Download This test is divided into sections based on topics covered this semester

FI
EVALUATION OF TEACHING AND LEARNING=
Student:_____________________ Date:________________ Score:________________
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE ITEMS: Directions: Circle the best or correct answer to the following
incomplete statements or questions. 1 pts @
FYI: z = Mean-Raw Score
SD
T= 10z + 50
1. Listing every possible score on an examination and the number of students obtaining each score
results in what type of frequency distribution?
a. interval
c. descriptive
b. grouped
d. simple
2. The histogram resembles a/n ; the frequency polygon resemble a/n
a. bar graph; line graph
c. box plot; line plot
b. bar graph; normal curve
d. line graph; bar graph
3. When scores are arranged in order of magnitude, the researcher has formed a/n:
a. histogram
b. measure of centrality.
c. measure of dispersion
d. distribution
4. When single points are used to designate the frequency of each score, the points being connected
by a series of straight lines is called a/n:
a. Scatter plot
b. bar graph
c. frequency graph
d. frequency polygon
5. A frequency distribution with two pronounced humps or two areas of high frequency is referred
to as being:
a. unimodal
b. multimodal
c. symmetrical
d. bimodal
6. The mean, mode, median and mode are all measures of:
a. dispersion
b. central tendency
b. variability
d. standard deviation.
7. The measurement which occurs most often in a distribution is called the:
a. median
b. mode
c. mean
d. range
8. Given the scores on an algebra quiz: 60, 95, 72, 84, 100, 80. The median for these scores is:
a. 80
b. 82
c. 83
d. 84
9. The ∑X/N for the following scores: 8, 10, 5, 7, 5 is
a. 6.0
b. 35.0
c. 7.0
d. 30.0
1
10. What is the range of the following score? 21, 17, 10, 24, 34
a. 13
c. 20
b. 24
d. 17
11. Which combination below represents the mean; median; and mode; respectively, of the following
raw scores?
Raw scores: 75, 97, 88, 88, 56, 70, 45, 77, 56, 90, 67
a. 97, 45, 90
b. 74, 75, 88
c. 73, 75, 90
d. 88, 56, 67
12. What would be the shape of distribution with a mean off 55, median 52, and mode of 50?
a. Negatively skewed
b. Positively skewed
c. Symmetrical
d. Normal distribution
13. When a distribution shows a large majority of very low scores and a few very high scores, the
distribution is said to be:
a. Positively skewed
b. Negatively skewed
c. Centrally skewed.
d. A normal curve.
14. When the mean lies to the right of the median, the distribution is probably:
a. bimodal
b. multimodal
c. positively skewed
d. negatively skewed
15. When the median lies to the right of the mean, the distribution is probably:
a. bimodal
b. multimodal
c. negatively skewed
d. Positively skewed
16. When a distribution is negatively skewed, the:
a. Mode will be to the left of the median.
b. Mode will be to the right of the median.
c. Mode will equal the mean.
d. Mode will equal the median..
17. A normal curve always has a greater frequency of scores:
a. below the mean than above the mean.
b. at the tails than around the center.
c. above the mean than below the mean.
d. around the center than in the tails.
18. Under the normal curve, 68% of the cases always fall between:
a. + 3 standard deviation and -3 standard deviation .
b. + 1 standard deviation and –1 standard deviation.
c. + 2 standard deviation and –2 standard deviation .
d. + 4 standard deviation and –4 standard deviation
19. When the mean and median do not coincide, then the:
a. Curve is normal.
b. Curve is symmetrical.
c. Curve is skewed.
d. Curve is unimodal.
20. Under the normal curve, the percentage of cases falling below +3 standard deviations from the
mean is:
a. 68%
b. 34%
c. 14%
d. less than 1%
2
21. The mean and mode of a normal distribution are both 42. The most likely value of the median is:
a. >42
b. <42
c. 42
d. 0
23. The numerical difference between the raw score and the mean, when divided by the standard
deviation, yields the:
a. T-score
b. z-score
c. r
d. SD
24 If a student achieved a score of 10 on a test with a mean of 15 and a standard deviation of 5, and a
score of 50 on another test with a mean of 60 and a standard deviation of 10, we could say that:
a. She achieved better on the first test.
b. She achieved better on the second test.
c. She achieved equally well on both tests.
d. Not enough information to determine.
25. An individual reported a correlation coefficient of 1.25 between form A and form B of an intelligence
test. This correlation coefficient would indicate a/n:
a. high degree of relationship.
b. moderate degree of relationship.
c. low degree of relationship.
d. computational error.
26. Which of the following r-values shows the strongest relationship between the X and Y variables?
a. +0.65
b. +0.22
c. -0.72
d. -0.36
27. If the mean of a distribution is 20, and the z for an X score of 26 is 3, what is the standard deviation?
a. 2
b. -2
c. -4
d. -3
28. People who earn high salaries tend to have larger vocabularies than people with low salaries. Causally,
this means:
a. increasing vocabulary tends to increase salary
b. increasing salary tends to increase vocabulary
c. the correlation is due to a third variable.
d. no conclusion can be drawn from the correlation alone.
29. A student scores 35 on a vocabulary test. The mean for the class is 37 and the standard deviation is 8.
His z-score is:
a. 0.25
b. 0.20
c. -0.20
d. -0.25
30. If the correlation between musical aptitude and creativity were high positive, we would predict that if
Tammy is low in musical aptitude, she would probably score:
a. High on creativity
b. Average on creativity.
c. Low creativity
d. Not enough information to determine.
31. A scatter diagram of a correlation near zero would show:
a. a circular pattern of points.
b. A narrow ellipse pattern.
c. Points on a horizontal line.
d. A blank diagram.
3
32. In a perfect normal distribution, the:
a. standard deviation is 0.50
b. z-score is 1.0.
c. median is at the tails
d. mean=median=mode
33. One advantage of T-scores over z-scores is that they:
a. always have the same standard deviation.
b. are more easily converted.
c. can be added and subtracted.
d. include only positive scores.
34 .If a student obtains a raw score of 68 in a group in which the mean is 70 and the standard deviation is 4,
what will his T-score be?
e. 35
b. 45
b. 55
d. 65
35. When two sets of scores are independent of each other, then the correlation between them must be:
a .negative.
b. positive.
c. zero.
d. strong
36. A scatter plot on which the array of points goes from upper left to lower right, indicates a/an:
a. positive correlation
b. negative correlation
c .zero correlation
d. all of these, depending on the strength of the correlation.
37. If a relationship is inverse it means that the correlation must be:
a. strong
b. negative
c .positive
d. weak.
38. When high scores on the first variable associated with high scores on the second, and low scores on the
first associated with low scores on the second, the correlation is:
a. positive
b. negative
c. zero
d. non-existent
48. Mr. Nelson asks the other math teachers in his high school to review his midterm to see if the test items
represent his learning targets. Which type of evidence for validity is being used?
a. content-related
b. criterion-related
c. instructional
d. construct-related
50. The following evaluation practices, which is likely to be most useful with elementary school students?
a. Giving frequent summative evaluations stressing synthesis and evaluation to prepare
students for high school.
b. Giving frequent formative evaluations stressing knowledge and application to promote
mastery of basic skills.
c. Posting scores in the classroom to motivate students to do better on future tests.
d. Giving frequent formative evaluations stressing synthesis and evaluation to shape higherlevel thinking.
51. Summative testing is concerned with:
a. diagnosis
c. daily progress
b. entry skills
d. final outcomes
4
53. Formative evaluation is used primarily for:
a. feedback
b. grading
c. placement
d. selection
54. Which of the following is an example of criterion-referenced measurement?
a .Jerry’s test score was average for his class.
b. Joan solved the fewest arithmetic.
c. John set up his laboratory equipment in five minutes.
d. Mary earned the highest score in class.
55. A criterion-referenced test is most appropriate if your objective is to find out how:
a. well you students can apply twenty-four rules of English grammar and punctuation.
b. your third-graders do on a standardized math test compared to other third-graders.
c. physically fit your students are compared to the national average.
d. well your students do in their first year of college compared to Ms. Murphy’s students.
56. A final exam has a total of 60 test items. Of the 60 test items, 15 test items are interpretative exercises
and 20 are multiple choices. What percentage of the total test did the two formats represent?
a. 15% and 20 % respectively
b. 33 ⅓ % and 20% respectively
c. 25% and 66 2/3 respectively
d. 25% and 33 ⅓ % respectively
57.
One of the major advantages of performance assessment over traditional tests is that performance
assessments:
a measures learning directly rather than relying on indicators.
b. is superior for measuring knowledge of basic academic skills.
c. yields authentic rather than inauthentic results.
d. requires less time to develop and evaluate.
58. A major classroom purpose of classroom portfolios is that they:
a.
measure learner growth and possibly style of learning.
b.
select students for more of less difficult assignments.
c.
determine student readiness for subsequent instruction.
d.
validate more formal, standardized test results.
60. A grade equivalent of 3.4 would be interpreted as a student who got the same number of items right on
the test as the average ____grade student by the ___month of school?
a. Fourth: third
b. Fourth: sixth
c. Third: fourth
d. Third: sixth
61. With a given item format, the items of a test should be arranged by:
a. subject matter content. b. increasing level of complexity
c .level of reading
d. difficulty .information provided.
62. The term taxonomy means:
a. preparation
c. specification.
b. identification.
d. classification
63. Evaluation always involves:
a. Testing.
c. Value judgments.
b. typical behavior
d. Measurement
64. The term “objective” in objective tests refers to the process of:
a. construction.
5
b. interpretation.
c. scoring.
d. test planning.
65. When should a teacher develop statements of instructional objectives?
a. At the beginning of the semester or unit.
b. After a collection of items has been obtained
c. After the test plan has been made but before the test items are written
d. At the close of a unit of instruction.
66. What is the main distinguishing factor between a non-behavioral and behavioral objective? The. .
a. description of an educational encounter.
b. specific, concrete, and measurable goals.
c. establishment of a minimum acceptance level.
d. degree of student accomplishment.
67. Which of the following Does Not illustrate an observable, measurable verb?
a. explain
b. learn
c. state
d. analyze
68. Which of the following skills would be properly classified as knowledge in a table of specifications?
a. Analysis of relationships
b .Production of a plan
c. Remembering methodology
d. Drawing conclusions
69. As a result of the passage of the 1997 Amendments to the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act
(IDEA-97), the involvement of general education teachers in the education, testing an assessment of
special education students is expected to:
a. increase
b. decrease,
c. remain the same,
d. vary unpredictably
70. This type of test has uniform administration and scoring procedures:
a. verbal
b. teacher-made
c. standardized
d. objective
71. Which of the following is true of norm-referenced achievement tests?
a. tied to broad objectives
b measure high-level thinking
c. several items per objective
d. of uniform difficulty level
72. Which one of the following is a major advantage that teacher-made tests have over standardized
achievement tests?
a. Teacher-made tests are less dependent on verbal skills.
b. Broad generalizations can be made fro teacher-made tests.
c. Teacher-made tests are more objective and easier to score.
d. Teacher-made tests can better match course objectives.
73. Identify the observable learning outcome in the following list:
a. negotiate a compromise with the other team.
b. understand the meaning of “ The Grapes of Wrath.”
c. appreciate the contributions of the Beatles music.
d. know your time tables by heart.
74. Matching items are most useful for measuring learning outcome at the level of:
a. Analysis
b. Application.
c. Knowledge
d. Synthesis
6
75. To test a student’s ability to use higher mental processes of logical reasoning, critical thinking, etc.,
what type of test should be used?
a. An essay
b. A matching test.
c. A completion
d. A true-false test.
76. Rubrics may best considered to be:
a. the reasons you are assigning a portfolio.
c. the means for aggregating portfolio grades.
b. criteria for grading the portfolio.
d. the sample of products that go
into the portfolio
77. Which of the following is most apt to provide evidence of unique or unusual behavior?
a. Checklist.
b. Anecdotal
c. Rating scale.
d. Standardized test.
78. Shortly after the scores from the latest standardized achievement test are mailed to parents, the father
of one of your students called you and expressed his disappointment over his son’s percentile rank of 62.
He says that in his day a score of 62 was a failing mark. Which of the following responses do you make?
a. You are agree that it is a poor score and say the boy should study harder.
b. You explain that because of changing standards, a 62 is not as bad as it used to be.
c. You explain that the boy outscored 62 percent of all students who took the test and the he
should be congratulated.
d. You explain that he was outscored by 62 percent of all students who took the test and the
he probably needs a tutor.
79. A standardized test score reported in terms of standard deviation represents the: (in the absence of
other information).
a. degree of deviation from the mean or average of a normal distribution.
b. number of school grades the scores deviates from the standard curriculum.
c. number of scores that were equal to the score.
d. number of scores that were above or below the score.
81. Cognitive is to intellectual skills, as affective is to:
a. attitudes.
b .knowledge outcomes.
c. psychomotor
d. work skills.
82. The teacher observes how students seat themselves in the cafeteria as a reflection of their feelings about
members of ethnic groups other than their own. What is the chief focus of this assessment activity?
a. Affective
b. Psychomotor
c. Cognitive—lower level
d. Cognitive—higher level
83. The scores that you tabulate on a classroom exam are most likely:
a. stanine scores.
b. standard scores.
c. raw scores
d. z scores.
84. “High-stakes” testing refers to the use of standardized test results alone, or in combination with other
measures, to make educational decisions that:
a. significantly affect students, staff or policies.
b. Should NOT be based on standardized tests.
c. are appropriate for aptitude but not achievement tests.
d. should be based on CRT’s not NRT’s.
85. If you assigned a 1st draft a score of 7, a 2nd draft a score of 8, and a final draft a score of 9 and
weighted the three products 20%, 30%, and 50%, respectively, what numerical score would you assign
for this sample of work?
a. 8.0
b. 8.3
c. 8.6
d. 8.9
7
86. Billy wants to use a mathematical formula to predict flight times for airplanes. Which level of Bloom’s
Taxonomy is most likely to be involved in this problem?
a. Knowledge
b. Comprehension
c. Synthesis
d. Analysis
e. Application
87. Coach McNairy is u sing a physical performance skill test to rate his soccer team players. Which level
of Bloom’s Taxonomy is most likely to be involved in this situation?
a. Comprehension
b. Application
c. Analysis
d. Synthesis
e Evaluation
88. The most common type of standardized test given to elementary school student is:
a. Aptitude test
b. Achievement test
c. Intelligence test
d. Creativity
e. Personality.
89. When grading papers, the transference of emotions from one paper to another paper is called:
a. Items-to-items Effect
b .Paper-to-paper Effect
b. Test-to-test Effect
d. Person-to-person Effect
90. Which item type is classified as a supply-type item?
a. Matching
b. Short-answer
c. True/false
d. Multiple-choice
91. Which item type would provide the highest score based on guessing alone?
a. Matching
b. short-answer
c. True/false
d. multiple choice
92. The problem presented in a multiple-choice item should be clear after reading the:
a. alternates
b. distracters
c. stem only
d. stem and option
93. Essay question should be used in achievement tests when:
a. A wide sampling of material is desired
b. Knowledge of factual information is stressed
c. Little time is available scoring
d. Organizing and integrating ideas are important
94. A distracter in multiple-choice test refers:
a. Any incorrect or best alternative
c. Incorrect alternatives that are plausible
b. Negatively stated alternatives
d. The alternative “none of the above”
95. The main disadvantage in using essay items is the difficulty of:
a. Constructing
b. Interpreting
c. Grading
d. Responding
96. According to your textbook, which objective item format is most suitable for used in interpretative
exercises?
a. true/false
b. multiple-choice
c. matching
d. completion
97. A final exam has a total of 60 test items. The test format includes 15 multiple choice test items and 10
interpretative exercises. What is the percentage of each format?
a. 15 % and 10 % respectively
b. 75% and 66 1/3 % respectively
c. 41.6 % and 20 % respectively
d. 25% and 16.6 % respectively
98. Absolute terms like all or none that provide clues in true/false statements are called:
a. exaggeration clues
b. grammatical errors
c. specific determiners
d. verbal associations
8
99. The socio-gram provides the most direct information concerning:
a. each student’s view of the group
b. students who prefer to be alone
c. students who are accepted/rejected
d. each student’s role in the group
II. Short Answers 20 points
In complete, legible sentences, answer each of the following test items
A. In one paragraph, discuss at least three factors that could affect the results of a
standardized test. 5 points
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
B. In complete sentences, explain the devil and halo effects. 5 points
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
C. In one paragraph, explain at three ways that NCLB has affected testing in our schools. 5
points
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
D. In one paragraph, discuss at least two ways to assess the affective domain. 5 points
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
9
E. For the following graphic, write an instructional objective at the higher cognitive level
(analysis, synthesis, or evaluation). 10 pointsDo Not use the words analyze, synthesis or
evaluate in the instructional objective.
Cognitive Level?:___________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________
F. BLOOM TAXONOMY OF EDUCATIONALOBJECTIVES 10pts
Match each description of the level of the Bloom’s Taxonomy of Educational Objectives in the
cognitive domain in Column I with the correct cognitive domain in Column II. Record the appropriate
letter representing your response in the space provided.
Column A
__1. use abstractions and learned material
Column B
A. analysis
in new and real-world situations
__2. recall facts or remember previously
B. application
learned material
__3. translate information from one form
to another
C. comprehension
D. knowledge
__4. puts parts together, to for a new whole
E. evaluation
__5. make judgments about the value of
F. synthesis
learned material
10
11