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St. Anthony Hospital
PreHospital Services
Practice Exam Version 1
1. Which of the following sounds is corrected with a head-tilt chin-lift?
A: Gurgling.
B: Snoring.
C: Stridor.
D: Wheezes.
2. An ALS crew just arrives while you are about to deliver your first shock to a patient in cardiac arrest. What is the MOST
effective way to assure the BEST possible care?
A: Proceed to deliver the shock.
B: Pause the AED cycling to allow ALS to insert an advanced airway.
C: Disable the AED and resume CPR until ALS is ready to monitor the patient.
D: Turn off the AED and have the paramedics deliver the shock with their machine.
3. Which of the following assessment findings would be MORE consistent with a fracture than with a sprain or dislocation?
A: Pain.
B: Swelling.
C: Crepitus.
D: Deformity.
4. What would be a normal pupil assessment finding on a bright summer day?
A: Constricted.
B: Dilated.
C: Unequal.
D: Reactive to a pen light.
5. Following a motor vehicle crash, you are assisting with the care of a pregnant trauma victim. The patient is obviously at
the end of the pregnancy term. Her skin is pale, cool and clammy, her pulse is rapid, and her blood pressure is below
normal. What do these vital signs indicate?
A: Normal for a pregnant patient.
B: May alert you to early signs of shock.
C: Shock, which is most likely from blood loss.
D: Not enough information to determine the patient’s condition.
6. While off-duty having lunch at a restaurant with your family, you see an elderly customer coughing and turning red in
the face. You go to the person and ask if he is choking. You can see he is having more trouble breathing, as he shakes
his head “no” and states “asthma”. You are aware that this patient would benefit from:
A: Oral glucose.
B: A glass of water.
C: A bronchodilator.
D: An auto-injector of Epi.
7. The GREATEST value of a properly trained emergency medical dispatcher (EMD) to an EMS system is:
A: EMDs provide better documentation of times and data from a call.
B: EMDs provide the 911 caller with reassurance that help is on the way.
C: EMDs define quality improvement standards for the EMS system.
D: EMDs provide life-saving instruction prior to EMS arrival.
8. Which of these nervous system injuries would be of the greatest concern?
A: Cerebral injury.
B: Brainstem injury.
C: Motor nerve injury.
D: Sensory nerve injury.
9. Which type of fracture would you predict to be present if a patient was struck in the femur by a high-velocity projectile?
A: Comminuted.
B: Transverse.
C: Impacted.
D: Spiral.
10. Which of the following would be a sign of poor bag-valve-mask ventilations?
A: The pulse oximetry changes from 94% to 97%.
B: The chest rises and falls with ventilations.
C: There are absent lung sounds during auscultation.
D: The patient's skin color becomes less cyanotic.
11. You have a 26-year-old arrest patient who has an advanced airway in place. Compressions are being performed.
According to the 2015 AHA Guidelines, what is the preferred ventilatory rate?
A: 1 every 5 seconds
B: 1 every 6 seconds
C: 12 times per minute
D: 10-15 times per minute
12. At a private residence you are attending to a patient that receives peritoneal dialysis through the night. This morning,
the patient tells you he has uncontrolled bleeding at the site where he administers the fluids. As you prepare to transport
this patient, your main concern is to:
A: Transport urgently.
B: Maintain the airway.
C: Control the bleeding.
D: Reassure the patient.
13. You would perform a modified secondary assessment (focused exam) over a rapid secondary assessment
(Rapid trauma exam) on a patient because:
A: Your general impression is poor and there is a significant mechanism.
B: Your general impression is stable, but there is a significant mechanism.
C: Your general impression is poor, but there is no significant mechanism.
D: Your general impression is stable and there is no significant mechanism.
14. You have a 4-year-old patient who is showing clear signs of hypoperfusion secondary to hemorrhage. Which of the
following BEST describes the expected findings if the patient is still able to compensate?
A: A heart rate of 70.
B: Weak central pulses.
C: A blood pressure of 98 systolic.
D: A capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds.
15. Which of the following would represent the correct abbreviation for the cervical vertebrae 1 and 2?
A: At and Ax.
B: Atlas and Axis.
C: C1 and C2.
D: Cerv 1 and 2.
16. A 45-year-old construction worker’s thigh is impaled on a piece of debris at his worksite. He is unable to move
because the material is part of a concrete slab. What is the BEST treatment for this patient if he is conscious and stable?
A: Remove him from the impaled object and control bleeding as soon as possible.
B: Apply oxygen to the patient first, then begin lifting him slowly off the piece of debris.
C: Contact medical direction and ask that a surgeon be dispatched to the scene to help.
D: Leave the object in place and contact the fire department to assist with extricating him.
17. You have a patient with carbon monoxide poisoning. Which of the following is your MOST important treatment after
removing the patient from the source?
A: Nitroglycerine.
B: Activated charcoal.
C: High-flow oxygen.
D: Epinephrine auto-injector.
18. If you drew a line through the nose, the sternum and the umbilicus, what line would it describe?
A: Frontal.
B: Midaxillary.
C: Midline.
D: Transverse.
19. Which of the following are the MOST appropriate body substance isolation precautions in preparation for childbirth?
A: Gloves only.
B: Gloves and shoe covers.
C: Gloves, gowns, and shoe covers.
D: Gloves, gown, and goggles.
20. You are called at 10 am to the scene of an MVC that most likely occurred during the night. You find an unresponsive
patient that has a slow, weak, thready carotid pulse. The skin is cold and mottled with no peripheral pulses. You find
minimal respirations and the blood pressure is unobtainable. Your first impression is that of:
A: Compensating shock.
B: Decompensated shock.
C: Irreversible shock.
D: Obstructive shock.
21. What is the most important intervention for a patient that has been stabbed in the upper abdomen and is showing
significant signs of shock?
A: Elevating the legs.
B: Placing the patient on a backboard.
C: Transporting rapidly to the hospital.
D: Applying the pneumatic anti-shock garment.
22. What is the name of the type of radio that you will MOST likely have installed in your vehicle?
A: Base.
B: Mobile.
C: Portable.
D: Repeater.
23. During transport, rescuers determine a secondary assessment should be done on a trauma patient. What is the BEST
reason for the rescuers to have delayed completing the secondary assessment until now?
A: The patient was considered potentially unstable while on scene.
B: Protocol requires that detailed assessment be done during transport.
C: The patient likely refused treatment and assessment until transport.
D: The rescuers suspect the patient’s airway and breathing is becoming compromised.
24. Of the following, which section is omitted from a patient care report?
A: A narrative section.
B: Subjective review of your partner's actions.
C: Patient data such as vital signs, age, and sex.
D: Run data such as times, location, and unit number.
25. What does the systolic blood pressure do in response to external blood loss?
A: It remains constant.
B: It continuously decreases.
C: It initially rises and then falls.
D: It initially falls dramatically and then rises.
26. Which of the following is true regarding the delivery of the placenta?
A: It usually takes the placenta about 20 minutes to deliver.
B: You should delay transport until the placenta has delivered.
C: You should have the newborn nurse to facilitate placental delivery.
D: You should gently massage the uterus to facilitate placental delivery.
27. What is the name of the tissue that covers the outside of the lungs?
A: Parietal pleura.
B: Visceral pleura.
C: Peri-pulmonary sac.
D: Parenchymal tissue.
28. This is the largest long bone in the body.
A: Tibia.
B: Femur.
C: Radius.
D: Humerus.
29. An unresponsive 80-year-old patient has been ill for 4 days. Diet was normal until yesterday when she became very
lethargic. There's a history of diabetes and hypertension. Respirations are 32 and deep, pulse is 120. Her skin is warm
and dry. There is a sweet, fruity odor near the patient. Your FIRST impression of this patient is:
A: Stroke.
B: Drug overdose.
C: Low blood glucose.
D: High blood glucose.
30. You are preparing for a field delivery of a newborn. After preparing the area for delivery, you note the umbilical cord is
protruding through the vaginal opening, yet you see no evidence of crowning. The situation in the above scenario is
known as which of the following?
A: Breech presentation.
B: Transverse presentation.
C: Prolapsed cord.
D: Nuchal cord.
31. When you are unable to obtain an auscultated blood pressure for a baseline vital sign at an EMS scene, you should
instead use a:
A: Pulse comparison.
B: Pulse pressure analysis.
C: Palpated blood pressure.
D: Doppler-obtained blood pressure.
32. What would be your priority when you find vomit in the mouth of a supine, unconscious trauma patient?
A: Check to see if the patient has a pulse.
B: Logroll the patient on her side and clear the vomit.
C: Place a c-collar and backboard the patient prior to movement.
D: Continue with your assessment to find all life-threatening injuries.
33. What does the sign of drooling tell you about a patient that has shortness of breath?
A: Patient is losing consciousness.
B: Patient may be suffering a stroke.
C: Throat is too swollen for swallowing.
D: There are some problems with dentures.
34. You have a patient with hives, itching, watery eyes, and a runny nose. He denies difficulty breathing and his vital signs
are normal. Which of the following BEST describes this patient’s condition?
A: Inhalation poisoning.
B: Mild allergic reaction.
C: Anaphylactic reaction.
D: Severe allergic reaction.
35. You are called to a private residence around 11 pm for a child that has vomited once. The vomit looks like brown
coffee-grounds. The child is in no apparent distress. The parents tell you the child just had a tonsillectomy early this
morning and they just now brought him home from the hospital. Your plan should include:
A: Suggest the parents call the child’s surgeon in the morning.
B: Monitor the child and request an emergency response from ALS.
C: Finish the primary assessment, lay the child supine, and administer oxygen.
D: Finish assessing the child and recommend transporting him to the emergency department.
36. Which of the following, is the term used to describe a patient with a bleeding disorder?
A: Hemiplegia.
B: Hemophilia.
C: Leukemia.
D: Lymphoma.
37. At the mall you are attending a patient that was walking along and fell. The 88-year-old female is found alert,
completely responsive but has leg pain. She said she heard something snap and then she fell. It is obvious that her right
leg is rotated laterally. This position most likely indicates that she has:
A: A hip fracture.
B: A tibia fracture.
C: A sprained ankle.
D: A fibula fracture.
38. Which of the following interventions are contraindicated in infants?
A: Nasal suctioning.
B: Inserting oral pharyngeal airways.
C: Providing high concentrations of oxygen.
D: Using flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilatory devices.
39. A 25-year-old male has a puncture wound to his back close to his armpit. He advises you that it came from a flying
piece of metal that broke off a metal press. Blood loss appears minimal, but he is complaining of dyspnea. Which
treatment will be MOST appropriate?
A: Measuring his pulse oximetry to determine the seriousness.
B: Applying a bulky gauze-type dressing to the wound.
C: Applying direct pressure above the puncture wound.
D: Applying an airtight dressing to the injury site.
40. Which of the following is a primary function of the respiratory system?
A: Remove waste products.
B: Maintain blood pressure.
C: Maintain body temperature.
D: Circulate oxygen to the cells.
41. During transport of an assault victim, you discover a fist-sized hematoma has begun to form over his left lower leg.
What treatment would you initiate given this finding?
A: Elevate the leg 6-12 inches immediately.
B: Apply a sterile dressing to the site.
C: Splint the limb to reduce damage.
D: Start emergency mode transport.
42. Which of the following is the goal of quality improvement in AED usage?
A: To reprimand providers who are improperly using the AED.
B: To decrease the need for AED usage through prevention.
C: To determine if the use of an AED is beneficial.
D: To improve the timeliness of shock delivery.
43. A common complication of long-term diabetes is:
A: Blindness.
B: Cancer.
C: Deafness.
D: Alcoholism.
44. In the average adult, an increased diastolic pressure is a reflection of an increase in:
A: Preload.
B: Left ventricular pumping.
C: Pulmonary artery pressure.
D: Systemic vascular resistance.
45. You are interviewing the family of a seizure patient. Which of the following answers to your questions should give you
the greatest concern?
A: “The child had a temperature of 104 prior to the seizure."
B: “The child urinated and defecated himself during the seizure."
C: “He has stopped and started seizing three times in a row now."
D: “He has not been taking his seizure medication like he is supposed to."
46. According to the 2015 AHA Guidelines, the target for the chest compression fraction for the patient in cardiac arrest
with an unprotected airway is:
A: 15:2
B: 30:2
C: At least 40%
D: At least 60%
47. While in the back of your ambulance, you need to reach for a piece of equipment for patient care. Choose the
BEST advice when reaching for something in the back of a moving ambulance.
A: Consider twisting rather than standing.
B: Avoid locking your back into position.
C: Grab onto an overhead railing whenever possible.
D: Stop the vehicle and then remove your seatbelt.
48. You are assisting an EMT in the assessment of a trauma patient. The man was thrown out the back window of a
vehicle during the rollover crash. As you remove his bloody shirt, you see a gaping 2-inch hole in his anterior chest that is
making noises. Which of the following actions should be promptly performed?
A: Cover the hole.
B: Administer oxygen.
C: Call for assistance to the scene.
D: Point out the hole to other personnel.
49. When transporting a patient with a severe headache, what comfort measures should be provided?
A: Increasing the heat in the ambulance.
B: Offering the patient warm water to drink.
C: Turning the lights down low in the patient area.
D: Decreasing the temperature in the patient compartment.
50. At a trauma scene, you are attempting to control bleeding on a patient before beginning transport. The wound is a
laceration on the lower leg and is not that deep. You have applied direct pressure, and the patient is flat on a backboard.
Another condition that may be interfering with bleeding control would be:
A: Too much oxygen.
B: Clotting disorder.
C: Hypertension.
D: Hypotension.
51. Which scenario would most likely be deemed psychological abuse in a court of law? A family is in court because the
daughter is suspected of committing elder abuse on her father.
A: Pushing her father down the stairs or out of the bed every time she gets frustrated with him.
B: Threatening to take her father away from the home if he doesn’t follow her instructions.
C: Routinely restraining her father to his bed and wheelchair without regard for his safety.
D: Stealing and misusing her father’s money without proper permission from her father.
52. You have a patient with a fracture of the left femur, which has caused the bone end to protrude from the skin.
Which of the following associated issues is the LEAST likely to develop as a result of this injury versus if the fracture was
A: Infection.
B: Muscle spasms.
C: Hemorrhagic shock.
D: Compartment syndrome.
53. You are treating a 70-year-old male with a history of treated hypertension who is now experiencing hemorrhagic
shock. Which of these will interfere with their ability to compensate?
A: Tough, non-elastic blood vessels.
B: Medications such as beta-blockers.
C: No stored energy to speed up the heart.
D: The body does not sense the loss of blood.
54. How much blood can be lost from closed bilateral femur fractures and lower leg fractures?
A: 1 liter.
B: 2 liters.
C: 3 liters.
D: 4 liters.
55. You are dispatched to the local dialysis office and the nearest ALS unit is unavailable. The charge nurse says the
dialysis patient had some chest pain and suddenly became disoriented. She discontinued dialysis and wants the patient
transported to the hospital. What are your interventions for this patient?
A: Assess the patient, apply 4 lpm oxygen, and ask the nurse if she administered nitro.
B: Begin ventilations and perform an assessment being very careful to avoid any ports.
C: Assess the patient, avoid taking a blood pressure on the arm with the shunt, and provide high flow oxygen.
D: Assess the patient, determine if the patient has equal blood pressures in each arm, and provide supplemental oxygen.
56. Which of the following is the best method for a person to access the EMS system?
A: Calling 911 on a land line.
B: Calling the dispatcher directly.
C: Calling the ambulance company directly.
D: Calling the 7-digit number for the police.
57. Your partner is performing rescue ventilations. How often should he breathe for the adult patient?
A: Once every 2 seconds.
B: Once every 3 seconds.
C: Once every 4 seconds.
D: Once every 5 seconds.
58. Which of the following is a true statement regarding Type I diabetes mellitus?
A: Obesity plays a role in development of the disease.
B: It can usually be treated with a modification in diet.
C: It is more common than Type II diabetes.
D: It typically has a juvenile onset.
59. You are called to an adult foster care home to care for an 80-year-old patient in distress. The patient is in the dining
area. He is leaning forward in his chair while supported by his arms on the table in front of him. He is red in the face and
drooling copiously. As you introduce yourself and begin to ask questions, many people, including the patient attempt to
explain that his tongue is swollen. He was eating dinner and he could feel it begin to swell. He is now starting to cough.
You can see his tongue sticking out of his mouth and it is very swollen. You believe the cause of this problem is:
A: Stroke.
B: Bee sting.
C: Food allergy.
D: Food poisoning.
60. Which of the following would be the BEST resource for learning about issues and trends in EMS?
A: Read your textbook.
B: Attend EMS conferences.
C: Read your local newspapers.
D: Watch the news on television.
61. Which of these skin assessment findings would be the MOST consistent with cardiac compromise?
A: Red.
B: Pale.
C: Mottled.
D: Cyanotic.
62. You are called to treat a patient who is having an anaphylactic reaction to antigen exposure. Which of the following is
a LATE sign of the anaphylactic reaction?
A: Urticaria.
B: Wheezing.
C: Increase in gastric motility.
D: Decrease in blood pressure.
63. Which of the following is a late sign of hemorrhagic shock?
A: Nausea and vomiting.
B: An altered mental status.
C: Pale, cool, and clammy skin.
D: A decreasing blood pressure.
64. When a patient has a history of developing hives following a bee sting, there is a concern with a new sting incident
A: More hives will develop each time.
B: The patient will adjust to the reaction and not care for it.
C: The patient will itch the skin open increasing risk of infection.
D: Each reaction is worse than the last and could develop into anaphylaxis.
65. What is the name of the first portion of the small bowel where it connects to the stomach?
A: Cecum.
B: Duodenum.
C: Ileum.
D: Jejunum.
66. You are treating a patient complaining of right upper quadrant abdominal pain. The patient is also complaining of pain
in her right shoulder. She has vomited twice prior to your arrival and states she had very spicy food for dinner. Which of
the following would you suspect based on the above information?
A: Appendicitis.
B: Cholecystitis.
C: Pancreatitis.
D: Hepatitis.
67. What type of shock would profound hypoglycemia cause?
A: Hypovolemic.
B: Neurogenic.
C: Obstructive.
D: Psychogenic.
68. What would be the best description of an abdominal evisceration?
A: Laceration.
B: Impaled object.
C: Protruding organs.
D: Penetrating wounds.
69. You are preparing to transport a 30-year-old female who is semi-responsive, confused, and talking. You suspect she
is having some type of diabetic reaction. What would be the FIRST step in treating this patient properly?
A: Repeat vital signs every 15 minutes.
B: Administer instant glucose orally.
C: Insert an oropharyngeal airway.
D: Administer oxygen.
70. Which of the following is the BEST reason to focus on personal safety while working as an EMS provider?
A: Your injury could cause your career to end.
B: You cannot help others if you become a patient.
C: Injury to EMS personnel is one of the greatest detractors to recruitment and retention.
D: Injury to EMS personnel is a violation of OSHA guidelines and carries significant penalties.
71. What should you do FIRST if the amniotic sac is still intact as the head is delivered?
A: Immediately transport the mother.
B: Cut the sac open with your scalpel.
C: Use your fingers to puncture the sac.
D: Continue with the delivery, as this is normal.
72. Which of the following BEST describes the term aphasia?
A: The patient cannot speak.
B: The patient cannot swallow.
C: The patient is weak on one side.
D: The patient cannot feel one side.
73. If you were to find someone lying on her back, which of the following terms would you use to describe her position?
A: Dorsal.
B: Prone.
C: Recumbent.
D: Supine.
74. What is the MOST important role an EMT plays in the emergency cardiac care system relating to a cardiac arrest
A: Early defibrillation.
B: Early access.
C: Early CPR.
75. You arrive to a school to treat a child with a sports injury. The sixteen-year-old-male was playing basketball and was
hit in the nose. The child’s nose is bleeding heavily and the coach is holding an ice bag under the nose. You take over
treatment and identify the correct treatment would be to:
A: Lay the child down to prevent shock.
B: Hold pressure on both sides of the nose.
C: Continue with the ice bag under the nose.
D: Place them on the side so blood is not swallowed.
76. You and your partner are preparing to use an AED for a patient in cardiac arrest. You have turned on a machine that
is capable of analyzing rhythms while compressions are occurring, attached the electrodes, and just pressed the analyze
button. What should you do NEXT?
A: Verify no pulse.
B: Provide ventilations.
C: Shock the patient.
D: Continue compressions.
77. You have a patient with a lacerated radial artery. Which of the following techniques will have the greatest likelihood of
success in controlling the hemorrhage with the least amount of potential complications?
A: Elevation of the injured extremity.
B: Direct pressure applied to the laceration.
C: Application of a tourniquet proximal to the injury.
D: Application of pressure to the proximal pressure point.
78. Your partner assesses a homeless person’s level of consciousness by kicking the patient. Which of the following
areas of personal conduct and attitude did your partner fail to demonstrate?
A: Resourceful.
B: A self-starter.
C: Emotionally stable.
D: Non-judgmental and fair.
79. You have responded to a patient with a suspected heroin overdose. Which of the following signs and symptoms would
you MOST likely expect?
A: Excitement, dilated pupils, and rapid heart rate.
B: Tachypnea, dilated pupils, and excessive salivation.
C: Depressed respirations, constricted pupils, and excited speech pattern.
D: Depressed respirations, lowered level of consciousness, and constricted pupils.
80. Which of the following is the correct order for water rescue?
A: Reach, throw, row, and go.
B: Throw, reach, row, and go.
C: Go, throw, reach, and row.
D: Row, throw, reach, and go.
81. During your treatment of a patient, you perform a treatment incorrectly. For which of the four parts of a negligence
case are you potentially guilty?
A: Duty to act.
B: The patient received an injury.
C: Your actions led to an injury.
D: Failure to meet the standard of care.
82. You have just placed a female who is 9-months-pregnant on a back board. The patient was stable prior to this and
was complaining of back pain. She is now unresponsive, is breathing rapidly, and has a weak, rapid pulse. Which of the
following is your MOST immediate priority?
A: Administer high-flow oxygen.
B: Tilt the board onto the patient’s left side.
C: Place an oral airway and begin ventilating.
D: Place the patient in a Trendelenburg position.
83. You are assessing a female patient who has labored breathing. Choose the BEST description of this finding.
A: Average chest wall movement.
B: Slight chest-abdominal wall expansion.
C: Increased wheezing or grunting.
D: Increased use of accessory muscles.
84. During your scene size-up, you confirm there is only one patient who is lying in a left lateral recumbent position. Which
finding should compel the rescuers to exit immediately?
A: Sounds of a couple fighting next door.
B: Patient lying next to shards of broken glass.
C: Witnesses yelling at you, “Hurry up, he’s dying!”
D: An odor smelling like mixed cleaning solutions.
85. You are describing how a new EMS provider should deal with subtle differences between the young patient and the
old. Identify the statement that is MOST accurate regarding patient assessment of these two categories of patients.
A: Geriatric patients require you to differentiate chronic problems from acute concerns.
B: Older patients may require a more authoritative tone to follow your instructions.
C: Younger patients will respond more favorably to kindness than older patients.
D: Assessing a younger patient is always easier than assessing an older patient.
86. A quality improvement review process of AED use in a particular EMS system is being performed. The auditor will look
at which of the following after every cardiac arrest case?
A: Voice recordings and EKGs in memory.
B: EKGs in memory and witness testimony.
C: Witness testimony and written reports.
D: Written reports and medical history.
87. Which of the following would describe an attribute for increasing effectiveness and efficiency in verbal
A: Speaking as quickly as possible.
B: Using abbreviations and codes.
C: Being genuine, sincere, and honest.
D: Using medical terminology frequently.
88. Why should you evaluate scene safety yourself even when the police have secured the scene?
A: Your arrival may anger the patient or bystanders.
B: The police are less at risk regarding safety issues.
C: The police are not as well trained regarding scene safety.
D: The scene may have changed since the police first arrived.
89. Your 27-year-old male patient was involved in a running event and suddenly developed leg and abdominal pain.
Which of the following BEST describes this situation?
A: Heat cramps secondary to a loss of fluids.
B: Heat exhaustion secondary to a loss of fluids.
C: Heat cramps secondary to an electrolyte imbalance.
D: Heat exhaustion secondary to an electrolyte imbalance.
90. Which of the following are TRUE about proper use of a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)?
A: Measurement prior to insertion is optional.
B: Lubricate the NPA with a water-based lubricant.
C: It is only inserted into the right nostril.
D: Leave in place if the patient begins gagging.
91. A diabetic young man is involved in a motor vehicle collision where he was at fault. After you learn of his diabetic
history, your primary concern now is the:
A: Possibility of low blood glucose.
B: Possibility of high blood glucose.
C: Influence of mind-altering drugs.
D: Assessment for the signs of a stroke.
92. Which of the following assessments are the MOST important when performing the complete secondary assessment
(detailed physical exam)?
A: Assessing the cervical spine.
B: Identifying any non-life-threatening injuries.
C: Identifying any life-threatening injuries not previously identified.
D: The complete secondary assessment should not be interrupted for treatment.
93. You have determined your unresponsive patient has a pulse, is breathing, and you have manually opened the airway.
Which of the following is the appropriate method for determining whether the patient has adequate breathing?
A: Insert an airway.
B: Look, listen, and feel.
C: Listen to breath sounds.
D: Watch for equal chest rise.
94. You have already placed oxygen by non-rebreather on your pregnant patient that is at the end of her second trimester.
During transport she begins tonic-clonic seizures. Referring to the above scenario, what would you expect the patient's
blood pressure to be?
A: 120/80.
B: 90/70.
C: 180/120.
D: 60/ 40.
95. You determine that a patient is non-compliant with taking her medications because she is unable to pay for them. You
are aware of community resources available to help her. What is the BEST advice if she refuses transport?
A: While on scene, attempt to locate a clinic that serves the poor.
B: Transport the patient against her will to the emergency room.
C: Contact medical control for a suggestion on what you should do.
D: Give the patient a personal donation to help offset the costs.
96. Your patient complains of coughing up blood. He is a new resident at a homeless shelter and the staff says he has
trouble sleeping as well as trouble breathing. His skin is cool and diaphoretic. What does this information tell you?
A: He probably has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
B: There is significant evidence he has throat/lung cancer.
C: He should be treated like he could have a communicable disease.
D: This patient is likely just looking for a free ride or pain medications.
97. Being “profoundly hypotensive” would best be described by which statement?
A: A blood pressure of 90/50.
B: A patient with a weak radial pulse.
C: A blood pressure insufficient to perfuse vital organs.
D: A patient who has just gone into decompensated shock.
98. When should an oxygen tank be replaced with a new one?
A: When the tank is empty.
B: After every patient usage.
C: When the pressure drops to 50 psi.
D: When the pressure drops to 200 psi.
99. Visceral pain usually starts in which of the following?
A: The walls of solid organs.
B: The walls of hollow organs.
C: Autonomic nerve fibers.
D: Organs that are bleeding.
100. You are treating a patient who is coughing up blood and has a high fever. Which of the following would be the
MOST appropriate protective equipment to use in this case?
A: Mask.
B: Gown.
C: Foot protection.
D: Eye protection.