly charged.
B) patient is too large for the AED to be of any benefit.
C) ECG/defibrillating pads are not adhering to the patient.
D) EMT -B is not able to recognize ventricular fibrillation on the monitor.
10. A patient who is experiencing a diabetic emergency will most likely have: A) hot, dry skin.
B) a fruity breath odor. C) a slow pulse. D) hypertension.
11. Which medication would you NOT expect a seizure patient to take? A) Dilaudid B) Dilantin
C) Phenobarbitol D) Tegretol
12. What is the difference between angina pain and myocardial infarction pain? A) There is no difference.
B) The pain with a myocardial infarction will most likely decrease if the patient is allowed to rest. C) The pain with an angina
attack will most likely increase if the patient is allowed to rest. D) The pain with an angina attack will most likely decrease if the
patient is allowed to rest.
13. A hemorrhagic stroke may result from:
A) severe bleeding elsewhere in the body resulting in decreased cerebral perfusion. B) rupture of an aortic aneurysm.
C) elevated blood pressure resulting in the rupture of a brain blood vessel. D) buildup of atherosclerotic deposits in brain blood
vessels.
14. Risk factors for a pulmonary embolism include all of the following EXCEPT: A) recent surgery.
B) chronic hypertension. C) prolonged bed rest.
D) unusually fast blood clotting.
15. Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of a coral snake bite? . A) blurred vision B) slurred speech
C) bluish discoloration and burning pain
D) small bite pattern with scratch like wounds
16. Before giving oral glucose, you must make sure the patient is: A) seizing.
B) not in kidney failure. C) unconscious.
D) able to swallow.
17. A subcutaneous injection of epinephrine is given by pinching the skin and inserting the needle: A) at a 90 degree angle to the
skin. B) flat against the skin.
C) at a 45 degree angle to the skin. D) into a superficial blood vessel.
18. When removing a contact poison from the eyes it is important to do all of the following EXCEPT: A) irrigate from the bridge
of the nose out.
. B) gently open the eyelids to flush the surface of the eyes. C) administer a neutralizing agent.
- D) flood the affected area for a minimum of 10 to 20 minutes.
19. When assessing a patient who has attempted suicide, you should:
A) not be concerned about another attempt if the patient was the one who called for help. B) be able to tell the difference between
a "gesture" and a serious attempt. C) recognize that multiple wrist slashes will not produce significant injury. D) never leave the
patient alone.
20. You are listening to the breath sounds of a patient who has complained of shortness of breath. You hear a wheezing sound
over both sides at the midaxillary areas of the chest. These sounds might be caused by:
A) a complete airway obstruction by the tongue.
B) normal air movement through the patient's nose. C) narrowing of the lower air passages of the lungs.
D) enlargement of the lower air passages of the lungs.
21. When the placenta separates early from the uterine lining, it is called: A) endometriosis.
B) placenta previa.
C) abruptio placenta.
D) ectopic pregnancy.
22. Which of the following, combined with a breech birth, puts the delivery of a newborn at a higher risk? A) prolapsed cord
B) face presentation
C) short umbilical cord
D) rapid labor and delivery
23. You are giving oral glucose to a patient with diabetes when the patient suddenly has a seizure. What should you do for this
patient? A) Maintain the airway.
B) Assess ability to swallow. C) Place in a prone position.
D) Continue giving glucose to increase the blood glucose level.
24. Which of the following medications is NOT inhaled? A) oxygen
B) epinephrine C) nitro spray D) albuterol
25. A patient would be considered to have inadequate breathing if the respiratory rate was greater than how many breaths per
minute?
A) 10 B) 16 C) 20 D) 24
26. What are the side effects of oral glucose? A) increase in appetite
B) increase in amount of body fluid C) decrease in the ability to walk
D) none, if medication is given correctly
27. Any drowning of unknown origin should be treated as a(n): A) stroke.
B) air embolism.
C) possible spinal injury.
D) cold water immersion.
28. Aphasia is:
A) slurred and hard-to-understand speech.
B) the inability to produce or understand speech. C) disregard for malfunctioning body parts.
D) altered level of consciousness after a seizure.
29. A known diabetic patient is found on the floor next to his bed. His speech is slurred, and he is unable to tell you his name. His
wife states that she hasn't been able to get him to eat much for several days. What should your care include? A) Give him oral
glucose.
B) Insert an oropharyngeal airway. C) Have him drink a glass of juice.
D) Assist him with taking his insulin.
30. Your patient is lying supine. He is incoherent and sluggish, and his breath smells of alcohol. The
police identify him as a chronic alcoholic. What other condition could cause this patient's change in behavior? A) gout
B) bursitis
C) mild hypertension
D) uncontrolled diabetes
31. A patient with a right hemispheric stroke may be unaware of left-sided motor problems as a result of the CV A. This is known
as: A) aphasia. B) neglect.
C) disassociation.
D) cerebral motor defect.
32. When you compare a primagravida vs. a multigravida woman, a general rule of thumb is that a primagravida's length of the
first stage of labor is: A) longer than a multigravida. B). shorter than a multigravida. C) equal to a multigravida.
D) difficult to actually compare.
33. Use of a shoulder harness without a lap belt can result in: A) upper extremity injuries. B) thoracic displacement. C) whiplash
injuries.
D) submarining injuries.
34. Labored breathing and cyanosis after a seizure are:
A) normal; they should clear up within a few minutes.
B) abnormal; they mean that the respiratory center in the brain has been damaged. C) normal but need aggressive airway
management and intubation by paramedics. D) abnormal; they mean that there is another underlying medical problem.
35. You may note a common occurrence while treating some patients for possible acute myocardial infarction. These patients
may:
A) have an overwhelming feeling of impending doom. B) immediately call their family physician.
C) take extra sugar to prevent a possible diabetic reaction.
D) activate the EMS system as soon as the chest pain begins.
36. After delivery, you see that the infant's face and trunk are cyanotic. The infant is crying and has a pulse of 158/min. You
should:
A) cool the infant to increase its circulation. B) provide ventilations at a rate of 40/min.
C) calm the infant to slow down its respirations. D) dry the infant and provide free-flow oxygen.
37. The collision of a passenger in a vehicle against the interior of the vehicle is the: A) first collision.
B) second collision. C) third collision.
D) fourth collision.
38. Interruption of cerebral blood flow in a stroke is NOT caused by: A) cerebral embolism. B) cerebral diastasis. C) thrombosis.
D) arterial rupture.
39. An example of a suspension is: A) oral glucose.
B) activated charcoal. C) capsules.
D) nitroglycerin.
40. A woman who is short of breath tells you she has a history of congestive heart failure. You would expect to find:
A) distended neck veins. B) bradycardia.
C) inspiratory stridor. D) jaundiced skin.
41. A medication that requires a specific physician's order before being dispensed by a pharmacist describes what type of
medication? A) over the counter B) prescription C) recreational D) illicit
42. Labored breathing, difficulty in breathing, or shortness of breath that may lead to hypoxia is known as:
A) cyanosis. B) dyspnea.
C) tachypnea.
D) ecchymosis.
43. Your patient is an obviously pregnant woman complaining of abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Her husband says that her
pain has been constant for the past 30 minutes, and there is blood allover the bed. Your exam shows that she does not appear to be
crowning, and she is still bleeding from the vagina. What should you do next?
A) You should prepare for delivery because this is a pre delivery emergency placenta previa.
B) You should massage the uterus to control the bleeding, apply oxygen, and transport the patient on her left side.
C) You should apply oxygen and prepare the patient for delivery because delivery is corning soon. D) You should apply oxygen
and rapidly transport because there is a possible life-threatening
problem with the placenta.
44. Your care for a limb presentation delivery involving an arm includes: A) maintaining heat by gently replacing the arm in the
vagina.
B) covering the arm with a sterile towel and rapidly transporting.
C) assisting the baby by gently pulling on the arm to adjust the delivery path.
D) elevating the mother's buttocks and relieving pressure on the cord by inserting a sterile gloved hand.
45. You should give activated charcoal if your patient has a history of ingesting a poison and: A) has chest pain and coughing.
B) has an altered level of consciousness.
C) the ingested substance is a strong acid.
D) medical control has directed administration.
46. You should consult medical control before giving activated charcoal because: A) the patient might be allergic to activated
charcoal. B) activated charcoal is not indicated for all poisons.
C) you should always call the patient's doctor before you begin treatment.
D) medical control might give you orders to mix the activated charcoal with an antidote.
47. The front part of cerebrum controls: A) touch.
B) emotion.
C) movement. D) sight.
48. A generalized seizure is characterized by:
A) persistent unconsciousness for 5 to 30 minutes. B) a brief lapse of attention.
C) a body temperature exceeding 105°P. D) twitching of all the body's muscles.
49. What is a common trade name for oral glucose? A) Diabenase B) Micronase C) Glucagon
D) Insta-glucose
50. You should use activated charcoal when a patient: . A) overdoses on oral medication. B) complains of severe dyspnea.
C) complains of nausea and vomiting.
D) complains of severe substernal chest pain.
51. What is the best way for you to assist your patient with nitroglycerin? A) Have the patient swallow the tablet.
B) Have the patient dissolve the tablet in the mouth.
C) Wait for the patient to become unresponsive in order for you to give the nitroglycerin. D) Tell the patient to place the tablet
under the tongue and let it dissolve there.
52. The most effective way to manage disruptive patients is to: A) confront them and take charge. B) ask questions timidly. C) be
direct.
D) delay medical treatment until they cooperate.
53. For a patient who is complaining of respiratory distress, you should: A) administer oxygen.
B) administer an inhaler. C) suspect head trauma.
D) transport in a supine position.
54. Treatment for injected poisons include: A) dilute with oral fluids.
B) monitor airway, breathing, and circulation.
C) place a constricting band proximal to the injection site.
D) a lengthy evaluation of the patient on scene for available history.
55. Which of the following best describes what happens with an acute abdomen? A) Peritonitis causes ileus and abdominal
distention. B) Peritonitis causes ileus and diverticulitis. C) Ileus causes peritonitis and cholecystitis. D) Ileus causes peritonitis and
guarding.
56. Where is the radial pulse located? A) neck B) knee C) groin D) wrist
57. An 84-year-old woman was recently cleaning a closet when a bug bit her. Several hours later she describes a swollen, tender
area on her hand that appears pale. You suspect she was bitten by a: A) brown recluse spider. B) black widow spider. C) red ant.
D) yellow jacket.
58. Precautions to administering medications to a geriatric patient include:
A) identifying the primary care physician who prescribed the patient's medications.
B) holding administration of medications until verbal confirmation from medical control is obtained,
C) assessing for liver or kidney problems and holding medications if present.
D) screening for interactions with other medications the patient may be taking.
.
59. Pulmonary resuscitation is necessary for a newborn if: A) breathing is absent.
B) its breathing is rapid.
C) the baby weighs more than 7 lb.
D) the breathing rate is greater than SO/min.
60. Newton's first law says:
A) Objects at rest tend to stay at rest, and objects in motion tend to stay in motion unless acted upon by some force.
B) Force equals mass times acceleration.
C) Objects in motion will come to rest and then stay at rest. D) For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
61. The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled in the: A) brain stem.
- B) cerebrum.
C) cerebellum.
D) cerebral cortex.
62. The term behavioral emergency is defined as: A) a person's mental activity.
B) behavior that is within acceptable norms.
C) the manner in which a person acts or performs.
D) a change in mood or behavior that cannot be tolerated by the person, family, or community.
63. The equation: mass (weight) + gravity + height, may be used to determine a fall victim's: A) deceleration rate. B) potential
energy. C) dead load. D) live load.
64. Which of the following snakes is NOT considered a pit viper? A) rattlesnake B) coral snake
C) copperhead snake
D) cottonmouth water moccasin snake
65. Which of the following steps should NOT be taken in treating a patient with deep localized cold . injuries?
A) Remove all jewelry.
B) Leave all blisters intact.
C) Rewarm the area by applying heat.
D) Cover the area with dry, sterile dressings.
66. Localized cold injuries do NOT tend to occur on the: A) ears. B) nose.
C) abdomen.
D) extremities.
67. How can you assist the mother in stimulating her uterus to contract to deliver the placenta? A) Elevate her legs 6 to 8 inches.
B) Allow her to nurse the newborn.
C) Give her a glass of water to drink.
D) Apply gentle pressure to the perineum.
68. A patient who has overdosed by taking too much of a medication should be given: A) syrup of ipecac to induce vomiting. B) a
glass of milk to coat the stomach.
C) an antidote to neutralize the medication.
D) activated charcoal to absorb the medication.
69. A ruptured ectopic pregnancy: A) occurs in the last trimester.
B) usually presents with mild mid-menstrual-cycle back pain.
C) is retroperitoneal and therefore does not cause acute abdomen. D) is a life-threatening emergency.
70. Which of the following terms best defines the cycle of inhalation (taking air in) and exhalation (pushing air out)? A)
expiration B) inspiration C) ventilation
D) respiration '
71. A woman who had an alkaline chemical splashed in her eye states her eye feels as though it is burning. You also note
excessive tearing from the injured eye. Your care should include: A) patching the injured eye with a dry, sterile dressing. B)
irrigating the eye with water for at least 5 minutes.
C) irrigating the eye with water for at least 20 minutes.
D) irrigating the eye with a neutralizing agent to decrease the bum.
)
72. Which of the following symptoms would NOT be a sign of cardiac problems?
B) retrostemal chest pain
C) tingling in the fingertips
D) sudden onset of sweating
. A) nausea and vomiting
73. Paralysis of intestinal muscle contractions is called: A) emesis. B) ileus.
C) anorexia.
D) intestinal arrest.
74. Which of the following symptoms is NOT a side effect of epinephrine? A) anxiety
B) dizziness
""-.. C)
decreased heart rate
D) nausea and vomiting
7 5. You have just given your patient oxygen and epinephrine. How many minutes should you wait before reassessing the vital
signs? A) 1 B) 2 C) 5
D) 10
76. Which of the following organs is retroperitoneal? A) liver
B) spleen C) kidney
D) pancreas
77. Hyperthermia occurs when:
A) heat gained exceeds heat lost. B) heat lost exceeds heat gained.
C) air temperature exceeds body temperature.
D) air temperature drops below body temperature.
78. Which of the following is NOT an area in which abdominal pain is commonly felt? A) right shoulder B) genitalia C) left arm
D) costovertebral angle
79. While the AED is analyzing the patient's heart rhythm, you must ensure that: A) the patient is being hyperventilated.
B) two-person CPR is being performed. C) no one is touching the patient.
D) carotid and radial pulse checks are being performed.
80. The heart muscle receives its primary oxygen supply from the:
1.A coronary artery.
B) pulmonary artery.
C) superior vena cava.
D) blood passing through the four chambers.
81. The usual skin reactions to an allergen include itching and: A) urticaria. B) atrophy.
C) coldness.
D) diaphoresis.
82. Which of the following drugs can you help to give if the patient has a prescription and you have consent from medical
control? A) cocaine B) codeine
C) morphine
D) epinephrine
83. What medication form does oral glucose come in? A) gel
B) liquid
C) suspension
D) fine powder
84. Your stroke patient is able to understand your questions but the patient's speech is difficult to understand because of slurring.
This would be documented as: A) dysarthria. B) aphasia. C) dyslexia. D) aphonia.
85. Venom from a poisonous scorpion produces a systemic reaction of:
A) circulatory collapse. B) respiratory distress.
C) dizziness and confusion. D) urticaria and rash.
86. A child has had a fever and a barking cough and is now beginning to wheeze. These signs and symptoms suggest: A) a heart
attack.
B) a common cold. C) rhonchi.
D) partial airway obstruction.
87. Which of the following manners should you use to question a violent patient?
A) calm and reassuring
B) joyful and lighthearted
C) aggressive and purposeful
D) authoritative and self-assured
88. Which of the following side effects can be caused by respiratory medications? A) increased pulse rate, tremors, and
nervousness
B) increased pulse rate and constricted bronchioles
C) decreased pulse rate, somnolence, and decreased respirations
D) low blood pressure, increased pulse rate, and increased respirations
89. A woman in labor tells you that she is expecting twins. The first infant is born en route to the hospital. You should:
A) clamp, but not cut, the umbilical cord of the first infant.
B) leave the umbilical cord hanging free until the second infant is delivered. C) clamp and cut the umbilical cord of the first
infant.
D) apply gentle traction to the umbilical cord to assist with delivery of the second infant.
90. As you obtain a patient history from a known diabetic, what would be an important question to ask? A) Do you smoke?
B) How much do you weigh?
C) Have you seen your doctor lately?
D) Do you take insulin for your diabetes?
91. A 6-year-old child was bitten by a black widow spider. Priority care should focus on: A) monitoring vital signs.
B) relieving muscle cramps.
C) evaluating for breathing difficulty.
D) inm1obilization of the affected extremity.
92. What is the difference between a trade name and a generic name?
A) There is no difference between a trade name and a generic name.
B) The trade name is the name the drug is marketed under. The generic name is the chemical name. C) The trade name is the
chemical name. The generic name is the name before it becomes officially
listed.
D) The trade name is the name the drug is marketed under. The generic name is the name before it becomes officially listed.
93. A 32-year-old patient is reported to have had a generalized seizure and is now postictal on your arrival. Your first action is to:
A) contact dispatch to send an ALS unit.
B) determine if airway and breathing are adequate. C) obtain a complete set of vital signs.
D) interview family members for a description of the seizure.
94. Which of the following is NOT considered a medication administration route? ( A) per rectum
B) transcutaneous C) intraosseous D) digitally
"
95. The visceral peritoneum:
A) covers the surface of the abdominal organs. B) lines the abdominal cavity.
C) surrounds the lungs in the chest. D) covers the surface of the brain.
96. Diabetic patients can have a sudden change in their level of consciousness when they: A) take their insulin but skip a meal.
B) take their insulin but eat an extra meal.
C) forget to take their insulin and skip a meal.
D) forget to complete their daily exercise routine.
97. You find a 19-year-old man who tells you he "just doesn't feel right." His insulin and a syringe are on a table. The patient says
he thinks he took his insulin but can't remember whether he ate. He is also unable to tell you the time or what day it is. What care
does he need? A) Give him oral glucose.
B) Test him for a gag reflex.
C) No care is required. Just encourage him to eat.
D) Have the patient give himself an insulin injection.
98. Which of the following is NOT a condition associated with acute abdomen?
A) emesis ;
B) anorexia C) bulimia
D) guarding
99. You can determine that a patient with cardiac arrest is in need of defibrillation by which of the following findings?
A) The patient is breathing and has a carotid pulse.
B) The patient is breathing and has no carotid pulse.
C) The patient is not breathing and has a carotid pulse.
D) The patient is not breathing and has no carotid pulse.
100. An alert patient has a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and good audible breath sounds on both sides of the chest.
These signs and symptoms suggest: A) an obstructed airway.
B) adequate air exchange.
C) respiratory difficulty.
D) respiratory insufficiency.
101. Your patient is a 56-year-old man with chest pain. Medical control orders you to help the patient take a nitroglycerin tablet.
The patient later tells you that he has a headache. This headache is known as: A) a sign.
B) an action.
C) a symptom.
D) a side effect.
102. A change in the level of consciousness in a diabetic patient is usually due to:
A) dehydration.
B) nausea and vomiting.
C) a lack of glucose in the blood.
D) a lack of electrolytes in the blood. 103. An overdose on acetaminophen is likely to produce: A) respiratory arrest. B) kidney failure. C) liver failure.
D) gastric ulcers.
104. Which of the following is NOT a step in treating a patient with an acute abdomen? A) Anticipate vomiting.
B) Administer analgesic. C) Anticipate shock. D) Give oxygen.
105. The primary stimulus for a healthy person to breathe is the level of: A) oxygen in the blood.
B) carbon dioxide in the blood. C) oxygen in the alveoli.
D) carbon dioxide in the alveoli.
106. A patient who has status astmaticus:
A) is less than 12 years old with a history of asthma. B) was recently diagnosed with asthma.
C) experiences relief of an asthma attack without the use of an inhaler. D) has a prolonged asthma attack unrelieved by
medications.
107. Febrile seizures:
A) are well tolerated and need no further intervention.
B) should be treated by immersing the child in cold water.
C) need medical evaluation although they are usually benign. D) are also referred to as petit mal seizures.
108. The secondary stimulus for breathing in a person with carbon dioxide retention is: A) low levels of carbon dioxide in the
alveoli. B) low levels of oxygen in the alveoli.
C) high levels of carbon dioxide in the blood. D) low levels of oxygen in the blood.
109. Nothing may be given by mouth to a patient with an acute abdomen because: A) digestive sounds prevent accurate
auscultation.
B) food in the stomach prevents a patient from accurately describing the location of abdominal pain. C) intestinal paralysis
prevents food or drink from passing out of the system normally.
D) it will create referred pain and obscure the diagnosis. "
110. In a multiple birth delivery, you should: A) plan for placenta previa.
B) clamp and cut the umbilical cord after the first birth.
C) plan on at least one of the fetuses being a breech delivery.
D) begin transport if the second fetus has not delivered within 5 minutes of the first.
111. You respond to a movie theater for an elderly patient who is confused. His wife tells you he has type II diabetes but refuses
to take his pills. Your initial treatment for this patient would be to: A) monitor vital signs and transport immediately.
B) confirm the patient can swallow without difficulty and give oral glucose. C) complete a detailed exam inspecting for
nonhealing wounds.
D) insist he take twice the dose of his oral hypoglycemic medication now.
112. You have been called to a scene where the patient is displaying violent behavior. You should begin your assessment:
A) as you approach the scene.
B) after the arrival of the police.
C) after talking to family members.
D) after receiving consent from the patient.
113. What medication form of activated charcoal do you carry in the ambulance? A) liquid gel
B) suspension
C) liquid for injection
D) ',fine powder for inhalation
114. Transcutaneous medications are absorbed: A) slowly through the skin.
B) slowly through the mucous membranes. C) quickly through the skin.
D) quickly through the mucous membranes.
115. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is caused by all of the following EXCEPT: A) chronic bronchitis.
B) inhaled toxic gasses.
C) acute myocardial infarction. D) cigarette smoking.
116. One of your goals in using an AED to manage a cardiac arrest patient is to:
-
A) provide defibnllation to patients of cardiac arrest.
B) make it easier for Advanced Life Support (ALS) to respond to the scene. C) allow you to do a complete assessment by
evaluating the heart rhythm.
D) keep the patient from remaining in cardiac arrest by shocking the patient quickly."
117. A 20-year-old male patient is complaining of a mass protruding in his groin. It is painful at the site, and the surrounding skin
is bluish. You would suspect a serious problem of: A) strangulated hernia. B) hernia peritonea.
C) congenital hernia.
D) herniation syndrome.
118. Delirium tremens is a syndrome related to withdrawal from: A) alcohol. B) opioids.
C) sedatives. D) hypnotics.
119. Which of the following terms is defined as a manner in which a person acts or performs? A) mania
B) behavior C) neurosis
D) psychosis
120. Why is nitroglycerin useful for the patient with angina? A) It has no benefit for the patient with angina.
B) It makes the heart contract with more force so that blood will flow b~ter in the heart.
C) It causes the arteries in the heart to constrict, making it easier for blood to flow through them. D) It causes the arteries in the
heart to dilate, making it easier for blood to flow through them.
121. Premature infants are at a higher risk for: A) breech births. B) infection.
C) hyperthermia..
D) explosive deliveries. .
122. The most likely mechanism of injury responsible for a scuba diving ascent injury is: A) cold water.
B) alcohol consumption.
C) a decrease in atmospheric pressure. D) too rapid of an ascent.
123. Mild hypothermia occurs with core body temperatures of: A) 90-95°F B) 85-90°F C) 80-85°F D) 75-80°F
124. An adult who has swallowed a poisonous substance should be given: A) 25 to 50 mL of milk.
B) 25 to 50 g of syrup of ipecac.
C) 25 to 50 g of activated charcoal.
D) 25 to 50 g of the prescribed antidote.
125. Which of the following statements about injuries to the female genitalia is true? A) Foreign objects should be removed from
the vagina before transport.
B) Vaginal bleeding should be controlled by the insertion of sterile dressings.
C) Bleeding involving the external female genitalia should be controlled with a dry, sterile dressing and direct pressure.
D) Bleeding of the ureter can be easily controlled with direct local pressure.
126. Activated charcoal should be given to patients who have come in contact with a poisonous substance through:
A) injection. B) ingestion. C) inhalation.
D) absorption.
127. The onset of action for epinephrine is: A) within 1 minute. B) 10 minutes. C) 30 minutes.
D) within 1 hour.
128. Which of the following situations would indicate adequate breathing when you assess a newborn's breathing?
A) a delivery time of less than 1 hour B) a breathing rate of20/min
C) a newborn with a strong cry
D) a newborn with peripheral cyanosis
129. Which of the following is a typical reason for attempting suicide? A) good self-esteem
B) a promotion at work
C) many close emotional attachments
D) loss of a significant family member or friend
130. You are called to an industrial warehouse. The patient is a worker whose arms are covered from the elbows down with a
powdery substance that he says is a potent pesticide. He tells you that his arms became red and extremely painful even after he
brushed offmost of the pesticide. Your next action should be to:
A) brush off the remaining powder and irrigate both of his arms.
B) brush off the remaining powder and apply a dry, sterile dressing. C) apply ice packs to the affected areas and prepare for
transport.
D) apply a neutralizing agent and splint his arms in a position of comfort.
131. A patient who has been involved in a scuba diving emergency should be transported in what position?
A) left side with the head lower than the feet B) left side with the head higher than the feet
C) right side with the head lower than the feet D) right side with the head higher than the feet
132. A particularly important aspect of history for a stroke victim is to determine: A) when the patient last ate or drank. B)
whether the patient is incontinent.
C) when the patient last appeared normal. D) whether the patient is postictal.
133. How many people are needed to safely restrain a patient? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
134. ECG/defibrillator pads are placed on the patient's chest with one pad to the:
A) left of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the right of the left nipple.
B) left of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the right and below the left nipple. C) right of the upper sternum and the
other pad just to the right of the right nipple.
D) right of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the left and below the left nipple.
135. Which of the following names would be considered a generic name? A) Bayer B) Advil
C) Excedrin D) aspirin
136. Emergency medical care for a patient who has inhaled a poisonous substance should include: A) giving high-flow oxygen.
B) giving activated charcoal.
C) diluting with water and rapid transport. D) inducing vomiting with syrup of ipecac.
137. During a vehicle collision or fall, the collision of the person's internal organs against the solid structure of the body is the: A)
first collision.
B) second collision. C) third collision.
D) fourth collision.
138. Which of the following is the main chemical released into the body during an allergic reaction? A) histamine
B) epinephrine
C) beta-carotene D) antihistamine
139. As you obtain a patient history from a known diabetic, what would be another important question to ask?
A) Are you feeling well today?
B) How long have you been a diabetic?
C) What is your normal blood glucose level?
D) If you are taking insulin, did you take it today?
140. Which of the following should NOT be done after a successful removal of a tick? A) Wash with warm soap and water. B)
Monitor for a developing rash. C) Obtain a medical consultation.
D) Apply suction cups to remove saliva.
141. What does the term "crowning" mean? A) The perineum has been tom.
B) The baby is in a transverse position.
C) The baby's head is too large for delivery. D) The baby's head is visible at the vagina.
142. What large vein carries blood from the upper part of the body to the heart? A) brachial B) femoral
C) inferior vena cava
D) superior vena cava
143. Which of the following is the normal adult dosage of epinephrine in milligrams? A) 0.1
B) 0.15 C) 0.2 D) 0.3
144. Activated charcoal is given to patients to: A) induce vomiting.
B) decrease seizure activity.
C) decrease absorption of poisons into the lungs. D) prevent absorption of poisons into the body.
145. When a person has a superficial cold injury, rubbing or massaging the area will cause: A) irreversible shock.
B) an increase in cellular metabolism
C) an increase in carbon dioxide production. D) further damage to the tissues.
146. What are the classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia?
A) warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; deep, rapid respirations
B) Warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia (slow heartbeat); rapid respirations
C) cold, clammy skin; bradycardia (slow heartbeat); hunger; deep, rapid respirations
D) cool, clammy skin; abnormal behavior; tachycardia (rapid heartbeat); rapid respirations
147. The production of dangerous ketones is caused by: A) acidosis when glucose levels are critically low.
B) insulin allowing too much glucose into the cell too quickly. C) metabolizing fats when glucose is unavailable.
D) low blood glucose levels releasing acids into the blood.
148. A woman who has been given one dose of activated charcoal vomits as you are preparing her for transport. You should:
A) encourage her to drink a glass of milk to coat her stomach.
B) encourage her to drink a glass of water to dilute the remaining poison.
C) remove and flush off any clothing that became contaminated by the vomit.
D) give her a second dose of activated charcoal after getting approval from medical control.
149. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic sign or symptom of acute abdomen? A) pain
B) tenderness
C) rapid deep breathing D) abdominal distention
150. High air temperature reduces the body's ability to lose heat by: A) radiation.
B) convection. C) conduction. D) evaporation.
151. When the placenta separates early from the uterine lining, it is called: A) endometriosis.
B) placenta previa.
C) abruptio placenta.
D) ectopic pregnancy.
152. Which of the following, combined with a breech birth, puts the delivery of a newborn at a higher risk? A) prolapsed cord
B) face presentation
C) short umbilical cord
D) rapid labor and delivery
153. After birth, you notice that the infant's face and trunk appear blue. This is called: A) pallor cyanosis.
B) central cyanosis.
C) peripheral cyanosis. D) circumoral cyanosis.
154. The most commonly abused drug in the United States is: A) alcohol B) opioids.
C) anticholinergic agents. D) marijuana.
155. Which one of the following drugs would you carry on the ambulance? . A) albuterol
B) dopamine C) epinephrine D) oral glucose
156. You are caring for a 44-year-old female who has been drinking beer all day at an outdoor summer concert. Your focused
history and exam reveal hot, dry skin; a weak, rapid pulse; and a decreased level of consciousness. Care of this patient includes:
A) covering her with a single dry sheet. B) giving her a weak electrolyte drink.
C) administering oxygen with a nonrebreathing mask.
D) rapid cooling of the patient until she starts to shiver.
157. Colic is pain caused by:
A) distention or contraction of hollow organs. B) the hunger associated with anorexia. C) high temperatures in infants. D) rough
abdominal palpation.
158. The AED protocol allows you to deliver three defibrillations, followed by 1 minute of CPR, followed by how many shocks,
if necessary? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
159. You are treating an unwilling patient who needs emergency medical care for a severe mental disturbance. To make sure that
the patient's rights are not violated, you should get help from: A) a nurse.
B) a lawyer.
C) the police.
D) medical control.
160. If the amniotic sac does not rupture before an infant is born, you should: A) immediately transport the mother to the
emergency department.
B) immediately break the membrane using a sterile clamp or your sterile, gloved fingers. C) break the membrane once the entire
infant is born.
D) massage the uterus to rupture the sac while protecting the infant from a gush of fluid.
161. How is nitroglycerin usually given? A) orally
B) inhaled C) injected
D) sublingual
162. The presence of a fever is usually present with which of the following types of peritonitis?
A) ruptured aneurysm B) diverticulitis C) gastric ulcer D) kidney stone
163. Which of the following factors may alter a patient's behavior? A) head trauma
B) sufficient oxygen
C) thyroid medication
D) blood pressure medication
164. Which of the following would be an important question to ask as you obtain a patient history from a known diabetic?
A) Have you had any alcohol today?
B) How many meals do you eat a day? C) Did you eat today and if so, when?
D) Do you have problems with your vision?
165. When transporting a stable stroke patient with hemiparesis, it is best to place the patient in a: A) lateral position with the
paralyzed side down. B) lateral position with the paralyzed side up. C) supine position with the legs elevated. D) semi-Fowler's
position of comfort.
166. Children with diabetes who overexert themselves are prone to: A) rapid drops in their ability to sweat.
B) rapid drops in their blood glucose levels. C) rapid increases in their blood pressure.
D) rapid increases in their blood glucose levels.
167. A patient who is considering committing suicide might: A) watch the news. B) clean the house.
C) make vacation plans.
D) verbalize a defined plan of action.
168. Which of the following drugs can produce disruptive behavior? A) aspirin B) alcohol
C) tetracycline
D) activated charcoal
169. Activated charcoal is given to absorb certain: A) inhaled poisons. B) injected poisons.
C) absorbed poisons. D) ingested poisons.
170. Emphysema is a type of COPD characterized by:
A) a loss of elasticity in alveolar lung tissue leaving a pocket.
B) increased mucus production that clogs smaller bronchioles.
C) chronic dilation of bronchial air passages creating trapped air.
D) fluids collecting in the alveolar space restricting oxygen exchange.
171. When the body loses sweat, it also loses:
A) plasma.
B) nutrients.
C) electrolytes.
D) carbonic acid.
172. When administering an epinephrine auto-injector it is important to hold the injector in place for: A) 3 to 5 seconds.
B) 5 to 10 seconds.
C) 10 to 20 seconds.
D) until it no longer hurts.
173. Your patient is a 25-year-old man who is having a severe allergic reaction. He has a prescribed inhaler and EpiPen but is
unable to inform you of his usual dose. You should: A) contact medical control for instructions.
B) contact your supervisor for further instructions. C) give oxygen and call for a paramedic unit.
D) give the prescribed drugs at the maximum dose.
174. You are preparing a mother and her newborn infant for transport when the placenta begins to deliver. What should you do
to deliver the placenta?
A) Firmly grasp the umbilical cord and pull the placenta from the mother to help reduce her pain. B) Place a sterile gloved
hand inside the vagina to slightly elevate the placenta and to reduce pressure on the cord.
C) Help the mother hold her legs together to delay placenta delivery until you arrive at the hospital. D) Help the mother with
delivery of the placenta. Bring the placenta with you to the hospital in a plastic bag.
175. Your care for a patient with hot, dry skin should include: A) putting the patient in a sitting position.
B) massaging the body to increase blood flow.
C) cooling the patient rapidly to cause shivering.
D) applying cold packs to the neck, groin, and armpits.
176. A 23-year-old woman is complaining of severe lower abdominal pain and a fever. If her symptoms were from an
infection of the fallopian tube, she probably has: A) an ectopic pregnancy. B) mittelschmerz. C) a gastric ulcer.
D) pelvic inflammatory disease.
177. An acceptable dosage for nitroglycerin is one tablet every 5 minutes up to a maximum of how many
tablets?
~
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
178. A worker at the community swimming pool is complaining of being dizzy and states, "I can't catch my breath."
Coworkers tell you that they found him in the chemical supply room. On the basis of this history, you suspect: A) toxic
inhalation.
B) toxic absorption.
C) toxic overdose by ingestion. D) poisoning by ingestion.
179. What care should you give a newborn that has a pulse of 90/min and respirations of 28/min? A) Allow the mother to hold
the baby to calm it. B) Start chest compressions at 60/min.
C) Administer free-flow oxygen at 10 to 15 liters per minute.
D) Ventilate the baby with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) device at 60/min.
180. Which of the following is NOT a key physical test for assessing stroke victims? A) facial droop
B) straight-line walking C) arm drift D) speech
181. Your care for a patient with moist, pale skin and normal to cool skin temperature in the context of a hot environment
should include:
A) keeping the skin wet with alcohol.
B) massaging the body to increase blood flow.
C) applying cold packs to the neck, groin, and armpits.
D) having the patient drink water if the patient is responsive and not vomiting.
182. Atherosclerosis is a disorder where:
A) blood vessels become thin and fragile and are more prone to rupture.
B) weakened blood vessel walls cause abnormal twists and curves slowing blood flow. C) calcium and cholesterol builds up
forming plaques in the blood vessel walls.
D) changes in permeability in capillary walls restrict oxygen and glucose exchange.
183. Shock may occur with an acute abdomen because: A) acute abdomen causes internal hemorrhage.
B) fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues.
C) abdominal distention impairs the heart's ability to pump. D) severe pain causes neurogenic shock.
184. Force acting over distance defines the concept of: . A) kinetic energy. B) work.
C) potential energy. D) latent energy.
185. A 35-year-old mildly obese woman is complaining of localized pain in the right upper quadrant with referred pain to the
right shoulder. The probable cause of her abdominal pain would be: A) a kidney infection. B) appendicitis. C) cholecystitis.
D) pelvic inflammatory disease.
186. A young woman who has been stung by a bee states that she is allergic to bee stings. The patient is given an epinephrine
injection. En route to the hospital, you should administer a second dose if: A) she becomes drowsy.
B) breathing does not improve. C) swelling is not reduced. D) urticaria persists.
187. Medications encased in a gelatin shell taken by mouth are: A) capsules. B) tablets. C) caplets.
D) suspensions.
188. A true heat exposure emergency exists if the skin is: A) blanching and dry.
B) hot to the touch and dry.
C) mottling, tingling, and dry.
D) normal temperature and moist.
189. The AED has delivered six defibrillations to a cardiac arrest patient you are treating. After delivery of the sixth shock, a
carotid pulse was found. What should you do next? A) Transport immediately.
B) Take a complete set of vital signs.
C) Contact medical control for advice on how to proceed with the patient.
D) Assess whether the patient is breathing, and provide supplemental oxygen and ventilation if necessary.
190. Acute spasms of bronchiolar muscles and excessive mucus production is characteristic of: A) pulmonary edema. B)
asthma.
C) pneumonia.
D) pleural effilsions.
191. Your patient is a known diabetic who is not feeling well. You are unsure whether there is too much . or too little glucose in the
bloodstream. You should give the patient:
A) water or milk.
B) oxygen only and transport.
C) nothing without knowing for sure.
D) oral glucose, in case there are low levels of sugar in the bloodstream.
192. In what area of the lungs does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occur? A) trachea B) alveoli
C) bronchi
D) bronchioles
193. The first step in assessing a behavioral emergency is to: A) take vital signs.
B) protect your crew. C) restrain the patient.
D) obtain a past history.
194. The respiratory system is divided anatomically into the: A) right and left.
B) upper and lower.
C) anterior and posterior.
D) oropharynx and nasopharynx.
195. What is the process by which a person loses body heat to cooler ambient air? A) radiation
B) constriction C) conduction D) evaporation
196. Tensing of abdominal muscles with an acute abdomen is known as: A) protection. B) referral.
C) guarding.
D) peritonitis.
197. Which of the following names is NOT considered a type of drug name? A) trade
B) generic
C) chemical
D) over-the-counter
198. Because of the different actions and side effects of respiratory medications, you should: A) treat patients with oxygen only.
B) allow patients to take prescribed drugs as needed. C) discontinue all medications to prevent overdose.
D) consult medical control before giving any medications.
199. When assessing a patient who has attempted suicide, you should:
A) not be concerned about another attempt if the patient was the one who called for help. B) be able to tell the difference between a
"gesture" and a serious attempt. C) recognize that multiple wrist slashes will not produce significant injury. D) never leave the
patient alone.
200. You are listening to the breath sounds of a patient who has complained of shortness of breath. You hear a wheezing sound
over both sides at the midaxillary areas of the chest. These sounds might be caused by:
A) a complete airway obstruction by the tongue.
B) normal air movement through the patient's nose. C) narrowing of the lower air passages of the lungs.
D) enlargement of the lower air passages of the lungs.