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PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 4 – PART 1
BY ALAINA DARBY
• Which of the following is part of the diencephalon?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Medulla
c. Pons
d. Basal ganglia
• Which of the following is not part of the limbic system?
a Amygdala
b Mammillary bodies
c Substantia nigra
d Orbitofrontal cortex
• Which of the following is properly paired?
a. Cingulate cortex – memory
b. Hippocampus – autonomic, endocrine
c. Nucleus accumbens – spatial memory
d. Cingulate cortex – autonomic, attention, cognition
• Which of the following portions of the brain is responsible for sleep,
wakefulness, arousal and eye movements?
a. Thalamus
b. Hypothalamus
c. Midbrain
d. Basal ganglia
• What is the main role of the basal ganglia?
a. Emotion
b. Learning
c. Motor control
d. Cognition
• Which of the following types of channels are not found in neurons?
a. Mechanosensitive channels
b. Voltage gated channels
c. Cyclic nucleotide gated channels
d. Ligand gated channels
• Which of the following is a peptide neurotransmitter?
a. Endocannabinoid
b. GABA
c. Norepinephrine
d. Neurotensin
• Which of the following is true?
a. Metabotropic receptors rely on second messengers
b. Ionotropic receptors have 7 transmembrane domains
c. Metabotropic receptors are transmembrane channels
d. Ionotropic receptors open or close in response to ions
• Which of the following does not directly influence the synthesis or
metabolism of dopamine?
a. COMT
b. Reserpine
c. MAO
d. L-DOPA
• Which of the following would be considered a form of neurotransmitter
antagonism?
a. Black widow spider venom
b. Nicotine
c. Reserpine
d. Cocaine
• Which of the following would result in neurotransmitter agonism?
a. Drug blocks autoreceptors
b. Drug inactivates synthetic enzyme
c. Drug prevents storage of neurotransmitter in vesicles
d. Drug blocks postsynaptic receptors
• Which of the following is not a primary use of stimulants?
a. Anorexic
b. Treatment for ADHD
c. Antiemetic
d. Treatment for narcolepsy
• Which of the following is true of cocaine?
a. Crack is the powder form of the drug
b. It can act as a local anesthetic
c. It causes hypotension
d. It causes the release of neurotransmitter
• Which of the following is more potent than cocaine?
a. Benzoyleconine
b. Cocaethylene
c. Benzoic acid
d. Dexeconine
• Which of the following is the reward portions of the brain takes over in
substance abuse?
a. Prefrontal cortex
b. Nucleus accumbens
c. VTA
d. Basal ganglia
• John is 53 and has just been diagnosed with ADHD. He became addicted to
cocaine when he was younger but has since been able to quit. Which of the
following drugs is best suited for him?
a. Amphetamine
b. Methylphenidate
c. Atomoxetine
d. Lisdexamfetamine
• Which of the following is a true comparison of mazindol and cocaine?
a. Mazindol is more selective for norepinephrine
b. Cocaine is more selective for norepinephrine
c. Cocaine causes neurotransmitter release while mazindol causes transporter
blockade
d. Mazindol causes neurotransmitter release while cocaine causes transporter
blockade
• Steve is looking to start taking mazindol for his obesity. Which of his current
drugs would not cause an interaction with mazindol?
a. Tranylcypromine
b. Guanethidine
c. Cimetidine
d. Amitriptyline
• Samantha is pregnant. Which of the following stimulants might induce
premature labor, if she were to use it?
a. Cocaine
b. Mazindol
c. Amphetamine
d. Methylphenidate
• Which of the following adverse reactions is the most distinguishing for
amphetamine among other stimulants?
a. Headache
b. Confusion
c. Neurotoxicity
d. Restlessness
• Which of the following is thought to have the lowest risk of abuse since it
causes less of a surge of dopamine?
a. Amphetamine
b. Methamphetamine
c. Lisdexamfetamine
d. Methylphenidate
• Jake is on a high dose of amphetamine for his ADHD and accidentally took
his medication three times this morning. Which of the following treatments
would he not need to treat the described symptoms from this poisoning?
a. Aluminum chloride to increase elimination
b. Sedative for the resulting anxiety
c. Sodium nitroprusside to reduce hypotension
d. Acidification of his urine to neutralize the amphetamine
• How does methylphenidate differ from amphetamine?
a. Side effects
b. Abuse potential
c. Mechanism of action
d. Usefulness for narcolepsy and ADHD
• Casey needs to lose weight before her wedding in a few weeks and has
asked her doctor what she could take to increase her weight loss. Which of the
following might he prescribe since she will only be taking it for a short time?
a. Modafinil
b. Amphetamine
c. Phentermine
d. Mazindol
• Which of the following would be effective to treat a narcoleptic that has a
history of drug abuse?
a. Amphetamine
b. Methylphenidate
c. Modafinil
d. Atomoxetine
• What might be a reason to select a medication other than modafinil to treat
narcolepsy?
a. Cardiovascular problems
b. GI problems
c. Frequent headaches
d. Past addiction
• How does nicotine cause addiction?
a. Blocking dopamine reuptake
b. Acting on the dopaminergic neurons
c. Activating dopamine receptors
d. Blocking presynaptic dopamine receptors
• Which of the following drugs would be least likely to interact with
varenicline?
a. Insulin
b. TCA’s
c. Blood thinners
d. Asthma medications
• Which of the following would be most beneficial to someone who is
depressed and wants to quit smoking?
a. Nicotine patch
b. Nicotine gum
c. Varenicline
d. Buproprion
• Which is not a mechanism of action for caffeine?
a. Blocking dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake
b. Adenosine receptor antagonism
c. Phosphodiesterase inhibition
d. Increasing dopamine and norepinephrine release
• Which of the following is true of ephedrine?
a. It is used for narcolepsy, depression, and as a bronchodilator
b. It undergoes extensive metabolism in the liver
c. It decreases dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake
d. It may cause hypotension and insomnia
• Which of the following antagonizes the receptor for an inhibitory amino acid
neurotransmitter?
a. Nicotine
b. Modafinil
c. Cocaine
d. Strychnine
• How might one treat strychnine poisoning?
a. Aluminum chloride
b. Diazepam
c. Sodium nitroprusside
d. Benztropine
• Which of the following is an example of a negative symptom of psychosis?
a. Crawling sensation
b. Delusion of grandeur
c. Lack of social interest
d. Waxy flexibility
• Which of the following would be an example of disorganized or catatonic
behavior?
a. Tangentiality of speech
b. Inappropriate affect
c. Feeling of persecution
d. Hearing voices
• Which of the following is evidence that contradicts with the dopamine
hypothesis?
a. Dopamine underactivity in the prefrontal cortex causes negative symptoms
b. Time delay in reduction of psychotic symptoms after treatment
c. Anti-schizophrenic drugs block dopamine receptors
d. Amphetamine can induce psychosis
• Which of the following drugs is used to support the glutamate hypothesis of
schizophrenia?
a. Amphetamine
b. PCP
c. Strychnine
d. Cocaine
• Why would targeting mGlu receptors not be a good method of preventing
psychosis?
a. They can modulate glutamate release
b. They can modulate dopamine release
c. There are 8 subtypes of the receptors
d. Agonism can induce seizures
• Typical antipsychotics have affinity for all of the following receptors except…
a. Muscarinic
b. Alpha-adrenergic
c. Histamine
d. Serotonin
e. Dopamine
• Which of the following groups of typical antipsychotics have the highest
potency?
a. Phenothiazines with an aliphatic side chain
b. Phenothiazines with a piperidine ring in the side chain
c. Thioxanthenes
d. Phenothiazines with a piperazine group in the side chain
• Which of the following groups of typical antipsychotics have the lowest
potency?
a. Phenothiazines with an aliphatic side chain
b. Phenothiazines with a piperidine ring in the side chain
c. Thioxanthenes
d. Phenothiazines with a piperazine group in the side chain
• Which of the following is true of antipsychotics?
a. High potency typicals have a reduced risk of EPS
b. Low potency typicals are less efficacious than higher potency antipsychotics
c. Atypical antipsychotics have increased affinity for D2 as compared to typical
antipsychotics
d. Increased anticholinergic activity reduces the risk of EPS
• Which of the following atypical antipsychotics has an active metabolite that
is also marketed?
a. Molindone
b. Risperidone
c. Ziprasidone
d. Lurasidone
• Which of the following antipsychotics reduces the incidence of side effects
by only partially antagonizing D2 receptors?
a. Aripiprazole
b. Asenapine
c. Clozapine
d. Lurasidone
• Which of the following has affinity for alpha adrenergic and histamine
receptors but low affinity for muscarinic receptors?
a. Aripiprazole
b. Asenapine
c. Clozapine
d. Lurasidone
• Which of the following has a low affinity for muscarinic and histamine
receptors but still maintains affinity for alpha adrenergic receptors?
a. Iloperidone
b. Resperidone
c. Molindone
d. Lurasidone
• Which of the following is considered a low potency antipsychotic?
a. Fluphenazine
b. Loxapine
c. Thioridazine
d. Pimozide
• Which of the following is not an atypical antipsychotic?
a. Risperidone
b. Olanzepine
c. Loxapine
d. Asenapine
• Which receptor do all atypical antipsychotics target?
a. 5-HT1
b. 5-HT2
c. Alpha adrenergic
d. Histamine
e. Muscarinic
• Which of the following would have the least side effects but still has a risk of
EPS?
a. Lurasidone
b. Iloperidone
c. Asenapine
d. Rispiridone
• The term “neuroleptic syndrome” is used to describe the therapeutic effects
of antipsychotics that can be seen in animals. Which of the following is not
one of these effects?
a. Supression of spontaneous movements
b. Increased initiative and interest in environment
c. Decreased manifestations of emotion
d. Disappearance of psychotic symptoms
• Where are the antipsychotic effects thought to occur?
a. Cerebral cortex
b. Basal ganglia
c. Limbic system
d. Brainstem
• Which of the following increases prolactin secretion?
a. Lurasidone
b. Iloperidone
c. Asenapine
d. Rispiridone
• Which of the following antipsychotics is most likely to lower seizure
thresholds?
a. Olanzapine
b. Rispiridone
c. Ziprasidone
d. Asenapine
• What portion of the brain is thought to be associated with the EPS effects?
a. Cerebral cortex
b. Basal ganglia
c. Limbic system
d. Brainstem
• Scott has a family history type II diabetes. With this in mind, which of the
following antipsychotic would be preferred?
a. Clozapine
b. Rispiridone
c. Thioridazine
d. Olanzepine
• Prolonged QT is most likely to be a problem in which of the following classes
of antipsychotics?
a. Low potency typicals
b. Potent typicals
c. Low potency atypicals
d. Potent atypicals
• Which of the following is not true of the pharmacokinetics of antipsychotics?
a. Highly protein bound
b. Accumulates in high blood supply tissues
c. Crosses placental barrier and enters breast milk
d. Good oral absorption
• Which of the following is true of antipsychotics?
a. Low therapeutic index
b. Abrupt stoppage causes difficulty sleeping
c. Addicting
d. Most metabolites are active
• Which of the following is a neurological side effect associated with
prolonged use of antipsychotics?
a. Acute dystonia
b. Neueroleptic malignant syndrome
c. Tardive dyskinesia
d. Akathesia
• Which of the following is benztropine not one of the primary methods of
treatment?
a. Acute dystonia
b. Akathesia
c. Parkinsonian syndrome
d. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
• Which of the following is not a risk of taking antipsychotics?
a. Type II diabetes
b. Weight gain
c. Jaundice
d. Insomnia
• Which of the following is most likely to cause blood dyscrasis?
a. Clozapine
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Quentiapine
d. Rispiridone
• Which of the following is most likely to cause drug interactions?
a. Thioridazine
b. Haloperidol
c. Pimozide
d. Lurasidone
• What would not be a strategy for treating psychosis?
a. Choose based on side effects
b. Target specific symptoms
c. Use only in schizophrenia
d. Trial and error in drug choice
• Which would not be a use of antipsychotics?
a. Major depression
b. Parkinson’s disease
c. Nausea and vomiting
d. Alcoholic hallucinations
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