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Physics Final Exam
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. A circuit with a switch turned to the OFF position or a circuit with any break is called:
a. a closed circuit.
b. a short circuit.
c. a resistor circuit.
d. an open circuit.
2. A closed circuit:
a. is off.
b. is on.
c. has a break in it.
d. requires no voltage.
3. Suppose you are trying to help someone gain a better understanding of electric circuits. If you compare
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an electrical circuit to a system that carries water, what would the water pipes represent?
a. Battery
b. Wires
c. Electromagnet
d. Switch
Positive electric charges:
a. attract both positive charges and negative charges.
b. repel both positive charges and negative charges.
c. attract positive charges and repel negative charges.
d. repel positive charges and attract negative charges.
Electric charge is:
a. caused by two fluids, as described by Benjamin Franklin.
b. present in metals only.
c. a fundamental property of matter that comes in two forms.
d. found only in non-living material.
Suppose you rub an inflated party balloon on a carpet, hold the balloon next to a wall, and discover that it
"sticks" to the wall. Why did the balloon stick to the wall?
a. The total charge on the balloon and wall becomes zero, so attraction between the
two can occur.
b. Like charges on the balloon and wall cause an attraction between the two.
c. Balloons contain a special "atomic glue" that allows them to cling to other objects.
d. Excess charge builds up on the balloon and electrostatic forces allow the balloon
and wall to be attracted to one another.
What property of matter gives rise to both electricity and magnetism?
a. Mass
b. Charge
c. Magnetos
d. Nuclei
When you talk about a battery's voltage, you are referring to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
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amount of power.
amount of charges.
amount of energy.
amount of energy per unit of charge.
In an electrical circuit, a voltage difference:
a. supplies energy to make charges flow.
b. causes a short circuit.
c. is the term used for rate of charge flow.
d. wastes energy.
Four alkaline AA batteries are placed in series. What is the total voltage of the batteries?
a. 1.5 volts
b. 6 volts
c. 9 volts
d. 36 volts
Which of the following makes a good analogy for a battery?
a. Water pipes
b. Narrow areas in water pipes
c. Water faucet
d. Water tower and pump
Which of the following safety devices measure or react to specific levels of current?
a. Fuse
b. Circuit breaker
c. Ground fault circuit interrupter
d. All of the above
Direct current (DC) and alternating current (AC) differ in:
a. the kind of charge flow.
b. the amount of charge flow.
c. the direction of charge flow.
d. the amount of energy per unit of charge.
In an electrical circuit, the term current refers to:
a. resistance.
b. potential difference.
c. flowing charges.
d. energy loss.
Almost all of the electrons flowing through a battery circuit come from:
a. atoms in the wire conductor.
b. atoms in the circuit components.
c. atoms involved in chemical reactions at the battery's negative terminal.
d. atoms involved in chemical reactions at the battery's positive terminal.
Electrical current will pass easily through:
a. an absorber.
b. a conductor.
c. a semiconductor.
d. an insulator.
Which of the following could be a good conductor of electricity?
a.
b.
c.
d.
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A metal pot
A ceramic coffee cup
A piece of foam packing material
A plastic spoon
Objects that conduct electricity poorly are called:
a. conductors.
b. insulators.
c. absorbers.
d. resistors.
The ability of an object to resist current is called:
a. potential difference.
b. electrical inertia.
c. alternating current.
d. electrical resistance.
Electrical conductivity describes:
a. the rate of charge flow.
b. the direction of charge flow.
c. the ability of an object to carry current.
d. the ability of a material to carry current.
An ohm is the unit of measurement for:
a. electrical power.
b. voltage.
c. current.
d. resistance.
The mathematical relationship between current, voltage, and resistance is known as:
a. Kirchoff's law.
b. Farday's law.
c. Ohm's law.
d. Murphy's law.
If you look inside a stereo or telephone you will find a circuit board, which has wires printed on it and is
covered with little parts. Components called ____ are used to control current in the circuits on the board.
a. resistors
b. wires
c. batteries
d. amperes
In the circuit below, 3 amperes of current passes through the light bulb. The resistance of the light bulb is
1.5 ohms. What is the voltage of the battery?
a.
b.
c.
d.
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1.5 volts
3 volts
4.5 volts
6 volts
Power describes the rate of _____. Power is calculated in a circuit by multiplying voltage times_____.
a. charge flow. resistance.
b. energy flow. resistance.
c. charge flow. current.
d. energy flow. current.
What does a power company sell to its customers?
a. Power
b. Voltage
c. Current
d. Energy
You use a 1200-watt hair dryer for 15 minutes and a 100-watt light bulb for one hour. How much
electricity do you use?
a. 300 watt-hours
b. 400 watt-hours
c. 500 watt-hours
d. 1,300 watt-hours
If electricity costs 10 cents per kilowatt-hour, how much does it cost to run a 60-watt light bulb for one
hour?
a. $0.006
b. $0.06
c. $0.60
d. $6.00
Figure 3-1A
29. Which of the circuit diagrams shown in Figure 3-1A is a parallel circuit?
a.
b.
c.
d.
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I only
II only
III only
I and II only
Which of the circuit diagrams shown in Figure 3-1A is a series circuit?
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I and II only
The electrical outlets in your home are wired in:
a. parallel circuits.
b. series circuits.
c. two-way circuits.
d. three-way circuits.
Which of the following statements best describes the difference between series and parallel circuits?
a. Series circuits are battery circuits and parallel circuits are generator circuits.
b. Series circuits have a single path and parallel circuits have two or more paths.
c. Series circuits are used in computers and parallel circuits are used in homes.
d. Series circuits have one switch in them and parallel circuits have two switches in
them.
Calculate the total resistance in the circuit below.
a. 1/3 ohm
b. 3 ohms
c. 9 ohms
d. 27 ohms
34. What is the voltage drop across each resistor in the circuit below?
a. 2 volts
b. 4 volts
c. 6 volts
d. 12 volts
35. What is the voltage drop across each resistor in the circuit below?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 volt
3 volts
4.5 volts
9 volts
36. The current in a DC series circuit:
a. decreases to zero as it travels through the circuit.
b. is the same at all points in a circuit.
c. is greatest in the resistor with the highest resistance.
d. is greatest in the resistor with the lowest resistance.
37. What is the current in each resistor in the circuit below?
a. 1/3 ampere
b. 1 ampere
c. 3 amperes
d. 9 amperes
38. What is the current in each resistor in the circuit?
a. 1/3 ampere
b. 1 ampere
c. 3 amperes
d. 9 amperes
39. You suspect a lamp has a short circuit, because when you switched the lamp on it tripped the circuit
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breaker. You unplug the lamp, leave the lamp switch on, and place your meter leads across the plug.
What would you measure to test the lamp?
a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Resistance
d. Power
Earth's magnetic north pole is:
a. aligned with the north star.
b. aligned with the Earth's geographic north pole.
c. under Antarctica, the Earth's geographic south pole.
d. at the equator.
If you reverse the direction of current flow in an electromagnet, what happens?
a. The north and south poles are reversed.
b. The magnet is neutralized.
c. The strength of the magnetic field increases.
d. A short circuit occurs.
When current flows through a coil of wire, you have:
a. a superconductor.
b. an electromagnet.
c. a ceramic magnet.
d. a semiconductor.
Which of the following does not create a magnetic field?
a. A lodestone
b. A straight wire carrying current
c. A coil of wire carrying current
d. A metal ball with 2 coulombs of static charge on it
Electromagnetic induction occurs when:
a. electromagnets are induced in a wire.
b. electrons are induced in a magnet by a moving wire.
c. current is induced in a wire by an moving magnet.
d. a magnetic field is induced into a coil of wire by a current.
An electric motor spins because:
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a. the voltage pushes the motor around.
b. an electromagnet attracts and then repels magnets in the rotor.
c. it is converting mechanical energy to electrical energy.
d. the electric current is always flowing in the same direction.
An elastic collision is one in which
a. kinetic energy before the collision equals kinetic energy after the collision.
b. kinetic energy after the collision is zero.
c. kinetic energy before the collision is less than kinetic energy after the collision.
d. kinetic energy before the collision is greater than kinetic energy after the collision.
What is the proper unit for gravitational potential energy?
a. gravitons
c. newtons
b. joules
d. meters
Which type of energy is associated with a body’s height above the ground?
a. thermal energy
c. gravitational potential energy
b. elastic potential energy
d. rest energy
In physics, work is defined as __________.
a. force divided by distance.
b. force times distance.
c. force times time.
d. force divided by time.
e. distance divided by time.
The unit of power is the __________.
a. second.
b. newton.
c. watt.
d. joule.
e. meter.
Power is defined as the __________.
a. work done times the time taken to do that work.
b. work done on an object divided by the time taken to do the work.
c. force on an object times the distance the object moves.
d. force on an object divided by the time the force acts.
e. distance divided by the time taken to move that distance.
Energy is changed from one form to another with no net loss or gain.
a. Sometimes true
c. Always true
b. Always false
A job is done slowly, and an identical job is done quickly. Both jobs require the same amount of work but different
amounts of __________.
a. power.
c. both A and B
b. energy.
d. none of the above
Gravitational potential energy is the energy an object has because of its __________.
a. temperature.
b. density.
c. speed.
d. size.
e. location.
The unit of work is the __________.
a. joule.
b. second.
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c. watt.
d. newton.
e. meter.
Which requires more work: lifting a 50-kg sack vertically 2 meters or lifting a 25-kg sack vertically 4 meters?
a. Lifting the 25-kg sack
c. Both require the same amount of work.
b. Lifting the 50-kg sack
An object at rest may have __________.
a. velocity.
b. speed.
c. energy.
d. momentum.
e. none of the above
An object that has kinetic energy must be __________.
a. at rest.
c. on the edge of a cliff
b. moving.
d. elevated.
Kinetic energy of an object is equal to __________.
a. one half the product of its mass times its speed.
b. its mass multiplied by its acceleration squared.
c. one half the product of its mass times its speed squared.
d. its mass multiplied by its acceleration.
e. its mass multiplied by its speed.
The amount of potential energy possessed by an elevated object is equal to __________.
a. the value of the acceleration due to gravity.
b. the distance it is lifted.
c. the force needed to lift it.
d. the power used to lift it.
e. the work done in lifting it.
A heavy object and a light object are released from rest at the same height and time in a vacuum. As they fall, they
have equal __________.
a. weights.
b. energies.
c. momenta.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
A gymnast is jumping on a trampoline. For a moment, both the gymnast’s kinetic energy and gravitational
potential energy are zero. How is the gymnast’s mechanical energy stored for that moment?
a. rest energy
c. elastic energy
b. chemical energy
d. thermal energy
How much work is done on a 50-N rock that you lift 10 m?
a. 0 J
b. 50 J
c. 500 J
d. 1 J
e. 10 J
If you lift two loads up one story, how much work do you do compared to lifting just one load up one story?
a. The same amount
b. One half as much
c. Twice as much
d. One quarter as much
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e. Four times as much
An object that has kinetic energy must have __________.
a. momentum.
c. acceleration.
b. a force applied to maintain it.
d. none of the above
As a pendulum swings back and forth __________.
a. potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy.
b. kinetic energy is transformed into potential energy.
c. at the end points of its swing, its energy is all potential.
d. at the lowest part of its swing, its energy is all kinetic.
e. all of the above
Which has greater kinetic energy, a car traveling at 30 km/h or a half-as-massive car traveling at 60 km/h?
a. The 60-km/h car
c. Both have the same kinetic energy.
b. The 30-km/h car
An arrow in a bow has 70 J of potential energy. Assuming no loss of energy due to heat, how much kinetic energy
will it have after it has been shot?
a. 50 J
b. 70 J
c. 0 J
d. 35 J
e. 140 J
How much farther will a car traveling at 100 km/s skid than the same car traveling at 50 km/s?
a. Five times as far
b. Twice as far
c. The same distance
d. Four times as far
e. Half as far
How many joules of work are done on an object when a force of 10 N pushes it 5 m?
a. 2 J
b. 10 J
c. 1 J
d. 50 J
e. 5 J
A popular swinging apparatus consists of an aligned row of identical elastic balls suspended by strings so they
touch each other. When two balls on one end are elevated and released, they slam into the array of balls and two
balls pop out the other side. If instead, one ball popped out with twice the speed, this would be a violation of the
conservation of __________.
a. momentum.
c. energy.
b. both.
How much power is required to do 100 J of work on an object in 2 seconds?
a. 200 W
b. 2 W
c. 50 W
d. 100 W
e. 0 W
The energy in the sugars of an apple, are a type of __________.
a. gravitational potential energy
c. elastic potential energy
b. chemical potential energy
d. wasted potential energy
If the momentum of an object changes and its mass remains constant, __________.
a. it is accelerating (or decelerating).
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b. its velocity is changing.
c. there is a force acting on it.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
In order to increase the final momentum of a golf ball, we could __________.
a. increase the time of contact with the ball.
b. swing as hard as possible.
c. increase the force acting on it.
d. follow through when hitting the ball.
e. all of the above
A 4-kg ball has a momentum of 12 kg m/s. What is the ball's speed?
a. 12 m/s
b. 3 m/s
c. 48 m/s
d. 4 m/s
e. none of the above
A cannonball shot from a long-barrel cannon travels faster than one shot from a short-barrel cannon because the
cannonball receives a greater __________.
a. impulse.
c. both A and B
b. force.
d. neither A nor B
Which has more momentum, a large fully loaded truck moving at 30 miles per hour or a small empty truck moving
at 30 miles per hour?
a. The small truck
d. We cannot tell without the times
b. The large truck
e. We cannot tell without the force to
maintain the constant velocity
c. Both have the same momentum.
When you jump off a step, you usually bend your knees as you reach the ground. By doing this, the time of the
impact is about 10 times more what it would be in a stiff-legged landing and the average force on your body is
reduced by __________.
a. about 10 times.
d. about 100 times
b. a little more than 10 times.
e. nothing
c. a little less than 10 times.
A small economy car (low mass) and a limousine (high mass) are pushed from rest across a parking lot, equal
distances with equal forces. The car that receives the greater impulse is the __________.
a. small economy car.
c. neither A nor B (same for each)
b. limousine.
d. cannot be determined
Two objects, A and B, have the same size and shape, but A is twice as heavy as B. When they are dropped
simultaneously from a tower, they reach the ground at the same time, but A has a higher __________.
a. momentum.
b. speed.
c. acceleration.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
A piece of putty moving with 1 unit of momentum strikes and sticks to a heavy bowling ball that is initially at rest.
After the putty sticks to the ball, both are set in motion with a combined momentum that is __________.
a. more than 1 unit.
c. less than 1 unit.
b. 1 unit.
d. Not enough information to say
The momentum change of an object is equal to the __________.
a. object's mass times the force acting on it.
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b. velocity change of the object.
c. force acting on it times its velocity.
d. force acting on it.
e. impulse acting on it.
A golf ball moving forward with 1 unit of momentum strikes and bounces backward off a heavy bowling ball that
is initially at rest and free to move. The bowling ball is set in motion with a momentum of __________.
a. 1 unit.
c. not enough information
b. less than 1 unit.
d. more than 1 unit.
While rollerblading, Granny collides with her tiny grandson Ambrose who is at rest. Ignoring any friction effects,
Ambrose's speed after the collision will be greatest when __________.
a. Granny catches him and they both move together.
b. he and Granny make a bouncing collision, each going separate ways.
A collision is considered elastic if __________.
a. there is a snickers bar on the table
b. the objects go on a date and get married
c. the objects stick to each other.
d. the objects bounce off of each other.
e. all of the above
A moving freight car runs into an identical car at rest on the track. The cars couple together. Compared to the
velocity of the first car before the collision, the velocity of the combined cars after the collision is __________.
a. More information is needed to say.
b. zero.
c. twice as large.
d. one half as large.
e. the same.
Compared to a sports car moving at 30 miles per hour, the same sports car moving at 60 miles per hour has
__________.
a. twice as much momentum.
c. four times as much momentum.
b. the same momentum.
The momentum of an object is defined as the object's __________.
a. velocity times the time interval.
b. mass times its velocity.
c. force times its acceleration.
d. mass times it acceleration.
e. force times the time interval.
A 2-kg ball is thrown at 3 m/s. What is the ball's momentum?
a. 6 kg m/s
b. 9 kg m/s
c. 2 kg m/s
d. 3 kg m/s
e. none of the above
A ball is moving at 4 m/s and has a momentum of 48 kg m/s. What is the ball's mass?
a. 4 kg
b. 192 kg
c. 48 kg
d. 12 kg
e. none of the above
Which of the following has the largest momentum?
a. SHS
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b. A Mack truck parked in a parking lot
c. A tightrope walker crossing Niagara Falls
d. A dog running down the street
e. A pickup truck traveling down the highway
A cannon fires a cannonball. The speed of the cannonball will be the same as the speed of the recoiling cannon
__________.
a. because velocity is conserved.
b. because momentum is conserved.
c. because both velocity and momentum are conserved.
d. if the mass of the cannonball equals the mass of the cannon.
e. none of the above
A 1-kg chunk of putty moving at 1 m/s collides with and sticks to a 5-kg bowling ball that is initially at rest. The
bowling ball with its putty passenger will then be set in motion with a momentum of __________.
a. more than 5 kg m/s.
b. 5 kg m/s.
c. 0 kg m/s.
d. 1 kg m/s.
e. 2 kg m/s.
Suppose a cannon is made of a strong but very light material. Suppose also that the cannonball is more massive
than the cannon itself. For such a system __________.
a. conservation of momentum would not hold.
b. recoil problems would be lessened.
c. conservation of energy would not hold.
d. the force on the cannonball would be greater than the force on the cannon.
e. the target would be a safer place than where the operator is located.
In order to catch a ball, a baseball player moves his or her hand backward in the direction of the ball's motion.
Doing this reduces the force of impact on the player's hand principally because __________.
a. the time of impact is increased.
b. the velocity of the hand is reduced.
c. the momentum of impact is reduced.
d. the time of impact is decreased.
e. none of the above
Momentum of a system is conserved only when __________.
a. there are no internal forces acting on the system.
b. there are no forces acting on the system.
c. the system has zero momentum.
d. there is no net external force acting on the system.
e. the system is not moving.
Two gliders having the same mass and speeds move toward each other on an air track and stick together. After the
collision the velocity of the gliders is __________.
a. one half the original velocity.
b. There is not enough information to say.
c. the same as the original velocity.
d. twice the original velocity.
e. zero.
A man starts his car from rest and accelerates at 1 m/s2 for 2 seconds. He then continues at a constant velocity for
10 seconds until he sees a tree blocking the road and applies brakes. The car, decelerating at 1 m/s2, finally comes
to rest. Which of the following graphs represents the motion correctly?
v
a.
c.
(m/s)
38
36
34
32
30
28
26
24
22
20
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16
14
12
10
8
6
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2
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24
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12
10
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4
2
5
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
t (s)
v (m/s)
b.
8
6
6
4
4
2
2
15
20
t
(s)
10
15
20
25
30
35 t (s)
20
t
(s)
v (m/s)
8
10
(m/s)
5
d.
5
v
5
10
15
100. The change in velocity during a measurable time interval, divided by the time interval, is the _____.
a. instantaneous velocity
c. instantaneous acceleration
b. average velocity
d. average acceleration
101. The instantaneous acceleration of an object is
a. the rate of change in velocity at an instant of time.
b. the rate of change of position at an instant of time.
c. the rate of change of speed at an instant of time.
d. the rate of change of time at an instantaneous position.
102. Given a graph of velocity v. time, what does a horizontal line represent?
a. The object’s acceleration is positive.
c. The object’s acceleration is negative.
b. The object is moving at constant velocity. d. The object is standing still.
103. Which of the following is NOT an example of accelerated motion?
a. a boulder falling off of a cliff in a straight path
b. an airplane taking off down a straight runway
c. a bicyclist moving in a straight line at constant speed
d. a ball being thrown straight up
104. The acceleration due to Earth’s gravity is:
a. 9.8 m/s2
c. 9.8 ft/s2
2
b. 98 m/s
d. 9.8 mi/s2
105. “Free fall” is the condition in which
a. the motion of a body is due to gravity alone, when air resistance is applicable.
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b. the motion of a body is due to velocity alone, when air resistance is negligible.
c. the motion of a body is due to gravity alone, when air resistance is maximized.
d. the motion of a body is due to gravity alone, when air resistance is negligible.
Which line represents an object that is in motion where the acceleration is zero and the velocity is to the north?
a. Line A
d. Line D
b. Line B
e. Line E
c. Line C
An object that has negative acceleration is definitely doing what?
a. speeding up
b. maintaining a constant speed
c. slowing down
d. accelerating in a direction that is opposite to a stated positive direction.
The path of a projectile through space is called its:
a. equilibrant
c. range
b. torque
d. trajectory
An object that is shot through the air is called a
a. protractor.
c. parabola.
b. projectile.
d. proboscis.
110. If the length of a pendulum increases, the period of the pendulum:
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. stays the same.
d. returns immediately to zero.
111. Which factor listed below has the greatest effect on the period of a pendulum?
a. Mass of the pendulum
b. Length of the string
c. Amplitude of the oscillations
d. Angle of the pendulum
112. If you double the frequency of a pendulum, what happens to the period of one cycle?
a. The period is 1/4 its original time.
b. The period is 1/2 its original time.
c. The period stays the same.
d. The period doubles.
113. The diagram illustrating two waves in phase is:
a.
c.
b.
d.
114. The wavelength of a wave is defined as:
a. the distance from crest to crest.
b. one-half the distance from crest to crest.
c. the distance between the highest and lowest parts of a wave.
d. how often a wave goes up and down.
Figure 4.1
115. Which of the graphs in figure 4.1 has an amplitude of 10 centimeters?
a. Graph A
b. Graph B
c. Graph C
d. Graphs B and C
116. Which of the graphs in figure 4.1 has a period of two seconds?
a. Graph A
b. Graph B
c. Graph C
d. Graphs B and C
117. A transverse wave:
a. lasts no longer than one minute.
b. oscillates perpendicular to the direction of wave travel.
c. oscillates in the same direction as the direction of wave travel.
d. has enough energy to travel at least 5,000 kilometers.
118. Sound waves are always:
a. transverse waves.
b. longitudinal waves.
c. electromagnetic waves.
d. seismic waves.
119. A longitudinal wave travels:
a. only along the Earth's longitudinal lines.
b. perpendicular to the direction of oscillations.
c. in the same direction as the oscillations.
d. perpendicular to a latitude wave.
120. A piano plays the note A at a frequency of 440 hertz. What is the approximate wavelength in centimeters
of this sound wave if the speed of sound in air is 340 meters per second?
a. 0.7 centimeters
b. 7.7 centimeters
c. 77 centimeters
d. 770 centimeters
121. An ocean wave has a frequency of 2 Hz and a speed of 20 m/sec. What is the wavelength of this wave?
a. 0.1 meter
b. 10 meters
c. 20 meters
d. 40 meters
122. Which of the following usually occurs inside a material instead of at the surface?
a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Diffraction
d. Absorption
123. When a wave bends as it crosses a boundary, ____ occurs.
a. reflection.
b. refraction.
c. absorption.
d. diffraction.
124. When a wave reflects from a hard surface, it may do all of the following EXCEPT:
a. change direction.
b. change shape.
c. change from transverse to longitudinal.
d. bounce back in the same direction.
125. Although a door is only slightly opened, sound will pass from one room to another due mainly to:
a. reflection.
b. refraction.
c. diffraction.
d. absorption.
126. Natural frequency is:
a. what happens when two waves combine to produce one wave of lower amplitude.
b. the frequency at which a system oscillates when it is disturbed.
c. the rate at which vibrations are naturally damped in an oscillator.
d. an oscillator whose frequency is a multiple of another wave.
127. Which of the following sounds has the shortest wavelength?
a. The rumble of thunder at 75 hertz
b. A bass guitar at 150 hertz
c. A male voice at 500 hertz
d. A female soprano singer at 2,000 hertz
128. Ultrasound is:
a. the speed at which the latest, top-secret jet aircraft fly.
b. used to make internal images of the human body.
c. extremely painful to the human ear.
d. of lower frequency than the human ear can detect.
129. White noise is:
a. an equal mixture of all frequencies of sound.
b. a frequency of sound too low for the human ear to hear.
c. the complete absence of sound.
d. a frequency of sound too high for the human ear to hear.
130. "Dead spots" sometimes occur in a concert hall because:
a. the designer of the building meant for no one to sit there.
b. the frequency of sound waves in that spot is too high for humans to hear.
c. destructive interference causes some of the sound to cancel out with its own
reflections.
d. beat frequencies cause damping of the oscillations.
131. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE of the speed of sound waves?
a. Sound waves travel faster in metal than in air.
b. The speed of sound in air is about 343 meters per second.
c. Sound waves are slower than light waves.
d. Sound waves travel faster in outer space than in air.
132. A vibrating guitar string produces a wave that is 140.centimeters long. If the frequency of the wave is
440. hertz, what is the speed of this wave?
a. 3.14 cm/sec
b. 300 cm/sec
c. 616 cm/sec
d. 61,600 cm/sec
133. Polly is standing on the bottom of a wide canyon, leaning against its wall. She shouts "hello" toward the
opposite side of the canyon. If the speed of sound is 340 m/sec and Polly hears her own echo 4 seconds
later, how wide is the canyon?
a. 85 meters
b. 340 meters
c. 680 meters
d. 1,360 meters
134. In the diagram, the crest of the wave is shown by:
a. c
b. d
c. b
d. a
135. In the diagram, the wavelength is shown by:
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
a. c
c. b
b. d
d. a
If wavelength is kept constant, which increases as the speed of a wave increases?
a. period
c. amplitude
b. frequency
d. phase
Which describes a sound wave?
a. A sound wave travels in a vacuum.
b. A sound wave is a longitudinal wave.
c. A sound wave is an electromagnetic wave.
d. A sound wave has one constant speed.
Which scenario would result in a drop in the pitch being observed?
a. The observer moves closer to a stationary source.
b. The source moves toward a stationary observer.
c. A source moving toward an observer suddenly stops.
d. The observer and the source move in the same direction at the same speed.
Which characteristic of sound is associated with frequency?
a. pitch
c. pressure
b. loudness
d. timbre
Which term describes a material that does not allow light to be transmitted?
a. translucent
c. polarized
b. transparent
d. opaque
Which is formed by divergent rays?
a. virtual image
c. focal point
b. real image
d. object
Which is formed by convergent rays?
a. virtual image
c. focal point
b. real image
d. object
By definition, which has type of mirror has its edges curved toward the object?
a. plane mirror
c. convex mirror
b. concave mirror
d. spherical mirror
Which type of image is produced by a convex mirror?
a. enlarged and real
c. enlarged and virtual
b. reduced and virtual
d. reduced and real