Download CAR ATR

ATO – ATPL REVIEWER
Civil Air Regulation ATR
1. Flag carrier be able to communicate under normal condition
- with their company dispatch offices for the entire flight route
2. How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a
seating capacity of 100 passengers?
- (A) Two, one at the forward end and the other at the most rearward location in the pax
cabin.
3. Powered megaphone for 45 passengers.
- One at forward
4. The emergency lights on a passengers-carrying airplane must be armed or turned on during:
- taxiing, takeoff and landing
5. Aircraft radio failure during IMC
- Must proceed to filed flight plan
6. In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit check procedure by the flight crew
is:
- (B) Required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures
7. At which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at
those altitudes
- (B) 16,000 ft
8. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot
should submit a written report within.
- (C) 10 days after returning to home base
9. If a turbine-engine powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen
masks, what is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one pilot wearing and using an
oxygen mask?
- (C) Flight Level 250
10. A flight crewmember must be able to don and use quick-donning oxygen mask within
- (A) 5 seconds
11. Not to fly more than One Year
- 1000 Hours
12. Each large aircraft operating over water must have a life preserver for each
- (A) aircraft occupants
13. Radio failure at controlled airport
- Notify ATC immediately
14. Rest after flying in excess of eight hours
- 8 Hours
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15. Instrument in duplicate during IFR
- VOR equipment
16. Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized
airplane with four reciprocating engine.
- May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes
17. PIC all IFR flights
- Filed an IFR flight Plan cleared by ATC
18. Restricted Areas defines
- Populated areas
19. Reporter of defect after flight
- PIC
20. Voice recorder erasure feature
- Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased
21. Voice recorder must be operated
- From the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final checklist
upon termination of flight
22. Which airplane are required to be equipped with a Ground Proximity Warning Glide Slope
Deviation Alerting System:
- (A) All turbine-powered airplanes
23. Training required for a flight crewmember who has not qualified and served in the same
capacity on another airplane of the same group, e.g., turbojet powered
- (C) Initial Training
24. Recent Experience.
A required pilot flight crewmember who has not made three takeoffs and landings within the
preceding 90 days must reestablish recency of experienced by performing:
- At least one full stop landing
- 1 ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a
landing from that approach
- At least 1 takeoff with a simulated failure of the most critical powerplant.
25. Time to monitor inbound traffic without control tower
- More than 10 Nautical Miles
26. Responsible for notifying the ATO
- PIC
27. What is the line check requirement for the PIC for a domestic air carrier?
- is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplane flown
28. The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a flag carrier may schedule a pilot in a
two-pilot crew without a rest period is:
- (A) 8 Hours
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29. The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days as the PIC in a two-pilot
crew for a flag carrier is:
- (B) 32 hours
30. The maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier pilot may fly, as a
crewmember, in a commercial operation, In any 30 consecutive days is:
- (A) 100 Hours
31. Physiological condition
- Minimum of 2 oxygen-dispensing units
32. Arrival report information
- PIC
33. The maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier airman may be aloft in any 30
consecutive days, as a member of a flight crew that consists of two pilots and at least one
additional flight crew member is:
- (B) 120 Hours
34. Takeoff and landing maximum safe altitude.
- 1000 feet
35. With regard to flight crewmember duties, which of the following operations are considered to
be in the “Critical phase of flight”?
- (C) Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet,
excluding cruise flight
36. PIC has emergency authority to exclude any person from admittance to the flight:
- (B) for the interest of safety
37. Each crewmember shall have a readily available for individual use on each flight.
- (C) a flashlight in good working order
38. Assuring that appropriate aeronautical chart are aboard an aircraft is the responsibility of:
- (C) PIC
39. If an engine’s rotation is stopped in flight, the PIC must report it, as soon as practicable , to
the:
- (A) appropriate Ground Radio Station
40. Alternate airport weather forecast:
- Forecast to be at or above authorized
41. PIC of an airplane en route determines that icing conditions can be expected that might
adversely affect safety of the flight. Which action is appropriate:
- The PIC shall not continue flight into the icing condition.
42. The reserve fuel supply for domestic air carrier flight is:
- (B) 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and
land at the most distant alternate airport.
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43. Who is directly responsible for determining the status of each mechanical irregularity
previously entered in the aircraft maintenance log?
- (C) The next PIC
44. Use of supplemental oxygen above 10,000 feet duration.
- Minimum of two 2 hours supply
45. When a ground proximity warning system is required under FAR Part 135, it must:
- Convey warning of any deviation below glide slope and excessive closure rate with the
terrain or when system malfunction occurs.
46. Pilot may not begin IFR operation unless the next airport of intended landing is forecast to be
at or above authorized IFR landing minimums at:
- at the Estimated Time of Arrival
47. A pilot may not takeoff under IFR at a foreign airport unless the visibility is:
- at least 1 mile
48. Certificate rating for PIC multiengine air carrier:
- Airline Transport Pilot; Airplane Category; Multi Engine Class Rating; Airplane Type
rating is required.
49. Certificate under IFR
- Airline Transport Pilot; Airplane Category; Multi Engine Class Rating; Airplane Type
rating is required.
50. Training required for crewmembers who have been qualified and served in same capacity on
another aircraft is:
- Transition Training
51. At altitude above 10,000 feet through 12,000 feet MSL, each pilot of an unpressurized airplane
must use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight that is of a duration of more than:
- 30 minutes
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Theory Of Flight / ATR
1. Considered as primary flight control
- (B) Elevator
2. Considered as primary flight control
- (C) Outboard ailerons
3. Considered an auxiliary flight control
- (C) Leading edge flaps
4. When are inboard ailerons normally used?
- (C) Low-speed and high-speed flights
5. When are outboard ailerons normally used?
- (A) Low-speed flights only
6. What is the purpose of a control tab?
- (A) Move the flight controls in the event of manual revision
7. What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab?
- (C) Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flightcontrol pressures.
8. Which direction from the primary control surface does an elevator adjustable trim tab move
when the control surface is moved?
- (C) Remain fixed for all position
9. What is the purpose of a servo tab?
- (B) Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight
control.
10. Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move?
- (B) Opposite direction
11. What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab?
- (C) Prevent a control surface from moving to a full deflection position due to
aerodynamic forces
12. Which direction from the primary control surfaces does an anti-servo tab move:
- (A) Same direction
13. The primary purpose of high-lift device is to increase the
- (B) Lift at low speed
14. Which is a purpose of leading-edge flaps?
- (A) Increase the camber of the wing
15. What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare
before touchdown?
- (A) Prevent flow separation
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16. What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance?
- (B) Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle.
17. Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high performance wings?
- (A) Increase lift at relative slow speed
18. Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high performance wings?
- (C) Direct air from the high-pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the
wing.
19. What is a purpose of flight of flight spoiler?
- (B) Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.
20. For which purpose may flight spoilers be used?
- (A) Reduce wings’ lift upon landing.
21. What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain
constant and airspeed is doubled? Lift will be
- (C) Four times greater
22. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane’s
- (B) Lift, airspeed and drag
23. What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that
speed for maximum L/D?
- (A) Drag increases because of increased induced drag.
24. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propeller driven airplane?
- (A) Maximum range and distance glide.
25. What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect?
- (A) An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack.
26. What is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is
increased?
- (B) Induced drag increases more than the parasite drag.
27. What affect indicated stall speed?
- (A) Weight, load factor and power.
28. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil?
- (A) An abrupt change in relative wind
29. What is load factor?
- (C) Lift divided by the total weight
30. If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 lbs were subjected to a total load of 6,000 lbs in
flight, the load factor would be
- (B) 3 G’s
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31. For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a
coordinated constant-altitude turn
- (C) is constant
32. Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend?
- (B) Angle of bank
33. What result does a level turn have on the total lift and load factor?
- (C) Both total lift force and load factor increase
34. What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions 36 x 48 inches?
Pallet area: 36x48 = 1,728 sq. in
Floor load limit – 169-lb/sq ft
Pallet sq. ft: 1,728 ÷ 144 = 12 sq. ft
Pallet weight – 47 lbs
Max wt: 12 x 169 = 2,028 lb
Tie-down devices – 33 lbs
Max Cargo weight: 2,028 – 47 – 33 = 1,948 lbs
- (A) 1,948.0 lbs
35. What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet, which has the
dimensions of 76 x 74 inches?
Pallet area: 76x74 = 5,624 sq. in
Floor load limit – 176-lb/sq ft
Pallet sq. ft: 5,624 ÷ 144 = 39.056 sq. ft
Pallet weight – 77 lbs
Max wt: 39.056 x 176 = 6,873.8 lb
Tie-down devices – 29 lbs
Max Cargo weight: 6,873.8 – 77 – 29 = 6,767.8 lbs
- (A) 6,767.8 lbs
36. At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb?
- (B) High speed
37. What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a
constant angle of bank and altitude?
- (C) The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor.
38. If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical
component of lift and sink rate affected?
- (C) Lift decreases and the sink rate increases.
39. What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank
but increasing airspeed?
- (A) Rate will decrease and radius will increase.
40. Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude?
- (A) Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift.
41. Describe dynamic longitudinal stability?
- (B) Motion about the lateral axis/
42. What is a characteristic of longitudinal stability?
- (A) Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater.
43. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in the new position after the controls
have been neutralized:
- (C) Neutral longitudinal static stability
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44. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position
after the controls have been neutralized:
- (A) Negative static stability
45. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original position after the
controls have been neutralized:
- (B) Positive static stability
46. What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit?
- (A) Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability.
47. What characteristics should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range?
- (C) Unstable about the lateral axis.
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ATO – ATPL REVIEWER
Air Traffic Control / Meteorology
1. When setting the altimeter, pilots should disregard
- (A) Effects of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures and pressures.
2. When speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC
request of a turbine-powered aircraft operating below 10,000 ft?
- (B) 210 knots
3. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may
ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft departing an airport?
- (C) 230 knots
4. If ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not within the operating limits of the aircraft, what
action must a pilot take?
- (C) Advice ATC of the airspeed that will be used.
5. Under what condition may a pilot on an IFR flight plan comply with authorization to maintain
“VFR on Top”?
- (B) Maintain VFR altitudes, cloud clearances, and comply with applicable instrument
flight rules.
6. What cloud clearance authorized to maintain “VFR on Top”?
- (A) May maintain VFR clearance above, below, or between layers.
7. In what airspace will ATC not authorize “VFR on Top”?
- (C) Class A airspace
8. What separation of service by ATC is afforded pilots authorized “VFR on Top”?
- (C) Traffic advisories only
9. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advice ATC of minimum fuel status?
- (C) If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.
10. What does the term “minimum fuel” imply to ATC?
- (C) Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay
occur.
11. You should advice ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state
where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay
- (C) If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a
safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in
minutes.
12. Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder
codes?
- (C) 7500, 7600 and 7700 series
13. What is the hijack code?
- (B) 7500
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14. What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?
- (A) Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.
15. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of
proximity of at least
- (B) 500 ft or less to another aircraft
16. Composite flight plan from IFR to VFR
- The pilots should advise ATC to cancel the IFR portion and contact the nearest FSS to
activate the VFR portion
17. Composite flight plan from VFR to IFR
- The pilots should close the VFR portion with the nearest FSS and request the IFR
clearance at least 5 minutes prior to IFR.
18. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker?
- (A) Continuous dots at the rate of six per second
19. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to
- (C) notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible
20. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory, is expected
to notify ATC and
- (C) Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the
conflict is resolved.
21. Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact?
- (A) Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound and missed approach
22. When cleared for an IFR approach to an uncontrolled airport with no FSS, what precaution
should a pilot takes after being advised to change to advisory frequency?
- (B) Broadcast position and intentions on the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency and
monitor the frequency.
23. While being vectored to the final approach course on IFR approach, when may the pilot
descend to published altitudes?
- (C) Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.
24. When may a pilot execute a missed approach during an ASR approach?
- (A) Anytime at the pilot’s discretion
25. What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?
a. (B) Visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot.
26. Which feature is associated with the tropopause?
- (C) Abrupt change of temperature lapse rate.
27. Weather phenomena associated with frontal system
28. Determine structural icing on aircraft occurrence
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29. Radiation fog most likely to occur
30. Ice pellets encountered are evidence that
- A warm front is about to pass; Freezing rain exists at higher altitude
31. Frost most likely to occur on aircraft surface
- On clear nights with stable air and light winds
32. Feature of a super cooled water
- The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object
33. Condition necessary for the formation of structural icing
- Visible water
34. Feature which is associated with troposphere
- Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate
35. Where do the maximum winds associated with the jet stream occur?
- (A) In the vicinity of breaks in the tropopause on the polar side of the jet core.
36. Clouds are classified into four, according to their
- Genera, species, varieties, supplemental features & accessory clouds, mother-clouds
37. Highest clouds
38. Type of thunderstorm such as hail and destructive winds
- Squall lines
39. Variation in altimeter setting are affected by
- Distribution of temperature
40. Dew point refer
- Refer to the temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated the water
vapor already present in the air. (High humidity, low dew point temp)
41. Constant pressure altitude and outside air warmer, the density altitude with respect to
pressure altitude
42. Characteristic of stable air
- Poor visibility, steady precipitation, stratus clouds
43. Combination of weather to result cumuliform type of clouds, good visibility
- Unstable, moist air and orographic lifting
44. Terrain with greatest temperature change
45. Frontal activity can produce fog as a result of
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ATO – ATPL REVIEWER
46. Clouds form as a result of stable moist air forced to ascend a mountain slope, the clouds will
be
- Stratus clouds with little vertical development and little or no turbulence.
47. Condition for thunderstorm formation
48. Range of bases middle clouds
49. Radiation fog to occur
50. Thunderstorm mature stage
- The start of rain
51. What term describes an elongated area of low pressure?
- (A) Trough
52. What is the primary cause of all changes in the Earth’s weather?
- (A) variation of solar energy at the Earth’s surface
53. Where is the usual location of a thermal low?
- (C) Over the surface of a dry, sunny region
54. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area?
- (B) Descending to the surface and then outward
55. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low
because the friction
- (A) decreases windspeed and Coriolis force
56. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction?
- (C) At the equator
57. How does coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere?
- (A) Causes clockwise rotation around a low
58. Which weather condition is defined as an anticyclone
- (B) High pressure area
59. Which area of the Northern Hemisphere experience a generally east to west movement of
weather system?
- (B) Arctic and subtropical
60. Summer thunderstorm in the arctic region will generally move
- (A) northeast to southwest in polar easterlies
61. What is a characteristic of the troposphere?
- (B) There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude
62. What weather feature occurs at altitude levels near the tropopause?
- (A) Maximum winds and narrow wind shear zones
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63. Where is a common location for an inversion?
- (B) In the stratosphere
64. Where are jetstreams normally located?
- (B) At the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are located
65. Which type clouds may be associated with the jetstream?
- (B) Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream.
66. Which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes through a front into the colder air?
- (C) Atmospheric pressure increases
67. Which atmospheric factor causes rapid movement of surface fronts?
- (A) Upper winds blowing across the front
68. In which meteorological condition can frontal waves and low pressure areas form?
- (B) Slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.
69. What is a feature of a stationary front?
- (C) Surface wind tend to flow parallel to the frontal zone
70. What type weather change is to be expected in an area where frontolysis is reported?
- (B) The front is dissipating
71. What weather difference is found on each side of a “dry line”?
- (B) Dewpoint difference
72. Where is the normal location of the jetstream relative to surface lows and fronts?
- (A) The jetstream is located north of the surface systems
73. Which type frontal system is normally crossed by the jetsteram?
- (C) Occluded front
74. Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion
with no heat added or removed?
- (C) Adiabatic
75. Which process causes adiabatic cooling?
- (A) Expansion of air as it rises
76. Which type wind flows downslope becoming warmer and dryer?
- (C) Katabatic wind
77. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope?
- (A) 3°C per 1,000 ft
78. What is the result when water vapor changes to the liquid state while being lifted in a
thunderstorm?
- (A) Latent heat is released to the atmosphere
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79. What weather condition occurs at the altitude where the dewpoint lapse rate and the dry
adiabatic lapse rate converge?
- (A) Cloud bases form
80. When saturated air moves downhill, its temperature increases
- (B) At a slower rate than dry air because vaporization uses heat.
81. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
- (A) A stable layer air.
82. What is indicated about an air mass if the temperature remains unchanged or decreases
slightly as altitude is increased?
- (C) The air is stable
83. What condition is present when a local parcel of air is stable?
- (A) The parcel of air resists convection.
84. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?
- (A) Ambient temperature lapse rate.
85. What characterizes a ground-based inversion?
- (C) Poor visibility
86. When does minimum temperature normally occur during a 24-hour period?
- (A) After sunrise
87. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground- or surface-based temperature
inversion?
- (C) Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night.
88. How are haze layers cleared or dispersed?
- (B) By wind or the movement of air
89. When advection for has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus
clouds?
- (B) Wind stronger than 15 knots
90. Which conditions are necessary for the formation of upslope fog?
- (A) Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind.
91. Which condition produces weather on the lee side of a large lake?
- (A) Warm air flowing over a colder lake may produce fog
92. What minimum thickness of cloud layer is indicated if precipitation is reported as light or
greater intensity?
- (A) 4,000 ft thick
93. What weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
- (B) The start of rain at the surface
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94. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by
downdrafts?
- (B) Dissipating
95. What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
- (C) Continuous updraft
96. Why are downdrafts in a mature thunderstorm hazardous?
- (A) Downdrafts are kept cool by cold rain which tends to accelerate the downward
velocity.
97. Where do squall lines most often developed?
- (B) Ahead of a cold front
98. What is a difference between an air mass thunderstorm and a steady-state thunderstorm?
- (B) Air mass thunderstorm downdrafts and precipitation retard and reverse the udrafts
99. Which type storms are most likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes?
- (B) Cold front or squall line thunderstorm
100. Which type cloud is associated with violent turbulence and a tendency toward the production
of funnel clouds?
- (A) Cumulonimbus mamma
101. Which weather condition is an example of a nonfrontal instability band?
- (A) Squall line
102. A severe thunderstorm is one in which the surface wind is
- (A) 58 MPH or greater and/or surface hail is ¾ inch or more in diameter.
103. A squall is a sudden increase of at least 16 knots in average wind speed to a sustained
speed of
- (B) 22 knots or more for at least 1 minute
104. Atmospheric pressure changes due to a thunderstorm will be at the lowest value?
- (B) When the thunderstorm is approaching
105. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument
flight?
- (C) Embedded thunderstorm
106. What is indicated by the term “embedded thunderstorm”?
- (C) Thunderstorm are obscured by other types of clouds
107. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicated?
- (C) An area where precipitation drops are not detected
108. When flying over the top of a severe thunderstorm, the cloud should be overflown by at least
- (A) 1,000 ft for each 10 knots windspeed
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Weight & Balance/IFR Navigation Equipment, Holding and Approaches
1. What type navigation system is Inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer
which provides position
- (C) By signals from self-contained gyros and accelerometers.
2. Where does the DME indicators have the greatest error between the ground distance and
displayed distance to the VORTAC?
- (A) High altitudes close to the VORTAC
3. What DME indications should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000 ft?
- (B) 2 DME miles
4. What should be the identification when a VORTAC is undergoing routine maintenance and is
considered unreliable?
- (C) The identifier would be removed.
5. Which identification would be received when a VOR is undergoing maintenance and is
considered unreliable?
- (A) Coded identification T-E-S-T
6. Maximum holding speed for a turbojet airplane above 14,000 ft is
- (C) 265 knots
7. Civil aircraft holding at an altitude of 14,000 ft at military or joint civil/military use airports
should expect to operate at which holding pattern airspeed?
- (C) 230 knots
8. When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot observe
during turns in holding a pattern?
- (A) 3° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less.
9. When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 ft, the initial outbound leg should not exceed
- (B) 1 - ½ minutes
10. What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS
approach?
- (B) The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums
11. When holding at an NDB, at which point should the timing begin on the second leg outbound?
- (C) when abeam the holding fix
12. The maximum speed a propeller-driven airplane may hold at is
- (A) 265 knots
13. Maximum holding speed for a turbojet airplane above 14,000 ft is
- (C) 265 knots
14. If installed, what aural and visual indications should be observed over the ILS back course
marker?
- (A) A series of 2 dot combinations and a white marker beacon light.
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15. Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?
- (B) 108.1 to 111.95 MHz
16. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker?
- (A) Continuous dots at the rate of 6 per second
17. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker?
- (C) Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of 2 per second
18. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer marker?
- (B) Continuous dashes at the rate of 2 per second
19. Which “rule-of-thumb” may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3°
glidepath?
- (A) 5 times groundspeed in knots
20. What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the
No.1 NAV?
- (A) 5 NM
21. Which OBS selection on the No. 1 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity
indication to a TO?
- (B) 165º
22. What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the No.2 NAV?
- (C) 4°
23. Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity
indication to a TO?
- (C) 354º
24. GIVEN:
Weight A – 175 lbs at 135 in aft of datum
Weight B – 135 lbs at 115 in aft of datum
Weight C – 75 lbs at 85 in aft of datum
The CG for the combined weight would be located how far aft of datum?
- (C) 118.24 inches
25. GIVEN
Total weight
4,137 lbs
CG location
station 67.8
Fuel consumption
13.7 GPH
Fuel CG
station 68
After 1 hour 30 minutes of flight time, the CG would be located at station?
- (A) 67.79
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ATO – ATPL REVIEWER
26. GIVEN:
Weight A – 155 lbs at 45 in aft of datum
Weight B – 165 lbs at 145 in aft of datum
Weight C – 95 lbs at 185 inches aft of datum
Based on this information, where would the CG be located aft of datum?
- (B) 116.8 inches
27. GIVEN:
Weight A – 140 lbs at 17 in aft of datum
Weight B – 120 lbs at 110 in aft of datum
Weight C – 85 lbs at 210 in aft of datum
Based on this information, the CG would be located how far aft of datum?
- (B) 96.89 inches
28. GIVEN:
WEIGHT
Empty weight
Pilot (fwd seat)
Passenger (aft seat)
Ballast
TOTAL
ARM
957
140
170
15
?
MOMENT
29.07
-45.30
1.60
-45.30
?
?
?
?
?
?
The CG is located at station
- (B) 16.43
SOLUTION:
1. Multiply the individual wt by individual arm to get individual moment
2. Compute total wt and total moment
3. Divide total moment by total wt to get the CG
W
Empty weight
Pilot (fwd seat)
Passenger (aft seat)
Ballast
TOTAL
x
A
WEIGHT
957
140
170
15
ARM
29.07
-45.30
1.60
-45.30
1,282
16.43
=
M
MOMENT
27,819.99
-6,342.00
272.00
-679.50
21,070.49
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